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1 A lateral system buoy displaying a quick light __________. indicates that special caution is required
2 You are steaming southward along the west coast of the United States when you sight a buoy showing a flashing green light. How should you pass this buoy? Leave it to your starboard.
3 As you enter a U.S. channel from seaward the numbers on the buoys __________. 
 increase with the can buoys being odd numbered 

4 An orange and white buoy marking an area where operating restrictions are in effect will be marked with which symbol? Circle
5 Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, when entering from seaward a lateral system buoy to be left to starboard may display which of the topmarks shown? Illustration D046NG A
6 A preferred-channel buoy may be __________. lettered
7 You are underway on course 127T. You sight a buoy with the topmarks shown in illustration D025NG below, bearing two points on the starboard bow. Which action must be taken? 
 Ensure the bearings change to the right. 

8 In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick white light with 6 flashes, followed by one long flash at 15 second intervals. Which of the four topmarks shown in illustration D030NG below would be fitted to this buoy? A
9 In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick white light with 9 flashes every 15 seconds. Which of the four topmarks shown in illustration D031NG below would be fitted to the buoy? A
10 In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA-B Buoyage System? Brazil
11 Lighted information markers show __________. white lights
12 The Coast Guard Captain of the Port has excluded all traffic from a section of a port, while a regatta is taking place. The buoys marking this exclusion area will be __________. orange and white
13 Navigational marks used for informational or regulatory purposes are __________. white with orange geometric shapes
14 Lighted white and orange buoys must show which color light? White
15 Under the Uniform State Waterway Marking System a mooring buoy is painted __________. white with a blue band
16 A white buoy with a blue band is __________. a mooring buoy
17 Green lights may appear on __________. 
 horizontally banded buoys 

18 When entering from seaward, a buoy displaying a single-flashing red light indicates __________. the starboard side of the channel
19 Which buoy may be even numbered? Unlighted nun buoy
20 When entering a channel from seaward, the numbers on buoys __________. increase with the even numbers to starboard
21 What indicates a buoy that should be left to port when entering from seaward? 
(U.S. Aids to Navigation System) Odd number
22 Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, a conical buoy will be __________. red in color
23 You are underway on course 328T when you sight a buoy broad on your port bow. You are in the best navigable water if the buoy __________. exhibits a light with the characteristic of VQ(3)5s
24 What is a characteristic of cardinal marks? Light rhythms indicating directional orientation
25 Two navigational hazards are located near to each other, but each is marked by an individual cardinal buoyage system. The buoys of one cardinal system may be identified from the other system by __________. the difference in the periods of the light
26 Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a cardinal mark may NOT be used to __________. 
 indicate the port and starboard sides of well-defined channels 

27 Under the IALA cardinal system, a mark with quick white light showing 3 flashes every 10 seconds indicates that the safest water in the area is on the __________. east side of the mark
28 Under the IALA cardinal system, a mark with a quick light showing 9 flashes every 15 seconds indicates that the safest water is on the __________. west side of the mark
29 A vertically-striped buoy may be __________. lighted with a white light
30 A mid-channel buoy, if lighted, will show a __________. Morse
31 Of the four light characteristics shown in illustration D019NG below which one does NOT represent a safe water mark of the IALA Buoyage System? A
32 Under the IALA Buoyage System, which topmark shown in illustration D023NG below will be displayed on a safe water mark? A
33 What is a lighted safe water mark fitted with to aid in its identification? A spherical topmark
34 Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, a lighted buoy with a spherical topmark marks __________. safe water
35 Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a safe water mark may NOT __________. 
 show a quick flashing light
36 Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a spherical buoy will mark the __________. 
 safe water
37 The light characteristic of flashing is used in the Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers for lights on __________. the right descending bank
38 In illustration D045NG below, a green-and-red banded daymark, with the uppermost band green, will have which of the following shapes? A
39 You are in a channel inbound from sea. A daymark used to mark a channel junction when the preferred channel is to starboard will have the shape indicated by what letter in illustration D045NG below? A
40 What feature(s) of a daymark is (are) used to identify the beacon upon which it is mounted? Color and shape
41 A white diamond daymark with an orange border is a(n) __________. information or regulatory mark
42 The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type KGW. You should __________. look for another daymark to form the range
43 A special daymark is a __________. yellow diamond
44 On entering from seaward, a starboard side daymark will __________. have an even number if numbered
45 Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, passing daymarks on the right descending bank are __________. green square-shaped panels with green reflector borders
46 What indicates a dual purpose buoy? Green buoy with a yellow square
47 You are entering an east coast port and see a buoy with a yellow triangle painted on it. What does the symbol indicate? you are in the vicinity of the ICW
48 A mountain peak charted at 700 feet breaks the horizon, and your height of eye is 12 feet. What is your approximate distance off (choose closest answer)? 34.7 nm
49 What is the approximate geographic range of Southwest Ledge Light, Connecticut, if your height of eye is 32 feet (9.8 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS". 15.5 nm
50 An occulting light is one in which __________. the period of light exceeds the period of darkness
51 Which item in illustration D034NG below shows a fixed and flashing light? A
52 What is NOT true concerning color sectors of lights? Color sectors are expressed in degrees from the light toward the vessel.
53 You are underway and pass by a lighthouse. Its light, which was white since you first sighted it, changes to red. This means __________. you have entered an area of shoal water or other hazard
54 The height of a light is measured from which reference plane? Mean high water
55 The following boats are approaching a lock. Which has priority for locking? Corps of Engineer towboat running empty-headed
56 All persons or vessels within the lock area, including the lock approach channels, come under the authority of the __________. lockmaster
57 In addition to monitoring channel 16, all Corps of Engineer locks may use as working channels __________. 
 12, 13 and 14 
 o
58 You are approaching a swing bridge at night. You will know that the bridge is open for river traffic when __________. the red light changes to green
59 What lights would you see on the Illinois water way when any wickets of the dam or bear traps are open, or partially open, which may cause a set in the current conditions in the upper lock approach? Red over amber (yellow)
60 When displayed under a single-span fixed bridge, red lights indicate __________. the channel boundaries
61 When the navigational channel passes under a fixed bridge, the edges of the channel are marked on the bridge with what lights? 
 Red lights 

62 The channel under a bridge is marked with lights of the lateral system. The centerline of the channel shall be marked on the bridge by __________. an occulting white light
63 In which publication could you find information concerning the minimum lighting required for bridges on U.S. waters? 
 Code of Federal Regulation
64 A flashing red light displayed at a single lock means that the lock __________. cannot be made ready immediately and vessels shall stand clear
65 You are approaching a lock and see a flashing amber light located on the lock wall. You should __________. approach the lock under full control
66 A drawbridge may use visual signals to acknowledge a vessel's request to open the draw. Which signal indicates that the draw will NOT be opened immediately? A fixed red light
67 You are approaching an open drawbridge and sound the proper signal. You receive no acknowledgment from the bridge. Which action should you take? 
 Approach with caution and proceed through the open draw. 

