SeaSources.net, Training for Mariners. The First with Online Study for the Maritime Industry. Multiple Choice Quizzes with Illustrations for United States Coast Guard Exam Preparation Assistance.       

Click Here to Begin Preparing for Your License in the Online Study.

This page is just a preview of the new Coast Guard question database. To test yourself on these questions click on Enter online study link above.

Click here to see detailed video instructions on using SeaSources.net online license preparation.

Engineering Safety and Environmental Protection 08_25_15 from 08/25/2015 for as of March 14 2014 Regulations.

Home Page       Exam Question Downloads    Download TesTTaker Software    Free Sample Downloads   Maritime Links     Member Comments      Contact SeaSources  Boat Jobs Available

 

QMED QUESTIONS
1. (1.7.9.1-1) All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT.
Answer A: heat
Answer B: electricity
Answer C: oxygen
Answer D: fuel
 
2. (1.7.2.1-9) Which of the following shoring materials is used to tightly make up the difference in length of a shore cut slightly shorter than the measured distance for required length and must be frequently checked for tightness?
Answer A: Shole
Answer B: Strong back
Answer C: Wedge
Answer D: Beam
 
3. (1.7.2.1-2) Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoring? Illustration SF-0016
Answer A: A
Answer B: B
Answer C: C
Answer D: D
 
4. (1.7.2.1-1) After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring.
Answer A: approximately 1/2 inch shorter than measured length to allow for the use of wedges
Answer B: to the same length as the measured length
Answer C: approximately 1/2 inch longer than measured length to allow for trimming
Answer D: approximately 1/2 inch shorter per foot of shoring to allow for wet expansion
 
5. (1.7.2.1-3) Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to.
Answer A: prevent fractures from spreading
Answer B: support a damaged bulkhead in position
Answer C: force a warped bulkhead back into its normal position
Answer D: force a sprung bulkhead back into place
 
6. (1.7.2.1-6) Which of the following shoring materials is a portable beam designed to support a damaged structure?
Answer A: Shore
Answer B: Wedge
Answer C: Shole
Answer D: Strong back
 
7. (1.7.2.1-7) Which of the following shoring materials is a short flat block that is placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure?
Answer A: Beam
Answer B: Strong back
Answer C: Shole
Answer D: Wedge
 
8. (1.7.2.1-8) Which of the following shoring materials is a long bar or beam used to distribute the pressure of a shore?
Answer A: Wedge
Answer B: Strong back
Answer C: Shole
Answer D: Beam
 
9. (1.7.9.3.3-4) Class C fires may be combated using a.
Answer A: carbon dioxide extinguisher
Answer B: Halon extinguisher
Answer C: dry chemical extinguisher
Answer D: all of the above
 
10. (1.7.9.3.3-5) Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?
Answer A: Susceptible to reflash
Answer B: Explosion
Answer C: Electrocution or shock
Answer D: Deep seated fire
 
11. (1.7.9.3.3-1) To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or.
Answer A: dry chemical
Answer B: chemical foam
Answer C: chemically treated saw dust
Answer D: mechanical foam
 
12. (1.7.9.3.3 -2) A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, is considered a
Answer A: class "A" fire
Answer B: class "B" fire
Answer C: class "C" fire
Answer D: class "D" fire
 
13. (1.7.9.2.2-1) The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system is an example of heat transfer by.
Answer A: conduction
Answer B: radiation
Answer C: windage
Answer D: convection
 
14. (1.7.9.2.2-2) To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should.
Answer A: cool the bulkhead around the fire
Answer B: close all openings to the area
Answer C: shut off electrical power
Answer D: remove combustibles from direct exposure
 
15. (1.7.3.1.1-3) You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?
Answer A: Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.
Answer B: Re-tip the head and try again.
Answer C: Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction.
Answer D: Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.
 
16. (1.7.3.1.1-6) You are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a victim of electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a recommended procedure?
Answer A: Placing the victim on his or her back and exposing the chest.
Answer B: Giving cardiac massage without artificial respiration.
Answer C: Rocking so that a controlled amount of body weight goes through your arms and hand to their breastbone.
Answer D: Placing one hand across victim's breastbone so that the heel of the hand covers the lower part.
 
17. (1.7.3.1.1-4) In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim,.
Answer A: start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water
Answer B: begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations
Answer C: drain water from the lungs before ventilating
Answer D: do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting
 
18. (1.7.3.1.1-1) When administering chest compression during CPR, at what part of the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
Answer A: Top half of the sternum
Answer B: Lower half of the sternum
Answer C: Left chest over the heart
Answer D: Right chest over the heart
 
19. (1.7.3.1.1-5) The MOST important element in administering CPR is.
Answer A: having the proper equipment for the process
Answer B: starting the treatment quickly
Answer C: administering of oxygen
Answer D: treating for shock
 
20. (1.7.3.1.1-2) Before CPR is started on the victim, you should.
Answer A: make the victim comfortable
Answer B: establish an open airway
Answer C: treat any bleeding wounds
Answer D: insure the victim is conscious
 
21. (1.7.2.4-1) In an emergency, a hole in the hull below the waterline, not over three inches in diameter, can be temporarily sealed by.
Answer A: welding over a plate patch
Answer B: using a soft wooden plug
Answer C: stuffing a mattress in the hole
Answer D: rigging a collision mat
 
22. (1.7.2.4-2) It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges.
Answer A: will work loose
Answer B: will splinter
Answer C: tend to open the crack
Answer D: will pull through the plating
 
23. (1.7.2.4-4) An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to
Answer A: shore up the crack with welded braces
Answer B: drill holes at each end
Answer C: tack weld a doubler plate over the crack
Answer D: apply a patch of sheet packing backed by a strong back or shoring
 
24. (1.7.4.8.2 -5) The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is.
Answer A: manually disengaged when hoisting a boat
Answer B: applied by dropping the counterweighted lever
Answer C: controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism
Answer D: automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive
 
25. (1.7.4.8.2-8) When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat should.
Answer A: enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling
Answer B: stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted
Answer C: remove their life jackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter
Answer D: remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability
 
26. (1.7.4.8.2-9) In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly.
Answer A: the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne
Answer B: the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly
Answer C: there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube
Answer D: the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned counter-clockwise
 
27. (1.7.4.8.2-10) Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red?
Answer A: Hatches
Answer B: Releasing gear lever
Answer C: Boat hooks
Answer D: Compass
 
28. (1.7.4.8.2-6) Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat?
Answer A: To prevent the davits from pulling up against the stops.
Answer B: To assist in raising the lifeboat when using the hand crank.
Answer C: To keep the tricing lines from releasing or getting tangled.
Answer D: To stop the lifeboat from being lowered.
 
29. (1.7.4.8.2-11) Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?
Answer A: The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links.
Answer B: The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew.
Answer C: A water spay system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual pump.
Answer D: A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air for the survivors and the diesel engine.
 
30. (1.7.4.8.2-3) When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines.
Answer A: on only the forward falls
Answer B: on only the after falls
Answer C: fore and aft with a lead of about 45 to the boat
Answer D: from the falls to the tricing gear
 
31. (1.7.4.8.2-1) In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number. Illustration SF-0043
Answer A: 3
Answer B: 6
Answer C: 7
Answer D: 9
 
32. (1.7.4.8.2-7) The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to_
Answer A: keep the movement of the davits at the same speed
Answer B: keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed position
Answer C: prevent vibration during lowering of the boat
Answer D: support the manropes
 
33. (1.7.9.3.4-4) "Dry Powder" fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire?
Answer A: Class C
Answer B: Class B
Answer C: Class D
Answer D: all of the above
 
34. (1.7.9.3.4 -2) A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class .
Answer A: "A" fire
Answer B: "B" fire
Answer C: "C" fire
Answer D: "D" fire
 
35. (1.7.9.3.4-1) A class "D" fire would involve the burning of
Answer A: magnesium
Answer B: diesel oil
Answer C: electrical insulation
Answer D: dunnage
 
36. (1.7.3.6-1) A crew member has suffered possible frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should
Answer A: warm the feet at room temperature
Answer B: rub the feet to restore circulation
Answer C: warm the feet with a heat lamp
Answer D: immerse the feet in warm water
 
37. (1.7.3.6-4) Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred method of rewarming?
Answer A: Rubbing and massaging the feet.
Answer B: Immersion of the feet in water between 104oF to 107.6oF.
Answer C: Exposure of the feet to an open flame or fire.
Answer D: Having the patient walk.
 
38. (1.7.3.6-2) Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred temperature of rewarming when using the wet rapid rewarming method?
Answer A: Immersing the feet in an adequate amount of water maintained between 34oF to 37.6oF.
Answer B: Immersing the feet in an adequate amount of water maintained between 94oF to 97.6oF.
Answer C: Immersing the feet in an adequate amount of water maintained between 104oF to 107.6oF.
Answer D: Immersing the feet in an adequate amount of water maintained between 144oF to 147.6oF.
 
39. (1.7.11.6-2) If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free,.
Answer A: breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as you would only be in the tank a short time
Answer B: a man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather, as vapors are less volatile
Answer C: entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank since petroleum vapors are heavier than air
Answer D: breathing apparatus should always be used
 
40. (1.7.11.6-5) A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is.
Answer A: free of most flammable gas concentrations
Answer B: thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours
Answer C: inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours
Answer D: free of all dangerous concentrations of flammable or toxic gases
 
41. (1.7.11.6-1) What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?
Answer A: The tanks which are safe to enter when the certificate was issued.
Answer B: The quality of the barge's cargo.
Answer C: The barge's stability information.
Answer D: The number of fire extinguishers required onboard.
 
42. (1.7.11.6 -3) A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of.
Answer A: all flammable liquids
Answer B: flammable or toxic gases
Answer C: residues from cargo oil
Answer D: any combustible liquid
 
43. (1.7.3.3-4) A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by.
Answer A: laying the person flat on his back
Answer B: gently flooding with water
Answer C: warming the eye with moist warm packs
Answer D: mineral oil drops directly on the eye
 
44. (1.7.3.3-1) A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?
Answer A: Third degree burn
Answer B: Lethal burn
Answer C: Second degree burn
Answer D: Dermal burn
 
45. (1.7.3.3 -5) Severe airway burns will cause.
Answer A: nausea
Answer B: reddening of cheeks
Answer C: complete obstruction of respiratory passages
Answer D: nosebleed
 
46. (1.7.3.3-2) When treating a person for third degree burns, you should.
Answer A: make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation
Answer B: break blisters and remove dead tissue
Answer C: submerge the burn area in cold water
Answer D: cover the burns with thick sterile dressing
 
47. (1.7.3.3-7) Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to.
Answer A: brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area
Answer B: flood the burn with water for two minutes
Answer C: apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth
Answer D: cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility
 
48. (1.7.3.3-6) The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately.
Answer A: apply an ice pack to the burned area
Answer B: wrap the burn with sterile dressing
Answer C: flood the affected area with water
Answer D: apply ointment to burned area
 
49. (1.7.11.4-3) Which health hazard term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body tissue on contact?
Answer A: Cryogenic
Answer B: Freeze hazard
Answer C: Cyanosis
Answer D: Freon hazard
 
50. (1.7.11.4-2) A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a.
Answer A: Material Safety Data Sheet
Answer B: Hazardous Chemical Information Sheet
Answer C: Hazardous Chemical Loading Document
Answer D: Physical/Chemical Characteristics Document
 
51. (1.7.11.4-1) What term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to describe a chemical that can produce a life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazard?
Answer A: Moderate toxicity
Answer B: High toxicity
Answer C: Recommended toxicity
Answer D: Low toxicity
 
52. (1.7.4.5-1) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?
Answer A: Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets.
Answer B: Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water.
Answer C: Life jackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly.
Answer D: Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used.
 
53. (1.7.4.5-2) Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be.
Answer A: used as seats, pillows, or foot rests
Answer B: left on open decks
Answer C: stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted
Answer D: all of the above
 
54. (1.7.5.5-1) To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST.
Answer A: open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
Answer B: start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
Answer C: open block valves, then start the cargo pump
Answer D: open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
 
55. (1.7.5.5-2) Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as.
Answer A: segregated ballast
Answer B: dirty ballast
Answer C: crude oil
Answer D: clean ballast
 
56. (1.7.5.4-2) The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in.
Answer A: barrels, measured in 55 gallon drums
Answer B: cubic meters
Answer C: weight in either kilogram or pounds
Answer D: cubic yards convertible to long tons
 
57. (1.7.4.8.3 -4) An 'on-load' release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released
Answer A: only when activated by the controls at the lowering station
Answer B: only when the load is taken off the cable
Answer C: only there is a load on the cable
Answer D: at any time
 
58. (1.7.4.8.3-12) Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?
Answer A: Roustabout
Answer B: First man aboard
Answer C: Last man aboard
Answer D: Helmsman
 
59. (1.7.4.8.3-1 3) When collecting condensation for drinking water, .
Answer A: a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free
Answer B: only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collected
Answer C: it should be strained through a finely woven cloth
Answer D: chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable
 
60. (1.7.4.8.3-6) To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you
Answer A: put it into a container of water
Answer B: tear off the tabs on the canister
Answer C: turn it upside down
Answer D: push 'on' button
 
61. (1.7.4.3.8-9) Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will
Answer A: reduce your drift rate
Answer B: keep the survival craft from turning over
Answer C: aid in recovering the survival craft
Answer D: increase your visibility
 
62. (1.7.4.8.3 -3) When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for
Answer A: personnel air supply
Answer B: additional flotation
Answer C: priming the sprinkler system
Answer D: filling the self-righting bags
 
63. (1.7.4.8.3-5) When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the.
Answer A: sea anchor is deployed
Answer B: hydraulic starting system has been drained
Answer C: hydraulic pressure is within the specified range
Answer D: steering controls are locked
 
64. (1.7.4.8.3-14) Provided every effort is used to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive in a survival craft without stored quantities of water?
Answer A: Up to 3 days
Answer B: Up to 14 days
Answer C: Up to 25 days
Answer D: Up to 35 days
 
65. (1.7.4.8.3-2) A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel
Answer A: are seated with seatbelts on and doors shut
Answer B: are seated with seatbelts on and doors open
Answer C: are to shift to one side to right it
Answer D: escape from the craft
 
66. (1.7.4.8.3-8) While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped.
Answer A: when the craft clears the water
Answer B: when the cable has been attached
Answer C: on approach to the platform
Answer D: at the embarkation
 
67. (1.7.4.8.3-10) The survival craft engine is fueled with.
Answer A: kerosene
Answer B: unleaded gasoline
Answer C: diesel oil
Answer D: liquefied gas
 
68. (1.7.4.8.3-7) When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should.
Answer A: tie up to the rescue vessel
Answer B: transfer only those personnel who are not seasick
Answer C: wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
Answer D: transfer all personnel immediately
 
69. (1.7.4.8.3-11) With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from.
Answer A: a nuclear environment
Answer B: a fire and toxic environment
Answer C: a hurricane
Answer D: a drop greater than ten feet
 
70. (1.7.8.2 -2) In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by.
Answer A: conduction
Answer B: radiation
Answer C: ventilation
Answer D: convection
 
71. (1.7.8.2-1) It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to.
Answer A: cool the metal below its ignition temperature
Answer B: form a dense coating of smothering steam
Answer C: prevent oxygen from reaching the flames
Answer D: prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat
 
72. (1.7.10.2-1) If you see an individual fall overboard, you should.
Answer A: hail 'Man Overboard'
Answer B: throw a life ring overboard
Answer C: pass the word to the bridge
Answer D: all of the above
 
73. (1.7.9.2.1-1) In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by. Illustration SF-0013
Answer A: radiation
Answer B: impingement
Answer C: convection
Answer D: conduction
 
74. (1.7.3.7.2 -4) In which of the following heat related illnesses has the body lost its ability to regulate the body core temperature?
Answer A: Heat prostration
Answer B: Heat stroke
Answer C: Heat exhaustion
Answer D: Heat cramps
 
75. (1.7.3.7.2-1) Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke?
Answer A: cold and moist skin, high body temperature
Answer B: cold and dry skin, low body temperature
Answer C: hot and moist skin, high body temperature
Answer D: hot and dry skin, high body temperature
 
76. (1.7.3.7.2 -6) In which of the following heat related illnesses has the individual lost the ability to lose heat through the mechanism of sweating?
Answer A: Heat cramps
Answer B: Heat exhaustion
Answer C: Heat stroke
Answer D: Heat prostration
 
77. (1.7.3.7.2-3) Which of the following heat related illnesses would be considered the most life threatening?
Answer A: Heat cramps
Answer B: Heat prostration
Answer C: Heat exhaustion
Answer D: Heat stroke
 
78. (1.7.3.7.2-2) Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?
Answer A: Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, and skin is clammy.
Answer B: Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, and skin is hot and dry.
Answer C: Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, and skin is cold and clammy.
Answer D: Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, and skin is clammy.
 
79. (1.7.3.1.3-3) The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called
Answer A: triage
Answer B: evaluation
Answer C: surveying
Answer D: prioritizing
 
80. (1.7.3.1.3-4) In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to
Answer A: accurately diagnose the ailment or injury
Answer B: provide the necessary medication
Answer C: prescribe treatment for the victim
Answer D: rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries
 
81. (1.7.3.1.3-6) If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must.
Answer A: avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance during movement
Answer B: pull the victim by the feet
Answer C: place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal
Answer D: not move the victim to another location until all injuries have been assessed
 
82. (1.7.3.1.3-7) Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?
Answer A: Compare the corresponding parts of the body.
Answer B: Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body.
Answer C: Look for discoloration of the patient's skin.
Answer D: Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body.
 
83. (1.7.3.1.3-8) While you are fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment one of your shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and ceases breathing. Your FIRST response should be to
Answer A: remove him from the compartment
Answer B: begin artificial respiration
Answer C: control the bleeding
Answer D: treat for shock
 
84. (1.7.3.1.3-9) You have found a person laying prone and not breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim. Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do?
Answer A: Leave the accident scene and summon medical assistance.
Answer B: Immediately begin artificial respiration.
Answer C: Immediately begin cardiac massage.
Answer D: Shut off power or remove the wire from the victim.
 
85. (1.7.3.1.3-2) When administering first aid you should avoid.
Answer A: unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
Answer B: instructing bystanders
Answer C: touching the patient
Answer D: any conversation with the patient
 
86. (1.7.3.1.3-1 0) You are making a round of the engine room and approaching the motor driven cargo pumps and discover a person laying at the foot of the ladder. What action should be taken?
Answer A: Immediately enter the area to see if the person is conscious.
Answer B: Leave the scene and continue on your watch rounds.
Answer C: Send the QMED to the area and have him determine if the person appears conscious.
Answer D: Promptly notify the deck watch officer.
 
87. (1.7.4.1.3-2) Clean air standards, referred to as 'Grade D', apply to compressed air for use in
Answer A: driving air powered plunger pumps
Answer B: high-pressure fluid accumulators
Answer C: filling open circuit breathing systems
Answer D: bladder type accumulators
 
88. (1.7.3.1.4-4) When administering mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?
Answer A: 4
Answer B: 8
Answer C: 12
Answer D: 20
 
89. (1.7.3.1.4-3) The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and.
Answer A: holding the jaw down firmly
Answer B: keeping the head elevated
Answer C: cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
Answer D: applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
 
90. (1.7.3.1.4-2) If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is.
Answer A: ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation
Answer B: switch to mouth-to-mouth ventilation
Answer C: pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation
Answer D: turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume CPR
 
91. (1.7.3.1.4-1) Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of
Answer A: drowning
Answer B: poisoning
Answer C: electrocution
Answer D: all of the above
 
92. (1.7.4.1.1-6) The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses
Answer A: the regulator in an emergency
Answer B: oxygen to the atmosphere
Answer C: the regenerator in an emergency
Answer D: a breathing bag containing excessive pressure
 
93. (1.7.4.1.1-1) What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds?
Answer A: Immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
Answer B: Open the bypass valve on the regulator and immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
Answer C: Move the tank selector lever to the full tank position and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again.
Answer D: Move the reserve lever to the 'reserve' position on the regulator and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again.
 
94. (1.7.4.1.1-2) Which unit will provide excellent mobility to the wearer in an unsafe atmosphere and provide oxygen to sustain life?
Answer A: A self-contained breathing apparatus
Answer B: An ammonia gas mask
Answer C: A fresh air breathing apparatus
Answer D: All of the above
 
95. (1.7.4.1.1-9) Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?
Answer A: Canister type mask.
Answer B: Self-contained breathing apparatus.
Answer C: Dust or gas mask.
Answer D: Wet handkerchief.
 
96. (1.7.4.1.1-3) Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering a closed compartment to fight a fire?
Answer A: The fire produces smoke, which contains toxic gases that cause breathing difficulties and irritation of the respiratory tract.
Answer B: The fire consumes oxygen which may lead to asphyxiation.
Answer C: The fire produces carbon monoxide which causes an oxygen deficiency in the brain and body, leading quickly to death.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
97. (1.7.4.1.1 -7) The safe and efficient use of the face piece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by.
Answer A: the stowing of the face piece
Answer B: the donning of the face piece
Answer C: the maintenance of the face piece
Answer D: all of the above
 
98. (1.7.6.3-1) The Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and.
Answer A: work schedule
Answer B: the time each weekly drill will be held
Answer C: all emergency signals
Answer D: instructions for lowering the survival capsule
 
99. (1.7.7.3.3-8) An extinguishing agent which effectively cools dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is.
Answer A: dry chemical
Answer B: water fog
Answer C: carbon dioxide
Answer D: Halon 1301
 
100. (1.7.7.3.3-1) A low velocity fog applicator is held in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by.
Answer A: a spring-loaded catch
Answer B: a locknut
Answer C: a keeper screw
Answer D: water pressure
 
101. (1.7.7.3.3-6) Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a.
Answer A: smothering agent
Answer B: barrier against radiant heat
Answer C: cooling agent
Answer D: all of the above
 
102. (1.7.5.1-1) As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will
Answer A: decrease
Answer B: increase
Answer C: remain the same
Answer D: none of the above
 
103. (1.7.5.1-10) A ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the.
Answer A: sounding tube to either side of the tank
Answer B: top of the sounding tube down to the surface of the liquid
Answer C: top of the tank down to the bottom of the tank
Answer D: top of the liquid down to the tank bottom
 
104. (1.7.5.1-6) During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should_
Answer A: secure operations until the exact type of oil is determined
Answer B: make an entry in the oil record book to that effect
Answer C: notify the Coast Guard
Answer D: all of the above
 
105. (1.7.5.1 -12) When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should
Answer A: remove plugs from scuppers and wash fuel overboard with water
Answer B: use absorbent material, such as sawdust, to clean up the spill
Answer C: remove plugs from scuppers and wash the fuel overboard with a solvent
Answer D: remove plugs from scuppers to allow the spill to run overboard and wipe the area dry with rags
 
106. (1.7.5.1-11) During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the.
Answer A: person in charge
Answer B: master
Answer C: chief engineer
Answer D: terminal operator
 
107. (1.7.5.1 -2) Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark?
Answer A: Using a cargo hose with a built in electrical bonding wire.
Answer B: Connecting a bonding wire between the shore side piping and the vessel.
Answer C: Placing an insulating flange or a section of non-conducting hose in the hose setup.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
108. (1.7.5.1-5) To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should
Answer A: reduce the loading rate when topping off
Answer B: fill one tank at a time
Answer C: close the tank filling valves quickly
Answer D: top off all tanks at the same time
 
109. (1.7.5.1-4) When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be
Answer A: drained into drip pans or tanks
Answer B: stowed with their ends open for venting
Answer C: steam cleaned and flushed with hot water
Answer D: blown down with inert gas
 
110. (1.7.5.1-9) The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the.
Answer A: tanks are being topped off
Answer B: pumping operation is first started
Answer C: system is being lined up
Answer D: hose joints are made up
 
111. (1.7.4.6-1) The sea painter on a rescue boat should be led.
Answer A: forward and outside of all obstructions
Answer B: forward and inside of all obstructions
Answer C: up and down from the main deck
Answer D: to the foremost point on the vessel
 
112. (1.7.11.5.1-2) In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be.
Answer A: gas free
Answer B: full of cargo
Answer C: opened to the atmosphere for ventilation
Answer D: inerted
 
113. (1.7.11.5.1 -1) A crude oil wash (COW) system is considered as.
Answer A: a Butterworth system using crude oil instead of water as the cleaning medium
Answer B: a mechanism which filters and purifies crude oil
Answer C: a water operated Butterworth system
Answer D: a cleanup for pump room bilges
 
114. (1.7.11.5.1-3) Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing.
Answer A: a higher temperature
Answer B: a higher pressure jet
Answer C: the solvent effect of the crude oil
Answer D: none of the above
 
115. (1.7.3.4.1-1) If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased breathing, you should
Answer A: administer oxygen
Answer B: immediately start CPR
Answer C: make the victim comfortable in a bunk
Answer D: immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
 
116. (1.7.3.11-6) What type of wound is most susceptible to a tetanus (lockjaw) infection?
Answer A: Abrasion
Answer B: Incision
Answer C: Laceration
Answer D: Puncture
 
117. (1.7.3.11-3) A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should
Answer A: pull it out with pliers
Answer B: push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook
Answer C: have a surgeon remove it
Answer D: cut the skin from around the hook
 
118. (1.7.3.11-2) First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to.
Answer A: stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
Answer B: apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it
Answer C: apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops
Answer D: lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops
 
119. (1.7.3.11-5) What type of wound is generally associated with a scraping away of the skin and may be very painful?
Answer A: Incision
Answer B: Abrasion
Answer C: Contusion
Answer D: Laceration
 
120. (1.7.3.2-3) In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by
Answer A: applying a tourniquet
Answer B: cooling the wound with ice
Answer C: applying direct pressure
Answer D: submerging the wound in lukewarm water
 
121. (1.7.3.2-10) What method of controlling severe bleeding is preferred and normally attempted first?
Answer A: Use of a tourniquet
Answer B: Direct pressure applied to wound with elevation
Answer C: Direct pressure applied to wound
Answer D: Pressure applied to pressure points
 
122. (1.7.3.2-6) In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by
Answer A: applying direct pressure to the wound
Answer B: applying a tourniquet
Answer C: submerging the wound in lukewarm water
Answer D: cooling the wound with ice
 
123. (1.7.3.2-2) A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
Answer A: Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic.
Answer B: Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.
Answer C: Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood.
Answer D: Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting.
 