68 You are approaching a drawbridge and have sounded the request-for-opening signal. The bridge has responded with five short blasts. How would you respond? Any of these signals is considered a valid reponse
69 When approaching a lock and at a distance of not more than a mile, vessels desiring a single lockage shall sound which signal? One long blast followed by one short blast
70 The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 13 miles and is 36 feet high (11.0 meters). If the visibility is 7.0 miles and your height of eye is 25 feet (7.6 meters), at what approximate distance will you sight the light? 10.0 miles
71 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 19 miles and a height above water of 52 feet (15.8 meters). Your height of eye is 42 feet (12.8 meters) and the visibility is 10.0 miles. At what approximate range will you first sight the light? 16.0 miles
72 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 10 miles and a height above water of 38 feet (11.6 meters). Your height of eye is 52 feet (15.8 meters) and the visibility is 11.0 miles. At which approximate range will you first sight the light? 10.5 miles
73 The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 10 miles and is 11 feet high. If the visibility is 5 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what approximate distance will you sight the light? 6.3 miles
74 The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 14 miles and is 26 feet high. If the visibility is 4 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what approximate distance will you sight the light? 7.5 miles
75 A vessel sighting a northern right whale dead ahead should __________. alter course to give a wide clearance
76 On a transpacific voyage, you receive a message from your vessel's operators saying that your vessel has been consigned to Naval Control of Shipping. Further information is contained in __________. Radio Aids to Navigation (PUB 117)
77 On a transpacific voyage, you receive a message from your vessel's operators saying that your vessel has been consigned to Naval Control of Shipping. Further information is contained in __________. Radio Aids to Navigation (PUB 117)
78 You are proceeding under NCS (Naval Control of Shipping) and wish to send a message warning of a hurricane. Which precedence would you assign this message? (IMMEDIATE)
79 You are proceeding under NCS (Naval Control of Shipping) and wish to send a message by rapid transmission which does not require a higher precedence. Which precedence would you assign this message? R (ROUTINE)
80 Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation are called __________. isogonic lines
81 Isogonic lines are lines on a chart indicating __________. points of equal variation
82 At McAlpine L & D, normal upper pool elevation is 420.0 feet MSL, equal to 12.0 feet on the upper gage. The vertical clearance at the Clark Memorial Highway bridge is 72.6 feet above normal pool. What is the clearance if the gage reads 27.2 feet? 57.4 feet
83 The National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (formerly the National Imagery and Mapping Agency) would produce a chart of the coast of __________. Canada
84 On the Corps of Engineer's Navigation Maps, the channel is __________. indicated by a broken line
85 The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the right bank. This means that the light can be seen on the starboard side of a vessel __________. descending the river
86 A chart has extensive corrections to be made to it. When these are made and the chart is again printed, the chart issue is a __________. new edition
87 In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area? Catalog of Charts
88 The shoreline shown on nautical charts of areas affected by large tidal fluctuations is usually the line of mean __________. high water
89 Mean high water is used __________.
 to indicate the shoreline where there is a large tidal fluctuation
coast of the U.S.
90 On charts of U.S. waters, a magenta marking is NOT used for marking a __________. 5-fathom curve
91 Entering from sea, a daymark on the port side of the channel would be indicated on a chart by a __________. green square with the letter G
92 Sometimes foreign charts are reproduced by NGA. On such a chart a wire dragged (swept) area may be shown in purple or __________. green 

93 Which symbol represents a 2-fathom curve? .. .. .. .. ..
94 Sometimes foreign charts are reproduced by NGA. On such a chart, a wire-dragged, swept area may be shown in green or __________. purple 

95 On U.S. charts, you can tell if a named feature such as a rock (i.e. Great Eastern Rock in Block Island Sound) is submerged by the __________. style of type used to print the name
96 Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical letters. This indicates the __________. rock is dry at high water
97 When slanted letters are used to spell the name of a charted object you know the __________. object may cover and uncover with the tide
98 A pilot chart does NOT contain information about __________. tidal currents 
 
99 The numeral in the center of a wind rose circle on a pilot chart indicates the __________. percentage of calms
100 What agency of the U.S. Government issues charts of U.S. waters and Coast Pilots? 
 National Ocean Service 

101 Which table is NOT found in the U.S. Coast Pilots? Luminous range table
102 Information about the pilotage available at Miami harbor may best be obtained from which publication? United States Coast Pilot
103 Vessels should maintain a sharp lookout, especially during December through March, when navigating the right whale's only known calving grounds which lie off the coasts of __________. Georgia and NE Florida
104 The population of northern right whales, an endangered species, numbers approximately __________. 300
105 What is published by the U.S. Coast Guard? 
 Light List 

106 The U.S. Coast Guard publishes __________. Light Lists
107 When a buoy is in position only during a certain period of the year, where may the dates when the buoy is in position be found? Light List
108 How is the intensity of a light expressed in the Light Lists? Nominal range
109 Which agency maintains federal aids to navigation? Coast Guard
110 The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all almanacs, are for the __________. centers of the various celestial bodies
111 Your ship received a HYDROLANT advising of a special warning to mariners from the Department of State for ships in the Persian Gulf. You are 400 miles south of, and bound for, the Persian Gulf. What action should you take? Send an AMVER report and acknowledge receipt of the warning.
112 Which would be the subject of a NAVAREA warning? 
 Off-air times of radio beacons when scheduled for routine maintenance
113 The Coast Guard broadcasts urgent marine storm warning messages on which of the following frequencies? 
 157.10 MHz (VHF-FM Ch. 22A)
114 Complete information on weather broadcasts throughout the world is contained in __________. Selected Worldwide Marine Weather Broadcasts
115 The Daily Memorandum contains information on __________. the latest navigational warnings
116 Charts should be corrected by using information published in the __________. Notice to Mariners
117 Coast Pilots and navigational charts are kept corrected and up-to-date by using the __________. 
 Notices to Mariners 

118 Information for updating nautical charts is primarily found in the __________. Notice to Mariners
119 Which Naval Control of Shipping publication should be aboard your vessel? ATP-2 Vol. II - Allied Control of Shipping Manual
120 When a merchant vessel is under the Naval Control of Shipping Organization in wartime, naval authorities may give orders pertaining to __________. regulations about darkening ship
121 Your vessel's operators send a message that your vessel has been consigned to Naval Control of Shipping. The message will refer you to __________. Radio Aids to Navigation (PUB 117)
122 In a national emergency, when communicating via the Navy, messages are sent by precedence. A message designated IMMEDIATE will be delivered within __________. 
 30 minutes to 1 hour
123 In a national emergency, when communicating via the Navy, messages are sent by precedence. A message designated IMMEDIATE will be delivered within __________. 
 30 minutes
124 Defense plans may cause the operation of electronic aids to navigation to be suspended with __________. no notice
125 Which form of navigation may be suspended without notice under defense planning? electronic
126 General information on enroute weather and climate is found in __________. the Sailing Directions and the Coast Pilot
127 Which publication would NOT be used on a voyage from Houston to New York? Sailing Directions (Enroute)
128 The Sailing Directions (Planning Guide) contain information on all of the following EXCEPT __________. coastal features
129 The Sailing Directions are published in the Enroute format and the __________. Planning Guide
130 Information on search and rescue procedures and special, local communications used in Mexican waters will be found in the __________. Sailing Directions (Planning Guides)
131 Which publication requires infrequent corrections? Sailing Directions (Planning Guide)
132 General information about the location, characteristics, facilities, and services for U.S. and foreign ports may be obtained from which publication? World Port Index
133 A general chart could have a scale of __________. 1:200,000
134 A harbor chart could have a scale of __________. 1:35,000
135 All straight lines represent great circle tracks on a chart based on a(n) __________. gnomonic projection
136 Which conic projection chart features straight lines which closely approximate a great circle? Lambert conformal
137 What area of the earth cannot be shown on a standard Mercator chart? North and South Poles
138 You are in a channel in U.S. waters near an industrial plant with a load/discharge facility for barges. You hear a siren being sounded at the facility. What does this indicate? There is danger at the facility due to a fire or cargo release.
139 Your ship is returning to New Orleans from a foreign voyage and carrying a bulk cargo of anhydrous ammonia. You must notify the Captain of the Port, New Orleans, __________.

 at least 96 hours before entering port

aboard
140 A section of the river that is narrower than usual and is often navigable from bank to bank is a __________. chute
141 A bold reef is a reef __________. that can be detected by water turbulence
142 A structure, usually made of stone, or cement pilings, which extends from the bank at approximately right angles to the current is called a __________. dike
143 What term is used to describe a tank barge constructed with the structural framing inside the cargo tank and the side shell plating containing the cargo? Single hull
144 When pushing barges ahead close to a steep revetment where there is no current, what is MOST likely to occur? The head of the tow will tend to sheer away from the revetment.
145 When pushing a tow and approaching barges tied off to the shore, you should __________. decrease speed while passing so you won't create a suction
146 Where is the pivot point of a towboat with a tow ahead? One-third the length of the combined unit back from the head
147 What is used to help prevent damage to barges, locks, and landings when you are locking or landing a tow? Possums (fenders)
148 Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate the __________. speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
149 When using an ARPA, what should you consider in order to evaluate the information displayed? Navigational constraints may require a target vessel to change course.
150 In general, on how many radio channels will an automatic identification system (AIS) operate? 2
151 An automatic identification system (AIS) transponder transmits and receives information broadcasts on __________? VHF maritime band
152 What does an automatic identification system (AIS) transponder use to transmit and receive information broadcasts? 161.975 Mhz and 162.025 Mhz
153 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS)? 
 AIS provides the other vessel's identity, dimensions and navigational status regardless of visibility. 