124. (1.7.3.2-5) Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by.
Answer A: heavy application of a disinfectant
Answer B: pinching the wound closed
Answer C: applying direct pressure to the wound
Answer D: pouring ice water directly into the wound
 
125. (1.7.3.2-1) A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding only.
Answer A: with puncture wounds
Answer B: to prevent bleeding from minor wounds
Answer C: when all other means have failed
Answer D: when the victim is unconscious
 
126. (1.7.3.2-9) What is the characteristic of the blood flow associated with arterial bleeding?
Answer A: Dark red blood flowing from the wound with a steady flow.
Answer B: Bright red blood flowing from the wound with a steady flow.
Answer C: Dark red blood flowing from the wound in spurts.
Answer D: Bright red blood flowing from the wound in spurts.
 
127. (1.7.3.2-7) Antiseptics are used principally to.
Answer A: reduce inflammation
Answer B: increase blood circulation
Answer C: prevent infection
Answer D: promote healing
 
128. (1.7.2.2-2) Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and.
Answer A: pumping out flooded compartments
Answer B: transferring reserve feed water
Answer C: dumping fuel oil
Answer D: evacuating the engine room
 
129. (1.7.2.2-1) Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should.
Answer A: tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level
Answer B: feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot
Answer C: open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges
Answer D: open the watertight door and take a quick look
 
130. (1.7.2.2-5) What is meant by the phrase "partial flooding with boundaries intact"?
Answer A: The compartment is partially filled, and the bulkheads remain watertight, but the decks have lost watertight integrity.
Answer B: The compartment is partially filled, and the decks remain watertight, but the bulkheads have lost watertight integrity.
Answer C: The compartment is partially filled, and both the decks and bulkheads have lost watertight integrity.
Answer D: The compartment is partially filled, and both the decks and bulkheads remain watertight.
 
131. (1.7.2.2-3) In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted.
Answer A: at the vertical center of the bulkhead
Answer B: at a point that is one-third from the bottom of the bulkhead
Answer C: along the top of the bulkhead
Answer D: along the bottom of any bulkhead
 
132. (1.7.2.2-4) In order for a compartment to completely fill up due to flooding, what condition must exist?
Answer A: The compartment must have an opening at the overhead allowing water to enter from the top.
Answer B: The compartment must have an opening at the overhead allowing air to escape in addition to having a source of flooding.
Answer C: The compartment must have an opening at the bottom deck allowing water to enter from the bottom.
Answer D: The compartment must have an opening at any of the vertical bulkheads allowing water to enter from one or more sides.
 
133. (1.7.2.2-7) What is meant by the term "counter-flooding"?
Answer A: Counter-flooding is the pumping of sea water into the high side or end of a ship to correct for off-center weight that had resulted in a list or adverse trim angle.
Answer B: Counter-flooding is pumping water out of a flooded compartment to counter the effects of flooding.
Answer C: Counter-flooding is the transfer of fluids from the low side or end of ship to the high side or end.
Answer D: Counter-flooding is any action taken to counter the effects of flooding.
 
134. (1.7.11.2.2-2) Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?
Answer A: Fire
Answer B: Explosion
Answer C: Asphyxiation
Answer D: All of the above
 
135. (1.7.11.2.2-1) Petroleum vapors are dangerous.
Answer A: only if the oxygen concentration is below 16 percent
Answer B: at all times due to their toxicity
Answer C: only if the source of the vapor is above its flash point
Answer D: only if the vapor is between the upper and lower explosive limit
 
136. (1.7.11.2.2-3) Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark?
Answer A: Placing an insulating flange or a section of non-conducting hose in the hose setup.
Answer B: Using a cargo hose with a built in electrical bonding wire.
Answer C: Connecting a bonding wire between the shore side piping and the vessel.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
137. (1.7.11.2.2-4) When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself.
Answer A: on the windward side of the opening
Answer B: on the leeward side of the opening
Answer C: at a right angle to the wind direction
Answer D: so that the obstruction of your body will protect you from the fumes
 
138. (1.7.9.3.2-1) A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the.
Answer A: leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying a solid stream of water to wash residual fuel over the side away from the pier
Answer B: windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to the fire
Answer C: leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to protect the monitor operator
Answer D: windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if needed
 
139. (1.7.9.3.2-3) Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class B fire?
Answer A: CO2
Answer B: Foam
Answer C: Dry chemical
Answer D: All of the above
 
140. (1.7.9.3.2-8) Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?
Answer A: Classes A and B
Answer B: Classes B and C
Answer C: Classes C and D
Answer D: Classes A and D
 
141. (1.7.9.3.2-6) Which of the listed burning materials would be described as a class "B" fire?
Answer A: Lube oil
Answer B: Acetylene
Answer C: Grease
Answer D: All of the above
 
142. (1.7.3.9 -1) Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm, soapy water or warm salt water to .
Answer A: neutralize the poison in the blood
Answer B: increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison
Answer C: absorb the poison from the blood
Answer D: induce vomiting
 
143. (1.7.3.10-2) Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?
Answer A: Have the injured person lie down.
Answer B: Keep the patient warm, but not hot.
Answer C: Relieve the pain of the injury.
Answer D: Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation.
 
144. (1.7.3.10-5) If there is no head injury, extreme physical discomfort or difficulty in breathing, a patient in shock should be placed in which of the positions listed?
Answer A: Arms above the head
Answer B: Head up and feet down
Answer C: Flat on back with feet raised 12 to 18 inches
Answer D: Flat on back with head and feet at the same level
 
145. (1.7.3 .10-3) Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a person in shock?
Answer A: Cold and damp
Answer B: Warm and dry
Answer C: Cold and dry
Answer D: Warm and damp
 
146. (1.7.3.10-6) Which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock?
Answer A: weak pulse at wrist or neck
Answer B: respiration is weak or has stopped
Answer C: flushed face
Answer D: all of the above symptoms
 
147. (1.7.3 .10-4) When treating a person for shock, you should wrap the victim in warm coverings to
Answer A: preserve present body heat
Answer B: protect the person from injury during transportation
Answer C: avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic movement
Answer D: decrease body heat
 
148. (1.7.4.8.1-4) Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will.
Answer A: reduce the drift rate of the life raft
Answer B: keep the life raft from turning over
Answer C: aid in recovering the life raft
Answer D: increase your visibility
 
149. (1.7.4.8.1-14) You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
Answer A: 1 can
Answer B: 1 pint
Answer C: 1 quart
Answer D: 1 gallon
 
150. (1.7.4.8.1-1 3) Most lifeboats are equipped with.
Answer A: unbalanced rudders
Answer B: balanced rudders
Answer C: contra-guide rudders
Answer D: straight rudders
 
151. (1.7.4.8.1-1 0) When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is.
Answer A: fastened to some substantial part of the vessel
Answer B: not fastened to anything
Answer C: secured to the hydrostatic release
Answer D: fastened to the raft container
 
152. (1.7.4.8.1-7) In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the.
Answer A: lifelines
Answer B: righting strap
Answer C: sea anchor
Answer D: towing bridle
 
153. (1.7.4.8.1-2) The purpose of the four water pockets, located on the underside at each corner of the raft, is to.
Answer A: stow rainwater; these four spaces will not take up valuable space
Answer B: act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated and in an upright position
Answer C: hold the fresh water required by regulation to be provided in the raft when packed
Answer D: none of the above
 
154. (1.7.4.8.1-3) The canopy of your life raft should.
Answer A: go into place as the raft is inflated
Answer B: be put up after everyone is aboard
Answer C: be put up only in severe weather
Answer D: be used as a sail if the wind is blowing
 
155. (1.7.4.8.1-5) Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard life rafts to look for.
Answer A: survivors in the water
Answer B: food and water
Answer C: land
Answer D: bad weather
 
156. (1.7.4.8.1-9) The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable raft will provide protection against
Answer A: tears in the outside skin of bottom of the raft
Answer B: warm water temperatures
Answer C: cold water temperatures
Answer D: all of the above
 
157. (1.7.4.8.1-8) While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather.
Answer A: the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes
Answer B: the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure
Answer C: deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel
Answer D: the entrance curtains should never be opened
 
158. (1.7.11.5.2-2) How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?
Answer A: Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
Answer B: De-energizes the "charged mist" effect.
Answer C: Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors.
Answer D: Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit.
 
159. (1.7.11.5.2 -3) The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to.
Answer A: supply conditioned gas with reduced oxygen content
Answer B: produce 100% oxygen free gas
Answer C: generate a high oxygen content gas
Answer D: produce a gas of 100% pure nitrogen
 
160. (1.7.6.1-5) A fire is considered 'under control' when.
Answer A: the fixed systems are activated
Answer B: all firefighting equipment is at the scene
Answer C: the fire is contained and no longer spreading
Answer D: all hands are at their fire stations
 
161. (1.7.6.1-4) When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you must be certain that the space
Answer A: contains no explosive fumes
Answer B: has no oil or flammable material in the area
Answer C: is properly vented
Answer D: all of the above
 
162. (1.7.6.1-1) When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are.
Answer A: non-ferrous
Answer B: high carbon steel
Answer C: fixed with a ferrous cover
Answer D: approved by the Coast Guard
 
163. (1.7.6.1-3) Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?
Answer A: Keeping the duct exterior clean.
Answer B: Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening.
Answer C: Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening.
Answer D: Keeping the duct interior clean.
 
164. (1.7.7.2.1-1) The fire extinguishing agent dispensed by the unit shown in the illustration is produced by. Illustration SF-0020
Answer A: educating air through "D" and mixing it with water in chamber "E"
Answer B: educting mechanical foam through "D" and mixing it with water and air in chamber "E"
Answer C: educting chemical foam through "D" and mixing it with water in chamber "E"
Answer D: educting air through "C", mechanical foam through "D", and mixing them with water in chamber "E"
 
165. (1.7.2.3-1) Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by.
Answer A: waiting for the vessel to list
Answer B: examining tank boundaries
Answer C: checking fuel oil strainers
Answer D: sounding the tank
 
166. (1.7.2.3-3) In the event of a grounding, which tanks should be sounded to determine any evidence of holing?
Answer A: Only slack tanks should be sounded. Full and empty tanks need not be sounded.
Answer B: Empty tanks should be sounded. Full and slack tanks need not be sounded.
Answer C: Full, slack, and empty tanks should all be sounded.
Answer D: Slack tanks and empty tanks should be sounded. Full tanks need not be sounded.
 
167. (1.7.2.3-4) Following a grounding, what would happen to the level of a slack double bottom tank if the tank was holed?
Answer A: After repeated soundings, the indicated tank level would gradually drop.
Answer B: After repeated soundings, the indicated tank level would gradually rise.
Answer C: After repeated soundings, the indicated level would remain essentially constant.
Answer D: The change of level in the slack tank cannot be predicted.
 
168. (1.7.2.3-2) Following a grounding, what action should be performed prior to the use of the main engines?
Answer A: Shift to a high fuel oil suction.
Answer B: Shift to a low sea suction.
Answer C: Shift to a high sea suction.
Answer D: Shift to a low fuel oil suction.
 
169. (1.7.11.7-3) When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when
Answer A: the hose has been partially drained
Answer B: a sailor is standing by the machine
Answer C: the machine is not inside the tank
Answer D: the machine is inside the tank
 
170. (1.7.11.7-2) "Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the.
Answer A: inert gas scrubber
Answer B: fire main
Answer C: potable water supply
Answer D: mucking supply system
 
171. (1.7.3.8 -1) Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water can
Answer A: be the best thing to try if there was no rescue in sight
Answer B: increase the rate of heat loss from the body
Answer C: not affect the heat loss from the body
Answer D: increase survival time in the water
 
172. (1.7.3.8-2) The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is.
Answer A: running or jumping to create heat
Answer B: lying in the sun
Answer C: mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
Answer D: a warm water bath
 
173. (1.7.10.3-1) Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?
Answer A: Nitrogen
Answer B: Hydrogen
Answer C: Carbon monoxide
Answer D: Carbon dioxide
 
174. (1.7.10.3-2) A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?
Answer A: The tank is especially dangerous to enter.
Answer B: Carbon monoxide is present.
Answer C: Water vapor present when the tank was sealed has oxidized.
Answer D: The tank is safe to enter.
 
175. (1.7.11.2.1 -2) Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to .
Answer A: inert the barrier spaces
Answer B: calibrate the gas leak detectors
Answer C: odorize the cargo
Answer D: detect leaks in cargo piping
 
176. (1.7.11.2.1-1) An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the.
Answer A: cargo handling rooms
Answer B: barrier spaces
Answer C: boiler burner supply piping
Answer D: all of the above
 
177. (1.7.9.2.3-1) Radiation can cause a fire to spread by.
Answer A: burning liquids flowing into another space
Answer B: the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
Answer C: heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
Answer D: transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
 
178. (1.7.4.7-1) Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?
Answer A: Immediately upon abandoning the vessel.
Answer B: At half-hour intervals.
Answer C: At one hour intervals.
Answer D: Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels.
 
179. (1.7.5.3-2) During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed?
Answer A: The designated person in charge
Answer B: The senior able seaman
Answer C: The oiler
Answer D: The tankerman
 
180. (1.7.5.3 -1) Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?
Answer A: The vessel's Certificate of Inspection
Answer B: The vessel's Oil Transfer Procedures
Answer C: The vessel's Oil Record Book
Answer D: The vessel's International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate
 
181. (1.7.9.3.1 -5) A fire involving trash and paper waste would be classified as a.
Answer A: class A
Answer B: class B
Answer C: class C
Answer D: class D
 
182. (1.7.9.3.1 -7) A fire that has developed in a pile of rubber gasket material would be classified as a
Answer A: class A
Answer B: class B
Answer C: class C
Answer D: class D
 
183. (1.7.9.3.1-4) If the items shown in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class . Illustration SF-0001
Answer A: "A"
Answer B: "B"
Answer C: "C"
Answer D: "D"
 
184. (1.7.9.3.1 -2) A fire in a pile of canvas would be classified as a.
Answer A: class A
Answer B: class B
Answer C: class C
Answer D: class D
 
185. (1.7.9.3.1 -1) A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire?
Answer A: Class "A"
Answer B: Class "B"
Answer C: Class "C"
Answer D: Class "D"
 
186. (1.7.4.1.2-3) The equipment shown in the illustration is a. Illustration SF-0012
Answer A: canister-type gas mask
Answer B: fresh-air hose mask
Answer C: demand-type breathing apparatus
Answer D: cylinder-type air mask
 
187. (1.7.4.1.2 -2) What is the maximum reliable shelf life of a filter gas mask canister if the seal is unbroken?
Answer A: 1 year from the date of manufacture
Answer B: 3 years from the date of manufacture
Answer C: 5 years from the date of manufacture
Answer D: 7 years from the date of manufacture
 
188. (1.7.3.5-2) If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not embedded, you can.
Answer A: remove it with a piece of dry sterilized cotton rag
Answer B: get him to rub his eye until the object is gone
Answer C: remove it with a moist cotton-tipped applicator
Answer D: remove it with a match or toothpick
 
189. (1.7.3.5-1) If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling a battery, they should FIRST wash the eye with.
Answer A: boric acid solution
Answer B: baking soda solution
Answer C: water
Answer D: ammonia
 
190. (1.7.9.3.5-1) Fires are grouped into which of the listed categories?
Answer A: Flammable solids, liquids, and gases
Answer B: Combustible solids, liquids, and gases
Answer C: Type 1,2, 3, and 4
Answer D: Class A, B, C, and D
 
191. (1.7.11.3.1-1) The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and.
Answer A: odorless
Answer B: heavier than air
Answer C: lighter than air
Answer D: non-toxic
 
192. (1.7.1.2-5) When conversing over a sound-powered telephone circuit, the words "yes" and "no" should be avoided. What are appropriate substitutes?
Answer A: "Yes" should be substituted by "OK" or suitable equivalent. "No" should be substituted by "nope" or equivalent.
Answer B: "Yes" should be substituted by "affirmative" or suitable equivalent. "No" should be substituted by "negative" or equivalent.
Answer C: "Yes" should be substituted by "yessiree" or suitable equivalent. "No" should be substituted by "nosiree" or equivalent.
Answer D: "Yes" should be substituted by "yeah" or suitable equivalent. "No" should be substituted by "nah" or equivalent.
 
193. (1.7.1.2-8) If you wish to initiate a station-to-station call over a sound-powered telephone circuit, what is the correct procedure?
Answer A: Select the station you wish to call with the rotary selector switch, depress the button on the handset, and listen for your party to answer the call.
Answer B: Select the station you wish to call with the rotary selector switch, turn the hand-crank a few revolutions, depress the button on the handset, and listen for your party to answer the call.
Answer C: Select the station you are calling from with the rotary selector switch, turn the hand-crank a few revolutions, depress the button on the handset, and listen for your party to answer the call.
Answer D: Select the station you wish to call with the rotary selector switch, turn the hand-crank a few revolutions, and listen for your party to answer the call.
 
194. (1.7.1.2-1) What is the purpose of depressing the button on the handle of a sound-powered telephone handset?
Answer A: The button must be depressed to speak and to listen.
Answer B: The button is depressed to ring the remote station.
Answer C: The button must be depressed to listen, but not to speak.
Answer D: The button must be depressed in order to speak, but not to listen.
 
195. (1.7.9.4.2-3) Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when
Answer A: oil soaked rags are stowed in the machine shop
Answer B: dry metal turnings accumulate
Answer C: powdered aluminum is stowed dry
Answer D: all of the above
 
196. (1.7.9.4.2-4) To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be.
Answer A: kept in nonmetal containers
Answer B: kept in the paint locker
Answer C: cleaned thoroughly for reuse
Answer D: discarded as soon as possible
 
197. (1.7.9.4.2-2) The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as .
Answer A: chemical ignition
Answer B: chemical combustion
Answer C: spontaneous combustion
Answer D: radiation ignition
 
198. (1.7.9.4.2 -5) A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker is to.
Answer A: store paint cans on metal shelves only
Answer B: place a portable fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker
Answer C: label the fixed firefighting system
Answer D: not allow oily rags to accumulate in the space
 
199. (1.7.9.4.2-1) Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?
Answer A: Anaerobic decomposition
Answer B: Aeration
Answer C: Putrefaction
Answer D: Oxidation
 
200. (1.7.4.4-2) If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to.
Answer A: separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued
Answer B: get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel
Answer C: immediately head for the nearest land
Answer D: remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position
 
201. (1.7.4.4-1) The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated.
Answer A: before you enter the water
Answer B: after you enter the water
Answer C: after one hour in the water
Answer D: after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy
 
202. (1.7.6.5-1) The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systems? Illustration SF-0004
Answer A: Fixed temperature
Answer B: Line-type pneumatic
Answer C: Combined fixed temperature and rate-of-rise
Answer D: Rate-of-rise
 
203. (1.7.6.5-2) In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions will cause an indication of a fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet?
Answer A: The fire alarm test push button is operated.
Answer B: A rise in temperature activating a heat detector.
Answer C: A manual fire alarm box is activated.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
204(1.7.11.3.2-1) Bunker "C" is classified as a grade
Answer A: A liquid
Answer B: B liquid
Answer C: E liquid
Answer D: D liquid
 
205. (1.7.3.7.3 -3) What strategy for avoiding heat exhaustion is most likely to result in more severe pain as associated with heat cramps?
Answer A: Drinking insufficient water and taking in insufficient salt to replace that lost during profuse sweating.
Answer B: Drinking excessive water lost during profuse sweating without replacing the salt lost.
Answer C: Taking in excessive salt lost during profuse sweating without replacing the water lost.
Answer D: Drinking excessive water and taking in excessive salt to replace that lost during profuse sweating.
 
206. (1.7.1.1-1) What is the alarm signal for a fire emergency or fire drill onboard a merchant ship?
Answer A: Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds.
Answer B: Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 3 seconds.
Answer C: General alarm sounded 3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle.
Answer D: A succession of more than 6 short blasts followed by 1 long blast of the whistle supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm.
 
207. (1.7.1.1-5) What is the whistle signal for lowering boats?
Answer A: 1 short blast of the whistle.
Answer B: 2 short blasts of the whistle.
Answer C: 3 short blasts of the whistle.
Answer D: Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds.
 
208. (1.7.1.1-11) If you hear a CO2 activated alarm warning you to evacuate the engine room, how much time do you have to evacuate before the CO2 gas is released into the engine room?
Answer A: 10 seconds
Answer B: 20 seconds
Answer C: 60 seconds
Answer D: 90 seconds
 
209. (1.7.1.1-4) What is the alarm signal for dismissal from a boat station or boat drill onboard a merchant ship?
Answer A: Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds.
Answer B: Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 3 seconds.
Answer C: 3 short blasts of the whistle.
Answer D: A succession of more than 6 short blasts followed by 1 long blast of the whistle supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm.
 
210. (1.7.1.1-2) What is the alarm signal for dismissal from a fire emergency or fire drill onboard a merchant ship?
Answer A: Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds.
Answer B: Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 3 seconds.
Answer C: General alarm sounded 3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle.
Answer D: A succession of more than 6 short blasts followed by 1 long blast of the whistle supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm.
 
211. (1.7.7.4.1-2) After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next immediate action is for the space to be.
Answer A: opened and burned material removed
Answer B: left closed with ventilation off until all boundaries are cool
Answer C: checked for the proper oxygen level
Answer D: opened and doused with water to prevent reflash
 
212. (1.7.7.4.1-3) When fighting a machinery space fire, you should operate a fixed CO2 system by opening the control valve to the space protected and.
Answer A: visually checking to see that CO2 is discharging through the piping
Answer B: operating a separate control to release CO2
Answer C: modulating the proper amount of CO2 from individual bottles
Answer D: listening for the sound of the warning siren
 
213. (1.7.7.4.1-1) The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm siren is obtained from
Answer A: the emergency power and lighting bus
Answer B: the flow of CO2 under pressure
Answer C: the general alarm 24 volt DC bus
Answer D: all of the above
 
214. (1.7.7.4.1-4) What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in
a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?
Answer A: An excessive amount of insulation has been installed on the tank and piping.
Answer B: An air leak has developed in the tank.
Answer C: The tank cooling system has malfunctioned.
Answer D: The pilot cylinder discharge valve is leaking.
 
215. (1.7.7.4.1-5) When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 that will be released into the selected compartment?
Answer A: The discharge of CO2 will continue until the temperature of the space returns to ambient conditions.
Answer B: The number of discharge nozzles in the space will determine the quantity released.
Answer C: A timer mechanism controls the discharge valve and is preset for the space being activated.
Answer D: The CO2 tank is divided into separate sections designated for each protected space.
 
216. (1.7.7.4.1-7) Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible?
Answer A: The fire may warp the CO2 piping.
Answer B: To keep the fire from spreading through the bulkheads.
Answer C: Carbon dioxide takes a long time to disperse to all portions of a space.
Answer D: Updraft from the fire tends to carry the CO2 away.
 
217. (1.7.7.4.1-8) When re-entering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, the investigating team should initially.
Answer A: attempt to operate propulsion machinery
Answer B: enter from the lowest possible level
Answer C: leave the access door partially open
Answer D: enter from the highest level with breathing apparatus
 
218. (1.7.9.4.1-3) Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by.
Answer A: improving personnel qualifications
Answer B: allowing better access in an emergency
Answer C: eliminating trip hazards
Answer D: eliminating potential fuel sources
 
219. (1.7.9.4.1-2) A fire can be extinguished by removing.
Answer A: the oxygen
Answer B: the fuel
Answer C: the heat
Answer D: any of the above
 
220. (1.7.5.2-1) Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by
Answer A: regularly emptying all drip pans
Answer B: plugging all scuppers and drains
Answer C: placing floating booms around the ship
Answer D: thoroughly draining all bunkering hoses
 
221. (1.7.5.2-4) While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST?
Answer A: Notify the Coast Guard
Answer B: Stop loading
Answer C: Notify terminal superintendent
Answer D: Search the vessel for leaks
 
222. (1.7.5.2-3) In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?
Answer A: Mechanical removal
Answer B: Chemical agent removal
Answer C: Absorbent removal
Answer D: None of the above
 
223. (1.7.8.1-6) One of the limitations of foam as a fire extinguishing agent is that foam.
Answer A: cannot be made with salt water
Answer B: conducts electricity
Answer C: is heavier than oil and sinks below its surface
Answer D: is corrosive and a hazard to firefighters
 
224. (1.7.8.1 -10) The principle personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is.
Answer A: skin irritation
Answer B: eye irritation produced immediately after discharge from cylinder
Answer C: displacement of oxygen
Answer D: inhaling toxic vapors produced when exposed directly to a flame for extended periods
 
225. (1.7.8.1-3) Mechanical foam used for firefighting is produced by.
Answer A: a chemical reaction of foam components and air
Answer B: chemical reaction of foam components and water
Answer C: gas bubbles liberated when the foam chemical contacts fire
Answer D: mechanically mixing and agitating foam chemical, water, and air
 
226. (1.7.8.1-12) Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
Answer A: CO2
Answer B: Water stream
Answer C: Water fog
Answer D: Foam
 
227. (1.7.8.1-14) One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is.
Answer A: the CO2 gas is lighter than air and a large amount is required to extinguish a fire near the deck
Answer B: prolonged exposure to high concentrations of CO2 gas causes suffocation
Answer C: the 'snow' which is sometimes discharged along with the gas is toxic
Answer D: rapid dissipation of the CO2 vapor
 
228. (1.7.8.1 -13) As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain conditions as it can cause.
Answer A: hallucinations
Answer B: carbon monoxide poisoning
Answer C: undulation
Answer D: freeze burns and blistering
 
229. (1.7.8.1 -2) The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is
Answer A: carbon dioxide
Answer B: water
Answer C: flue gas
Answer D: steam smothering
 
230. (1.7.8.1-8) A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using
Answer A: high velocity fog
Answer B: foam
Answer C: soda acid
Answer D: dry chemical
 
231. (1.7.8.1-16) Dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a fire by
Answer A: breaking up the molecular chain reaction
Answer B: cooling the fuel below ignition temperature
Answer C: removing the fuel by absorbing the heated vapors
Answer D: smothering and removing the oxygen from the fuel
 
232. (1.7.8.1-5) Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly known as 'light water', is especially suitable for fighting.
Answer A: any class D fire
Answer B: oil fires in the engine room bilges
Answer C: class C fires in paint lockers
Answer D: all of the above
 
233. (1.7.8.1-9) Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?
Answer A: The agent is less effective than carbon dioxide.
Answer B: The agent is highly toxic as stored in pressurized cylinders.
Answer C: The agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue.
Answer D: Halon extinguishes the fire by a chain breaking reaction.
 
234. (1.7.8.1-1 1) Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?
Answer A: Its total cooling effect is far greater than water.
Answer B: Carbon dioxide is corrosive when exposed to fire.
Answer C: Its smothering effect is excellent for class B fires.
Answer D: Carbon dioxide should be applied slowly to a large engine room fire.
 
235. (1.7.10.1-2) Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?
Answer A: The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with no delay.
Answer B: Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator.
Answer C: A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument when exposed to strongly acidic gases.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
236. (1.7.10.1-1) An oxygen indicator will detect.
Answer A: the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide
Answer B: concentrations of explosive gas
Answer C: an oxygen deficiency in a space
Answer D: all of the above
 
237. (1.7.10.1-4) To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should use a.
Answer A: flame scanner
Answer B: halide torch
Answer C: combustible gas indicator
Answer D: detector filament
 
238. (1.7.7.1.1-15) When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher you should always
Answer A: bounce the chemical onto the fire from adjacent structural members
Answer B: attack the fire from the leeward side
Answer C: spray the chemical across the tops of the flames
Answer D: direct the stream of chemical toward the base of the fire
 
239. (1.7.7.1.1-13) You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed.
Answer A: to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
Answer B: at the seat of the fire, starting near the edge
Answer C: at the main body of the fire
Answer D: over the top of the fire
 
240. (1.7.7.1.1 -8) If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers?
Answer A: CO2
Answer B: Soda acid
Answer C: Foam
Answer D: Dry chemical
 
241. (1.7.7.1.1-2) To operate a portable foam fire extinguisher, you should.
Answer A: open the hand wheel
Answer B: puncture the CO2 cartridge
Answer C: pull the pin and squeeze the trigger
Answer D: turn it upside down and bump the deck
 
242. (1.7.7.1.1-12) In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher.
Answer A: with the squeeze-grip on/off nozzle at the end of the hose
Answer B: by turning the activating handle on the bottom of the container
Answer C: by squeezing the control valve carrying handle
Answer D: with the squeeze-grip trigger on top of the container
 
243. (1.7.7.1.1-4) Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B" fire should be directed
Answer A: in short, quick bursts
Answer B: at the top of the flames
Answer C: at the base of the fire near the edge
Answer D: toward the upwind side of the fire
 
244. (1.7.7.1.1 -3) The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its over pressurization is called a.
Answer A: safety valve
Answer B: control head
Answer C: rupture disc
Answer D: relief valve
 
245. (1.7.7.1.1-5) To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would. Illustration SF-0008
Answer A: pull pin, open valve, and pull up on release lever
Answer B: pull pin and open valve
Answer C: open valve, pull pin, and pull up on release lever
Answer D: open valve and pull pin
 
246. (1.7.7.1.1-7) A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be.
Answer A: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25%
Answer B: labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
Answer C: replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
Answer D: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15%
 
247. (1.7.7.1.1-10) A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only.
Answer A: if applied in connection with foam
Answer B: if applied promptly
Answer C: to prevent rekindling
Answer D: if attempts to extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed
 
248. (1.7.7.1.1-16) Which of the listed methods is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher?
Answer A: Move the discharge stream back and forth in a rapid sweeping motion.
Answer B: Approach the fire from the windward side.
Answer C: Direct the extinguisher discharge at the base of the fire.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
249. (1.7.7.1.1-1) Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?
Answer A: Foam
Answer B: Carbon dioxide
Answer C: Halon 1211
Answer D: Dry chemical
 
250. (1.7.7.1.1-1 1) The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by.
Answer A: visual inspection of the pressure gage
Answer B: removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical
Answer C: weighing the cylinder
Answer D: weighing the CO2 cartridge
 
251. (1.7.3.7.1-1) Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of.
Answer A: placing patient in a tub of cold water
Answer B: moving to a shaded area and laying down
Answer C: bathing with rubbing alcohol
Answer D: all the above
 
252. (1.7.3.7.1-4) While working in a hot engine room, what is the cause of heat exhaustion?
Answer A: Loss of water and salt due to excessive sweating and inadequate water and salt intake.
Answer B: Loss of water only due to excessive sweating despite adequate water intake.
Answer C: Loss of water and salt due to excessive sweating despite adequate water and salt intake.
Answer D: Loss of water only due to excessive sweating and inadequate water intake.
 
253. (1.7.3.7.1-5) While working in a hot engine room, what is your best protection against heat exhaustion?
Answer A: Drinking plenty of pure water with no additives.
Answer B: Taking supplemental salt tablets with minimal water intake.
Answer C: Drinking plenty of a commercial beverage consisting of water, salt, and carbohydrates.
Answer D: Drinking plenty of caffeinated beverages such as iced tea.
 
254. (1.7.3.7.1-3) In addition to moving the victim to a shaded area, placing the victim in a prone position and loosening any tight clothing, what treatment should be administered?
Answer A: The patient should be given sips of cool water salted with one teaspoon per glass at a rate of 1/2 glass every 15 minutes for one hour.
Answer B: The patient should be given sips of unsalted cool water at a rate of 1/2 glass every 15 minutes for one hour.
Answer C: The patient should be forced to drink large amounts of cool water salted with one teaspoon per glass within 5 minutes.
Answer D: The patient should be forced to drink large amounts of unsalted cool water within 5 minutes.
 
255. (1.7.3.7.1-2) What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?
Answer A: Flushed, dry, hot skin
Answer B: Pale, clammy skin with profuse sweating
Answer C: Flushed, clammy skin with minimal sweating
Answer D: Pale, dry, hot skin
 
256. (1.7.7.3.1-7) Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?
Answer A: Backup hose man should be positioned wherever the hose makes a significant turn.
Answer B: A 2-1/2 inch hose should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzle man and two horsemen.
Answer C: Hose nozzle thrust increases with an increase in hose pressure.
Answer D: The fire hose should be partially charged before deploying the hose from the hydrant.
 
257. (1.7.7.3.1-4) To properly maintain fire hoses, you should.
Answer A: keep exterior linings damp by periodic wash downs
Answer B: keep them partially filled with fresh water
Answer C: keep them rolled tightly in the rack with female coupling protected
Answer D: thoroughly drain them after each use
 
258. (1.7.7.3.1-3) Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must always be.
Answer A: capped on the ends for protection
Answer B: supplied with a smooth bore nozzle
Answer C: connected to the fire hydrant
Answer D: open to the air to prevent rot
 
259. (1.7.7.3.1-6) When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and.
Answer A: paint thinner
Answer B: a soft-bristled brush
Answer C: a wire brush
Answer D: cornstarch
 
260. (1.7.7.3.1-8) There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure?
Answer A: Friction in the piping and valves
Answer B: Leaky pump suction valve
Answer C: Wear in the hydrant
Answer D: Leaky pilot valve
 
261. (1.7.7.4.2-5) Which of the following components provides a direct source of sea water for the fire main system?
Answer A: Sea chest suction
Answer B: Fire pump stuffing box
Answer C: Rose box suction
Answer D: Cofferdam sluice valve
 
262. (1.7.7.4.2-4) While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single 'wye' gate attached to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle.
Answer A: at the base of the "Y" counter-clockwise 180
Answer B: at the base of the "Y" in either direction
Answer C: on each leg of the "Y" 90
Answer D: on each leg of the "Y" 180
 
263. (1.7.7.4.2-1) The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to.
Answer A: instantaneously extinguish the fire which triggered it
Answer B: limit the spread of the fire and control the amount of heat produced
Answer C: protect people in the areas which have had sprinkler heads installed
Answer D: alert the crew to the fire
 
Assistant Engineer Questions
 
1. (2.5.8.1-2) You are in compartment "A", shown in the illustration, and suspect a fire in compartment "B". In order to check for and confirm the fire in compartment "B" you should. Illustration SF-0005
Answer A: feel the bulkhead
Answer B: tap the bulkhead
Answer C: open the watertight door
Answer D: move a lighted candle along watertight door seal
 
2. (2.5.8.1-4) The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by.
Answer A: quenching and cooling
Answer B: using non-conducting extinguishers
Answer C: blanketing and smothering
Answer D: using a sodium based dry chemical
 
3. (2.5.8.1-10) If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it.
Answer A: will cover less than 25 percent of deck space
Answer B: does not block access to the fire station hydrant
Answer C: will be easily visible from the bridge
Answer D: is not higher than 12 inches above the deck
 
4. (2.5.8.1-9) In firefighting, the term 'protecting exposures' means.
Answer A: protecting exposed areas of the superstructure from flames
Answer B: keeping flames from burning at the tank vents
Answer C: protecting firefighters from direct exposure to the heat of the fire
Answer D: taking measures to prevent the spread of fire from the involved compartment to an adjacent compartment
 
5. (2.5.8.1-8) During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST.
Answer A: stop the transfer of cargo
Answer B: prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam
Answer C: apply CO2 on the burning fuel at its source
Answer D: blanket the cargo spill with foam
 
6. (2.5.8.1-6) When fighting a shipboard fire, crew members securing doorways, hatches, and applying cooling water to adjacent decks and bulkheads, while monitoring the spread of heat and smoke, are setting a.
Answer A: safety perimeter
Answer B: cooling zone
Answer C: fire boundary
Answer D: buffer zone
 
7. (2.5.8.1-7) When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and.
Answer A: foam spray
Answer B: low-velocity fog
Answer C: a straight stream of water
Answer D: high-velocity fog
 
8. (2.5.8.1-1) Which of the following statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members discover a fire?
Answer A: One man report the fire, one man fight the fire, and one man act as a safety observer.
Answer B: One man report the fire, and the other two men fight the fire.
Answer C: One man report the fire, one man fight the fire and one man evacuate and secure the area.
Answer D: All three men fight the fire and report it immediately after it is extinguished.
 
9. (2.5.8.1-5) What is the purpose of opening the doors and portholes in figure 2 of the illustration? Illustration SF-0013
Answer A: To keep the hose teams cool.
Answer B: To allow water used to fight the fire to flow out of the superstructure.
Answer C: To allow venting of combustion products from the fire to the atmosphere.
Answer D: To provide air flow around the compartment in the order to contain the fire.
 
10. (2.5.8.1-3) If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of.
Answer A: excess hydrogen
Answer B: unburned carbon particles
Answer C: excess nitrogen
Answer D: a lack of oxygen
 
11. (2.5.8.2-3) When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is.
Answer A: preventing salt water damage to electrical equipment
Answer B: reducing the possibility of electrical shock to personnel
Answer C: preventing a total loss of electrical power
Answer D: eliminating the toxic fumes from burning insulation
 
12. (2.5.8.2-5) The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is for the agent to be.
Answer A: easily removable
Answer B: wet
Answer C: flame resistant
Answer D: non-conducting
 
13. (2.5.8.2-1) Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
Answer A: Water fog
Answer B: Dry chemical
Answer C: Foam
Answer D: CO2
 
14. (2.5.8.2-4) If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should.
Answer A: secure power to the cable
Answer B: cut the cable with an insulated cable cutter
Answer C: separate the two ends
Answer D: all of the above
 
15. (2.5.8.2-2) You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?
Answer A: Close the door to the room.
Answer B: Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher.
Answer C: Secure power to the washers and dryers.
Answer D: Break out the nearest fire hose.
 
16. (2.5.8.3-5) In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to.
Answer A: secure all sources of fresh air to the tank
Answer B: begin transferring the fuel to other tanks
Answer C: station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls
Answer D: top off the tank to force out all vapors
 
17. (2.5.8.3-3) If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high-pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST.
Answer A: secure the ventilation
Answer B: secure the generator
Answer C: find a soda acid extinguisher
Answer D: shut off the fuel oil supply
 
18. (2.5.8.3-4) The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the.
Answer A: easier it is to extinguish
Answer B: less chance there is of reignition
Answer C: harder it is to extinguish
Answer D: easier it is to control
 
19. (2.5.8.3-2) The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier is to use.
Answer A: foam directed against the vessel's side
Answer B: dry chemical around the fire
Answer C: water fog over the fire
Answer D: solid water streams directly into the fire
 
20. (2.5.8.3-1) A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire you should. Illustration SF-0013
Answer A: only need to set up a hose team to cool the door, then open the door and extinguish the fire using a type B-II extinguisher
Answer B: advance the hose team into the room without any additional preparatory action
Answer C: cool adjoining horizontal and vertical surfaces before opening the door to extinguish the fire
Answer D: keep the door tightly closed until all the oil has been consumed by the fire
 
21. (2.5.8.4-1) When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should.
Answer A: secure the source of gas, then extinguish the fire
Answer B: extinguish the fire, then secure the source of gas
Answer C: use only carbon dioxide
Answer D: use only dry chemical
 
22. (2.5.8.5-2) One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is.
Answer A: the loss of stability
Answer B: contaminating food with extinguishing agent
Answer C: the igniting of a grease fire in the range hood ventilation system
Answer D: spreading of fire through the engineering space
 
23. (2.5.8.5-1) In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon dioxide galley range fixed extinguishing systems are automatically activated through the action of a stainless steel cable, spring and a.
Answer A: fusible link
Answer B: stack switch
Answer C: thermostat
Answer D: pyrostat
 
24. (2.5.10.1-3) The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called.
Answer A: exposure limits
Answer B: concentration limits
Answer C: threshold limit values
Answer D: substance limit values
 
25. (2.5.10.1-4) If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space, which of the following actions would be the most hazardous to perform?
Answer A: Opening switches in the space to de-energize circuits.
Answer B: Closing switches adjacent to the space to operate vent fans.
Answer C: Leaving electrical circuits energized in the space.
Answer D: Securing all power to the space from a remote location.
 
26. (2.5.10.1-1) A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?
Answer A: The tank is safe to enter.
Answer B: The tank is especially dangerous to enter.
Answer C: Carbon monoxide is present.
Answer D: Water vapor present when the tank was sealed has oxidized.
 
27. (2.5.10.1-2) Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air?
Answer A: 10.0%
Answer B: 15.8%
Answer C: 20.8%
Answer D: 25.8%
 
28. (2.5.10.2.1-1) The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the
Answer A: lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
Answer B: upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
Answer C: concentration of flammable gas in a compartment
Answer D: concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a compartment
 
29. (2.5.10.2.1-2) Combustible gas indicators incorporate the use of a/an.
Answer A: Wheatstone bridge
Answer B: inflatable bag
Answer C: vapor-detecting carbon compound
Answer D: sensitive liquid chemical
 
30. (2.5.10.2.1-3) Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an.
Answer A: Halide torch
Answer B: flame safety lamp
Answer C: Orsat apparatus
Answer D: combustible gas indicator
 
31. (2.5.10.2.2-1) An oxygen indicator will detect.
Answer A: the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide
Answer B: concentrations of explosive gas
Answer C: an oxygen deficiency in a space
Answer D: all of the above
 
32. (2.5.10.2.2-2) Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?
Answer A: The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with no delay.
Answer B: Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator.
Answer C: A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument when exposed to strongly acidic gases.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
33. (2.5.10.2.3-1) For hydrogen sulfide detection, sensitized tapes indicate the presence of this gas by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of the gas and.
Answer A: air temperature during exposure
Answer B: air pressure during exposure
Answer C: humidity during exposure
Answer D: duration of exposure
 
34. (2.5.10.2.3-2) When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use tools which are.
Answer A: approved by the Coast Guard
Answer B: high carbon steel
Answer C: fixed with a ferrous cover
Answer D: non-sparking
 
35. (2.5.10.3-1) If you see an individual fall overboard, you should.
Answer A: throw a life ring overboard
Answer B: hail 'Man Overboard'
Answer C: pass the word to the bridge
Answer D: all of the above
 
36. (2.5.11.1-1) The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is.
Answer A: gusty winds with rain
Answer B: heavy rain
Answer C: full sun with high winds
Answer D: nearly calm, clear nights or early morning
 
37. (2.5.11.1-3) The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of.
Answer A: 3 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn
Answer B: 5 percent methane by volume will give a reading of 100 percent L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator
Answer C: 10 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn
Answer D: 20 percent methane by volume is too lean to burn
 
38. (2.5.11.1-6) Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the upper explosive limit?
Answer A: The mixture is too rich to burn.
Answer B: Conditions are perfect for combustion.
Answer C: The vapor is about to explode.
Answer D: The mixture is too lean to burn.
 
39. (2.5.11.1-4) The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the.
Answer A: vapor pressure
Answer B: tolerance point
Answer C: threshold limit value
Answer D: odor threshold
 
40. (2.5.11.1-5) By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is.
Answer A: animal and vegetable oils
Answer B: caustic potash
Answer C: kerosene
Answer D: gasoline
 
41. (2.5.11.1-2) According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure of 8 1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80F or below, is a grade.
Answer A: A
Answer B: E
Answer C: C
Answer D: D
 
42. (2.5.11.2.1-2) Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash point below 150F?
Answer A: Light fuel oils
Answer B: Lubricating oils
Answer C: Road oils
Answer D: Asphalt
 
43. (2.5.11.2.1-1) The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and.
Answer A: lighter than air
Answer B: heavier than air
Answer C: non-toxic
Answer D: odorless
 
44. (2.5.11.2.1-3) When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should
Answer A: draw a small quantity of liquid to prime the pump
Answer B: check for gland leakage and any fire hazard
Answer C: have a standby pump running with the discharge valve closed
Answer D: lift the relief valve by hand to check its operation
 
45. (2.5.11.2.2-2) Bunker "C" is classified as a grade.
Answer A: A liquid
Answer B: B liquid
Answer C: E liquid
Answer D: D liquid
 
46. (2.5.11.2.2-1) Which of the following is classified as a grade "E" combustible liquid?
Answer A: Very light naphtha
Answer B: Bunker "C"
Answer C: Most commercial gasoline
Answer D: Benzene
 
47. (2.5.11.3.1 -2) Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?
Answer A: Asphyxiation
Answer B: Fire
Answer C: Explosion
Answer D: All of the above
 
48. (2.5.11.3.1-1) The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is.
Answer A: 0% to 1% by volume
Answer B: 1% to 6% by volume
Answer C: 6% to 12% by volume
Answer D: 12% to 20% by volume
 
49. (2.5.11.3.1-3) When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself.
Answer A: on the windward side of the opening
Answer B: on the leeward side of the opening
Answer C: at a right angle to the wind direction
Answer D: so that the obstruction of your body will protect you from the fumes
 
50. (2.5.11.3.2-1) Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems which are designed to activate an alarm at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If an LNG gas detector alarm sounds, this means.
Answer A: the detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the atmosphere is explosive
Answer B: a flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is too lean to burn
Answer C: an explosion is about to take place
Answer D: the detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor concentration is 30 percent by volume
 
51. (2.5.11.3.2 -2) An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the.
Answer A: barrier spaces
Answer B: boiler burner supply piping
Answer C: cargo handling rooms
Answer D: all of the above
 
52. (2.5.11.3.2 -3) Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to.
Answer A: odorize the cargo
Answer B: inert the barrier spaces
Answer C: calibrate the gas leak detectors
Answer D: detect leaks in cargo piping
 
53. (2.5.11.3.3-2) Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate.
Answer A: unusually large concentrations of H2S
Answer B: smaller than normal concentrations of H2S
Answer C: moderate concentrations of H2S without the usual reactions
Answer D: longer exposure to H2S concentrations
 
54. (2.5.11.3.3 -4) High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can.
Answer A: cause involuntary skeletal muscle contractions
Answer B: paralyze your breathing system
Answer C: cause eye inflammation
Answer D: cause dizziness
 
55. (2.5.11.3.3 -3) When pumping sour crude, which gas should be tested for prior to entering the cargo pump room to repair a leaking pump?
Answer A: Benzene
Answer B: Carbon monoxide
Answer C: Hydrogen sulfide
Answer D: Tetraethyl lead
 
56. (2.5.11.3.3-1) A high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be found in which of the locations listed?
Answer A: Fire room bilges where hydrazine has accumulated.
Answer B: Sewage compartment bilges where leaked sewage has accumulated.
Answer C: Engine room bilges where chemical cleaners and solvents have accumulated.
Answer D: Emergency battery storage compartment where discharge gases have accumulated.
 
57. (2.5.11.3.4-1) What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?
Answer A: The number of fire extinguishers required onboard.
Answer B: The tanks which are safe to enter when the certificate was issued.
Answer C: The barge's stability information.
Answer D: The quality of the barge's cargo.
 
58. (2.5.11.3.4-2) A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of.
Answer A: any combustible liquid
Answer B: all flammable liquids
Answer C: flammable or toxic gases
Answer D: residues from cargo oil
 
59. (2.5.11.3.4-3) A compartment is tested and found to contain 20.8% oxygen by volume, permissible concentrations of toxic materials, and concentrations of flammable gas just below the lower flammable limit. If the residues are not capable of producing toxic materials or flammable concentrations, what would be the designation listed on the marine chemist's certificate?
Answer A: Safe for men - Safe for Fire
Answer B: Not safe for men - Not Safe for Fire
Answer C: Safe for men - Not Safe for Fire
Answer D: Not safe for men - Safe for Fire
 
60. (2.5.11.3.4-4) If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen content is not within permissible concentration, and dangerous gases are either present, or may be produced by residues, what would be the safety designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate?
Answer A: Safe for Men - Safe for Fire
Answer B: Safe for Men - Not Safe for Fire
Answer C: Not Safe for Men - Safe for Fire
Answer D: Not Safe for Men - Not Safe for Fire
 
61. (2.5.11.3.4-5) If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be.
Answer A: filled with water
Answer B: gas freed
Answer C: inerted
Answer D: all of the above as necessary
 
62. (2.5.11.3.4-6) While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" product. Which of the following procedures should be followed when a certified marine chemist is not available?
Answer A: It is solely the chief engineer's responsibility to ensure all safety precautions are observed, and all entries are to be made in the engine room log.
Answer B: Repairs should proceed as scheduled since a chemist's certificate is not required for that type of work.
Answer C: The repair work cannot be done at this time due to the lack of the chemist's certificate.
Answer D: Prior to any hot-work, an inspection must be made by the senior officer present, and an entry made in the official logbook.
 
63. (2.5.11.4-1) A health hazard term listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is.
Answer A: sensitizer
Answer B: pyrophoric hazard
Answer C: oxidizer
Answer D: skin contact hazard
 
64. (2.5.11.4-4) If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identify?
Answer A: The name of each hazardous ingredient.
Answer B: Other similar mixtures of liquids, solids or gases.
Answer C: Paints or coatings that are safe to use with it.
Answer D: None of the above.
 
65. (2.5.11.4-3) A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a.
Answer A: Physical/Chemical Characteristics Document
Answer B: Hazardous Chemical Information Sheet
Answer C: Material Safety Data Sheet
Answer D: Hazardous Chemical Loading Document
 
66. (2.5.11.4-2) A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), having a flash point below 100F (37.78C) is called a/an.
Answer A: explosive liquid
Answer B: combustible liquid
Answer C: flammable liquid
Answer D: viscous liquid
 
67. (2.5.11.4-5) The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heavier than air is called.
Answer A: vapor density
Answer B: vapor pressure
Answer C: vapor level
Answer D: vapor gravity
 
68. (2.5.12.5.4-1) Tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by using.
Answer A: a multi-stage centrifugal pump
Answer B: a positive displacement pump
Answer C: the water displacement method
Answer D: the load on top system
 
69. (2.5.12.3.3-3) In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?
Answer A: Mechanical removal
Answer B: Chemical agent removal
Answer C: Absorbent removal
Answer D: None of the above
 
70. (2.5 .12.3.3-2) A method NOT usually allowed for cleaning up oil spills would be the use of
Answer A: skimmers
Answer B: sawdust
Answer C: dispersants
Answer D: straw
 
71. (2.5.12.3.3-1) Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by
Answer A: plugging all scuppers and drains
Answer B: regularly emptying all drip pans
Answer C: thoroughly draining all bunkering hoses
Answer D: placing floating booms around the ship
 
72. (2.5.12.3.1-10) When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should
Answer A: remove plugs from scuppers and wash fuel overboard with water
Answer B: remove plugs from scuppers to allow the spill to run overboard and wipe the area dry with rags
Answer C: remove plugs from scuppers and wash the fuel overboard with a solvent
Answer D: use absorbent material, such as sawdust, to clean up the spill
 
73. (2.5.12.3.1-8) A ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the.
Answer A: top of the sounding tube down to the surface of the liquid
Answer B: top of the liquid down to the tank bottom
Answer C: top of the tank down to the bottom of the tank
Answer D: sounding tube to either side of the tank
 
74. (2.5.12.3.1-9) As a precaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should_
Answer A: notify the shore pumping station to reduce the pumping rate as tanks near full capacity
Answer B: close the deck filling valve to reduce the pumping rate
Answer C: fill the tank to the bottom of the expansion trunk
Answer D: close all tank vents to prevent overflow
 
75. (2.5.12.3.1-1) As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will.
Answer A: decrease
Answer B: increase
Answer C: remain the same
Answer D: none of the above
 
76. (2.5.12.3.1-6) Why is it important for double bottom fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading fuel at cold temperatures?
Answer A: Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading pressure, which increases the chances of a spill.
Answer B: A temperature rise of the fuel will cause an overflow from the tank vent.
Answer C: Fueling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil to spill before the valve can be opened.
Answer D: Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole.
 
77. (2.5.12.3.1-2) Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel?
Answer A: Secure all lighting to the main deck.
Answer B: Provide a portable fan to blow away fumes.
Answer C: Display a black triangle during daylight hours.
Answer D: Prohibit smoking in the area.
 
78. (2.5.12.3.1-3) When should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling hose?
Answer A: When static electricity is not expected to be a problem.
Answer B: When the terminal is equipped with a cathodic protection system.
Answer C: When transferring LNG.
Answer D: When a bonding cable is employed.
 
79. (2.5.12.3.1-11) Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore side facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?
Answer A: Close the valve on the tank vent line.
Answer B: Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill.
Answer C: Signal the shore control point to shutdown.
Answer D: Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank.
 