154 Yesterday your chronometer read 03h 01m 56s at the 1500 GMT time tick. Today your chronometer read 03h 01m 58s at the 1500 GMT time tick. What is the chronometer error? 01m 58s fast
155 Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE? 
 The amount of the error and the sign will generally be the same on all headings.
156 The spin axis of a gyroscope tends to remain fixed in space in the direction in which it is started. How does this gyroscope become north seeking so that it can be used as a compass? 
 By mechanically or electrically applying forces to precess the gyroscope
157 The quadrantal spheres are used to __________. remove deviation on the intercardinal headings
158 The vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field causes induced magnetism in vertical soft iron. This changes with latitude. What corrects for this coefficient of the deviation? The Flinders bar
159 To find a magnetic compass course from a true course you must apply __________. deviation and variation
160 When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made __________. after adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets
161 Deviation which is maximum on intercardinal compass headings may be removed by the __________. soft iron spheres on the sides of the compass
162 Magnetic compass deviation __________. is the angular difference between magnetic north and compass north
163 The horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the north-south line of the magnetic compass is __________. deviation
164 Deviation is caused by __________. magnetic influence inherent to that particular vessel
165 Deviation in a compass is caused by the __________. influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
166 The compass error of a magnetic compass that has no deviation is __________. equal to variation
167 Which compensates for errors introduced when the vessel heels over? A single vertical magnet beneath the compass
168 Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of __________. 1While the vessel is on a compass heading of 000
169 The chart indicates the variation was 345'W in 1988, and the annual change is decreasing 6'. If you use the chart in 1991 how much variation should you apply? 327'W
170 The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates __________. the direction of the vessel's head
171 The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in polarity due to __________. being struck by lighting
172 The vertical angle between the horizontal and the magnetic line of force is the __________. 
 dip
173 By convention, the north pole of a magnet is painted __________. red
174 How many degrees are there on a compass card? 360
175 What is the compass course of a vessel heading SSW? 202.5
176 What is the compass course of a vessel heading ESE? 112.5
177 What is the compass course of a vessel heading NNE? 
 022.5 

178 The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass? Lubber's line
179 A vessel heading SSW is on a course of __________. 202.5
180 A vessel heading ESE is on a course of __________. 112.5
181 A vessel heading NNE is on a course of __________. 022.5
182 A Doppler log in the volume reverberation mode indicates __________. speed through the water
183 A Doppler speed log indicates speed over ground __________. in the bottom return mode
184 ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include __________. vector and raster
185 Raster-scan chart data is __________. a digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and one layer
186 An ECDIS is required to display which information?

 Hydrographic data


187 ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? If the ship is going to reach a critical point on the planned route
188 Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals? Course made good history
189 ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT __________. determine magnetic compass deviation
190 What will cause the Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) to emit a visual alarm, audible alarm, or both? A tracked target entering your preset CPA-TCPA limits
191 What option does an Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) not have? Trial Maneuver
192 Vessel required to have an Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) must have a device to indicate the __________. speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
193 Your Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) has automatic speed inputs from the log. Due to currents, the log is indicating a faster speed than the speed over the ground. What should you expect under these circumstances? The targets true course vector will be in error.
194 When using an Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA), what should you consider in order to evaluate the information displayed? Navigational constraints may require a target vessel to change course.
195 Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) has which built in functions? Target CPA and time of CPA (TCPA)
196 When using the Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) in heavy rain, which action should you take? Navigate as though the effective range of the radar has been reduced.
197 Which factor has the greatest effect on the amount of gain required to obtain a fathometer reading? Type of bottom
198 If a sound signal is emitted from the oscillator of a fathometer, and two seconds elapse before the returning signal is picked up, what depth of water is indicated? 824 fathoms
199 What should you apply to a fathometer reading to determine the depth of water? Add the draft of the vessel.
200 The recording fathometer produces a graphic record of the __________. depth underneath the keel against a time base
201 Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability? Selective Availability
202 You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. The light may be identified on the radar by __________. a coded signal appearing on the same bearing at a greater range than the light
203 In order to insure that the racon signal is visible on your 3 cm radar, the __________. rain clutter control should be off but, if necessary, may be on low
204 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 5.5 knots on course 033T, and bears 248T at 64 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to intercept vessel A? 262
205 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 6 knots on course 133T, and bears 343T at 92 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 9 knots? 6h 43m
206 The radar control used to reduce sea return at close ranges is the __________. sensitivity time control
207 The radar control that shortens all echoes on the display and reduces clutter caused by rain or snow is the __________. fast time constant (differentiator)
208 The radar control that reduces weak echoes out to a limited distance from the ship is the __________. sensitivity time control (sea-clutter control)
209 Radar makes the most accurate determination of the __________. distance to a target
210 What is the approximate wave length of an X Band Radar operating on a frequency of approximately 9500 MHz? 3 cm
211 Your radar indicates a target; however, there is no visible object at the point indicated. A large mountain, approximately 50 miles away on the same bearing as the target, is breaking the horizon. You should suspect the radar target is caused by __________. ducting
212 What causes the error of collimation with regards to the four adjustments to a sextant? Telescope not parallel to the frame
213 The horizon glass of a sextant is __________. silvered on its half nearer the frame
214 There are seven sources of error in the marine sextant. Of the four errors listed, which one is adjustable? Error of collimation
215 In order to remove side error from a sextant, you should adjust the __________. horizon glass to make it perpendicular to the sextant frame
216 While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 6 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore? 1100 yards
217 Warm air masses will generally have __________. stratiform clouds
218 Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a warm or cold air mass due to __________. movement of the air mass
219 An air mass that has moved down from Canada would most likely have the symbols __________. cPk 

220 Hot air can hold __________. more moisture than cold air
221 Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel from __________. west to east
222 If a weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure system to be 100 miles due east of you, what winds can you expect in the Southern Hemisphere? South-southwesterly
223 You are steaming west in the North Atlantic in an extra tropical cyclonic storm, and the wind is dead ahead. According to the law of Buys Ballot, the center of low pressure lies to the __________. north
224 According to Buys Ballot's law, when an observer in the Northern Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, the center of low pressure is located to the __________. northeast
225 Which cloud type is normally associated with thunderstorms? Cumulonimbus
226 In many areas "atoll" clouds (clouds of vertical development) are produced over small islands. These are the result of __________. rising air currents produced by the warm islands
227 All of the following are associated with cumulonimbus clouds EXCEPT __________. steady rainfall
228 Cumulonimbus clouds are formed by __________. vertical air movements
229 If the sky was clear, with the exception of a few cumulus clouds, it would indicate __________. fair weather
230 Which type of cloud is composed entirely of ice crystals and is found at very high altitudes? Cirrus
231 Which list of clouds is in sequence, from highest to lowest in the sky? Cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus
232 Clouds are classified according to their __________. altitude and how they were formed
233 In illustration D039NG below, what type of cloud is indicated by the number five? Altocumulus
234 In illustration D039NG below, what type of cloud is indicated by the number four? Altostratus
235 In illustration D039NG below, which number indicates cirrus clouds? 1
236 In illustration D039NG below, what type of cloud is indicated by the number one? Cirrus
237 As the temperature of the air reaches the dew point, __________. fog may form
238 In the Northern Hemisphere, an observer at point II in illustration D014NG below, should experience a wind shift from what direction? southwest, clockwise to northwest
239 Which type of frontal passage is associated with a relatively narrow band of precipitation? A cold front
240 Which weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front in the Northern Hemisphere? A line of cumulonimbus clouds
241 Which of the following represents the slope of a warm front? 1 mile vertically to 150 miles horizontally
242 Your facsimile prognostic chart indicates that you will cross the cold front of a low pressure system in about 24 hours. You should __________. prepare for gusty winds, thunderstorms, and a sudden wind shift
243 A series of brief showers accompanied by strong, shifting winds may occur along or some distance ahead of a(n) __________. cold front
244 In the Northern Hemisphere, gusty winds shifting clockwise, a rapid drop in temperature, thunderstorms or rain squalls in summer (frequent rain/snow squalls in winter) then a rise in pressure followed by clearing skies, indicate the passage of a(n) __________. cold front
245 You can expect frontal activity when two air masses collide and __________. 
 there are significant differences between the temperature of each air mass 