80. (2.5.12.3.1-7) The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the.
Answer A: pumping operation is first started
Answer B: tanks are being topped off
Answer C: system is being lined up
Answer D: hose joints are made up
 
81. (2.5.12.3.1-4) To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations just prior to bunkering from a shore side facility, .
Answer A: vessel and facility are independently inspected by their respective designated person in charge
Answer B: vessel and facility must be inspected by a representative of the Coast Guard captain of the port
Answer C: vessel and facility are jointly and independently inspected by the designated persons in charge
Answer D: facility is inspected by the designated person in charge of the vessel and vice versa for the vessel
 
82. (2.5.12.6.3-3) When water washing epoxy-coated cargo tanks, the temperature and pressure of the wash water should generally not exceed.
Answer A: 212F - 940 psi
Answer B: 180F - 180 psi
Answer C: 160F - 180 psi
Answer D: 120F - 120 psi
 
83. (2.5.12.6.3-1) An electrically "charged mist" will be found in a.
Answer A: diesel engine cylinder
Answer B: cargo tank during Butterworthing
Answer C: fuel tank vent outlet
Answer D: flash evaporator flash chamber
 
84. (2.5.12.6.3-4) When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when
Answer A: the machine is inside the tank
Answer B: the hose has been partially drained
Answer C: a sailor is standing by the machine
Answer D: the machine is not inside the tank
 
85. (2.5.12.6.3-2) "Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the.
Answer A: mucking supply system
Answer B: potable water supply
Answer C: fire main
Answer D: inert gas scrubber
 
86. (2.5.12.5.1-1) A gurgling noise is heard from within a cargo tank when discharging cargo, this would indicate that the.
Answer A: pump discharge pressure is excessive
Answer B: pump is sucking air
Answer C: tank foot valve is partially clogged
Answer D: tank liquid is too viscous
 
87. (2.5.12.2-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea?
Answer A: The vessel may discharge disinfected and comminuted sewage into the sea, from an approved system, only if the vessel is more than three nautical miles from the nearest land.
Answer B: The vessel must have an approved sewage plant.
Answer C: The vessel may discharge sewage into the sea, from an approved system which is not comminuted or disinfected, only if the vessel is more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land.
Answer D: All of the above
 
88. (2.5.12.2-1) According to 33 CFR's, an oceangoing ship of over 400 gross tons must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection. What size bolt circle diameter is required for this shore connection to transfer oily ballast to a shore side reception facility?
Answer A: 125 mm
Answer B: 183 mm
Answer C: 215 mm
Answer D: 250 mm
 
89. (2.5.12.2-4) When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas,.
Answer A: records must be provided and maintained for two years
Answer B: an entry into the official logbook must be made
Answer C: the U.S. Coast Guard must be notified for each occurrence
Answer D: no record is required if dumping is carried out more than 25 miles offshore and there is no included plastic material
 
90. (2.5.12.2-2) Victual waste is.
Answer A: the final waste product of a manufacturing process
Answer B: the resultant sludge that is collected after water washing a boiler
Answer C: the final discharge of sewage treatment plants
Answer D: any garbage that comes from food or food provisions
 
91. (2.5.12.2-5) The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in.
Answer A: barrels, measured in 55 gallon drums
Answer B: weight in either kilogram or pounds
Answer C: cubic yards convertible to long tons
Answer D: cubic meters
 
92. (2.5.12.5.3-3) Pressure-vacuum relief valves, as used on tank vessels, are usually set to operate at two points,.
Answer A: any two points below atmospheric pressure
Answer B: any two points above atmospheric pressure
Answer C: 14.2 psia; 2 psig
Answer D: 26 inches of vacuum; 5 psig
 
93. (2.5.12.5.3-1) Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be kept in good working order to prevent.
Answer A: oil spillage on deck
Answer B: entry of burning substances
Answer C: escape of explosive vapors
Answer D: damage to tank boundaries
 
94. (2.5.12.5.3-2) Which of the following pressures represents the normal pressure setting of a pressure- vacuum relief valve as normally found on tank vessels?
Answer A: 22.7 psia - 14.7 psia
Answer B: 20.7 psia - 14.6 psia
Answer C: 18.7 psia - 14.4 psia
Answer D: 16.7 psia - 14.2 psia
 
95. (2.5.12.1-4) To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST.
Answer A: open block valves, then start the cargo pump
Answer B: start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
Answer C: open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
Answer D: open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
 
96. (2.5.12.1-5) Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as.
Answer A: crude oil
Answer B: segregated ballast
Answer C: dirty ballast
Answer D: clean ballast
 
97. (2.5.12.1-3) When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must.
Answer A: be terminated automatically
Answer B: be completely discharged in order to load
Answer C: be stopped until the oil can settle out, then resumed at a slower discharge rate
Answer D: be completed only after "load on top" has been completed
 
98. (2.5.12.1-1) After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you close FIRST?
Answer A: Sea suction valve
Answer B: Tank manifold filling valve
Answer C: Deck filling valve
Answer D: Pump discharge valve
 
99. (2.5.12.1-2) In order to prevent the unnecessary release of hydrocarbons to atmosphere, when taking on departure ballast, one method used is to .
Answer A: allow entering ballast to displace the inert gas to a tank where cargo is currently being discharged
Answer B: manually open the pressure/vacuum device
Answer C: use blowers to purge the inert gas from tanks
Answer D: completely open the mast riser valve
 
100. (2.5.12.5.2-1) The term "load on top" is the name of a method used on many crude oil carriers for the purpose of.
Answer A: calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks
Answer B: calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank
Answer C: the loading of new cargo into a decanted slop tank as a procedure to minimize pollution
Answer D: loading ballast by gravity
 
101. (2.5.12.6.2-3) How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?
Answer A: De-energizes the "charged mist" effect.
Answer B: Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors.
Answer C: Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit.
Answer D: Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
 
102. (2.5 .12.6.2-6) Excessive recirculation of inert gas is.
Answer A: undesirable and it may lead to high oxygen content of the inert gas
Answer B: likely to over pressurize the cargo tanks
Answer C: likely to overheat the deck water seal
Answer D: highly recommended
 
103. (2.5.12.6.2-2) The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if.
Answer A: normal water supply at the water seal is lost
Answer B: the temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks is more than 150F
Answer C: the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost
Answer D: all of the above
 
104. (2.5.12.6.2-8) When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be
Answer A: secure the inert gas blower
Answer B: secure the salt water supply to the scrubber
Answer C: close the deck isolating valve
Answer D: close the flue gas isolating valve
 
105. (2.5.12.6.2 -4) Each inert gas system must be equipped with the following instruments: oxygen concentration indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and recorder, and temperature indicator. The point of measurement for these instruments must be located.
Answer A: scrubber outlet
Answer B: after the gas regulating valve
Answer C: downstream of the blowers
Answer D: upstream of the liquid filled breaker
 
106. (2.5.12.6.2-5) Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure .
Answer A: oxygen
Answer B: water vapor
Answer C: nitrogen
Answer D: carbon dioxide
 
107. (2.5.12.6.2-1) The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the .
Answer A: scrubber
Answer B: purifier
Answer C: filter
Answer D: cooler
 
108. (2.5.12.6.2-7) When the inert gas system is temporarily unable to maintain a positive pressure, or an oxygen content less than 8%, cargo operations should.
Answer A: continue only under "Emergency Procedures"
Answer B: be shutdown immediately
Answer C: continue at a slower rate until these requirements are met
Answer D: be monitored more frequently
 
109. (2.5.12.3.2-1) Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?
Answer A: The vessel's Certificate of Inspection
Answer B: The vessel's International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate
Answer C: The vessel's Oil Transfer Procedures
Answer D: The vessel's Oil Record Book
 
110. (2.5.12.3.2-2) During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed?
Answer A: The designated person in charge
Answer B: The oiler
Answer C: The tankerman
Answer D: The senior able seaman
 
111. (2.5.12.6.1-2) In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be.
Answer A: opened to the atmosphere for ventilation
Answer B: gas free
Answer C: full of cargo
Answer D: inerted
 
112. (2.5.12.6.1-4) Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing.
Answer A: a higher temperature
Answer B: a higher pressure jet
Answer C: the solvent effect of the crude oil
Answer D: none of the above.
 
113. (2.5.12.6.1-3) To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude oil washing process, due to the presence of water in the crude oil washing fluid, the contents of any tank to be used as a source of crude oil for washing must first reduce a portion of the tank contents by a vertical height equal to
Answer A: one-half meter
Answer B: one meter
Answer C: one and one-half meters
Answer D: two meters
 
114. (2.5.12.6.1-5) Bottom mounted crude oil washing machines are primarily used for.
Answer A: all vertical surfaces
Answer B: the majority of crude oil tank cleaning
Answer C: washing the entire bottom of the tank
Answer D: areas where direct impingement from deck mounted machines cannot be satisfactorily reached
 
115. (2.5.12.6.1 -6) When tanks have been washed with crude oil, and ballasted without being water rinsed, the ballast is referred to as .
Answer A: clean ballast
Answer B: dirty ballast
Answer C: segregated ballast
Answer D: dedicated ballast
 
116. (2.5.12.6.1-1) A Crude Oil Wash (COW) system is considered as.
Answer A: a cleanup for pump room bilges
Answer B: a mechanism which filters and purifies crude oil
Answer C: a water operated Butterworth system
Answer D: a Butterworth system using crude oil instead of water as the cleaning medium
 
117. (2.5 .12.6.1-7) Crude oil washing has which of the following disadvantages?
Answer A: It requires following additional work procedures and close attention by the crew during cargo operations.
Answer B: Allows buildup of cargo residue on tank walls.
Answer C: Its cleaning ability is very poor.
Answer D: When completed, more cargo is retained aboard the ship than with water washing.
 
118. (2.5.12.3.4-1) Which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?
Answer A: list of individuals required to respond
Answer B: plan exercises
Answer C: reporting requirements
Answer D: removal equipment list
 
119. (2.5.12.3.4-2) Which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
Answer A: a list which specifies who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority in which they must be notified
Answer B: a list of personnel duty assignments
Answer C: a list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports
Answer D: a list of agencies or officials of Coastal State administrations responsible for receiving and processing incident reports
 
120. (2.5.12.3.4-3) When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard.
Answer A: six months prior to the end of the approval period
Answer B: one month prior to the anniversary date of the plan
Answer C: and can be implemented without immediate approval as long as final approval is received within six months of submittal
Answer D: and cannot be implemented without approval
 
121. (2.5.12.3.4-4) Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed.
Answer A: annually only
Answer B: biennially only
Answer C: quad-annually only
Answer D: only once every five years
 
122. (2.5.12.4-3) U.S. flag ships may obtain an Oil Record Book from the.
Answer A: Environmental Protection Agency
Answer B: U.S. Customs Agency
Answer C: local MSO/COTPs/MIO's
Answer D: local courthouse
 
123. (2.5.12.4-2) If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record Book, you should.
Answer A: notify the ship's officer in charge
Answer B: draw a single line through the wrong entry and initial it
Answer C: erase the entry and rewrite it
Answer D: completely black it out and make the correct entry alongside
 
124. (2.5.12.4-1) In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped into operational sections. Each section is codified by a/an.
Answer A: letter
Answer B: abbreviation
Answer C: number
Answer D: all of the above
 
125. (2.5.12.4-7) Each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in the Oil Record Book shall be fully recorded .
Answer A: without delay
Answer B: within 12 hours of completion of the operation
Answer C: within 24 hours of completion of the project
Answer D: within 48 hours of completion of the operation
 
126. (2.5.12.4-6) The Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships.
Answer A: is to be kept in the personal possession of the master
Answer B: is required to have entries recorded within 48 hours of completion of the particular operation
Answer C: is the property of the U.S. government
Answer D: should not be used to record the accidental discharge of oil or oily mixtures
 
127. (2.5.12.4-5) The overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil Record Book is given to.
Answer A: master
Answer B: cargo engineer
Answer C: chief engineer
Answer D: chief mate
 
128. (2.5.12.4-4) Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations?
Answer A: The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces.
Answer B: The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo.
Answer C: Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
129. (2.5.13.1-4) If additional weight is placed on the main deck of the vessel shown in the illustration . Illustration SF-0023
Answer A: KB will go down
Answer B: GM will increase
Answer C: G will rise
Answer D: K will rise
 
130. (2.5.13.1-1) Reserve buoyancy is the.
Answer A: unoccupied space below the waterline
Answer B: volume of intact space above the waterline
Answer C: difference between buoyancy in salt and fresh waters
Answer D: excess of the buoyant force over gravitational force
 
131. (2.5.13.1-2) In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the.
Answer A: center of flotation
Answer B: amidships
Answer C: geometric center of the displaced volume
Answer D: metacenter
 
132. (2.5.13.1-3) Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the
Answer A: keel
Answer B: center of buoyancy
Answer C: center of flotation
Answer D: aft perpendicular
 
133. (2.5.13.1-5) Clogged limber holes can endanger a ship's stability by.
Answer A: increasing water area on the keelson
Answer B: preventing water from draining to the bilge well
Answer C: decreasing off-center weight
Answer D: preventing the free surface effect
 
134. (2.5.13.1-6) Static water pressure on the hull of a ship is greatest at the.
Answer A: bow
Answer B: stern
Answer C: boot topping
Answer D: keel
 
135. (2.5 .13.1-7) What standard mathematical formula is commonly used to calculate a vessels water plane area for stability purposes?
Answer A: Reynolds Number Rule
Answer B: Simpsons Rule
Answer C: Pythagorean Rule
Answer D: Standard Logarithmic Rule
 
136. (2.5.13.1-8) The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water is equal to the
Answer A: displaced submerged volume
Answer B: weight required to sink the vessel
Answer C: total weight of the vessel
Answer D: reserve buoyancy
 
137. (2.5.13.1-9) If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter- flooding into empty tanks will.
Answer A: increase list or trim
Answer B: increase the righting arm
Answer C: increase the righting moment
Answer D: decrease list or trim
 
138. (2.5.13.1-10) If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter- flooding into empty ballast tanks may.
Answer A: cause an increase in the righting arm
Answer B: bring the unit to an upright equilibrium position
Answer C: cause the unit to flop to a greater angle
Answer D: increase the righting moment
 
139. (2.5.13.2-1) The symbol shown in the illustration used to represent displacement is_ Illustrations SF-0022
Answer A: 1
Answer B: 2
Answer C: 3
Answer D: 4
 
140. (2.5.13.2-2) Symbol number "3" shown in the illustration represents which of the following? Illustration SF-0022
Answer A: amidships
Answer B: baseline
Answer C: forward perpendicular
Answer D: displacement
 
141. (2.5.13.2-3) The symbol shown in the illustration and is used as the reference from which transverse measurements are made is. Illustration SF-0022
Answer A: 5
Answer B: 4
Answer C: 3
Answer D: 1
 
142. (2.5 .13.3-1) The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called_
Answer A: freeboard
Answer B: reserve buoyancy
Answer C: draft
Answer D: tonnage
 
143. (2.5.13.3-2) After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will
Answer A: change, depending on the location of the LCG
Answer B: decrease
Answer C: increase
Answer D: remain the constant
 
144. (2.5.13.3-3) Many uninspected motor vessels require load lines. For the purpose of the Load Line Regulations, the term 'surveyor' means.
Answer A: any person designated by the American Bureau of Shipping who actually examines the vessel
Answer B: an officer of the Coast Guard designated by the commandant to command all Coast Guard activities within his district
Answer C: any person from the Coast Guard who is in charge of a marine inspection zone
Answer D: any person from the Coast Guard who performs duties with respect to the inspection, enforcement, and administration of Title 52 of the revised statute
 
145. (2.5 .13.4-1) With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the .
Answer A: center of flotation
Answer B: original vertical centerline
Answer C: metacenter
Answer D: longitudinal centerline
 
146. (2.5.13.4-2) A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the.
Answer A: freeboard is increased
Answer B: tanks are ballasted
Answer C: trim is increased
Answer D: reserve buoyancy increases
 
147. (2.5 .13.4-3) The important stability parameter 'KG' is defined as the.
Answer A: height of the center of buoyancy above the keel
Answer B: height of the center of gravity above the keel
Answer C: metacentric height
Answer D: height of the metacenter above the keel
 
148. (2.5.13.4-4) The symbol shown in the illustration and used as a reference, from which the height of the center of gravity is measured, is item number. Illustration SF-0022
Answer A: 5
Answer B: 4
Answer C: 3
Answer D: 2
 
149. (2.5.13.5-1) When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the.
Answer A: upward movement of the center of flotation
Answer B: movement of the center of gravity
Answer C: increased free surface in the buoyant wedge
Answer D: movement of the center of buoyancy toward the low side of the vessel
 
150. (2.5 .13.5-2) The center of volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the
Answer A: metacentric height
Answer B: center of gravity
Answer C: center of buoyancy
Answer D: center of flotation
 
151. (2.5.13.5-3) The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of.
Answer A: effort
Answer B: buoyancy
Answer C: gravity
Answer D: flotation
 
152. (2.5.13.5-4) Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?
Answer A: BM
Answer B: CB
Answer C: BK
Answer D: KB
 
153. (2.5.13.6-2) A vessel trimmed down by the bow has_
Answer A: a low mean draft
Answer B: a greater draft aft than forward
Answer C: zero trim
Answer D: a greater draft forward than aft
 
154. (2.5 .13.6-3) The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is
Answer A: longitudinal stability
Answer B: metacentric height
Answer C: the righting arm couple
Answer D: transverse inclination
 
155. (2.5.13.6-4) In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to.
Answer A: decrease draft at the center of flotation
Answer B: list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center of gravity
Answer C: heel until the angle of loll is reached
Answer D: trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equal
 
156. (2.5.13.6-5) What effect will transferring fuel oil from No.1P double bottom to No.3P double bottom have on the trim of a vessel?
Answer A: The after draft will decrease.
Answer B: The mean draft will decrease.
Answer C: The mean draft will increase.
Answer D: The forward draft will decrease.
 
157. (2.5.13.6-1) If a vessel rolls to the starboard side, and there are no movable or moving weights onboard, the center of gravity will.
Answer A: move to starboard
Answer B: move to port
Answer C: move directly down
Answer D: stay in the same position
 
158. (2.5.13.7-1) You may improve a vessel's stability by.
Answer A: keeping at least one fuel tank empty for slops
Answer B: keeping the fuel tanks at least half full
Answer C: increasing the free surface effect
Answer D: keeping the fuel tanks topped off
 
159. (2.5.13.7-2) Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the
Answer A: virtual height of the center of gravity
Answer B: uncorrected 'KG'
Answer C: metacentric height
Answer D: metacenter
 
160. (2.5.13.7-3) Excessive free surface occurring in tanks carrying liquid cargo should be avoided in order to.
Answer A: maintain good stability
Answer B: maintain hog and sag
Answer C: prevent oil pollution
Answer D: all of the above
 
161. (2.5.13.7-4) Adverse effects due to free surface will result when.
Answer A: the vessel's draft is increased, thus increasing the vessel's wetted surface area
Answer B: the vessel is trimmed by the stern
Answer C: a portion of liquid is removed from a full tank
Answer D: the vessel's draft is decreased exposing more surface area to the wind and current
 
162. (2.5.13.8-1) A vessel which is subjected to 'hogging'
Answer A: has its main deck plating under tensile stress
Answer B: has its main deck under compressive stress
Answer C: has its bottom plating under ductile stress
Answer D: has its bottom plate under tensile stress
 
163. (2.5.13.8-2) A vessel having a concentration of weight toward the top of the vessel is said to be
Answer A: tender
Answer B: stiff
Answer C: neutral
Answer D: buoyant
 
164. (2.5.13.8-3) What is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to above the main deck?
Answer A: The stability is increased.
Answer B: The stability is decreased.
Answer C: The draft is increased.
Answer D: The reserve buoyancy is decreased.
 
165. (2.5.13.8-4) Which of the listed conditions will occur to the ship's center of gravity if 200 tons of steel is transferred to the ships cargo-hold from shore side?
Answer A: The center of gravity will remain in the same position.
Answer B: The reserve buoyancy will rise.
Answer C: The center of gravity will be lowered.
Answer D: The reserve buoyancy will remain the same.
 
166. (2.5.13.9-1) The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel is called.
Answer A: surge
Answer B: sway
Answer C: heave
Answer D: yaw
 
167. (2.5 .13.9-2) The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as.
Answer A: surge
Answer B: pitch
Answer C: heave
Answer D: sway
 
168. (2.5.13.9-3) The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is.
Answer A: heaving
Answer B: pitching
Answer C: swaying
Answer D: rolling
 
169. (2.5.13.9-4) Pitching is the rising and falling motion of the bow of a ship oscillating about which axis?
Answer A: Transverse
Answer B: Centerline
Answer C: Longitudinal
Answer D: Vertical
 
170. (2.5.1.1 -1) In a compartment that has been completely flooded, the greatest pressure will be exerted.
Answer A: at the center of all bulkheads
Answer B: along the top of any bulkhead
Answer C: on the overhead of the compartment
Answer D: along the bottom of any bulkhead
 
171. (2.5.1.6-1) Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel tank level has increased. You therefore should suspect.
Answer A: a load of bad fuel
Answer B: contamination from the salt water flushing system
Answer C: condensation in the fuel tank
Answer D: a crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank
 
172. (2.5.1.5-2) Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and.
Answer A: transferring reserve feed water
Answer B: evacuating the engine room
Answer C: pumping out flooded compartments
Answer D: dumping fuel oil
 
173. (2.5.1.5-1) In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted.
Answer A: at a point that is one-third from the bottom of the bulkhead
Answer B: at the vertical center of the bulkhead
Answer C: along the top of the bulkhead
Answer D: along the bottom of any bulkhead
 
174. (2.5.1.5 -3) Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should.
Answer A: tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level
Answer B: open the watertight door and take a quick look
Answer C: feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot
Answer D: open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges
 
175. (2.5.1.2 -1) A flat block placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure is referred to as a.
Answer A: strong back
Answer B: shole
Answer C: shore foot
Answer D: butt piece
 
176. (2.5.1.2-6) The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following statements is correct for this condition? Illustration SF-0018
Answer A: Shore "A" will support the greatest load.
Answer B: Shore "A" will not slip under load.
Answer C: Shore "B" will support the load without it cracking.
Answer D: Shore "B" will crack at the pointed end.
 
177. (2.5.1.2-3) After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring.
Answer A: approximately 1/2 inch shorter per foot of the measured length to allow for wet expansion
Answer B: approximately 1/2 inch shorter than the measured length to allow for the use of wedges
Answer C: approximately 1/2 inch longer than the measured length to allow for trimming
Answer D: to the same length as the measured length
 
178. (2.5.1.2-5) Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to.
Answer A: prevent fractures from spreading
Answer B: support a damaged bulkhead in position
Answer C: force a warped bulkhead back into its normal position
Answer D: force a sprung bulkhead back into place
 
179. (2.5.1.2-7) After an emergency shoring installation has been completed, the.
Answer A: shoring should be frequently inspected for looseness
Answer B: repair is completed and no further action is needed
Answer C: timbers are nailed in place to prevent looseness
Answer D: damaged plating should be straightened by heating
 
180. (2.5.1.4-3) The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from.
Answer A: collapsing
Answer B: developing free surface moments
Answer C: developing free surfaces
Answer D: filling completely
 
181. (2.5.1.4-1) It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges.
Answer A: will pull through the plating
Answer B: will splinter
Answer C: tend to open the crack
Answer D: will work loose
 
182. (2.5.1.4 -2) An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to.
Answer A: drill holes at each end
Answer B: shore up the crack with welded braces
Answer C: tack weld a doubler plate over the crack
Answer D: apply a patch of sheet packing backed by a strong back or shoring
 
183. (2.5.3.6-4) The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to.
Answer A: keep the movement of the davits at the same speed
Answer B: keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed position
Answer C: prevent vibration during lowering of the boat
Answer D: support the manropes
 
184. (2.5.3.6-1) In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number. Illustration SF-0043
Answer A: 3
Answer B: 6
Answer C: 7
Answer D: 9
 
185. (2.5.3.6-6) Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?
Answer A: The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links.
Answer B: The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew.
Answer C: A water spay system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual pump.
Answer D: A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air for the survivors and the diesel engine.
 
186. (2.5.3.6 -2) When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines.
Answer A: on only the forward falls
Answer B: on only the after falls
Answer C: fore and aft with a lead of about 45 to the boat
Answer D: from the falls to the tricing gear
 
187. (2.5.3.6-3) The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is.
Answer A: manually disengaged when hoisting a boat
Answer B: applied by dropping the counterweighted lever
Answer C: controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism
Answer D: automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive
 
188. (2.5.3.2-1) A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water is defined as a.
Answer A: life raft
Answer B: life cushion
Answer C: life preserver
Answer D: buoyant apparatus
 
189. (2.5.3.9-1) The sea painter on a rescue boat should be led.
Answer A: forward and outside of all obstructions
Answer B: forward and inside of all obstructions
Answer C: up and down from the main deck
Answer D: to the foremost point on the vessel
 
190. (2.5.3.3-1) Life jackets should be stowed in.
Answer A: the forepeaks
Answer B: the pump room
Answer C: readily accessible spaces
Answer D: locked watertight containers
 
191. (2.5.3.3-3) Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be.
Answer A: stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted
Answer B: used as seats, pillows, or foot rests
Answer C: left on open decks
Answer D: all of the above
 
192. (2.5.3.3-4) You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket.
Answer A: upon entering the helicopter
Answer B: prior to reaching the water
Answer C: after reaching the water, but prior to exiting the helicopter
Answer D: after exiting clear of the helicopter
 
193. (2.5.3.3-2) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?
Answer A: Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets.
Answer B: Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water.
Answer C: Life jackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly.
Answer D: Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used.
 
194. (2.5.3.7-2) When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for
Answer A: personnel air supply
Answer B: additional flotation
Answer C: priming the sprinkler system
Answer D: filling the self-righting bags
 
195. (2.5.3.7-6) The survival craft engine is fueled with
Answer A: kerosene
Answer B: unleaded gasoline
Answer C: diesel oil
Answer D: liquefied gas
 
196. (2.5.3.7-5) While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped
Answer A: when the craft clears the water
Answer B: when the cable has been attached
Answer C: on approach to the platform
Answer D: at the embarkation
 
197. (2.5.3.7-3) When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the
Answer A: sea anchor is deployed
Answer B: hydraulic starting system has been drained
Answer C: hydraulic pressure is within the specified range
Answer D: steering controls are locked
 
198. (2.5.3.7-8) When collecting condensation for drinking water,.
Answer A: a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free
Answer B: only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collected
Answer C: it should be strained through a finely woven cloth
Answer D: chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable
 
199. (2.5.3.7-7) Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?
Answer A: Roustabout
Answer B: First man aboard
Answer C: Last man aboard
Answer D: Helmsman
 
200. (2.5.3.7 -4) To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you_
Answer A: put it into a container of water
Answer B: tear off the tabs on the canister
Answer C: turn it upside down
Answer D: push 'on' button
 
201. (2.5.3.7 -1) In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft.
Answer A: into the seas
Answer B: broadside to the seas
Answer C: in the same direction as the seas
Answer D: in a series of figure-eights
 
202. (2.5.3.5-1) Which of the following is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit?
Answer A: Chemical protection face shield
Answer B: Approved work vest
Answer C: Self-contained breathing apparatus
Answer D: 5 cell approved flashlight
 
203. (2.5.3.10-2) Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB.
Answer A: is a device that transmits a radio signal
Answer B: must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use
Answer C: must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
Answer D: all of the above
 
204. (2.5.3 .10-1) Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?
Answer A: Immediately upon abandoning the vessel.
Answer B: At half-hour intervals.
Answer C: At one hour intervals.
Answer D: Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels.
 