246 When a warm air mass is adjacent to a cold air mass, the separation line between the two is called a(n) __________. front
247 How does visibility change after the passage of a cold front? visibility will improve rapidly
248 When a warm air mass overtakes and replaces a cold air mass, the contact surface is called a(n) __________. warm front
249 As it approaches, a typical warm front will bring __________. rising temperatures and falling barometric pressure
250 Which of the following causes a frontal thunderstorm? a warm air mass rising over a cold air mass
251 The first indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be __________. high clouds gradually followed by lower thicker clouds
252 You are enroute from Puerto Rico to New York. A hurricane makes up and is approaching. If the wind veers steadily, this indicates that your vessel is __________. in the dangerous semicircle
253 The dangerous semicircle of a typhoon in the Southern Hemisphere is that area __________. to the left of the storm's track
254 The dangerous semicircle of a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere is that area of the storm __________. to the right of the storm's track
255 In a tropical cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere, a vessel hove to with the wind shifting counterclockwise would be __________. in the navigable semicircle
256 That half of the hurricane to the right hand side of its track (as you face the same direction that the storm is moving) in the Northern Hemisphere is called the __________. 
 dangerous semicircle 

257 You have determined that you are in the right semicircle of a tropical cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere. What action should you take to avoid the storm? Place the wind on the starboard bow and hold that course.
258 In the Northern hemisphere which semicircle of a hurricane is the navigable semicircle? 
 Left 

259 In the Northern Hemisphere, your vessel is believed to be in the direct path of a hurricane, and plenty of sea room is available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the __________. starboard quarter, note the course, and head in that direction
260 The edge of a hurricane has overtaken your vessel in the Gulf of Mexico, and the northwest wind of a few hours ago has shifted to the west. This is an indication that you are located in the __________. navigable semicircle
261 Which statement is FALSE concerning the dangerous semicircle of a hurricane? The rain is heavier
262 When navigating coastwise and hurricane warnings are received, you should __________. have battened down and be heading for the nearest port of refuge
263 When a tornado moves over the water from land it is called a __________. waterspout
264 A hurricane moving northeast out of the Gulf passes west of your position. You could expect all of the following EXCEPT __________. gradual pressure gradient
265 The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in the Southern Hemisphere is __________. southwest, south, and southeast
266 The strongest winds and heaviest rains in a hurricane are found in the __________. 
 cloud walls 

267 Tropical cyclones do not form within 5 of the Equator because __________. 
 of negligible Coriolis force 

268 Severe tropical cyclones (hurricanes, typhoons) occur in all warm-water oceans except the __________. South Atlantic Ocean
269 What indicates that a tropical cyclone may be within 500 to 1,000 miles of your position? A pumping of the barometer up and down a few millibars
270 What kind of pressure systems travel in tropical waves? Low pressure
271 You are in the Northern Hemisphere and a tropical wave is located 200 miles due east of your position. Where will the wave be located 12 hours later? Nearby to the east
272 What is the first visible indication of the presence of a tropical cyclone or hurricane? An exceptionally long swell
273 Your present weather is sunny with a steady barometer. A low swell approaches your vessel from the south with crests passing at relatively long periods of about four per minute. This usually indicates __________. a tropical cyclone south of your vessel
274 When is the peak of the hurricane season in the western North Pacific? July through October
275 The intensity of a hurricane as it reaches higher latitudes and cooler waters __________. decreases
276 Recurvature of a hurricane's track usually results in the forward speed __________. increasing
277 Cyclones tend to move __________. parallel to the isobars in their warm sectors
278 In a cyclone the lowest pressure is found in the __________. center
279 You are underway on course 120T and can make 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 150T at 120 miles. The hurricane is on course 295 at 20 knots. What course should you steer at 12 knots to have the maximum CPA? 348
280 You are underway on course 050T and your maximum speed is 11 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 070T, 80 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 270T at 19 knots. If you maneuver at 11 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA? 66 miles
281 You are underway on course 050T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 120T, 110 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285T at 25 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA? 77 miles
282 The climate of the eastern Gulf coast __________. 
 varies from warm to subtropical 

283 Which type of precipitation is a product of the violent convection found in thunderstorms? Hail
284 A slow, gradual fall of the barometer indicates approaching __________. deteriorating or unsettled weather
285 A rapid rise or fall of the barometer indicates __________. a change in the present weather conditions
286 The standard atmospheric pressure measured in inches of mercury is __________.

 29.92


287 When observing a rapid rise in barometric pressure, you may expect __________. clearing weather, possibly accompanied by high winds
288 What is a common unit of measure for atmospheric pressure? Inches
289 When a low pressure area is approaching, the weather generally __________. worsens
290 Pressure gradient is a measure of __________. pressure difference over horizontal distance
291 Generally speaking, in the Northern Hemisphere, when winds are blowing from between SE and SW the barometric reading __________. is somewhat lower than it would be for winds from a northern quadrant
292 A decrease in barometric pressure is associated with all of the following except __________. clear dry weather
293 A cyclone in its final stage of development is called a(n) __________. occluded cyclone or occluded front
294 The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is __________. clockwise and moving outward from the high
295 In the Southern Hemisphere the wind circulation in a high pressure system rotates __________. counterclockwise and outward
296 Relative humidity is the percentage of water vapor that is in the air as compared to the maximum amount it can hold at __________. a specific temperature
297 The temperature at which the air is saturated with water vapor and below which condensation of water vapor will occur is referred to as the __________. absolute humidity
298 As the temperature for a given mass of air increases, the __________. relative humidity decreases
299 While passing through Memphis, the weather report on the TV news indicates that a cold front is crossing western Kentucky and Tennessee. Tomorrow's weather will be dominated by a high pressure area. What weather should you expect tomorrow? Moderate winds from the northwest, clear visibility and cooler temperatures
300 While upbound through Memphis, the weather report on TV news indicates that a warm front is stationary over the Kentucky - Missouri - Tennessee areas. What weather conditions should you expect? Southerly winds with steady rain; fog or overcast
301 While taking weather observations, you determine that the wind is blowing from the northeast. You would record the wind direction in the weather log as __________. 045
302 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. The dry bulb thermometer reads 34F and the wet bulb thermometer reads 31F. How would you encode the air temperature groups in the report? 10011, 2104/
303 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, at 1200 ZT on 31 August, your position is LAT 4314'S, LONG 17544'E. You are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. How should you encode the first three groups after the call sign if you estimate the wind? 31003, 99432, 31757
304 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. Twenty-five percent of the sky is covered with clouds, and the anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 062 relative at 13 knots. You are on course 238T at 22 knots. How should you encode group Nddff? 20220
305 A tsunami is caused by a(n) __________. earthquake on the ocean's floor
306 If the current and wind are in the same direction, the sea surface represents a wind speed __________. lower than actually exists
307 The velocity of the wind, its steady direction, and the amount of time it has blown determines a wind driven current's __________. speed
308 The time interval between successive wave crests is called the __________. period
309 The rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to a distant storm is known as __________. swell
310 The ocean bottom that extends from the shoreline out to an area where there is a marked change in slope to a greater depth is the __________. continental shelf
311 An instrument designed to maintain a continuous record of atmospheric pressure is a(n) __________. barograph
312 A mercurial barometer at sea is subject to rapid variations in height ("pumping") due to the pitch and roll of the vessel. To avoid this error, measurements of atmospheric pressure at sea are usually measured with a(n) __________. aneroid barometer
313 An instrument which maintains a continuous record of temperature changes is called a __________. thermograph
314 An aneroid barometer is an instrument __________. in which the pressure of the air is measured
315 A sling psychrometer is a(n) __________. instrument used to measure relative humidity
316 The correction(s) which must be applied to an aneroid barometer reading include(s) __________. height error
317 Which correction(s) must be applied to an aneroid barometer? Instrument error and height error
318 The pressure-sensitive element of an aneroid barometer is called a __________. sylphon cell
319 To avoid error you should read the scale of an aneroid barometer with your eye placed __________. directly in front of the pointer
320 A barometric pressure reading of 29.92 inches of mercury is equivalent to __________. 1013.25 millibars
321 Which instrument is used to measure the relative humidity of the air? A hygrometer
322 The instrument most commonly used to gather the data for determining the relative humidity is the __________. psychrometer
323 The apparent wind is zero when the true wind is __________. from astern and equal to the ship's speed
324 The wind speed and direction observed from a moving vessel is known as __________. apparent wind
325 Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel? Visibility
326 In reading a weather map, closely spaced pressure gradient lines would indicate __________. high winds
327 Isobars on a weather map are useful in predicting __________. wind velocity
328 Widely spaced isobars on a weather map indicate __________. gentle breezes
329 When drawing a weather map and an isobar crosses a front, the isobar is drawn __________. kinked and pointing away from the low
330 While in port, you can follow the approach of a dangerous cyclonic storm by inspecting __________. a weather map
331 You can follow the approach of a dangerous cyclonic storm by inspecting __________. a weather fax
332 Weather information provided by the National Weather Service (NWS) advisories should be used along with __________. weather maps and local knowledge
333 Weather observations provided by each weather station include all of the following except __________. predicted weather for the next twelve hours
334 Considering the general circulation of the atmosphere, the wind system between latitudes 30N and 60N is commonly called the __________. prevailing westerlies
335 "Surface circulation" is another term for __________. wind in the lower troposphere
336 The winds of the "roaring forties" are strongest near __________. 50S
337 The area of strong westerly winds occurring between 40S and 60S latitude is called the __________. roaring forties
338 The greater the pressure difference between a high and a low pressure center, the __________. greater the force of the wind will be
339 The doldrums are characterized by __________. frequent calms
340 The belt of light and variable winds between the westerly wind belt and the northeast trade winds is called the __________. subtropical high pressure belt
341 What generally occurs when the land is cooler than the nearby water? A land breeze
342 The Beaufort scale is used to estimate the __________. wind speed
343 Which scale is used to estimate wind speed by observing sea conditions __________. Beaufort scale
344 A first magnitude star is __________. 2.5 times as bright as a second magnitude star
345 The expression "first magnitude" is usually used to refer only to bodies of magnitude __________. 1.5 and greater
346 The constellation that contains the pointer stars is __________. Ursa Major
347 The immediate surroundings of what constellation contain the most first magnitude stars? Orion
348 Fomalhaut is found in what constellation? Pisces
349 The magnitude of three stars is indicated. Which star is the brightest? Canopus - 0.9
350 Opposition occurs when __________. the Earth is between a planet and the Sun
351 Diurnal aberration is due to __________. rotation of the Earth on its axis
352 Which is an inferior planet? Venus
353 The Earth has the shape of a(n) __________. oblate spheroid
354 The parallel of latitude at 2327'S is the __________. Tropic of Capricorn
355 The Sun at a maximum declination north would be approximately at __________. aphelion
356 Perihelion is the point where the Sun __________. is nearest to the Earth
357 The point where the Sun is at maximum declination north or south is __________. a solstice
358 The first point of Aries is the point where the Sun is at __________. 0 declination going to northerly declinations
359 The autumnal equinox is the point where the Sun is at __________. 0 declination going to southerly declinations
360 The summer solstice is the point where the Sun is at __________. maximum declination north
361 The Moon is nearest to the Earth at __________. perigee
362 In low latitudes, the full Moon will always rise at about __________. sunset
363 The new Moon cannot be seen because the Moon is __________. between the Earth and the Sun
364 A plane that cuts the Earth's surface at any angle and passes through the center will always form __________. a great circle
365 The prime vertical is the great circle on the celestial sphere that passes through the __________. zenith, nadir and the east point of the horizon
366 The great circle on the celestial sphere that passes through the zenith and the north and south poles is the __________. principal vertical
367 If an observer is at 35N latitude, his zenith is __________. 35N of the celestial equator
368 The small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the celestial equator, and transcribed by the daily motion of the body, is called the __________. parallel of declination
369 In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is the equivalent to the meridians of the Earth system of coordinates? Hour circles
370 The nadir is the point on the celestial sphere that is __________. directly below the observer
371 90 - Ho = __________. zenith distance
372 In working out a local apparent noon sight for your latitude, you subtract the Ho from 90. The 90 represents the angular distance from __________. your horizon to your zenith
373 If the Sun's observed altitude is 5430', what is the zenith distance? 3530'
374 If the Sun's observed altitude is 4750', the zenith distance is __________. 4210'
375 In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to longitude on the Earth? Azimuth angle
376 In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the equator on the Earth? Horizon
377 If the right ascension of a body is 9 hours, it also __________. is 135
378 In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is comparable to latitude on the terrestrial sphere? Declination
379 In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is equivalent to the longitude of the Earth system of coordinates? Greenwich hour angle
380 In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is NOT equivalent to the longitude of the Earth system of coordinates? Zn
381 The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the longitude of the observer is the __________. meridian angle
382 The ecliptic is __________. the path the Sun appears to take among the stars
383 A plane perpendicular to the polar axis will never form what line on the Earth's surface?

 Meridian


384 What is NOT a side of the navigational triangle used in sight reduction? Altitude
385 The angle measured from the observer's meridian, clockwise or counterclockwise up to 180, to the vertical circle of the body is the __________. azimuth angle
386 Astronomical refraction causes a celestial body to appear __________. higher than its actual position
387 A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of __________. the Moon
388 A phase correction is applied to observations of __________. planets
389 Because the actual center of some planets may differ from the observed center, the navigator applies a correction known as the __________. phase correction
390 A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical Almanac corrections for __________. the Moon
391 Apparent altitude is sextant altitude corrected for __________. inaccuracies in the reading and reference level
392 A parallax correction is NOT applied to observations of the __________. stars
393 When correcting apparent altitude to observed altitude, you do NOT apply a correction for __________. inaccuracies in the reference level
394 A time diagram is a diagram of the celestial sphere as observed from above the __________. south celestial pole
395 The distance in miles between the circle of equal altitude for the observed altitude (Ho) and the circle of equal altitude for the computed altitude (Hc) is the __________. intercept
396 The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, at what zone time will the apparent Sun cross the meridian? 1212
397 The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your meridian at __________. 11-51-20 ZT
398 The equation of time measures the __________. time between the passage of the mean sun and the apparent sun over a meridian
399 The maximum difference between mean time and apparent time is __________. about 16 minutes
400 What is the equivalent of 23 min. 20 sec. in arc units? 550'
401 What is the equivalent of 8 min. 56 sec. in arc units?
 214'

402 What is the equivalent of 4 min. 04 sec. in arc units? 101'
403 What is the equivalent of 153' in time units? 7 min. 32 sec.
404 What is the equivalent of 2 35' in time units? 10 min. 20 sec.
405 A sidereal day is approximately how much shorter than a solar day? 4 minutes
406 What is the length of the lunar day? 24h 50m 00s
407 Sidereal time is NOT used __________. in sight reductions of planet observations
408 Local sidereal time is equal to the __________. LHA of Aries
409 The tropical year differs from which year by 20 minutes? Sidereal year
410 The period of the Earth's revolution from perihelion to perihelion is the __________. anomalistic year
411 The GMT is 0445 and your zone description is +1. Your zone time is __________. 345
412 Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the Greenwich time and date if the zone time and date are 0152, 10 January? 1252, 9 January
413 You are in LONG 165E, zone time at 0400, 1 November. What is the zone time and date in LONG 165W? 0600, 31 October
414 The dividing meridian between zone descriptions +4 and +5 is __________. 6730'W
415 You are in LONG 144E. The date is 6 February, and the zone time is 0800. The Greenwich date and time are __________. 2200, 5 February
416 The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -7 and -8 is __________.

 11230'E


417 On 6 July, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westward. What is your local time? It is 1000, 7 July.
418 During one synodic rotation, a body makes one complete turn relative to the __________. Sun
419 The measurement of local time is based on the passage of the Sun over the __________. lower branch of the observer's meridian
420 The reference point for determination of GMT is the passage of the mean sun over what line? 180 longitude
421 You are on course 222T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 025. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse? 247
422 You take a bearing of 086 of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix? 000
423 You take a bearing of 176 of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix? 079
424 You take a bearing of 313 and 076 of two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix? 014
425 You take a bearing of 043 and 169 of two objects. What bearing of a third object will give the best fix? 309
426 A position on the Earth has a longitude of 7410'E. Its celestial counterpart would have a __________.