205. (2.5.3.10-3) You have abandoned ship and after two days in a life raft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should.
Answer A: switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode
Answer B: use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft
Answer C: turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB
Answer D: use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB
 
206. (2.5.3.8 -9) You are at sea in an inflatable life raft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is
Answer A: collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
Answer B: asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
Answer C: hypothermia caused by cold temperature
Answer D: starvation
 
207. (2.5.3.8-7) When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable life raft, the personnel on the raft should.
Answer A: deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of capsizing
Answer B: inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability
Answer C: remove their life jackets to prepare for the transfer
Answer D: take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling
 
208. (2.5.3.8-5) While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather.
Answer A: the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes
Answer B: the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure
Answer C: deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel
Answer D: the entrance curtains should never be opened
 
209. (2.5.3.8-2) The canopy of your life raft should.
Answer A: go into place as the raft is inflated
Answer B: be put up after everyone is aboard
Answer C: be put up only in severe weather
Answer D: be used as a sail if the wind is blowing
 
210. (2.5.3.8 -1) If a life raft should capsize.
Answer A: climb onto the bottom
Answer B: swim away from the raft
Answer C: right the raft using the righting straps
Answer D: inflate the righting bag
 
211. (2.5.3.8-3) Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will.
Answer A: reduce the drift rate of the life raft
Answer B: keep the life raft from turning over
Answer C: aid in recovering the life raft
Answer D: increase your visibility
 
212. (2.5.3.8-8) The painter on a rigid life raft must have a length sufficient to reach the highest waterline plus an additional.
Answer A: 5 meters (16 feet)
Answer B: 10 meters (31 feet)
Answer C: 15 meters (50 feet)
Answer D: 20 meters (66 feet)
 
213. (2.5.3.8-4) The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to.
Answer A: assist in sleeping
Answer B: reduce appetite by decreasing nausea
Answer C: prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting
Answer D: prevent impaired judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness
 
214. (2.5.3.8 -6) When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is
Answer A: fastened to some substantial part of the vessel
Answer B: secured to the hydrostatic release
Answer C: fastened to the raft container
Answer D: not fastened to anything
 
215. (2.5.3.4-2) The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated
Answer A: before you enter the water
Answer B: after you enter the water
Answer C: after one hour in the water
Answer D: after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy
 
216. (2.5.3.4 -3) Which of the following statements is true concerning an immersion suit and its use?
Answer A: Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath.
Answer B: They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket.
Answer C: They should be tight fitting.
Answer D: A tear in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.
 
217. (2.5.3.1-4) Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health?
Answer A: The equipment is compact and the wearer can work in confined spaces without difficulty.
Answer B: The equipment used is lightweight and easy to wear by reducing physical strain on the wearer.
Answer C: The average operating time for most air cylinders is over an hour.
Answer D: The positive pressure in the face piece prevents contaminated air from entering the face piece.
 
218. (2.5.3.1-3) Which of the components listed are interchangeable between different backpack self- contained breathing apparatus produced by various manufacturers?
Answer A: The face piece
Answer B: The air cylinder
Answer C: The regulator
Answer D: All of the above
 
219. (2.5.3.1-5) Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for the repair/investigation personnel in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?
Answer A: Emergency Escape Breathing Apparatus (EEBA)
Answer B: U.S. Navy Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA)
Answer C: Positive Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
Answer D: Self-Contained Demand-Type Breathing Apparatus (SCDBA)
 
220. (2.5.3.1-1) Which of the following limitations is correct regarding gas or filter masks?
Answer A: A maximum of only 30 minutes of protection is afforded with a single canister when in atmospheres containing highly toxic gases.
Answer B: All canisters must be discarded within 24 hours when the seal becomes broken.
Answer C: A canister is reliable for up to 5 years from the date of manufacture, as long as the seal is unbroken.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
221. (2.5.3.1 -7) Manufacturers of self-contained breathing apparatus use color-coded face pieces to indicate different sizes. Which of the following statements is true concerning the colors of SCBA face pieces?
Answer A: Size "Small" is green.
Answer B: Size "Large" (standard) is black.
Answer C: Size "Extra Large" is red.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
222. (2.5.3.1-2) The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses
Answer A: a breathing bag containing excessive pressure
Answer B: the regulator in an emergency
Answer C: oxygen to the atmosphere
Answer D: the regenerator in an emergency
 
223. (2.5.3.1-6) Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?
Answer A: Wet handkerchief.
Answer B: Self-contained breathing apparatus.
Answer C: Dust or gas mask.
Answer D: Canister type mask.
 
224. (2.5.4.1-1) A fire can be extinguished by removing
Answer A: the fuel
Answer B: the heat
Answer C: the oxygen
Answer D: any of the above
 
225. (2.5.4.1-2) Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn?
Answer A: The mixture of vapors with air must be between the LEL and the UEL.
Answer B: The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity.
Answer C: The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire point.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
226. (2.5.4.1-3) Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by
Answer A: removing the fuel
Answer B: removing the heat
Answer C: interrupting the chain reaction
Answer D: removing the oxygen
 
227. (2.5.4.1-4) All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT
Answer A: fuel
Answer B: oxygen
Answer C: heat
Answer D: electricity
 
228. (2.5.4.1-5) The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to
Answer A: the accumulation of explosive gases
Answer B: faster cooling of the fire
Answer C: the fire spreading by way of the ventilation system
Answer D: fixed foam systems to be ineffective
 
229. (2.5.4.1-6) Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?
Answer A: Nitrogen
Answer B: Hydrogen
Answer C: Carbon dioxide
Answer D: Carbon monoxide
 
230. (2.5.4.1 -7) The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as
Answer A: that concentration above which there is just enough flammable vapor to produce an explosion
Answer B: that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn
Answer C: the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an explosion
Answer D: the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion
 
231. (2.4.4.2-2) In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by. Illustration SF-0013
Answer A: convection
Answer B: radiation
Answer C: conduction
Answer D: impingement
 
232. (2.5.4.2-1) It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to.
Answer A: cool the metal below its ignition temperature
Answer B: form a dense coating of smothering steam
Answer C: prevent oxygen from reaching the flames
Answer D: prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat
 
233. (2.5.4.3-3) To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should.
Answer A: cool the bulkhead around the fire
Answer B: shut off electrical power
Answer C: close all openings to the area
Answer D: remove combustibles from direct exposure
 
234. (2.5.4.3-1) The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system is an example of heat transfer by.
Answer A: conduction
Answer B: convection
Answer C: radiation
Answer D: windage
 
235. (2.5.4.3-2) In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by.
Answer A: convection
Answer B: conduction
Answer C: radiation
Answer D: ventilation
 
236. (2.5.4.3-4) The air flow depicted in figure 1 of the illustration is an example of which type of ventilation? Illustration SF-0013
Answer A: Combination.
Answer B: Vertical.
Answer C: Horizontal.
Answer D: Parallel.
 
237. (2.5.4.4-1) Radiation can cause a fire to spread by.
Answer A: transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
Answer B: burning liquids flowing into another space
Answer C: heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
Answer D: the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
 
238. (2.5.4.6-1) Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?
Answer A: Aeration
Answer B: Anaerobic decomposition
Answer C: Putrefaction
Answer D: Oxidation
 
239. (2.5.4.6-2) The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as.
Answer A: chemical ignition
Answer B: chemical combustion
Answer C: radiation ignition
Answer D: spontaneous combustion
 
240. (2.5.4.6 -3) Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when
Answer A: powdered aluminum is stowed dry
Answer B: oil soaked rags are stowed in the machine shop
Answer C: dry metal turnings accumulate
Answer D: all of the above
 
241. (2.5.4.6-4) To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be_
Answer A: kept in the paint locker
Answer B: kept in nonmetal containers
Answer C: cleaned thoroughly for reuse
Answer D: discarded as soon as possible
 
242. (2.5.5.1 -1) A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire?
Answer A: Class "A"
Answer B: Class "B"
Answer C: Class "C"
Answer D: Class "D"
 
243. (2.5.5.1 -2) A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a.
Answer A: class A
Answer B: class B
Answer C: class C
Answer D: class D
 
244. (2.5.5.1 -3) A fire involving trash and paper waste would be classified as a.
Answer A: class A
Answer B: class B
Answer C: class C
Answer D: class D
 
245. (2.5.5.1 -4) A fire that has developed in a pile of rubber gasket material would be classified as a
Answer A: class A
Answer B: class B
Answer C: class C
Answer D: class D
 
246. (2.5.5.2 -2) Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class B fire?
Answer A: Dry chemical
Answer B: Foam
Answer C: CO2
Answer D: All of the above
 
247. (2.5.5.2 -3) The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is
Answer A: class A
Answer B: class B
Answer C: class C
Answer D: class D
 
248. (2.5.5.2-4) Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?
Answer A: Classes A and B
Answer B: Classes B and C
Answer C: Classes C and D
Answer D: Classes A and D
 
249. (2.5.5.2-1) A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the.
Answer A: windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to the fire
Answer B: windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if needed
Answer C: leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying a solid stream of water to wash residual fuel over the side away from the pier
Answer D: leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to protect the monitor operator
 
250. (2.5.5.3 -1) To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or .
Answer A: dry chemical
Answer B: chemical foam
Answer C: chemically treated saw dust
Answer D: mechanical foam
 
251. (2.5.5.3-3) Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?
Answer A: Susceptible to reflash
Answer B: Electrocution or shock
Answer C: Explosion
Answer D: Deep seated fire
 
252. (2.5.5.3-2) When combating a class C fire, which of the following dangers may be present?
Answer A: Flooding of the vessel
Answer B: Water damage to machinery not involved in the fire
Answer C: Toxic fumes from burning insulation or electric shock
Answer D: Increased surface area of the burning fluid
 
253. (2.5.5.4-1) A class "D" fire would involve the burning of.
Answer A: diesel oil
Answer B: dunnage
Answer C: electrical insulation
Answer D: magnesium
 
254. (2.5.5.4 -2) A magnesium fire would be classified as a.
Answer A: class A
Answer B: class B
Answer C: class C
Answer D: class D
 
255. (2.5.6.1-6) Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?
Answer A: Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening.
Answer B: Keeping the duct exterior clean.
Answer C: Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening.
Answer D: Keeping the duct interior clean.
 
256. (2.5.6.1-4) Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be.
Answer A: drained into a common container after each use
Answer B: returned to the paint locker after each use
Answer C: stowed safely at the work site until work is completed
Answer D: covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources
 
257. (2.5.6.1-2) When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are.
Answer A: high carbon steel
Answer B: approved by the Coast Guard
Answer C: fixed with a ferrous cover
Answer D: non-ferrous
 
258. (2.5.6.1-5) A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker is to
Answer A: label the fixed firefighting system
Answer B: store paint cans on metal shelves only
Answer C: not allow oily rags to accumulate in the space
Answer D: place a portable fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker
 
259. (2.5.6.1-3) Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by
Answer A: allowing better access in an emergency
Answer B: eliminating potential fuel sources
Answer C: eliminating trip hazards
Answer D: improving personnel qualifications
 
260. (2.5.6.1-1) The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be
Answer A: in the amidships house
Answer B: at the main deck manifold
Answer C: at the vent header
Answer D: in the pump room
 
261. (2.5.6.2 -1) In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and.
Answer A: work schedule
Answer B: instructions for lowering the survival capsule
Answer C: all emergency signals
Answer D: the time each weekly drill will be held
 
262. (2.5.6.3-1) The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systems? Illustration SF-0004
Answer A: Line-type pneumatic
Answer B: Fixed temperature
Answer C: Rate-of-rise
Answer D: Combined fixed temperature and rate-of-rise
 
263. (2.5.6.3-2) In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected
Answer A: to the detecting cabinet
Answer B: to the trouble alarm supervising resistor
Answer C: in parallel
Answer D: in series
 
264. (2.5.6.3 -3) Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense.
Answer A: ionized particles
Answer B: smoke
Answer C: rate of temperature rise
Answer D: all of the above
 
265. (2.5.6.4-4) You are part of a search team and have been told that the last sighting of the wiper was next to the fire pump(s). What is the location of the fire pump(s)? Illustration SF-0046
Answer A: Auxiliary machinery space, starboard side, frame 104
Answer B: Machinery space, starboard side, frame 123
Answer C: Machinery space, port side, frame 127
Answer D: Machinery space, port side, frame 131
 
266. (2.5.6.4-2) If there was a fire out of control on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat, what fixed extinguishing system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fire? Illustration SF- 0044
Answer A: Drenching
Answer B: Carbon Dioxide
Answer C: Halon
Answer D: Water
 
267. (2.5.6.4 -3) On the illustrated fire control plan of the lower engine room, the arrow between frames 135 and 140 represents what? Illustration SF-0046
Answer A: Direction of fire main
Answer B: Primary means of escape
Answer C: Secondary means of escape
Answer D: Missing person search pattern
 
268. (2.5.6.4-1) What safety information can be found in the fire control plan that is posted or available in booklet form on your ship?
Answer A: Particulars of the fire detecting system
Answer B: Location of the remote means of stopping fans
Answer C: Location of fire doors
Answer D: All of the above.
 
269. (2.5.14.1-4) According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall be.
Answer A: constructed so as to be completely spill proof
Answer B: emptied and gas freed when the ship is dry-docked
Answer C: emptied and the fuel changed at least once each year
Answer D: hydrostatically tested at each inspection for certification
 
270. (2.5.14.1-1) The device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces is called a.
Answer A: flame arrester
Answer B: safety valve
Answer C: flame relief valve
Answer D: flame stopper
 
271. (2.5.14.1-2) Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be.
Answer A: provided for each person onboard
Answer B: provided for all personnel on watch
Answer C: readily accessible to persons in the engine room
Answer D: all of the above
 
272. (2.5.14.1-3) In addition to the life jackets stowed in places that are readily accessible, life jackets must also be stowed at.
Answer A: each fire station
Answer B: each manned watch station
Answer C: the mess room
Answer D: each lifeboat
 
273. (2.5.14.1-6) Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?
Answer A: They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress.
Answer B: They should be replaced.
Answer C: They can be used for children.
Answer D: They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use.
 
274. (2.5.14.1-5) When entering the pump room of a tank vessel to rescue an unconscious person, which items of the equipment listed are you required to be using?
Answer A: Protective clothing and explosion-proof flashlight
Answer B: Combustible gas indicator and canister gas mask
Answer C: Flame safety lamp and resuscitation equipment
Answer D: Self-contained breathing apparatus and lifelines
 
275. (2.5.14.2-1) According to 46 CFR Part 76, which of the following statements is true regarding sprinkler heads which are normally activated by the melting of a fusible link?
Answer A: Sprinkler heads installed in the galley and living spaces would have the same fusible link melting point.
Answer B: Sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed in the galley.
Answer C: Sprinkler heads installed in the galley would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed in the living spaces.
Answer D: None of the above; sprinkler heads with fusible links are prohibited aboard U.S. flag vessels.
 
276. (2.5.14.2-4) The size of the fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1 1/2 inches or
Answer A: 1 inch
Answer B: 2 1/2 inches
Answer C: 3 inches
Answer D: 3 1/2 inches
 
277. (2.5.14.2-5) Fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall be.
Answer A: opened up and internally examined at each Coast Guard biannual inspection for certification
Answer B: protected against freezing or be fitted with cutout valves and drain valves
Answer C: behind glass or a suitably marked enclosure
Answer D: all of the above
 
278. (2.5.14.2-2) Which of the following statements represents the Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) applicable to the equipment required in a fireman's outfit?
Answer A: The flashlight must be of an approved three cell fireproof type.
Answer B: The assembled lifeline shall have a minimum breaking strength of 1,500 pounds (683.8 kg).
Answer C: The combustible gas indicator hose must be 100 feet (30.48 m) in length.
Answer D: All protective clothing must be electrically non-conductive.
 
279. (2.5.14.2-3) The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be.
Answer A: not less than 50 feet in length
Answer B: corrosion resistant
Answer C: made of steel or bronze wire rope
Answer D: All of the above
 
280. (2.5.14.2-6) Where multiple fire pumps are installed, they may be used for other purposes, provided that one pump is.
Answer A: capable of being quickly connected to the fire main with a suitable pipe spool
Answer B: kept available for use on the fire main at all times
Answer C: rated at or above 125 psi
Answer D: on line and in operation at all times to the fire main
 
281. (2.5.14.2-7) Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be installed in the boiler room of an 8,000 horsepower steam propelled vessel?
Answer A: Two
Answer B: Four
Answer C: Six
Answer D: Eight
 
282. (2.5.14.2-8) According to 46 CFR part 95, which of the listed fire extinguishers would be considered hand portable/semi-portable and capable of combating a class "B" fire?
Answer A: 2.5 gallons of foam
Answer B: 20 pounds of dry chemical
Answer C: 35 pounds of carbon dioxide
Answer D: All of the above
 
283. (2.5.14.3.1-1) If a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed on any vessel, it must be of a type approved by the.
Answer A: National Fire Protection Association
Answer B: U.S. Coast Guard
Answer C: Marine Fire Protection Guild
Answer D: American Bureau of Shipping
 
284. (2.5.14.3.1-2) When fire detecting systems, fire extinguishing systems, and associated equipment are not required by the Coast Guard but are installed on a cargo vessel at the option of the vessel's owner, they.
Answer A: need only to be Coast Guard inspected and/or tested after their initial installation
Answer B: are exempt from all tests and/or inspections as normally required by a Coast Guard inspector if maintained in a suitable working condition and used only as a back up
Answer C: must be removed from the vessel as the only systems allowed and approved are those listed on the Coast Guard Certificate of Inspection
Answer D: must also be inspected and/or tested in accordance with Coast Guard Regulations at each Inspection for Certification
 
285. (2.5.14.3.2-3) According to 46 CFR Part 95, which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the regulations pertaining to the carbon dioxide cylinder room for a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?
Answer A: The compartment shall be clearly identified and marked.
Answer B: The compartment must be properly ventilated.
Answer C: The door must be kept unlocked.
Answer D: The ambient temperature of the room should never be allowed to exceed 130 degrees Fahrenheit.
 
286. (2.5.14.3.2-2) The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than
Answer A: 300 pounds
Answer B: 400 pounds
Answer C: 500 pounds
Answer D: 600 pounds
 
287. (2.5.14.3.2-7) Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 34) state that any space containing charged CO2 cylinders, shall be properly ventilated to prevent a temperature higher than
Answer A: 130F (54.5C)
Answer B: 140F (60.0C)
Answer C: 150F (66.6C)
Answer D: 160F (71.1C)
 
288. (2.5.14.3.2-8) In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following power sources would be acceptable for the carbon dioxide warning alarm?
Answer A: The ship's general distribution panel.
Answer B: The general alarm power supply storage battery with a nominal potential of not less than 6 volts.
Answer C: The emergency lighting and power system via storage batteries or emergency generator.
Answer D: The alarm shall depend on no source of power other than the carbon dioxide.
 
289. (2.5.14.3.2-1) The empty weight of a '100 pound' cylinder in a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system is 130 pounds. What is the minimum acceptable weight of the cylinder before recharging would be required?
Answer A: 200 lbs
Answer B: 210 lbs
Answer C: 220 lbs
Answer D: 230 lbs
 
290. (2.5.14.3.2-9) According to 46 CFR Part 147, a cylinder used for storing CO2 in a fixed firefighting system must be hydrostatically retested and restamped every .
Answer A: calendar year
Answer B: 5 years
Answer C: 8 years
Answer D: 12 years
 
291. (2.5.14.3.2-6) How often must fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems be inspected to confirm the cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full charge weight?
Answer A: Quarterly.
Answer B: Semiannually.
Answer C: Annually.
Answer D: Biannually.
 
292. (2.5.14.3.2-4) In accordance with 46 CFR Part 95, in a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system, where provision is made for the release of CO2 by the operation of a remote control, provision is also to be made for releasing the CO2 from.
Answer A: the engineering control station
Answer B: the bridge
Answer C: inside the engine room
Answer D: the cylinder location
 
293. (2.5.14.3.2-5) A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent.
Answer A: rupture of cylinder due to temperature increase
Answer B: over pressurization of the CO2 discharge piping
Answer C: over pressurization of the space being flooded
Answer D: flooding of a space where personnel are present
 
294. (2.5.14.3.3-1) Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo and miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the following requirements?
Answer A: The deck foam system must be completely independent of the fixed foam system.
Answer B: The foam producing chemicals must be discharged and recharged every 2 years at the annual inspection.
Answer C: The foam producing chemicals must be discharged and recharged every year at annual inspection.
Answer D: The supply of foam producing materials must be sufficient to operate the equipment for at least 3 minutes for spaces other than tanks.
 
295. (2.5.14.3.3-2) When the machinery spaces on a tank vessel are protected by a fixed foam extinguishing system, what additional protection is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) outside of the machinery space entrance?
Answer A: One semi-portable CO2 extinguisher
Answer B: Two fire hydrants with hose, nozzle and applicator
Answer C: Ten cubic feet of sand with scoop
Answer D: One portable foam extinguisher
 
296. (2.5.14.3.4-1) Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that where reasonable and practicable, the steam pressure in a steam smothering system should be at least.
Answer A: 100 psi
Answer B: 125 psi
Answer C: 150 psi
Answer D: equal to one-half boiler working pressure
 
297. (2.5.14.4.1-11) Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by the_
Answer A: chief mate
Answer B: chief engineer
Answer C: master
Answer D: engineer on watch
 
298. (2.5.14.4.1-1) The Federal Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) that apply to ships are enforced by the.
Answer A: corps of engineers
Answer B: U.S. Coast Guard
Answer C: state pollution board
Answer D: port authority
 
299. (2.5.14.4.1-2) According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard is required on all .
Answer A: U.S. vessels less than 26 feet in length
Answer B: U.S. vessels 26 feet or more in length
Answer C: Foreign vessels when engaged in noncommercial service
Answer D: foreign vessels not in U.S. navigable waters
 
300. (2.5.14.4.1-4) Some Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) only apply to "new ships." Under the regulations pertaining to vessels carrying oil, noxious liquid substances, garbage, municipal or commercial waste, and ballast water, a new ship is defined as a ship.
Answer A: in the absence of a building contract, for which the keel is laid after December 31, 1979
Answer B: for which the delivery is on or after June 30, 1975
Answer C: for which the building contract has been placed after December 31, 1975
Answer D: that has undergone a major conversion, for which the contract is placed after December 31, 1979
 
301. (2.5.14.4.1-5) If a vessel moored at a U.S. terminal does not comply with Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), it may be detained by the.
Answer A: state pollution board
Answer B: inspector general
Answer C: local port authority
Answer D: captain of the port
 
302. (2.5.14.4.1-3) Exemption or partial exemption from compliance with any requirement in the Oil or Hazardous Material Pollution Prevention Regulations prescribed in (33 CFR 155) may be granted by the.
Answer A: captain of the port
Answer B: OCMI in the vessel's home port
Answer C: commandant of the Coast Guard
Answer D: vessel's chief engineer
 
303. (2.5.14.4.1-6) Where are "prohibited oil spaces" specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)?
Answer A: Part 151
Answer B: Part 154
Answer C: Part 155
Answer D: Part 156
 
304. (2.5.14.4.1-10) The Exclusive Economic Zone extends from the baseline of territorial sea of the United States seaward.
Answer A: 53 miles
Answer B: 100 miles
Answer C: 200 miles
Answer D: 300 miles
 
305. (2.5.14.4.1-7) The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), means
Answer A: crude oil only
Answer B: liquefied petroleum gas
Answer C: petroleum oil of any kind
Answer D: fuel oil only
 
306. (2.5.14.4.1-8) The term "oily mixture", as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) includes.
Answer A: oily ballast water
Answer B: bilge slops
Answer C: sludge
Answer D: all of the above
 
307. (2.5.14.4.1-9) The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations, means _
Answer A: spilling
Answer B: leaking
Answer C: dumping
Answer D: all of the above
 
308. (2.5.14.4.2-1) Ocean vessel Ballast Water Management Regulations can be found in
Answer A: 33 CFR Part 110
Answer B: 33 CFR Part 151
Answer C: 46 CFR Part 35
Answer D: 46 CFR Part 56
 
309. (2.5.14.4.2-2) To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an international voyage?
Answer A: Prior to discharging ballast water in U.S. waters, the vessel must perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 100 nautical miles from any shoreline.
Answer B: Ballast water may only be discharged overboard through an approved oily-water separator.
Answer C: Ballast water may only be discharged overboard if the vessel is underway.
Answer D: Prior to entering U.S. waters, a vessel may use any Coast Guard approved alternative environmentally sound method of BWM.
 