 GHA of 28550'


427 The altitude at LAN may be observed by starting several minutes in advance and continuing until a maximum altitude occurs. This procedure should not be used __________. on a fast vessel on northerly or southerly headings
428 A body can only be observed at lower transit when __________. the body is circumpolar
429 When taking stars, those bodies to the east and west will __________. change altitude rapidly
430 The GP of a body for a high altitude sight is determined from the declination and the __________. Greenwich hour angle
431 The center of a circle of equal altitude, plotted on the surface of the Earth, is the __________. geographical position of the body
432 In high latitudes, celestial observations can be made over a horizon covered with pack ice by bringing the sun tangent to the ice and __________. using a dip correction based on the height of eye above the ice
433 At morning stars, the last stars that should be observed are those with an azimuth in which quadrant? Western
434 The type of current which will have the greatest effect on the course made good for your vessel is __________. one that flows at nearly right angles to your course steered
435 At 0000 you fix your position and change course to 090T. At 0030 you again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE? The current is easterly.
436 Your vessel is making way through the water at a speed of 12 knots. Your vessel traveled 30 nautical miles in 2 hours 20 minutes. What current are you experiencing? A following current of 0.9 knot
437 When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where? A known position
438 The direction in which a vessel should be steered between two points is the __________. course
439 The direction a vessel is pointed at any given time is the __________. heading
440 You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle. You should plot the position of the vessel __________. in the geometric center of the triangle
441 In illustration D051NG below, why was the position labeled "C" plotted? running fixes are better estimates of true position than dead-reckoning positions
442 A position obtained by applying ONLY your vessel's course and speed to a known position is a __________. dead-reckoning position
443 You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle. The actual position of the vessel __________. may be inside or outside of the triangle
444 You are running parallel to the coast and take a running fix using bearings of the same object. If you are making less speed than used for the running fix, in relation to the position indicated by the fix, you will be __________. closer to the coast
445 A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________. can use radar information from one object to fix the position
446 A radar range to a small, charted object such as a light will provide a line of position in which form? Arc
447 A true bearing of a charted object, when plotted on a chart, will establish a __________. line of position
448 In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT approximately the same as the great circle distance? The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
449 A great circle track provides the maximum saving in distance on __________. easterly courses in high latitudes
450 The latitude of the upper vertex of a great circle is 36N. What is the latitude of the lower vertex? 36S
451 A great circle crosses the equator at 134E. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude? 46W
452 The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engines full astern until the vessel is dead in the water is known as __________. head reach
453 You are on course 222T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 025. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse? 247
454 A nautical mile is a distance of approximately how much greater than or less than a statute mile? 1/7 greater
455 You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 216T. You are steering 213T and have the range in sight as shown in illustration D048NG below. Which action should you take? Immediately alter course to the right to bring the range in line.
456 You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet available. You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the range lights as shown in illustration D047NG below, on your starboard beam. What action should you take? ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at anchor
457 Your vessel is entering port and you have steadied up on a range, dead ahead, in line with your keel. After a few minutes the range, still dead ahead, appears as shown in illustration D047NG below. Which action should you take? Alter heading to the left
458 What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the port bow? 315
459 What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the starboard beam? 090
460 You are underway in an area where the charted depth is 8 fathoms. You compute the height of tide to be -4.0 feet. The draft of your vessel is 5.0 feet (1.52 meters). You determine the depth of the water beneath your keel to be __________. 39 feet (11.9 meters)
461 You are underway in a vessel with a draft of 7.0 feet (2.1 meters). The charted depth for your position is 9 fathoms. You compute the height of tide to be +3.0 feet (0.9 meters). You determine the depth of the water beneath your keel to be __________. 50 feet (15.3 meters)
462 When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be considered?

 The buoy may not be in the charted position.


463 You are on course 238T. To check the course of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 328
464 The owner or Master of a towing vessel that is operating within a Vessel Traffic Service (VTS) area must report specific information to the service. Which of the following choices is not required to be reported? the type of credential he/she holds and its serial number
465 Which navigational equipment is required to be tested and logged before a towing vessel embarks on a voyage of more than 24 hours? All required navigational equipment, without exception
466 When the owner or Master inspects his/her towing vessel before embarking on a voyage of more than 24 hours, he/she must check all terminal gear EXCEPT __________. quick release towing hook and control system, to see that it operates properly
467 The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that each person that directs and controls the movement of the vessel can accomplish all of the following EXCEPT _________. reduce speed only where local speed limits are posted
468 Your vessel will be entering the navigable waters of the United States. You are required by regulations to __________. correct the charts of the area to be transited using the Notice(s) to Mariners or foreign equivalent reasonably available
469 A towing vessel is NOT required to be fitted with radar if it is __________. used solely for assistance towing
470 After an item of required safety equipment on a towing vessel fails, the owner or Master must consider all of these factors before continuing the voyage, EXCEPT the __________.

 estimated time of arrival promised to the customer


471 A towing vessel is NOT required to be fitted with radar if it is __________. used solely for pollution response
472 On an Atlantic Ocean voyage from New York to Durban, South Africa, you should expect the Agulhas Current to present a strong __________. head current
473 On a voyage from Cape Town to London, the favorable ocean current off the coast of Africa is the __________. Benguela Current
474 The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the __________. speed and direction toward which the current flows
475 What is an ebb current? A current going out
476 A swift current occurring in a narrow passage connecting two large bodies of water, which is produced by the continuously changing difference in height of tide at the two ends of the passage, is called a __________. hydraulic current
477 Which ocean current is "warm" based on the latitude in which it originates and on the effect it has on climate? Kuroshio Current
478 Cold water flowing southward through the western part of the Bering Strait between Alaska and Siberia is joined by water circulating counterclockwise in the Bering Sea to form the __________. Oyashio Current
479 The range of tide is the __________. difference between the heights of high and low tide
480 Set of the current is __________. direction towards which it flows
481 The set of the current is the __________. direction in which the current flows
482 With respect to a reversing current, slack water occurs when there is __________. little or no horizontal motion of the water
483 In a river subject to tidal currents, the best time to dock a ship without the assistance of tugs is __________. at slack water
484 "Stand" of the tide is that time when __________. the vertical rise or fall of the tide has stopped
485 In the Sargasso Sea there are large quantities of seaweed and no well defined currents. This area is located in the __________. Central North Atlantic Ocean
486 The north equatorial current flows to the __________. west
487 The approximate mean position of the axis of the Gulf Stream east of Palm Beach, FL, is __________. 15 nautical miles
488 In the Northern Hemisphere the major ocean currents tend to flow __________. clockwise around the North Atlantic and North Pacific Oceans
489 Information about currents around Pacific Coast ports of the U.S. is found in the __________. Tidal Current Tables
490 Information about currents on the Pacific Coast of the U. S. are found in the __________. Tidal Current Tables
491 Where would you find information concerning the duration of slack water? Tidal Current Tables
492 When daylight savings time is kept, the time of tide and current calculations must be adjusted. One way of doing this is to __________. add one hour to the times listed under the reference stations
493 When daylight savings time is kept, the time of tide and current calculations must be adjusted. One way of doing this is to __________. add one hour to the times listed under the reference stations
494 The time meridian used when computing the height of tide or the velocity of the current for Pensacola Bay, FL, is __________. 9000'W
495 The time meridian used for tide computations in New York Harbor is __________. 7500'W
496 Current refers to the __________. horizontal movement of the water
497 In some river mouths and estuaries the incoming high-tide wave crest overtakes the preceding low-tide trough. This results in a wall of water proceeding upstream, and is called a __________. bore
498 Spring tides occur __________. when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line, in any order
499 The class of tide that prevails in the greatest number of important harbors on the Atlantic Coast is __________. semidiurnal
500 What does the term "tide" refer to? Vertical movement of the water
501 Mean low water is the average height of __________. all low waters
502 The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water is the __________. height of tide
503 The height of tide is the __________. difference between the depth of the water and the area's tidal datum
504 The difference between the heights of low and high tide is the __________. range
505 As you enter a channel from seaward in a U.S. port, the numbers on the starboard side buoys __________. increase and the buoys are red
506 "Proceeding from seaward" for the purpose of the direction of buoying offshore, lateral system buoys would be proceeding __________. northerly on the Pacific Coast
507 You are steaming in a westerly direction along the Gulf Coast. You see ahead of you a lighted buoy showing a red isophase light. Which action should you take? Alter course to port and leave the buoy to starboard.
508 A white buoy with an orange circle marked on it indicates __________. operating restrictions are in effect
509 An orange and white buoy marking a danger area will have what symbol on it? Open-faced diamond
510 An orange and white buoy indicating a vessel-exclusion area will be marked with what symbol? Diamond with a cross
511 A white buoy with an orange rectangle on it is used to indicate __________. general information
512 A buoy marking a wreck will show a(n) __________. white light FL (2) and a topmark of 2 black spheres
513 A preferred-channel buoy will show a __________. composite group-flashing (2 + 1) red or green light
514 While proceeding along the Mediterranean coast of Spain, you sight the black and yellow buoy shown in illustration D020NG below. Your course is 039T, and the buoy bears 053T. What action should you take? Maintain course and ensure that the bearings increase 

515 On a voyage along the coast of France, you sight a buoy with the top marks as shown in illustration D026NG below. How should you steer your vessel? south of the buoy
516 In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing an uninterrupted quick-flashing white light. Which of the four topmarks shown in illustration D031NG below will this buoy be fitted with under the IALA Buoyage system? B
517 In illustration D044NG below, what type of buoy is indicated by the letter A? can
518 In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA-B Buoyage System? Peru
519 White and orange buoys, if lighted, show which color light? White
520 A mooring buoy, if lighted, shows which color light? White
521 Which topmark shown in illustration D023NG below identifies an isolated danger? B
522 Unlighted, red and green, horizontally-banded buoys with the topmost band red ________ are conical in shape and called nun buo
523 Which buoy will NOT display white retroreflective material? Preferred channel mark
524 When approaching a preferred-channel buoy, the best channel is NOT indicated by the __________. light characteristic
525 Preferred channel buoys indicate the preferred channel to transit by __________. the color of their top band
526 Your vessel is leaving New York harbor in dense fog. As the vessel slowly proceeds toward sea, you sight a green can buoy on the starboard bow. Which action should you take? Stand on, leaving the buoy to your starboard.
527 When entering from seaward, a buoy displaying a composite group (2+1) flashing red light indicates __________. a junction with the preferred channel to the left
528 Which buoy may be odd numbered? Lighted green buoy
529 Buoys are marked with reflective material to assist in their detection by searchlight. Which statement is TRUE? A preferred-channel buoy displays either red or green reflective material to agree with the top band of color. 

530 Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, a buoy that should be left to port will be __________. green
531 The characteristic of a lighted cardinal mark may be __________. very quick flashing
532 A cardinal mark showing an uninterrupted quick-flashing white light indicates the deepest water in the area is on the __________. north side of the mark
533 Under the IALA cardinal system, a mark with a quick white light showing 6 flashes followed by one long flash indicates that the safest water is on the __________. south side of the mark
534 Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, when entering from seaward a lateral system buoy to be left to port may display which topmark shown? Illustration D046NG B
535 In Region A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the port side of a channel would be marked by a __________. red can buoy
536 Where would you expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System? Australia
537 Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, a buoy indicating the preferred channel is to starboard may have a __________. square topmark
538 Which navigational mark may only be lettered? A spherical buoy
539 Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, safe water marks may show a __________. white Morse (A) light
540 In the IALA Maritime Buoyage System, what is a red and white vertically-striped buoy used to indicate? safe water mark
541 Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, the topmark of a red and white vertically-striped buoy shall be __________. a single red sphere
542 Buoys which mark dredging areas are painted __________. yellow
543 Which of the buoys listed below could be used to mark an anchorage? Yellow buoy lettered "N"
544 Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System used on the Western Rivers, aids to navigation lights on the right descending bank show __________. white or green lights
545 A red triangular daymark marks __________. the starboard side of a channel
546 In illustration D045NG below, which shape is a daymark warning of danger? B
547 A daymark used as a special mark is indicated by which letter in illustration D045NG below? B
548 The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type MR. You should __________. leave it on either side
549 The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type NB. You should __________. expect a daymark of no lateral significance
550 The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type TR-SY. You should __________. leave it to port when southbound on the Atlantic portions of the ICW
551 Daymarks marking the starboard side of the channel when going towards the sea are __________. green squares
552 Port side daymarks may be __________. numbered
553 What daymark has NO lateral significance? Green and white diamond
554 Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, a daymark on the right descending bank will __________. be green
555 While proceeding downriver, you sight a red triangular-shaped daymark on the left bank. Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers this is a __________. passing daymark
556 Buoys and day beacons exhibiting a yellow triangle or square painted on them are used __________. where the ICW and other waterways coincide
557 You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW) when you sight a red nun buoy with a yellow square painted on it. Which of the following is TRUE? You should leave the buoy on your port hand. 

558 What is the approximate geographic range of Horton Point Light, NY, if your height of eye is 40 feet (12.2 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS". 19.3 nm
559 What is the approximate geographic range of Fenwick Island Light, Delaware, if your height of eye is 37 feet (11.6 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS". 17.8 nm
560 What is characteristic of an occulting light? 4 sec. flash, 2 sec. eclipse, 3 sec. flash, 2 sec. eclipse
561 What is the characteristic of a quick light? Shows not less than 60 flashes per minute
562 Some lights used as aids to marine navigation have a red sector to indicate a danger area. How are the limits of a colored sector of light listed in the Light List? True bearings as observed from a vessel toward the light
563 Which item in illustration D034NG below shows an occulting light? B
564 The time required for a lighted aid to complete a full cycle of light changes is listed in the Light List as the __________. period
565 The luminous range of a light takes into account the ________ existing visibility conditio
566 The maximum distance at which a light may be seen under existing visibility conditions is called __________. luminous range
567 The lock chamber is 600 feet X 110 feet. Your towboat is 150 feet X 35 feet. Which of these tows will require a double lockage? 9 jumbo barges
568 Illustration D037NG below represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at B if the lock walls and piers are not awash? 
o Three red lights 
569 Which light combination does NOT indicate a navigational channel passing under a fixed bridge? Red lights on the LDB and green lights on the RDB
570 If the main channel under a bridge is marked with lights of the lateral system the adjacent bridge piers should be marked with __________. fixed yellow lights
571 You are upbound approaching a lock and dam and see two green lights in a vertical line. This indicates __________. the downstream end of an intermediate wall
572 Which light signal indicates that you may approach the lock? Flashing amber
573 Which light signal indicates that you have permission to enter a lock on the Ohio River? Flashing green
574 When approaching a lock entrance, the visual signal displayed when a single lock is ready for entrance is a flashing __________. green light
575 A flashing green light displayed at a single lock means that the lock is __________. ready for entrance
576 You are approaching a drawbridge and must pass through during a scheduled closure period. What signal should you sound? Five short blasts
577 Permission to enter the riverward chamber of twin locks is given by the lockmaster and consists of which sound signal? Two long blas
578 You are holding position above Gallipolis Lock and Dam when you hear two long blasts of the horn from the lock. This indicates that you should __________. enter the riverward lock
579 What is the approximate geographic visibility of an object with a height above the water of 70 feet, for an observer with a height of eye of 65 feet? 19.0 nm
580 The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 13 miles and is 36 feet high. If the visibility is 17 miles and your height of eye is 25 feet, at what approximate distance will you sight the light? 12.9 miles
581 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 12 miles and a height above water of 25 feet (7.6 meters). Your height of eye is 30 feet (9.1 meters) and the visibility is 0.5 mile. At what approximate range will you first sight the light? 1.4 miles
582 The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 14 miles and is 42 feet high (12.8 meters). If the visibility is 6 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet (6.1 meters), at what approximate distance will you sight the light? 10.0 miles
583 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 6 miles and a height above water of 18 feet (5.5 meters). Your height of eye is 47 feet (14.3 meters) and the visibility is 1.5 miles. At what approximate range will you first sight the light? 2.0 miles
584 The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 14 miles and is 26 feet high. If the visibility is 14 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet, at which approximate distance will you sight the light? 11.2 miles
585 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 5 miles and a height above water of 21 feet (6.4 meters). Your height of eye is 32 feet (9.8 meters) and the visibility is 1.0 mile. At what approximate range will you first sight the light? 1.5 miles
586 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 15 miles and a height above water of 29 feet (8.8 meters). Your height of eye is 52 feet (15.8 meters) and visibility is 6.0 miles. At which approximate range will you first sight the light? 11.0 miles
587 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 15 miles and a height above water of 40 feet (12.2 meters). Your height of eye is 25 feet (7.6 meters) and the visibility is 5 miles. At about what range will you FIRST sight the light? 9.5 miles 

588 A large automated navigational buoy, such as those that have replaced some lightships, would be shown on a chart by which symbol? Illustration D015NG B
589 A NAVAREA warning carries the following number; 1986/87 (11). Which statement is TRUE This is warning number 1986 issued in 1987, and it affects sub-region 11.
590 On a transpacific voyage, you receive a message from your vessel's operators saying that your vessel has been consigned to Naval Control of Shipping. Further information is contained in __________. Radio Navigational Aids (PUB 117)
591 You are proceeding under NCS (Naval Control of Shipping) when it becomes necessary to send a distress message. Which precedence would you assign this message? (IMMEDIATE)
592 You are planning a voyage from New York to Norway via the English Channel. Which publication contains information on the dangers to navigation in the English Channel? Sailing Directions (Enroute)
593 The annual change in variation for an area can be found in ________. the center of the compass rose on a chart of the area
594 On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates __________. magnetic directions 
 