310. (2.5.14.4.2-3) To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an international voyage?
Answer A: Retain ballast water onboard the vessel.
Answer B: Prior to discharging ballast water in U.S. waters, the vessel must perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any shoreline.
Answer C: Prior to entering U.S. waters, use any Coast Guard approved alternative environmentally sound method of BWM.
Answer D: All of the above
 
311. (2.5.14.4.3-2) According to Code of Federal Regulations 33, a vessel operating upon the Great Lakes shall.
Answer A: have its forward most frame members sufficiently stiffened to prevent ice damage
Answer B: not discharge any garbage into these waters
Answer C: be required to re-distill all water used for cooling or condensate systems
Answer D: be certified for inland use only
 
312. (2.5.14.4.3-3) When off loading garbage to another ship, your records must identify that ship by name and.
Answer A: operator's name of record
Answer B: home port
Answer C: master's name
Answer D: official number
 
313. (2.5.14.4.3-4) Which CFR regulation identifies the placard to be posted on the vessel describing the proper disposal of garbage?
Answer A: 33 CFR Part 151.59
Answer B: 33 CFR Part 157.37
Answer C: 33 CFR Part 157.100
Answer D: 33 CFR Part 159.51
 
314. (2.5.14.4.3-1) According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 CFR 151), who is responsible for insuring that a ship is not operated unless a waste management plan is utilized?
Answer A: Vessel operating company
Answer B: Vessel's master
Answer C: Vessel owner
Answer D: U.S. Coast Guard
 
315. (2.5.14.4.4-2) A new oceangoing ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily-water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by .
Answer A: pumping them into a settling tank for separation before pumping the oily-water residue overboard
Answer B: holding its slops onboard until they can be discharged to a shore side reception facility
Answer C: circulating them through the lube oil purifier to remove water and debris
Answer D: holding its slops onboard until they can be pumped into the city sewer system
 
316. (2.5.14.4.4-4) On a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons, equipped with an approved 100 ppm oily-water separator, and bilge monitor, the bilge monitor continuous record must be.
Answer A: maintained onboard for not less than 3 years
Answer B: kept readily available for 1 year only
Answer C: detached monthly for enclosure in the Oil Record Book
Answer D: initialed after each engineering watch by the watch engineer
 
317. (2.5.14.4.4-3) Bilges may be pumped.
Answer A: on the outgoing tide
Answer B: overboard after dark
Answer C: overboard through an oily-water separator
Answer D: anytime in an emergency, i.e. main engine lube oil failure
 
318. (2.5.14.4.4-1) On U.S. inspected ships, oily-water separating equipment, bilge alarms, and bilge monitors must be approved under.
Answer A: 18 CFR 201
Answer B: 33 CFR 151
Answer C: 46 CFR 41
Answer D: 46 CFR 162
 
319. (2.5.14.4.5-1) Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations?
Answer A: The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces.
Answer B: The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo.
Answer C: Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
320. (2.5.14.4.6-3) According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin?
Answer A: The captain of the port
Answer B: The senior deck officer present
Answer C: The designated person in charge
Answer D: Any local Coast Guard representative
 
321. (2.5.14.4.6-2) According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed the .
Answer A: valve inspection record
Answer B: certificate of inspection
Answer C: oil record book
Answer D: declaration of inspection
 
322. (2.5.14.4.6-6) No person may serve as the person in charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time.
Answer A: unless the vessels are moored clear of all docks
Answer B: unless radio communication is set up between the vessels
Answer C: unless authorized by the captain of the port
Answer D: under any circumstances
 
323. (2.5.14.4.6-1) Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) specify that the person in charge of bunkering is responsible for the.
Answer A: quality of fuel received
Answer B: quantity of fuel received
Answer C: communications with terminal operator
Answer D: vessel draft
 
324. (2.5.14.4.6-4) The Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require a meeting before starting any oil transfer operation. That meeting must be between the.
Answer A: person in charge of the oil transfer operations on the vessel and the person in charge of the oil transfer operations at the facility
Answer B: master of the vessel and the terminal superintendent
Answer C: terminal supervisor, master of the vessel and the Coast Guard
Answer D: master and chief engineer of the vessel and the terminal supervisor
 
325. (2.5.14.4.6-5) According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who is to make the final decision of when oil transfer may begin?
Answer A: Captain of the port officer
Answer B: The senior deck officer present
Answer C: Designated persons in charge of vessel and facility
Answer D: Any local Coast Guard representative
 
326. (2.5.14.5.1-1) According to 46 CFR, Part 30, a Grade "E" petroleum product is.
Answer A: kerosene
Answer B: a combustible liquid
Answer C: a flammable liquid
Answer D: light fuel oil
 
327. (2.5.14.5.2-1) According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), no vessel can come alongside or remain alongside a tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade cargo without having the permission of the.
Answer A: USCG captain of the port
Answer B: tank ship owner
Answer C: officer in charge of the vessel which is loading
Answer D: terminal manager
 
328. (2.5.14.6-4) Which of the following is NOT a MARPOL, Annex V, Special Area?
Answer A: Mediterranean Sea
Answer B: Black Sea
Answer C: Great Lakes
Answer D: Red Sea
 
329. (2.5.14.6-5) According to MARPOL, the definition of oil does NOT include.
Answer A: oil refuse
Answer B: crude oil
Answer C: cooking oil
Answer D: sludge
 
330. (2.5.14.6-1) Which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?
Answer A: A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for flotation.
Answer B: Garbage accumulation onboard has exceeded storage space.
Answer C: The garbage to be discharged will sink.
Answer D: The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage.
 
331. (2.5.14.6-3) According to MARPOL, the definition of medical waste does NOT include
Answer A: dialysis wastes
Answer B: pathological wastes
Answer C: expired pharmaceuticals
Answer D: sharps
 
332. (2.5.14.6-2) According to MARPOL, the definition of gray water includes drainage from
Answer A: dishwashers
Answer B: hospital sinks
Answer C: toilets
Answer D: cargo spaces
 
333. (2.5.7.1-4) Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?
Answer A: Carbon dioxide should be applied slowly to a large engine room fire.
Answer B: Its total cooling effect is far greater than water.
Answer C: Its smothering effect is excellent for class B fires.
Answer D: Carbon dioxide is corrosive when exposed to fire.
 
334. (2.5.7.1-5) The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is.
Answer A: its good stability and non-toxicity
Answer B: its excellent cooling ability
Answer C: permanent extinguishment regardless of the reignition sources
Answer D: all of the above
 
335. (2.5.7.1-2) When using foam, a 'Class B' fire is extinguished by.
Answer A: replacing the fuel
Answer B: cooling the surface
Answer C: smothering the fire
Answer D: all of the above
 
336. (2.5.7.1-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?
Answer A: The agent is less effective than carbon dioxide.
Answer B: Halon extinguishes the fire by a chain breaking reaction.
Answer C: The agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue.
Answer D: The agent is highly toxic as stored in pressurized cylinders.
 
337. (2.5.7.1-1) When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog.
Answer A: has the greatest ability to produce foam
Answer B: has the greatest cooling ability
Answer C: will completely remove toxic fumes from the air
Answer D: will completely remove combustible vapors from the air
 
338. (2.5.7.3-3) To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would. Illustration SF-0008
Answer A: open valve and pull pin
Answer B: pull pin and open valve
Answer C: pull pin, open valve, and pull up on release lever
Answer D: open valve, pull pin, and pull up on release lever
 
339. (2.5.7.3-4) Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes.
Answer A: inspecting the pressure gauge to ensure the needle is within operating range
Answer B: hydrostatic testing of the cylinder
Answer C: weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the charge
Answer D: discharging, cleaning inside, and recharging
 
340. (2.5.7.3-5) A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only.
Answer A: if applied in connection with foam
Answer B: to prevent rekindling
Answer C: if applied promptly
Answer D: if attempts to extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed
 
341. (2.5.7.3 -6) In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher .
Answer A: with the squeeze-grip on/off nozzle at the end of the hose
Answer B: with the squeeze-grip trigger on top of the container
Answer C: by squeezing the control valve carrying handle
Answer D: by turning the activating handle on the bottom of the container
 
342. (2.5.7.3-7) Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by.
Answer A: replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with powder
Answer B: authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only
Answer C: recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder
Answer D: puncturing the cartridge seal after installation
 
343. (2.5.7.3-8) Which of the following statements is true concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the illustration? Illustration SF-0006
Answer A: The agent may be applied in short bursts by opening and closing the squeeze nozzle piece No.1.
Answer B: The illustrated extinguisher must never be used in conjunction with water.
Answer C: The initial discharge of the extinguisher should be at close range to scatter the burning material.
Answer D: There is no danger of reflash in using the illustrated extinguisher on a class B fire.
 
344. (2.5.7.3-1) Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?
Answer A: Halon 1211
Answer B: Foam
Answer C: Carbon dioxide
Answer D: Dry chemical
 
345. (2.5.7.3-2) Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing equipment?
Answer A: Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering action.
Answer B: The agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue.
Answer C: The agent is highly toxic at normal room temperature.
Answer D: For portable extinguishers, the agent is only available in a 2 pound unit.
 
346. (2.5.7.4-1) Which of the listed characteristics applies to a semi-portable CO2 system?
Answer A: Each cylinder must weigh less than 50 pounds.
Answer B: It has a portable hose and nozzle.
Answer C: The cylinders are mounted horizontally.
Answer D: It has distribution piping installed permanently.
 
347. (2.5.7.4-2) The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large Illustration SF-0009
Answer A: Halon 1301 hose reel system
Answer B: CO2 hose reel system
Answer C: light water hose reel system
Answer D: dry chemical hose reel system
 
First Assistant-Chief Engineer Questions
 
1. (3.6.12.4-3) The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in.
Answer A: cubic yards convertible to long tons
Answer B: cubic meters
Answer C: weight in either kilogram or pounds
Answer D: barrels, measured in 55 gallon drums
 
2. (3.6.12.4-2) When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas,.
Answer A: records must be provided and maintained for two years
Answer B: no record is required if dumping is carried out more than 25 miles offshore and there is no included plastic material
Answer C: an entry into the official logbook must be made
Answer D: the U.S. Coast Guard must be notified for each occurrence
 
3. (3.6.12.4-1) Victual waste is.
Answer A: the final waste product of a manufacturing process
Answer B: any garbage that comes from food or food provisions
Answer C: the final discharge of sewage treatment plants
Answer D: the resultant sludge that is collected after water washing a boiler
 
4. (3.6.13.8-5) The 2nd assistant engineer has just finished fueling operations. After entering the fuel data into the loading computer you notice a greater than allowable at-sea bending stress. After the chief mate checks the voyage cargo data the vessel still has an excessive at-sea hogging bending stress. As Chief Engineer and after consulting with the Chief Mate, what should your instructions be to reduce the bending moment when ballasting the vessel?
Answer A: Add ballast to an amidships tank.
Answer B: Add ballast to the after peak tank.
Answer C: Add ballast to the forepeak tank.
Answer D: Remove ballast from an amidships tank.
 
5. (3.6.13.8-6) Following cargo loading operations, your vessel is experiencing an excessive at-sea hogging bending stress as shown in the illustration. What should you do to reduce the bending moment? See Illustration SF-0047
Answer A: Add ballast to the forepeak tank.
Answer B: Add ballast to an amidships tank.
Answer C: Add ballast to the after peak tank.
Answer D: Remove ballast from an amidships tank.
 
6. (3.6.13.8-1) The factor contributing to the greatest effect on the ship's period of roll is the
Answer A: moment to trim 1 inch (MT1)
Answer B: virtual rise in the center of gravity
Answer C: Vertical position of KB
Answer D: vertical weight distribution
 
7. (3.6.13.8-3) A ballast tank is one-third full when additional ballast is added until it is two-thirds full. The increased amount of liquid in the tank will have the greatest influence on the.
Answer A: free surface effect
Answer B: virtual rise in the center of gravity
Answer C: value of the moment to trim 1 inch (MT1)
Answer D: transverse stability
 
8. (3.6.13.8-7) Following cargo loading operations, your vessel is experiencing an excessive at-sea sagging bending stress as shown in the illustration. What should you do to reduce the bending moment? Illustration SF-0047
Answer A: Remove ballast from an amidships tank.
Answer B: Add ballast to the forepeak and after peak tanks.
Answer C: Remove ballast to the after peak tank.
Answer D: Add ballast to an amidships tank.
 
9. (3.6.13.8-2) You can generally improve the vessel's stability in a hazardous situation by
Answer A: pumping double bottoms to the forepeak
Answer B: transferring ballast athwart ships
Answer C: ballasting appropriate port or starboard deep tanks
Answer D: deballasting double bottoms
 
10. (3.6.6.2-6) How would you ensure that your crew is prepared to combat a shipboard fire using ship's equipment?
Answer A: Have them read a firefighting text book.
Answer B: Check training records, to see if crew members have attended a firefighting training course.
Answer C: Conduct required drills, simulating fire conditions and training with ship's equipment.
Answer D: Show crew generic fire training videos.
 
11. (3.6.6.2-3) As chief engineer, you are discussing with a new third engineer the methods of fighting an engine room fire. You ask the junior engineer to explain how to proceed in the event of an engine room fire when you cannot gain entry to the control room. Which of the following should be included in the junior engineer's response?
Answer A: Open the steam smothering to the main engine.
Answer B: Secure the ventilation and allow the fire to burn itself out.
Answer C: Immediately dump the fixed CO2 system without securing the ventilation.
Answer D: Secure the fuel pumps and ventilation from the emergency station outside the engine room.
 
12. (3.6.6.2-5) Your ship is leaving port after almost a complete crew change out. The captain has ordered a fire drill simulating a fire in the engine room with full emergency gear and all hoses run out. What is the reason for drilling with this kind of simulation?
Answer A: It provides a quick method to inventory all of the firefighting gear.
Answer B: The World Health Organization requires crews to get regular exercise in the form of fire drills.
Answer C: This ensures that your crew is prepared to combat a shipboard fire using ship's equipment.
Answer D: Regulations require a full fire drill when more than half the crew changes out.
 
13. (3.6.6.2-4) As chief engineer, you are discussing fire safety with a new unlicensed crew member. What would you expect the crew member to know having been onboard the vessel for two days?
Answer A: The starting procedures for the ship's fire pump.
Answer B: Ship's signals for fire and emergency and abandon ship.
Answer C: The procedures to secure the fire detection system.
Answer D: The release procedures for the low-pressure CO2 system.
 
14. (3.6.6.2-1) In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and.
Answer A: instructions for lowering the survival capsule
Answer B: all emergency signals
Answer C: work schedule
Answer D: the time each weekly drill will be held
 
15. (3.6.4.1-1) A fire can be extinguished by removing.
Answer A: the heat
Answer B: the fuel
Answer C: the oxygen
Answer D: any of the above
 
16. (3.6.4.1-10) The air flow depicted in figure 1 of the illustration is an example of which type of ventilation? Illustration SF-0013
Answer A: Vertical.
Answer B: Combination.
Answer C: Horizontal.
Answer D: Parallel.
 
17. (3.6.4.1-8) Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air?
Answer A: 10.0%
Answer B: 15.8%
Answer C: 20.8%
Answer D: 25.8%
 
18. (3.6.4.1-6) Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?
Answer A: Nitrogen
Answer B: Hydrogen
Answer C: Carbon dioxide
Answer D: Carbon monoxide
 
19. (3.6.4.1-7) A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?
Answer A: The tank is safe to enter.
Answer B: The tank is especially dangerous to enter.
Answer C: Carbon monoxide is present.
Answer D: Water vapor present when the tank was sealed has oxidized.
 
20. (3.6.4.1-3) Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by.
Answer A: removing the fuel
Answer B: removing the heat
Answer C: interrupting the chain reaction
Answer D: removing the oxygen
 
21. (3.6.4.1-4) All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT.
Answer A: fuel
Answer B: oxygen
Answer C: heat
Answer D: electricity
 
22. (3.6.4.1-5) The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to.
Answer A: the accumulation of explosive gases
Answer B: faster cooling of the fire
Answer C: the fire spreading by way of the ventilation system
Answer D: fixed foam systems to be ineffective
 
23. (3.6.4.1-9) The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as
Answer A: that concentration above which there is just enough flammable vapor to produce an explosion
Answer B: that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn
Answer C: the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an explosion
Answer D: the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion
 
24. (3.6.4.2-1) It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to.
Answer A: cool the metal below its ignition temperature
Answer B: form a dense coating of smothering steam
Answer C: prevent oxygen from reaching the flames
Answer D: prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat
 
25. (3.6.4.2-2) In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by. Illustration SF-0013
Answer A: impingement
Answer B: radiation
Answer C: convection
Answer D: conduction
 
26. (3.6.14.3.2-2) According to 46 CFR's, a fixed foam system aboard a tank vessel constructed in 1968, must be designed to supply foam for a minimum of.
Answer A: 3 minutes
Answer B: 7 minutes
Answer C: 12 minutes
Answer D: 15 minutes
 
27. (3.6.14.3.2-3) Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo and miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the following requirements?
Answer A: The deck foam system must be completely independent of the fixed foam system.
Answer B: The foam producing chemicals must be discharged and recharged every year at annual inspection.
Answer C: The supply of foam producing materials must be sufficient to operate the equipment for at least 3 minutes for spaces other than tanks.
Answer D: The foam producing chemicals must be discharged and recharged every 2 years at the annual inspection.
 
28. (3.6.14.4.9-2) For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with a means in which the vessel's designated person-in-charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. This means of control may be activated
Answer A: pneumatically or mechanically
Answer B: electrically
Answer C: via a communications device used for no other purpose
Answer D: all of the above.
 
29. (3.6.14.4.9-4) If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown on a tank vessel; it must stop the flow of oil through.
Answer A: the main deck manifold
Answer B: the pump
Answer C: the facility
Answer D: a means that is not dependant on electrical power
 
30. (3.6.14.4.9-5) Where in the Code of Federal Regulations will you find information about the compatibility of cargoes?
Answer A: Title 33 Subchapter O
Answer B: Title 46 Subchapter D
Answer C: Title 46 Subchapter N
Answer D: Title 46 Subchapter O
 
31. (3.6.14.4.9-3) The emergency shutdown requirements of Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 155) apply to.
Answer A: cargo transfer systems
Answer B: condensate pumps
Answer C: induced draft fans
Answer D: air compressors
 
32. (3.6.14.4.9-1) Among other restrictions, an oil tanker may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless the vessel is.
Answer A: discharging at an instantaneous rate of oil content not exceeding 30 liters per nautical mile
Answer B: is within "Special Areas" defined in Regulation 1 (10) of Annex I to MARPOL 73/78
Answer C: at anchor or stopped
Answer D: more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land
 
33. (3.6.12.7.3-1) Pressure-vacuum relief valves, as used on tank vessels, are usually set to operate between what two points?
Answer A: any two points below atmospheric pressure
Answer B: any two points above atmospheric pressure
Answer C: 14.2 psia and 2 psig
Answer D: 26 inches of vacuum and 5 psig
 
34. (3.6.12.7.3-2) Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be kept in good working order to prevent.
Answer A: entry of burning substances
Answer B: escape of explosive vapors
Answer C: damage to tank boundaries
Answer D: oil spillage on deck
 
35. (3.6.8.6-1) As first engineer you are the senior engineering officer in Emergency Squad #1. The fire alarm sounds and you report to the muster station where the bridge informs you smoke has been reported coming from the ship's laundry room. What should your first action be?
Answer A: Charge the ship's fire main.
Answer B: Start boundary cooling the area.
Answer C: Secure power and ventilation to the laundry room and inform the bridge once this is done.
Answer D: Help dress out other crew members in fireman's outfit.
 
36. (3.6.8.6-3) A fire has been reported in the ship's laundry room. As the senior engineer, you direct the team leader of the No.1 emergency squad to secure ventilation to the space. What would your next command be to the emergency team leader, before they can actually start extinguishing the fire?
Answer A: Prepare extra fire hoses.
Answer B: Have electrical power secured to the laundry room. A lock-out tag should be placed on the breaker or switch stating the circuit has been de-energized, to protect crew members from electrical shock.
Answer C: Prepare extra portable fire extinguishers.
Answer D: Prepare the lifeboats to abandon ship.
 
37. (3.6.8.6-4) You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?
Answer A: Close the door to the room.
Answer B: Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher.
Answer C: Secure power to the washers and dryers.
Answer D: Break out the nearest fire hose.
 
38. (3.6.1.4-3) The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from
Answer A: collapsing
Answer B: developing free surface moments
Answer C: developing free surfaces
Answer D: filling completely
 
39. (3.6.1.4-1) It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges.
Answer A: will work loose
Answer B: tend to open the crack
Answer C: will splinter
Answer D: will pull through the plating
 
40. (3.6.1.4-2) An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to
Answer A: drill holes at each end
Answer B: shore up the crack with welded braces
Answer C: apply a patch of sheet packing backed by a strong back or shoring
Answer D: tack weld a doubler plate over the crack
 
41. (3.6.8.2-1) When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is.
Answer A: preventing a total loss of electrical power
Answer B: eliminating the toxic fumes from burning insulation
Answer C: preventing salt water damage to electrical equipment
Answer D: reducing the possibility of electrical shock to personnel
 
42. (3.6.8.2-4) If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should.
Answer A: separate the two ends
Answer B: secure power to the cable
Answer C: cut the cable with an insulated cable cutter
Answer D: all of the above
 
43. (3.6.7.4-1) Which of the listed characteristics applies to a semi-portable CO2 system?
Answer A: It has a portable hose and nozzle.
Answer B: The cylinders are mounted horizontally.
Answer C: It has distribution piping installed permanently.
Answer D: Each cylinder must weigh less than 50 pounds.
 
44. (3.6.7.4-2) The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large. Illustration SF-0009
Answer A: Halon 1301 hose reel system
Answer B: CO2 hose reel system
Answer C: light water hose reel system
Answer D: dry chemical hose reel system
 
45. (3.6.14.4.2-1) According to 33 CFR's, the approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires after.
Answer A: one year
Answer B: two years
Answer C: four years
Answer D: five years
 
46. (3.6.14.4.2-2) According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), all ships are required to prepare, submit, and maintain a (an).
Answer A: shipboard oil pollution emergency plan
Answer B: synthetic plastic discharge plan
Answer C: vapor recovery procedures plan
Answer D: oil discharge plan
 
47. (3.6.11.1 -9) Ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2.0% and an upper explosive limit of 100% by volume in air. This means.
Answer A: there is no possible ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too lean to burn
Answer B: there is no possible ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too rich to burn
Answer C: an ethylene oxide spill always results in an explosion
Answer D: a 2.0% concentration of ethylene oxide in air would give a reading of 2.0% on a combustible gas indicator
 
48. (3.6.11.1-8) The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of.
Answer A: 3 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn
Answer B: 5 percent methane by volume will give a reading of 100 percent L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator
Answer C: 10 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn
Answer D: 20 percent methane by volume is too lean to burn
 
49. (3.6.11.1-7) By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which.
Answer A: give off flammable vapors at or below 80F
Answer B: have a flash point of 80F or higher
Answer C: are highly volatile with a flash point of 0F
Answer D: spontaneously ignite
 
50. (3.6.11.1-11) The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors and air lies between the lower and upper explosive limits. These limits are specified as a percentage of.
Answer A: the lower limit of explosibility of the mixture
Answer B: the temperature of the flash point
Answer C: oxygen present to support combustion
Answer D: flammable vapor by volume in air
 
51. (3.6.11.1-2) Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the upper explosive limit?
Answer A: The mixture is too lean to burn.
Answer B: The mixture is too rich to burn.
Answer C: The vapor is about to explode.
Answer D: Conditions are perfect for combustion.
 
52. (3.6.7.5-4) Water applied as a 'fog' can be more effective than water applied as a 'solid stream', because.
Answer A: it reduces the total amount of water that must be pumped into the ship to fight a given fire
Answer B: a given amount of water can absorb more heat when it is in the form of fog
Answer C: it does not have to hit the seat of fire to be effective
Answer D: of all of the above
 
53. (3.6.7.5-2) As a general rule of thumb, with no adverse wind conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach from a fire hose having a nozzle pressure of 100 psi?
Answer A: 50 feet
Answer B: 100 feet
Answer C: 150 feet
Answer D: 200 feet
 
54. (3.6.7.5-3) The physical difference of the water spray patterns developed by the high velocity tip and low velocity applicator is due to.
Answer A: the method of breaking up the water stream
Answer B: the type of fire being fought
Answer C: the capacity of the fire pump
Answer D: a difference in water pressure
 
55. (3.6.7.5-7) There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure?
Answer A: Friction in the piping and valves
Answer B: Wear in the hydrant
Answer C: Leaky pilot valve
Answer D: Leaky pump suction valve
 
56. (3.6.7.5-6) If a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle shut off, the fire hose will.
Answer A: lash about violently
Answer B: become elongated by 125%
Answer C: remain motionless
Answer D: burst under pressure
 
57. (3.6.7.5-5) Properly stowed fire hose is either faked or rolled into a rack with the.
Answer A: male and female ends connected together to prevent damage
Answer B: female end available to be quickly connected to the hydrant
Answer C: male end attached to the adjacent fire hydrant
Answer D: nozzle end arranged to be easily run out to the fire
 
58. (3.6.7.5-8) While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single 'wye' gate attached to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle.
Answer A: at the base of the "Y" in either direction
Answer B: at the base of the "Y" counter-clockwise 180
Answer C: on each leg of the "Y" 90
Answer D: on each leg of the "Y" 180
 
59. (3.6.15.2-1) Which of the following statements is true concerning the meter shown in the illustration? Illustration SF-0003
Answer A: As gas samples are drawn into the instrument they are burned within the case.
Answer B: If there is any liquid in the tank being tested, the sampling tube should be submerged in it to obtain the most accurate reading.
Answer C: If the meter moves to the extreme right side of the scale and stays there, the atmosphere is safe.
Answer D: Meter readings are obtained instantaneously upon release of the squeeze bulb.
 
60. (3.6.15.2-3) The instrument shown in the illustration has not been used for several weeks. Prior to its use for testing a compartment, you should. Illustration SF-0003
Answer A: check or renew the batteries
Answer B: purge the meter
Answer C: adjust the meter pointer to zero
Answer D: all of the above
 
61. (3.6.11.4-4) A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being "Safe for Men" and "Safe for fire." This condition may change if.
Answer A: the ambient temperature changes
Answer B: a product leaks into the certified tank
Answer C: muck, sludge, or scale in the tank give off additional vapors
Answer D: all of the above
 
62. (3.6.11.4-3) The atmosphere of an empty fuel tank is tested and designated "gas free". Which of the following statements is correct concerning this tank?
Answer A: The gas free status is good as long as the initial conditions remain unchanged.
Answer B: The concentration of flammable gas in the compartment is less than 10% of the lower flammable limit.
Answer C: The tank should be frequently retested.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
63. (3.6.11.4-1) If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free,.
Answer A: breathing apparatus should always be used
Answer B: a man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather, as vapors are less volatile
Answer C: breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as you would only be in the tank a short time
Answer D: entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank since petroleum vapors are heavier than air
 
64. (3.6.11.4-5) A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is.
Answer A: inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours
Answer B: free of all dangerous concentrations of flammable or toxic gases
Answer C: thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours
Answer D: free of most flammable gas concentrations
 
65. (3.6.11.4-2) Which of the following conditions must be met before a marine chemist will issue a certificate for a compartment to be "safe for workers, safe for hot-work"?
Answer A: The residues in the compartment must not be capable of producing any toxic gas under existing atmospheric conditions.
Answer B: The concentration of combustible gases in the compartment's atmosphere must be less than 10 percent of the lower flammable limit.
Answer C: The toxic gases in the compartment's atmosphere must be within permissible concentrations.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
66. (3.6.5.1-4) You are conducting training on firefighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized by the burning of ordinary combustible materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water, or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance?
Answer A: Type A
Answer B: Type B
Answer C: Type C
Answer D: Type D
 
67. (3.6.5.1-2) If the items shown in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class. Illustration SF-0001
Answer A: "A"
Answer B: "B"
Answer C: "C"
Answer D: "D"
 
68. (3.6.5.1-5) A Type A fire has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your fire teams expect to find at the scene?
Answer A: Electrical equipment where the use of a non-conducting extinguishing agent is of first importance
Answer B: Ordinary combustible materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water, or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance
Answer C: Metals
Answer D: Flammable liquids, greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential
 
69. (3.6.5.1-1) A fire in a pile of canvas would be classified as a.
Answer A: class A
Answer B: class B
Answer C: class C
Answer D: class D
 
70. (3.6.5.1 -3) Burning wood is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire?
Answer A: Class A
Answer B: Class B
Answer C: Class C
Answer D: Class D
 
71. (3.6.1.1 -1) While reviewing emergency response plans onboard your vessel, you have questions regarding the response for damage control conditions and the ship's construction, related to mitigating risks from structural damage. Which of the following sources of information would contain what you are looking for?
Answer A: The Safety of Life at Sea Certificate (SOLAS).
Answer B: The Cargo Ship Safety Certificate.
Answer C: The Hull and Machinery Certificate.
Answer D: The Vessel Stability Booklet.
 
72. (3.6.14.4.7-3) Ocean vessel Ballast Water Management Regulations can be found in.
Answer A: 33 CFR Part 110
Answer B: 33 CFR Part 151
Answer C: 46 CFR Part 35
Answer D: 46 CFR Part 56
 
73. (3.6.12.7.6-3) Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks?
Answer A: Inert gas compressor
Answer B: Exhaust gas pressure
Answer C: Natural aspiration
Answer D: High capacity fan
 
74. (3.6 .12.7.6-1) On a tanker vessel, what is the required combined capacity of the inert gas generating system as compared to the total capacity of all the cargo pumps which can be operated simultaneously?
Answer A: 50%
Answer B: 75%
Answer C: 100%
Answer D: 125%
 
75. (3.6.12.7.6-5) The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to.
Answer A: produce 100% oxygen free gas
Answer B: produce a gas of 100% pure nitrogen
Answer C: generate a high oxygen content gas
Answer D: supply conditioned gas with reduced oxygen content
 
76. (3.6.12.7.6-7) When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be
Answer A: close the flue gas isolating valve
Answer B: secure the salt water supply to the scrubber
Answer C: close the deck isolating valve
Answer D: secure the inert gas blower
 
77. (3.6.12.7.6-6) Which of the following conditions will result in an automatic shut down of the flue gas inert gas system?
Answer A: High temperature gas entering the scrubber.
Answer B: Low temperature water leaving the scrubber seal.
Answer C: High temperature gas discharge from inert gas blowers.
Answer D: Oxygen content of the gas falls below 5%.
 
78. (3.6.15.1-1) An oxygen indicator will detect.
Answer A: the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide
Answer B: an oxygen deficiency in a space
Answer C: concentrations of explosive gas
Answer D: all of the above
 
79. (3.6.13.7-1) Adverse effects due to free surface will result when.
Answer A: the vessel's draft is decreased exposing more surface area to the wind and current
Answer B: the vessel's draft is increased, thus increasing the vessel's wetted surface area
Answer C: a portion of liquid is removed from a full tank
Answer D: the vessel is trimmed by the stern
 
80. (3.6.13.7-4) Your vessel has been damaged in a grounding and one compartment has partially flooded. As a result, you have lost buoyancy. If transverse stability in the flooded condition is poor or negative, every effort should be made to reduce the free surface and to lower the center of gravity. Which of the following should you ensure is maintained?
Answer A: Ballast is maintained in the pre-grounding state.
Answer B: A GM that is at least neutral - G moved down to be at M.
Answer C: As much reserve buoyancy as possible.
Answer D: A no list condition.
 
81. (3.6.13.7-2) A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Which of the listed conditions would develop the greatest adverse effect?
Answer A: Tanks which have been pressed up to full capacity.
Answer B: Tanks which are 95% full.
Answer C: Tanks which are 40% full.
Answer D: Tanks which have been completely emptied.
 
82. (3.6.7.3-3) Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?
Answer A: Water (cartridge-operated)
Answer B: Dry chemical (cartridge-operated)
Answer C: Carbon dioxide
Answer D: Water (pump tank)
 
83. (3.6.7.3-8) Which of the listed methods is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher?
Answer A: Approach the fire from the windward side.
Answer B: Direct the extinguisher discharge at the base of the fire.
Answer C: Move the discharge stream back and forth in a rapid sweeping motion.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
84. (3.6.7.3-6) Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher aboard ship would include ensuring that the.
Answer A: pressure gage is within the operating range
Answer B: recharge of weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of charge
Answer C: cartridge weight is not less than 1/4 ounce of weight stamped on cartridge
Answer D: powder is not caked and there is a full charge
 
85. (3.6.7.3-1) To activate a foam type portable fire extinguisher, you must.
Answer A: turn the extinguisher upside down
Answer B: pull the pin and squeeze the grips
Answer C: pump the hand lever for pressure
Answer D: strike the bottom of the extinguisher against the deck
 
86. (3.6.7.3-2) The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its over pressurization is called a.
Answer A: relief valve
Answer B: rupture disc
Answer C: control head
Answer D: safety valve
 
87. (3.6.7.3-4) If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers?
Answer A: CO2
Answer B: Foam
Answer C: Dry chemical
Answer D: Soda acid
 
88. (3.6.7.3-7) During an inspection of a ships storeroom, you find sealed containers of chemicals labeled "potassium bicarbonate" and "potassium chloride". These chemicals are most commonly used aboard ship for.
Answer A: recharging dry chemical fire extinguishers
Answer B: degreasing machinery parts
Answer C: engine jacket water treatment
Answer D: descaling evaporator tubes
 
89. (3.6.14.4.4-1) Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations? 
Answer A: The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces.
Answer B: Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage.
Answer C: The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
90. (3.6.11.5-3) If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identify?
Answer A: Paints or coatings that are safe to use with it.
Answer B: The name of each hazardous ingredient.
Answer C: Other similar mixtures of liquids, solids or gases.
Answer D: None of the above.
 
91. (3.6.11.5-6) What term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazards?
Answer A: Recommended toxicity
Answer B: High toxicity
Answer C: Low toxicity
Answer D: Moderate toxicity
 
92. (3.6.11.5-8) A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that can cause genetic changes in sperm or egg cells is called a.
Answer A: mutagen
Answer B: carcinogen
Answer C: teratogen
Answer D: cryogenic
 
93. (3.6.11.5-9) A health hazard term listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is.
Answer A: skin contact hazard
Answer B: sensitizer
Answer C: pyrophoric hazard
Answer D: oxidizer
 
94. (3.6.11.5-7) A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), having a flash point below 100F (37.78C) is called a/an.
Answer A: viscous liquid
Answer B: explosive liquid
Answer C: combustible liquid
Answer D: flammable liquid
 
95. (3.6.11.5-2) The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) describing whether a liquid is lighter or heavier than water is.
Answer A: solubility
Answer B: flotation point
Answer C: specific gravity
Answer D: viscosity
 
96. (3.6.11.5-5) A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a.
Answer A: Material Safety Data Sheet
Answer B: Physical/Chemical Characteristics Document
Answer C: Hazardous Chemical Information Sheet
Answer D: Hazardous Chemical Loading Document
 
97. (3.6.11.5-1) The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heavier than air is called.
Answer A: vapor density
Answer B: vapor pressure
Answer C: vapor gravity
Answer D: vapor level
 
98. (3.6.13.3-2) After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will
Answer A: change, depending on the location of the LCG
Answer B: increase
Answer C: decrease
Answer D: remain the constant
 
99. (3.6.13.3-3) The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called
Answer A: tonnage
Answer B: freeboard
Answer C: reserve buoyancy
Answer D: draft
 
100. (3.6.13.3-1) Many uninspected motor vessels require load lines. For the purpose of the Load Line Regulations, the term 'surveyor' means.
Answer A: any person from the Coast Guard who performs duties with respect to the inspection, enforcement, and administration of Title 52 of the revised statute
Answer B: an officer of the Coast Guard designated by the Commandant to command all Coast Guard activities within his district
Answer C: any person from the Coast Guard who is in charge of a marine inspection zone
Answer D: any person designated by the American Bureau of Shipping who actually examines the vessel
 
101. (3.6.3.7-2) Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB.
Answer A: must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
Answer B: must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use
Answer C: is a device that transmits a radio signal
Answer D: all of the above
 
102. (3.6.3.7-1) Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?
Answer A: Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels.
Answer B: At half-hour intervals.
Answer C: At one hour intervals.
Answer D: Immediately upon abandoning the vessel.
 
103. (3.6.14.3.1-1) When a cylinder is used to store CO2 in a fixed firefighting system and is retested in accordance with regulations, all flexible connections between cylinders and distribution piping must be renewed or tested at.
Answer A: 2750 psi
Answer B: 1500 psi
Answer C: 1000 psi
Answer D: 300 psi
 
104. (3.6.14.3.1-6) The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than
Answer A: 300 pounds
Answer B: 400 pounds
Answer C: 500 pounds
Answer D: 600 pounds
 
105. (3.6.14.3.1-2) According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following statements is true concerning fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems?
Answer A: The cylinders which are fitted with flexible or bent siphon tubes may be inclined not more than 30 from the vertical.
Answer B: All cylinders used for storing carbon dioxide shall be fabricated, tested, and marked in accordance with the applicable section of the American Welding Society code.
Answer C: The space containing the cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to preclude an ambient temperature in excess of 100F (37.78C)
Answer D: The cylinders may be located within the space protected provided the system consists of not more than 300 pounds (136.1 kg) of carbon dioxide.
 
106. (3.6.14.3.1-3) Carbon dioxide cylinders must be recharged when the cylinder charge weight is less than what percent of the stamped full weight charge?
Answer A: 80%
Answer B: 85%
Answer C: 90%
Answer D: 95%
 
107. (3.6.14.3.1-4) During the annual servicing of your ship's fixed CO2 system, you receive the report shown in the illustration. Which CO2 cylinders require recharging? Illustration SF-0014
Answer A: 109
Answer B: 103 and 108
Answer C: 105
Answer D: All of the above
 
108. (3.6.14.3.1-5) According to 46 CFR Part 95, which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the regulations pertaining to the carbon dioxide cylinder room for a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?
Answer A: The ambient temperature of the room should never be allowed to exceed 130 degrees Fahrenheit.
Answer B: The door must be kept unlocked.
Answer C: The compartment must be properly ventilated.
Answer D: The compartment shall be clearly identified and marked.
 
109. (3.6.14.4.5-2) Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 156), state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless.
Answer A: an oil containment boom is available for immediate use
Answer B: all parts of the transfer system have been properly lined up
Answer C: oil residue has been drained from all hoses
Answer D: a representative sample has been taken from the oil being received
 
110. (3.6.14.4.5-6) According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), which of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment under the oil filling connection section?
Answer A: Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank.
Answer B: All containment drains must lead to a common, fixed drain tank.
Answer C: The containment drains must have quick-closing valves to be closed in the event of leakage or failure of any part of the transfer connection.
Answer D: The containment may be fixed or portable depending upon the age of the vessel.
 
111. (3.6.14.4.5-3) The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless.
Answer A: an oil containment boom is ready for immediate use
Answer B: flange couplings are properly bolted
Answer C: scuppers and drains are unplugged
Answer D: bonding cables are installed on all tanks
 
112. (3.6.14.4.5-8) The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state that a ship's oily bilge slops may be pumped in port only if the.
Answer A: local port authority gives permission
Answer B: engineer on watch has signed the declaration of inspection
Answer C: discharge is led to a reception facility
Answer D: local port authority has completed the required pollution inspection
 
113. (3.6.14.4.5-13) According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), you are required to test cargo discharge piping every.
Answer A: 6 months
Answer B: 12 months
Answer C: 18 months
Answer D: 24 months
 
114. (3.6.14.4.5-11) Which of the following statements is true concerning oil transfer connections?
Answer A: Any permanently connected flange coupling must have a bolt in each hole.
Answer B: Approved quick-connect couplings may be used.
Answer C: When a temporary connection utilizes an American National Standard Institute (ANSI) standard flange, a bolt in every other hole is acceptable if at least four bolts are used.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
115. (3.6.14.4.5-10) In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), each pressure gage used in fuel transfer operations must be calibrated to indicate pressure within what percent of the actual pressure?
Answer A: 3%
Answer B: 5%
Answer C: 7%
Answer D: 10%
 
116. (3.6.14.4.5-5) A tank vessel with an oil cargo capacity of 5000 barrels is required by regulations to have a fixed container, or enclosed deck area under or around each oil loading manifold and each oil transfer connection point. The capacity of these containment areas is based upon.
Answer A: inside transfer hose diameter or loading arm nominal pipe size diameter
Answer B: number of cargo oil tank vents, overflows and fill pipe connections
Answer C: cargo oil service pressure
Answer D: all of the above
 
117. (3.6.14.4.5-4) According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless .
Answer A: the discharge containment is in place
Answer B: each part of the transfer system not necessary for the transfer operation is securely blanked or shut off
Answer C: each scupper or drain in a discharge containment system is closed
Answer D: all of the above
 
118. (3.6.14.4.5-9) An oceangoing ship of 6000 gross tons or above must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection with dimensions outlined in Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) or be substituted with a.
Answer A: clip-on flange suitable for service pressure of 4 kg/cm2
Answer B: portable connection using a four bolt pattern
Answer C: portable adapter that meets the same specification outlined in 33 CFR, Subchapter "O"
Answer D: suitable discharge shore connection
 
119. (3.6.14.4.5-7) The tanks used for oily waste on a new ocean going cargo ship of 6000 gross tons must meet certain requirements for isolation between oil and bilge systems. These requirements are set forth in.
Answer A: 33 CFR 151.23(a)2
Answer B: 33 CFR 155.370(b)2
Answer C: 46 CFR 56.50-50(h)
Answer D: 46 CFR 74.15-10(b)
 
120. (3.6.14.4.5-12) According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the minimum number of bolts permitted in an ANSI standard flange on an oil hose is .
Answer A: three
Answer B: four
Answer C: six
Answer D: nine
 
121. (3.6.14.4.5-1) Which of the following statements concerning oil transfer, related equipment, tests and inspections is true?
Answer A: A 6" inside diameter nonmetallic oil transfer hose having a small slash penetrating the hose reinforcement may remain in service if there is no visible internal deterioration.
Answer B: Each pressure gauge in the system must indicate a reading that is within 5% of the actual system pressure.
Answer C: Each nonmetallic oil transfer hose, larger than a 3" inside diameter must be inspected, and tested annually.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
122. (3.6.14.6-3) Your passenger vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage. What actions must be taken to verify that your vessel was in compliance with stability requirements?
Answer A: The master shall determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter an attestation statement of the verification in the ship's stability book. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements.
Answer B: Ensure that the vessel owners has determined that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter an attestation statement of the verification in the log book. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements.
Answer C: The master shall determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be and send a message verifying the condition of the vessel to the vessel's owners. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements.
Answer D: The master shall determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter an attestation statement of the verification in the log book. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements.
 
123. (3.6.14.6-1) Your passenger vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage. What should be your ship's standard operating procedures regarding watertight hatches and doors?
Answer A: All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept closed during navigation except when necessarily opened for working of the vessel, and in such cases they shall always be ready to be immediately closed.
Answer B: All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept open during navigation to facilitate crew movement and in all cases they shall always be ready to be immediately closed.
Answer C: All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept closed when the vessel is anchored except when necessarily opened for working of the vessel, and in such cases they shall always be ready to be immediately closed.
Answer D: All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept open during normal operation, except during adverse weather when they shall be closed.
 
124. (3.6.12.7.2-1) The term "load on top" is used on many crude oil carriers is to provide a method for
Answer A: loading ballast by gravity
Answer B: calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks
Answer C: the loading of new cargo into a decanted slop tank as a procedure to minimize pollution
Answer D: calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank
 
125. (3.6.8.3-1) The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the.
Answer A: easier it is to control
Answer B: less chance there is of reignition
Answer C: harder it is to extinguish
Answer D: easier it is to extinguish
 
126. (3.6.8.3-5) When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should.
Answer A: use only carbon dioxide
Answer B: extinguish the fire, then secure the source of gas
Answer C: use only dry chemical
Answer D: secure the source of gas, then extinguish the fire
 
127. (3.6.8.3-4) In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to.
Answer A: secure all sources of fresh air to the tank
Answer B: station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls
Answer C: top off the tank to force out all vapors
Answer D: begin transferring the fuel to other tanks
 
128. (3.6.8.3-3) As the senior engineer onboard a vessel, how would you instruct a new engineer to use the firefighting apparatus illustrated to fight an oil fire at the bunker station? Illustration SF-0020
Answer A: This piece of firefighting equipment cannot be used to extinguish an oil fire.
Answer B: Direct aqueous film forming foam off the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down or bounce off method to extinguish the fire.
Answer C: Direct water off the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down or bounce off method to extinguish the fire.
Answer D: Direct aqueous film forming foam in a straight stream into the fuel to extinguish the fire.
 
129. (3.6.8.3-2) As an engineer on a tanker of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage, how would you direct the fire team to combat a large cargo space fire?
Answer A: Use the fixed carbon dioxide system to extinguish the fire.
Answer B: Open the ullage caps and lower the level in tanks adjacent to the tank on fire.
Answer C: Use the inert gas system to extinguish the fire.
Answer D: Use fixed water and foam systems to extinguish the fire.
 
130. (3.6.3.3-1) Which of the following is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit?
Answer A: Chemical protection face shield
Answer B: Approved work vest
Answer C: Self-contained breathing apparatus
Answer D: 5 cell approved flashlight
 
131. (3.6.7.2-2) Your chemical tanker was built to the IBC Code and has foam as the main firefighting medium. During one of your safety meetings you review the properties of foam as an extinguishing agent. Which of the following is a correct statement that would be appropriate to share during the meeting?
Answer A: Foam will blanket the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen but it does not provide the best cooling protection for the firefighters.
Answer B: Foam will blanket the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen and it also provides excellent cooling protection for the firefighters.
Answer C: Foam will blanket the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen and is therefore perfectly suited to A, B and C class fires.
Answer D: Foam will blanket the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen but it does generate toxic vapors that may harm the firefighters.
 
132. (3.6.12.3-8) In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of chemical agents would.
Answer A: remove the oil from the water
Answer B: disperse or dissolve the oil in the water
Answer C: not affect the oil
Answer D: absorb the oil for easy removal
 
133. (3.6.12.3-3) When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard.
Answer A: six months prior to the end of the approval period
Answer B: and cannot be implemented without approval
Answer C: one month prior to the anniversary date of the plan
Answer D: and can be implemented without immediate approval as long as final approval is received within six months of submittal
 
134. (3.6.12.3-5) In accordance with domestic regulations, which of the following statements is true regarding U.S. flag vessel response plans for the carriage of oil?
Answer A: All domestic regulations regarding emergency response contingency plans are superseded by MARPOL, the international pollution prevention standard.
Answer B: The owner of a U.S. Flag vessel engaged in the carriage of oil regardless of size and route does not need to prepare and submit a contingency plan for emergency response in the event of a spill.
Answer C: A shipboard oil pollution emergency response plan which includes, but is not limited to, shipboard spill mitigation procedures must be submitted to, and approved by, the United States Coast Guard by the vessel operating company prior to the vessel engaging in trade.
Answer D: Oil is considered regulated cargo and all vessels engaged in the domestic oil trade are issued a Certificate of Inspection by the USCG. The issuance of this document satisfies all USCG requirements for vessel emergency contingency response plans.
 
135. (3.6.12.3-6) Which of the following statements are true regarding U.S. flag vessel response plans for the carriage of oil?
Answer A: Oil is considered regulated cargo and all vessels engaged in the domestic oil trade are issued a Certificate of Inspection by the USCG. The issuance of this document satisfies all USCG requirements for vessel emergency contingency response plans.
Answer B: A shipboard oil pollution emergency response plan which includes, but is not limited to, shipboard spill mitigation procedures that must be submitted to the United States Coast Guard for approval.
Answer C: All domestic regulations regarding emergency response contingency plans are superseded by MARPOL, the international pollution prevention standard.
Answer D: The owner of a U.S. Flag vessel engaged in the carriage of oil regardless of size and route does not need to prepare and submit a contingency plan for emergency response in the event of a spill.
 
136. (3.3.13.2-1) Your ship is working cargo in port when a hydraulic hose ruptures on the weather deck and oil spills into the harbor. Once the source of the oil spill has been secured, how would you proceed?
Answer A: Refer to Oil Record Book for directions.
Answer B: Follow the procedures outlined in the vessel's Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan (SOPEP) manual.
Answer C: Follow the procedures outlined in the vessel's SOLAS manual.
Answer D: Refer to the ship's Fuel Oil T ransfer Procedures for directions.
 
137. (3.6.12.3-2) Which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?
Answer A: list of individuals required to respond
Answer B: plan exercises
Answer C: reporting requirements
Answer D: removal equipment list
 
138. (3.6.12.3-4) Which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
Answer A: a list of agencies or officials of Coastal State administrations responsible for receiving and processing incident reports
Answer B: a list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports
Answer C: a list of personnel duty assignments
Answer D: a list which specifies who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority in which they must be notified
 
139. (3.6.12.3-7) The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of
Answer A: skimmers
Answer B: straw
Answer C: chemical dispersants
Answer D: booms
 
140. (3.6.12.3-9) In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?
Answer A: Chemical agent removal
Answer B: Mechanical removal
Answer C: Absorbent removal
Answer D: None of the above
 
141. (3.6.12.3-1) Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed.
Answer A: once a year
Answer B: once every two years
Answer C: once every four years
Answer D: once every five years
 
142. (3.6.12.7.5-5) Crude oil washing has which of the following disadvantages?
Answer A: Allows buildup of cargo residue on tank walls.
Answer B: When completed, more cargo is retained aboard the ship than with water washing.
Answer C: Its cleaning ability is very poor.
Answer D: It requires following additional work procedures and close attention by the crew during cargo operations.
 
143. (3.6.12.7.5-4) When tanks have been washed with crude oil, and ballasted without being water rinsed, the ballast is referred to as.
Answer A: clean ballast
Answer B: dedicated ballast
Answer C: segregated ballast
Answer D: dirty ballast
 
144. (3.6.12.7.5-3) Bottom mounted crude oil washing machines are primarily used for.
Answer A: washing the entire bottom of the tank
Answer B: the majority of crude oil tank cleaning
Answer C: areas where direct impingement from deck mounted machines cannot be satisfactorily reached
Answer D: all vertical surfaces
 
145. (3.6.12.7.5 -2) Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing .
Answer A: a higher pressure jet
Answer B: the solvent effect of the crude oil
Answer C: a higher temperature
Answer D: none of the above.
 
146. (3.6.12.7.5-1) In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be.
Answer A: full of cargo
Answer B: inerted
Answer C: opened to the atmosphere for ventilation
Answer D: gas free
 
147. (3.6.14.4.3-3) A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by .
Answer A: holding its slops onboard until they can be discharged to a shore side reception facility
Answer B: holding its slops onboard until they can be pumped into the city sewer system
Answer C: circulating them through the lube oil purifier to remove water and debris
Answer D: pumping them into a settling tank for separation before pumping the oily water residue overboard
 
148. (3.6.14.5.2-1) According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), no vessel can come alongside or remain alongside a tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade cargo without having the permission of the.
Answer A: USCG captain of the port
Answer B: tank vessel owner
Answer C: terminal manager
Answer D: officer in charge of the vessel which is loading
 
149. (3.6.11.3-3) High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can.
Answer A: cause involuntary skeletal muscle contractions
Answer B: paralyze your breathing system
Answer C: cause eye inflammation
Answer D: cause dizziness
 
150. (3.6.11.3-7) An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the.
Answer A: cargo handling rooms
Answer B: barrier spaces
Answer C: boiler burner supply piping
Answer D: all of the above
 
151. (3.6.11.3 -2) When pumping sour crude, which gas should be tested for prior to entering the cargo pump room to repair a leaking pump?
Answer A: Benzene
Answer B: Carbon monoxide
Answer C: Hydrogen sulfide
Answer D: Tetraethyl lead
 
152. (3.6.11.3-5) Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark?
Answer A: Using a cargo hose with a built-in electrical bonding wire.
Answer B: Connecting a bonding wire between the shore side piping and the vessel.
Answer C: Placing an insulating flange or a section of non-conducting hose in the hose setup.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
153. (3.6.11.3-1) Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to hydrogen sulfide can tolerate.
Answer A: unusually large concentrations of hydrogen sulfide
Answer B: smaller than normal concentrations of hydrogen sulfide
Answer C: moderate concentrations of hydrogen sulfide without the usual reactions
Answer D: longer exposure to hydrogen sulfide concentrations
 
154. (3.6.11.3 -10) Which of the following precautions are necessary when using any electrical equipment in a hazardous location, such as a cargo pump room?
Answer A: Each compartment where flammable gas is expected to accumulate is to be closed and secured.
Answer B: The adjacent compartments are to be gas free.
Answer C: The pump room is to be gas free.
Answer D: All of the above.
 
155. (3.6.11.3 -4) Petroleum vapors are dangerous.
Answer A: at all times due to their toxicity
Answer B: only if the oxygen concentration is below 16 percent
Answer C: only if the vapor is between the upper and lower explosive limit
Answer D: only if the source of the vapor is above its flash point
 
156. (3.6.11.3 -8) Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to.
Answer A: detect leaks in cargo piping
Answer B: calibrate the gas leak detectors
Answer C: odorize the cargo
Answer D: inert the barrier spaces
 
157. (3.6.5.3-5) A Type C fire has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your fire teams expect to find at the scene?
Answer A: Electrical equipment where the use of nonconducting extinguishing agent is of first importance
Answer B: Flammable liquids, greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential
Answer C: Metals
Answer D: Ordinary combustible materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water, or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance
 
158. (3.6.5.3-3) Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?
Answer A: Deep seated fire
Answer B: Explosion
Answer C: Electrocution or shock
Answer D: Susceptible to reflash
 
159. (3.6.5.3 -4) You are conducting training on firefighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized by the burning of electrical equipment where the use of a non-conducting extinguishing agent is of first importance?
Answer A: Type A
Answer B: Type B
Answer C: Type C
Answer D: Type D
 
160. (3.6.5.3-2) Class C fires may be combated using a.
Answer A: Halon extinguisher
Answer B: carbon dioxide extinguisher
Answer C: dry chemical extinguisher
Answer D: all of the above
 
161. (3.6.8.4-2) Your vessel is carrying a cargo of Methyl Ethyl Ketone (MEK), which has caught fire. Which extinguishing agents should be used?
Answer A: Carbon dioxide, dry chemical, or water foam.
Answer B: Carbon dioxide, dry chemical, or water fog.
Answer C: Carbon dioxide, dry chemical, or alcohol foam.
Answer D: Water fog, dry chemical, or alcohol foam.
 
162. (3.6.8.4-3) Your vessel is carrying a cargo of Propionitrile, which has caught fire. Which extinguishing agents should be used?
Answer A: Alcohol foam, water fog, or dry chemical.
Answer B: Alcohol foam, carbon dioxide or dry chemical.
Answer C: Water fog, carbon dioxide or dry chemical.
Answer D: Alcohol foam, carbon dioxide, or water fog.
 
163. (3.6.8.4-1) As chief engineer sailing aboard chemical tankers you frequently review the best practices regarding firefighting during safety meetings. Which of the following would align with industry best practice regarding the use of water in extinguishing chemical fires?
Answer A: Water is best used for cooling of the chemical itself as well as surrounding areas.
Answer B: Water is best applied from opposing directions to ensure maximum effectiveness.
Answer C: Water is best applied to the chemical fire in a solid stream in order to maximize effectiveness.
Answer D: Water is best applied in spray form to smother the chemical fire.
 
164. (3.6.8.4-4) Your vessel is carrying a cargo of Ethyl methacrylate, which has caught fire. Which extinguishing agents should be used?
Answer A: Water, dry chemical or chemical foam.
Answer B: Carbon dioxide, dry chemical or chemical foam.
Answer C: Carbon dioxide, dry chemical, or alcohol foam.
Answer D: Water fog, dry chemical or chemical foam.
 
165. (3.6.3.5-5) The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable raft will provide protection against
Answer A: tears in the outside skin of bottom of the raft
Answer B: warm water temperatures
Answer C: cold water temperatures
Answer D: all of the above
 
166. (3.6.3.5-7) When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be
Answer A: passed around so all can drink
Answer B: poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
Answer C: saved to be used at a later time
Answer D: used to boil food
 
167. (3.6.3.5-4) In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the
Answer A: lifelines
Answer B: righting strap
Answer C: sea anchor
Answer D: towing bridle
 
168. (3.6.3.5-1) The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft is to
Answer A: stow rainwater; these four spaces will not take up valuable space
Answer B: act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated and in an upright position
Answer C: hold the freshwater required by regulation to be provided in the raft when packed
Answer D: none of the above
 
169. (3.6.3.5-6) Puncture leaks in the lower tubes, or bottom of an inflatable life raft should first be stopped by using.
Answer A: a tube patch
Answer B: sail twine and vulcanizing kit
Answer C: sealing clamps
Answer D: repair tape
 
170. (3.6.3.5-13) Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red?
Answer A: Hatches
Answer B: Releasing gear lever
Answer C: Boat hooks
Answer D: Compass
 
171. (3.6.3.5-2) Which of the following must be carried out in order to manually launch an inflatable life raft not designed for float-free operation?
Answer A: Cutting the container securing straps.
Answer B: Attach the weak link to the vessel.
Answer C: Simply breaking the weak link.
Answer D: Depress the hydrostatic release button.
 
172. (3.6.3.5-8) Most lifeboats are equipped with.
Answer A: straight rudders
Answer B: contra-guide rudders
Answer C: unbalanced rudders
Answer D: balanced rudders
 
173. (3.6.3.5-15) You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
Answer A: 1 can
Answer B: 1 pint
Answer C: 1 quart
Answer D: 1 gallon
 
174. (3.6.3.5 -3) Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard life rafts to look for.
Answer A: land
Answer B: survivors in the water
Answer C: bad weather
Answer D: food and water
 
175. (3.6.3.5-10) All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats.
Answer A: boarding and operating procedures
Answer B: maintenance schedule
Answer C: navigational systems
Answer D: fuel consumption rates
 
176. (3.6.3.5-11) Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat?
Answer A: To stop the lifeboat from being lowered.
Answer B: To prevent the davits from pulling up against the stops.
Answer C: To assist in cranking in the lifeboat.
Answer D: To keep the tricing lines from releasing or getting tangled.
 
177. (3.6.3.5-9) When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should.
Answer A: go only with the direction of the sea
Answer B: stay in the immediate area
Answer C: go one direction until fuel runs out
Answer D: plot course for nearest land
 
178. (3.6.12.1-6) When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all quantities should be.
Answer A: verified by the chief engineer
Answer B: recorded as cubic meters with a conversion to barrels
Answer C: consistently recorded through the Oil Record Book in one specified unit (gallons, barrels, cubic meters)
Answer D: recorded directly from the oil discharge monitor
 
179. (3.6.12.1-3) The sections of an Oil Record Book preceding the log pages contain a.
Answer A: detailed listing of all organizations to call in the event of an accidental oil spill
Answer B: complete classification of hazardous materials
Answer C: damage control plan for isolating fire main valves
Answer D: list of machinery space operation items
 
180. (3.6.12.1-1) The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard the vessel for.
Answer A: 6 months and then submitted to the nearest Marine Safety Office for review
Answer B: the duration of the ship's active employment
Answer C: an annual inspection
Answer D: not less than 3 years and be readily available for inspection
 
181. (3.6.12.1-2) Which of the following machinery space operations is required to be logged in the Oil Record Book?
Answer A: Ballasting or cleaning of fuel oil tanks.
Answer B: Changing out sprayer plates to adjust for steam demand.
Answer C: Daily inspection of engine room bilges.
Answer D: Shifting suction of main fuel pump to reserve fuel oil tank.
 
182. (3.6.12.1-5) With regards to a ship's Oil Record Book, an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above must maintain entries in.
Answer A: Part I only
Answer B: Part II only
Answer C: Both Part I and Part II
Answer D: Part III
 
183. (3.6.14.4.6-1) No person may serve as the person in charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time.
Answer A: under any circumstances
Answer B: unless radio communication is setup between the vessels
Answer C: unless the vessels are moored clear of all docks
Answer D: unless authorized by the Captain of the Port
 
184. (3.6.14.4.6-2) According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who is to make the final decision of when oil transfer may begin?
Answer A: Any local Coast Guard representative
Answer B: Captain of the Port officer
Answer C: The senior deck officer present
Answer D: Designated persons in charge of vessel and facility
 
185. (3.6.14.4.6-5) According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed the .
Answer A: valve inspection record
Answer B: declaration of inspection
Answer C: oil record book
Answer D: certificate of inspection
 
186. (3.6.11.2-4) If diesel fuel vapors in a compartment are considered to be within the flammable range.
Answer A: the vapor air mixture is too rich to burn
Answer B: an explosion may occur if a source of ignition is present
Answer C: the upper explosive limit has been exceeded
Answer D: the vapor air mixture is too lean to burn
 
187. (3.6.11.2-3) Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash point below 150F?
Answer A: Light fuel oils
Answer B: Road oils
Answer C: Asphalt
Answer D: Lubricating oils
 
188. (3.6.11.2-2) Which of the following is classified as a grade "E" combustible liquid?
Answer A: Bunker "C"
Answer B: Very light naphtha
Answer C: Benzene
Answer D: Most commercial gasoline
 
189 (3.6.1 1.2-1) Bunker "C" is classified as a grade
Answer A: A liquid
Answer B: B liquid
Answer C: E liquid
Answer D: D liquid
 
190. (3.6.11.2-5) Which of the listed pumping arrangements will be hazardous when two similar centrifugal pumps are used to discharge a cargo of flammable liquid?
Answer A: Both pumps operating at the same speed and taking suction from a common line.
Answer B: Each pump operating at a different pressure and discharging into a common line.
Answer C: Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a common line.
Answer D: Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a common line.
 
191. (3.6.5.2-2) A galley grease fire would be classified as.
Answer A: Class A
Answer B: Class B
Answer C: Class C
Answer D: Class D
 
192. (3.6.5.2-3) Burning diesel oil should be treated as which class of fire?
Answer A: Class "A"
Answer B: Class "B"
Answer C: Class "C"
Answer D: Class "D"
 
193. (3.6.5.2-1) A fire in the paint locker would probably be.
Answer A: Class A
Answer B: Class B
Answer C: Class C
Answer D: Class D
 
194. (3.6.5.2-5) A Type B fire has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your fire teams expect to find at the scene?
Answer A: Flammable liquids, greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential
Answer B: Electrical equipment where the use of nonconducting extinguishing agent is of first importance
Answer C: Metals
Answer D: Ordinary combustible materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water, or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance
 
195. (3.6.12.2-3) To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should.
Answer A: fill one tank at a time
Answer B: reduce the loading rate when topping off
Answer C: close the tank filling valves quickly
Answer D: top off all tanks at the same time
 
196. (3.6.12.2-10) If the overflow tank high-level alarm sounds while the fuel oil tanks are being topped off, the engineer should.
Answer A: close the overflow tank filling valve
Answer B: stop the fuel oil pumping operation
Answer C: reduce the fuel oil pumping rate
Answer D: close the static leg filling valve
 
197. (3.6.12.2-7) After fuel tanks have been filled and bunkers completed, which of the listed procedures should be followed next?
Answer A: The tanks should be sounded to verify levels.
Answer B: The pressure-vacuum relief valve should be reset.
Answer C: The tanks should be made seaworthy to prevent contamination.
Answer D: The tanks should be marked with a bull stamp on the manifold filling valve.
 
198. (3.6.12.2-8) When a fuel oil tank is being topped off during bunkering operations, the tank valve should be closed.
Answer A: rapidly to prevent overflow
Answer B: after the shore pumps are stopped
Answer C: to prevent gas from escaping through the pressure-vacuum relief valves
Answer D: slowly to prevent surge stresses
 
199. (3.6.12.2-2) During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should .
Answer A: notify the Coast Guard
Answer B: secure operations until the exact type of oil is determined
Answer C: make an entry in the oil record book to that effect
Answer D: all of the above
 
200. (3.6.12.2-9) During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the.
Answer A: terminal operator
Answer B: person in charge
Answer C: chief engineer
Answer D: master
 
201. (3.6.13.4-1) The symbol shown in the illustration and used as a reference, from which the height of the center of gravity is measured, is item number. Illustration SF-0022
Answer A: 5
Answer B: 4
Answer C: 3
Answer D: 2
 
202. (3.6.13.4-4) With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the .
Answer A: original vertical centerline
Answer B: center of flotation
Answer C: longitudinal centerline
Answer D: metacenter
 
203. (3.6.13.4-3) A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the.
Answer A: reserve buoyancy increases
Answer B: freeboard is increased
Answer C: tanks are ballasted
Answer D: trim is increased
 
204. (3.6 .13.4-5) As chief engineer you should understand the concept of corrective measures and their purpose. The following four actions will have which affect on the vessel?
1) Add weight low and symmetrically about the centerline.
2) Remove high weight symmetrically.
3) Move weight down symmetrically.
4) Eliminate any free surface present.
Answer A: To correct for the trim of a vessel to achieve parallel sinkage.
Answer B: To correct for the trim of a vessel to achieve a desired trim by the head.
Answer C: To minimize the righting moment a vessel has thereby increasing her stability.
Answer D: To move the center of gravity down to a position below the metacenter and remove an angle of loll.
 
205. (3.6.13.4-6) As chief engineer your vessel has been damaged and one compartment has partially flooded. The vessel has free communication with the sea with water flowing in and out as the vessel rolls. The most important factor contributing to free communication loss of stability is which of the following?
Answer A: Distance from the vessel centerline to the centerline of the wing tank.
Answer B: Whether or not the wing tank on the other side of the vessel is full or empty.
Answer C: Breadth of the wing tank affected.
Answer D: Depth from the bottom of the tank to the waterline.
 
206. (3.6.12.6-1) You are the chief engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage. While bunkering lube oil in port, the hose fails and oil is spilled into the harbor. After securing the transfer, how would you proceed?
Answer A: Perform post incident drug and alcohol testing on engine crew members not involved in the transfer operation.
Answer B: Set out a boom around the ship to control the spread of the oil.
Answer C: Call the local news outlets and report the oil spill.
Answer D: Fill out a Declaration of Inspection for the transfer operation.
 
207. (3.6.3.1 -3) The safe and efficient use of the face piece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by.
Answer A: the maintenance of the face piece
Answer B: the stowing of the face piece
Answer C: the donning of the face piece
Answer D: all of the above
 
208. (3.6.3.1-4) Prior to entering a compartment containing an atmosphere potentially dangerous to life or health and deficient in oxygen, you should don an approved breathing apparatus. Which of the listed devices would be suitable?
Answer A: An SCBA.
Answer B: A canister-type gas mask.
Answer C: An emergency escape hood.
Answer D: A filter-type mask.
 
209. (3.6.3.1-1) What is a major advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus?
Answer A: Facial hair will not affect the mask performance.
Answer B: The equipment is lightweight and the wearer can work without difficulty in confined spaces.
Answer C: The average operating time is over an hour.
Answer D: The speed with which it can be put into operation is around 45 seconds.
 
210. (3.6.3.1 -2) While donning the positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus, you discover that the air cylinder pressure gage and the regulator pressure gage differ from each other by 500 psi. Which of the listed actions should you consider as appropriate?
Answer A: Replace the defective gages with a new pair from the spare parts inventory.
Answer B: Replace the air cylinder.
Answer C: Take the average of the two gages as the correct pressure.
Answer D: Assume that the lower gage reading is correct.
 
211. (3.6.5.4 -3) A magnesium fire would be classified as a .
Answer A: class A
Answer B: class B
Answer C: class C
Answer D: class D
 
212. (3.6.5.4-1) A class "D" fire would involve the burning of.
Answer A: electrical insulation
Answer B: dunnage
Answer C: magnesium
Answer D: diesel oil
 
213. (3.6.5.4-4) "Dry Powder" fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire?
Answer A: Class A
Answer B: Class B
Answer C: Class C
Answer D: Class D
 
214. (3.6.13.5-2) The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of.
Answer A: effort
Answer B: buoyancy
Answer C: gravity
Answer D: flotation
 
215. (3.6.13.5-5) As Chief Engineer your vessel has been damaged and one compartment has partially flooded. You understand that you have lost buoyancy and have added weight. If transverse stability in the flooded condition is poor or negative, every effort should be made to reduce the free surface and to lower the center of gravity. Of main importance is for you to assure which of the following is maintained?
Answer A: A no list condition.
Answer B: As much reserve buoyancy as possible.
Answer C: A GM that is at least neutral - G moved down to be at M.
Answer D: T ransfer water from ballast tanks to the opposite side of the damage.
 
216. (3.6.13.5-3) The center of volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the.
Answer A: center of gravity
Answer B: metacentric height
Answer C: center of flotation
Answer D: center of buoyancy
 
217. (3.6.13.5-4) When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the.
Answer A: increased free surface in the buoyant wedge
Answer B: upward movement of the center of flotation
Answer C: movement of the center of buoyancy toward the low side of the vessel
Answer D: movement of the center of gravity
 
218. (3.6.8.8-1) Your vessel has two fire pumps and a low pressure CO2 system, which protect the cargo, holds and the engine room. A fire is reported on the #3 car deck aft hold. The emergency teams are on air. The first team reports from the forward end of the #3 car deck that there is heavy black smoke coming from the aft end of the hold and there is very limited visibility. They also report they cannot see any flames from their location. The second emergency team reports paint burning and blistering on the hull in the area of #3 car deck aft, as seen from the weather deck. How would you combat this fire?
Answer A: Pull all crew members out of the cargo holds and start boundary cooling from the weather deck with fire hoses. Simultaneously start the procedure to release CO2 into the zone that is on fire.
Answer B: Recommend to the Captain to abandon ship.
Answer C: Boundary cool from the weather deck with fire hoses and use cargo fans to exhaust the smoke.
Answer D: Have the fire teams advance into the aft end of #3 hold with fire hoses to locate and extinguish the fire.
 
219. (3.6.7.1-4) One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is.
Answer A: the CO2 gas is lighter than air and a large amount is required to extinguish a fire near the deck
Answer B: rapid dissipation of the CO2 vapor
Answer C: the 'snow' which is sometimes discharged along with the gas is toxic
Answer D: prolonged exposure to high concentrations of CO2 gas causes suffocation
 
220. (3.6.7.1-6) During onboard training with your engineers you review the various firefighting agents available for use onboard a ship. Which of the following statements describes carbon dioxide as an extinguishing agent?
Answer A: Carbon dioxide may be applied through a fixed or semi-fixed system, or from a portable extinguisher. It is useful for inserting a compartment or for putting out small local fires.
Answer B: Carbon dioxide is produced by a special foam nozzle or by a fixed system. It is used to form a blanket over the surface of burning liquids. It is effective only with liquids which are not appreciably soluble in water.
Answer C: Carbon dioxide is a sodium or potassium bicarbonate or monosodium phosphate solution, usually applied from a semi-fixed or portable extinguisher.
Answer D: Carbon dioxide is a finely divided mist produced by either a high or low velocity fog nozzle. It is used for knocking down flames and cooling hot surfaces.
 
221. (3.6.7.1 -1) The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is
Answer A: steam smothering
Answer B: flue gas
Answer C: water
Answer D: carbon dioxide
 
222. (3.6.7.1-5) Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
Answer A: Water fog
Answer B: CO2
Answer C: Dry chemical
Answer D: Foam
 
223. (3.6.7.1-2) When an oil fire has been extinguished, the surface of the oil should be kept covered with foam to prevent.
Answer A: spontaneous combustion below the oil surface
Answer B: air from contacting the oil vapors permitting reignition
Answer C: toxic fumes from escaping to the surface
Answer D: boiling of the heated oil
 
224. (3.6.3.4 -2) Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is correct?
Answer A: Suits are not required to automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in the water.
Answer B: The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks.
Answer C: The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil.
Answer D: The suits provide for limited body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder, and picking up small objects like a pencil.
 
225. (3.6.3.4-1) An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an.
Answer A: air bottle for breathing
Answer B: whistle and hand-held flare
Answer C: whistle, strobe light, and reflective tape
Answer D: whistle, hand-held flare, and sea dye marker
 
226. (3.6.3.4-4) If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to.
Answer A: separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued
Answer B: get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel
Answer C: immediately head for the nearest land
Answer D: remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position
 
227. (3.6.4.3-1) The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system is an example of heat transfer by.
Answer A: conduction
Answer B: convection
Answer C: radiation
Answer D: windage
 
228. (3.6.4.3-3) To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should.
Answer A: cool the bulkhead around the fire
Answer B: shut off electrical power
Answer C: close all openings to the area
Answer D: remove combustibles from direct exposure
 
229. (3.6.4.3-2) In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by.
Answer A: convection
Answer B: conduction
Answer C: radiation
Answer D: ventilation
 
230. (3.6.8.7-5) Your vessel is traveling on an international voyage. Regarding the assistance of shore side firefighters to combat a vessel fire while in port, what document, if any, is required, and where would it be located?
Answer A: International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate located in the captain's office.
Answer B: Minimum Safe Manning Certificate located on the bridge.
Answer C: Fire Control Plan; permanently stored in a prominently marked weather tight enclosure outside the deck house.
Answer D: No document required.
 
231. (3.6.8.7-1) While in port working cargo, a fire is reported on the forward car deck. After the captain sounds the general alarm, the crew musters and starts fighting the fire. As chief engineer you inform the captain that shore side firefighting assistance needs to be called. How would you then proceed?
Answer A: Continue fighting the fire and use the ship's Fire Control Plan and coordinate with shore side firefighters upon their arrival to extinguish the fire.
Answer B: Stop firefighting efforts and wait until the shore side firefighters arrive.
Answer C: Continue fighting the fire and use the ship's SOLAS manual and coordinate with shore side firefighters to extinguish the fire.
Answer D: Continue fighting the fire and use the ship's SOPEP plan and coordinate with shore side firefighters to extinguish the fire.
 
232. (3.6.6.3-1) The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systems? Illustration SF-0004
Answer A: Fixed temperature
Answer B: Line-type pneumatic
Answer C: Combined fixed temperature and rate-of-rise
Answer D: Rate-of-rise
 
233. (3.6.6.3-2) In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected
Answer A: in parallel
Answer B: to the trouble alarm supervising resistor
Answer C: in series
Answer D: to the detecting cabinet
 
234. (3.6.7.6-5) Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible?
Answer A: To keep the fire from spreading through the bulkheads.
Answer B: Updraft from the fire tends to carry the CO2 away.
Answer C: Carbon dioxide takes a long time to disperse to all portions of a space.
Answer D: The fire may warp the CO2 piping.
 
235. (3.6.7.6-3) Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the
Answer A: fuel supply only
Answer B: exhaust ventilation only
Answer C: mechanical and natural ventilation
Answer D: supply and exhaust ventilation
 
236. (3.6.7.6-1) The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to.
Answer A: instantaneously extinguish the fire which triggered it
Answer B: protect people in the areas which have had sprinkler heads installed
Answer C: limit the spread of the fire and control the amount of heat produced
Answer D: alert the crew to the fire
 
237. (3.6.7.6-6) During vessel familiarization, you find the vessel you are newly assigned to as chief engineer has a high-pressure CO2 system for the engine room. In what way are the high-pressure CO2 bottles released in the event of an engine room fire?
Answer A: The master cylinder sends gas to the actuators on all bottles in the affected banks.
Answer B: The bottles are released individually.
Answer C: The pull wire releases all bottles in the banks.
Answer D: The smoke detection system automatically releases CO2 to the engine room.
 
238. (3.6.4.6-2) The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as.
Answer A: spontaneous combustion
Answer B: radiation ignition
Answer C: chemical ignition
Answer D: chemical combustion
 
239. (3.6.4.6-4) To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be.
Answer A: discarded as soon as possible
Answer B: cleaned thoroughly for reuse
Answer C: kept in the paint locker
Answer D: kept in nonmetal containers
 
240. (3.6 .12.5-2) In order to prevent the unnecessary release of hydrocarbons to atmosphere, when taking on departure ballast, one method used is to.
Answer A: use blowers to purge the inert gas from tanks
Answer B: completely open the mast riser valve
Answer C: allow entering ballast to displace the inert gas to a tank where cargo is currently being discharged
Answer D: manually open the pressure/vacuum device
 
241. (3.6 .12.5-4) A segregated ballast system is a system where.
Answer A: all ballast lines, tanks, and pumps are independent of those used for oil
Answer B: ballast is taken on and discharged through a separate main deck riser
Answer C: all ballast is processed through the oily-water separator
Answer D: ballast and cargo tanks are separated by cofferdams
 
242. (3.6.12.5-3) When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must.
Answer A: be stopped until the oil can settle out, then resumed at a slower discharge rate
Answer B: be completely discharged in order to load
Answer C: be terminated automatically
Answer D: be completed only after "load on top" has been completed
 
243. (3.6.12.5-5) What would be the minimum distance from any shoreline that a vessel must be located before it is permitted to perform a complete ballast water exchange to be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management Regulations? -
Answer A: 12 nautical miles
Answer B: 50 nautical miles
Answer C: 100 nautical miles
Answer D: 200 nautical miles
 
244. (3.6.3.6 -4) When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should.
Answer A: tie up to the rescue vessel
Answer B: transfer only those personnel who are not seasick
Answer C: wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
Answer D: transfer all personnel immediately
 
245. (3.6.3.6 -2) An 'on-load' release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released
Answer A: only when the load is taken off the cable
Answer B: only when there is a load on the cable
Answer C: only when activated by the controls at the lowering station
Answer D: at any time
 
246. (3.6.3.6-3) If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be.
Answer A: loaded more on port side to forward
Answer B: loaded equally on both sides with more forward
Answer C: loaded equally on both sides with more aft
Answer D: allowed to sit anywhere
 
247. (3.6.3.6-5) Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will.
Answer A: reduce your drift rate
Answer B: keep the survival craft from turning over
Answer C: aid in recovering the survival craft
Answer D: increase your visibility
 
248. (3.6.3.6-6) With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from.
Answer A: a nuclear environment
Answer B: a fire and toxic environment
Answer C: a hurricane
Answer D: a drop greater than ten feet
 
249. (3.6.3.2-5) A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water is defined as a.
Answer A: life raft
Answer B: life cushion
Answer C: life preserver
Answer D: buoyant apparatus
 
250. (3.6.3.2-3) Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be.
Answer A: stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted
Answer B: used as seats, pillows, or foot rests
Answer C: left on open decks
Answer D: all of the above
 
251. (3.6.3.2-4) You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket.
Answer A: upon entering the helicopter
Answer B: prior to reaching the water
Answer C: after reaching the water, but prior to exiting the helicopter
Answer D: after exiting clear of the helicopter
 
252. (3.6.3.2-2) Life jackets should be stowed in.
Answer A: the forepeaks
Answer B: the pump room
Answer C: readily accessible spaces
Answer D: locked watertight containers
 
253. (3.6.1.2-3) The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following statements is correct for this condition? Illustration SF-0018
Answer A: Shore "A" will support the greatest load.
Answer B: Shore "A" will not slip under load.
Answer C: Shore "B" will support the load without it cracking.
Answer D: Shore "B" will crack at the pointed end.
 
254. (3.6.1.2-1) Wooden shoring, with a cross-sectional dimension of 4" X 4" should not be longer than
Answer A: 8 feet
Answer B: 10 feet
Answer C: 16 feet
Answer D: 20 feet
 
255. (3.6.1.3-1) While maneuvering up the East River your vessel runs aground. As the chief engineer of the vessel how would you proceed?
Answer A: Sound all fuel oil tanks and inspect the engine room bilges and void spaces.
Answer B: Switch the salt water cooling suction to the low sea suction.
Answer C: Wait until the vessel docks to sound the fuel oil tanks.
Answer D: Call your port engineer.
 
256. (3.6.1.3-4) You are on a vessel with a 30' mean draft. While maneuvering away from the dock at slow-speed the vessel grounds near the bow area on hard sand. In order to achieve an additional three foot of trim by the stern, you need to shift ballast from the forepeak, which is full, to the after peak, which is empty. Your ballast pump for this operation has a capacity of 85 tons per hour. How much tonnage needs to be shifted and how long should it take?
Answer A: 9 tons shifted from the forepeak to the after peak in 0h 7m.
Answer B: 143 tons shifted from the forepeak to the after peak in 1h 41m.
Answer C: 1333 tons shifted from the forepeak to the after peak in 15h 41m.
Answer D: The tons to shift for a 36" trim exceeds the tank capacity.
 
257. (3.6.1.3-2) Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by.
Answer A: waiting for the vessel to list
Answer B: checking fuel oil strainers
Answer C: examining tank boundaries
Answer D: sounding the tank
 
258. (3.6.1.3-3) Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel tank level has increased. You therefore should suspect.
Answer A: condensation in the fuel tank
Answer B: contamination from the salt water flushing system
Answer C: a load of bad fuel
Answer D: a crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank
 
259. (3.6.6.1-3) Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by.
Answer A: allowing better access in an emergency
Answer B: eliminating potential fuel sources
Answer C: eliminating trip hazards
Answer D: improving personnel qualifications
 
260. (3.6.6.1-5) A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker is to
Answer A: label the fixed firefighting system
Answer B: store paint cans on metal shelves only
Answer C: not allow oily rags to accumulate in the space
Answer D: place a portable fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker
 
261. (3.6.6.1-2) When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are. -
Answer A: approved by the Coast Guard
Answer B: non-ferrous
Answer C: high carbon steel
Answer D: fixed with a ferrous cover
 
262. (3.6.6.1-6) Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?
Answer A: Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening.
Answer B: Keeping the duct interior clean.
Answer C: Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening.
Answer D: Keeping the duct exterior clean.
 
263. (3.6.6.1-4) Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be.
Answer A: covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources
Answer B: returned to the paint locker after each use
Answer C: stowed safely at the work site until work is completed
Answer D: drained into a common container after each use
 
264. (3.6.6.1-1) The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be
Answer A: in the amidships house
Answer B: at the main deck manifold
Answer C: at the vent header
Answer D: in the pump room
 
265. (3.6.8.1-4) As the senior engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage, you have just activated the CO2 release handle for the engine room to extinguish a fire. How would you direct the emergency team to re-enter the engine room?