595 Who should be consulted for changing conditions of controlling depths in major channels? U.S. Army Corps of Engineers
596 How is a navigation light identified on an Army Corps of Engineers navigation map? Name and miles from a reference point
597 On an Army Corps of Engineers navigation map, each mile A.H.P. on the Lower Mississippi River is marked by a __________. black dot
598 What is NOT found in the Mississippi River System Light List? Distance that a lighted aid to navigation can be seen at night
599 What volume of the Coast Guard Light List is used for the Mississippi River system? 
o V 

600 The revision date of a chart is printed on which area of the chart? Lower-left corner
601 A revised print of a chart is made __________. when a low-stock situation occurs and minor corrections are made
602 The value of sixty nautical miles per degree of geodetic latitude is most correct at __________. latitude 45
603 The datum used for soundings on charts of the East Coast of the United States is __________. mean lower low water
604 Mean high water is the reference datum used to measure __________. heights of topographical features in the United States
605 Which statement concerning the chartlet seen in illustration D010NG below is TRUE? (Soundings and heights are in meters) There is a dangerous eddy southeast of Beito Island.
606 What does the symbol shown in illustration D033NG below indicate on a chart? A safe water beacon
607 Which of the buoy symbols shown in illustration D032NG below indicates a safe water mark? Illustration D032NG D
608 Chart legends printed in capital letters show that the associated landmark is __________. conspicuous
609 Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle? Aero light
610 The depth of water on a chart is indicated as 23 meters. This is equal to __________. 12.6 fathoms
611 Which symbol represents a 10-fathom curve? ____ . _____ . ____ . ____
612 The visible range marked on charts for lights is the __________. maximum distance at which a light may be seen in clear weather with 10 miles visibility 
 o
613 If you were sailing in the North Pacific and were interested in the ice and iceberg limits, you could find this information in the __________. Pilot Chart
614 Which government agency publishes the U.S. Coast Pilot? National Ocean Service
615 Which publication should you check for complete information on Puget Sound weather conditions? Coast Pilot
616 The National Ocean Service publishes the __________. Coast Pilots
617 Which publication would describe the explosive anchorages in the ports on the east coast of the United States? Coast Pilot
618 To find the specific phase characteristic of a lighthouse on a sound of the United States you would use the __________. Light List
619 What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists? New editions are corrected through the date shown on the title page.
620 Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July. Your DR position at that time is LAT 2216'N, LONG 15006'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for evening sights is TRUE? Venus will have a westerly meridian angle.
621 In the Nautical Almanac provided, when would Jupiter and Saturn be visible in temperate latitudes for both evening and morning stars? 27-Mar
622 The refraction correction table given in the Nautical Almanac is based on a standard or average atmospheric density with a temperature of 50F (10C) and atmospheric pressure of __________. 29.83 inches (1010 millibars)
623 The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine information. Which NAVAREAS include the U.S. coasts? IV and XII
624 In the United States, short-range radio navigational warnings are broadcast by the __________. Coast Guard
625 Which information is NOT provided in broadcasts by the National Institute of Standards and Technology? NAVAREA Warnings
626 Chart correction information is NOT disseminated through the __________. Chart Correction Card
627 Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to navigation by means of __________. marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
628 Which publication contains information on Naval Control of Shipping (NCS) in time of emergency or war? Pub. 117, Radio Navigational Aids
629 You will be advised of any hazardous areas due to the fallout of a nuclear explosive by a message with the code word __________. MERWARN
630 The Sailing Directions contain information on __________. currents in various locations
631 Where would you obtain data on currents for areas of the world not covered by the 
U.S. National Ocean Service? In the Sailing Directions
632 What publication contains information about the port facilities in Cadiz, Spain? World Port Index
633 A chart with a scale of 1:45,000 is a __________. harbor chart
634 A Mercator chart is a __________. cylindrical projection
635 When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes, angles such as bearings are measured in reference to __________. the meridian through the ship's position
636 When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert conformal projection, __________. a straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great circle
637 You wish to measure the distance on a Mercator chart between a point in latitude 4330'N and a point in latitude 4030'N. To measure 30 miles at a time, you should set the points of the dividers at __________. 4145' and 4215'
638 Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the __________. latitude scale near the middle of the track line
639 To measure distance on a Mercator chart between the parallels of LAT 3430'N and LAT 3130'N, which 30 mile scale should be used? 3245'N to 3315'N
640 Between the equator and the 46th parallel of latitude, there are 3099 meridional parts. How many degrees of equatorial longitude does 3099 meridional parts represent? 5139'00"
641 Which statement is TRUE concerning a Mercator projection? The length of the meridians is increased to provide for equal expansion in all directions.
642 On a Mercator chart, 1 nautical mile is equal to __________. 1 minute of latitude
643 A vessel is proceeding downstream in a narrow channel on the Western Rivers when another vessel is sighted moving upstream. Which vessel has the right of way? The vessel moving downstream with a following current
644 Which is TRUE on the Western Rivers when a vessel downbound with a following current is meeting an upbound vessel? She has the right of way only if she is a power-driven vessel.
645 A facility used for the discharge of a cargo of a particular hazard, such as chlorine, butane or ethane, must have what to warn water traffic of an immediate danger during fire or cargo release?

 A siren or rotating flashing light


646 You are in a channel in U.S. waters near an industrial plant with a load/discharge facility for barges. You see an emergency rotating flashing light on the facility light up. What does this indicate? There is danger at the facility due to a fire or cargo release.
647 On which route is a towing vessel over 39.4 feet in length NOT required to carry an echo-sounding device? Western Rivers
648 A rock and sand structure extending from the bank of the river toward the channel is known as a __________. wingdam
649 The abbreviation L.W.R.P. on the navigation maps means __________.

 low water reference plane


650 The place where a channel moves from along one bank of the river over to the other bank of the river is called a __________. crossing
651 When attempting an upstream landing while pushing empty barges ahead in a hard onshore wind, the approach is best made __________. with bow out, stern in
652 When one upbound vessel is overtaking another vessel and both are pushing a tow ahead, what reaction may you expect? Both towheads will tend to drift apart, and the overtaken vessel will be slowed down.
653 What is most likely to happen when you push a multiple tow into a countercurrent? There is a risk you may lose control.
654 You are pushing a tow ahead and passing close to another towboat which is pushing ahead in the same direction (you are overtaking). After the towheads pass close alongside __________. the tows will tend to drift together
655 When steering a tow downstream around the shape of a sand bar, and staying on the proper side of the buoys, an operator should be cautious of __________. eddies below the bar
656 The lockmaster has given you permission to tie off on the lower guide wall to wait your turn to lock through. What should you be most concerned with? Current reaction when the lock chamber is being emptied
657 The ARPA may swap targets when automatically tracking if two targets __________. pass close together
658 What is TRUE of the history display of a target's past positions on an ARPA? In the true presentation, it provides a quick visual check to determine if a vessel has changed course. 
 o
659 While underway, automatic identification systems (AIS) broadcast all of the following information every 1 to 10 seconds EXCEPT the __________. ship's scantlings
660 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS)? The master may, at his/her discretion, turn off the AIS if he/she believes that it may compromise the safety or security of the vessel. 

661 A marine chronometer should be rewound once every __________. day
662 Quadrantal error in a gyrocompass has its GREATEST effect on which of the following on intercardinal headings
663 If the gyrocompass error is east, what describes the error and the correction to be made to gyrocompass headings to obtain true headings The readings are too low (small numerically) and the amount of the error must be added to the compass to obtain true
664 Which of the following is the most accurate method of determining gyrocompass error while underway comparing the gyro azimuth of a celestial body with the computed azimuth of the body
665 How can the accuracy of an azimuth circle be checked? comparing observed azimuths at different altitudes with computed values at the times of observation to see if the difference is constant 

666 A system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro compass is called a __________. mercury ballistic
667 At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached to the __________. sensitive element
668 Indications of the master gyrocompass are sent to remote repeaters by the __________. transmitter
669 Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the master gyrocompass. They are __________. accurate electronic servomechanisms
670 Compass error is equal to the __________. combined variation and deviation
671 A single vertical magnet placed underneath the compass in the binnacle is used to compensate for __________. deviation caused by the vessel's inclination from the vertical
672 Before a magnetic compass is adjusted certain correctors must be checked to ensure that they are free of permanent magnetism. These correctors are the __________. Flinders bar and quadrantal spheres
673 If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the Earth's, which statement is TRUE? Compass error and variation are equal.
674 When changing from a compass course to a true course you should apply __________. variation and deviation
675 Variation is a compass error that you __________. cannot correct
676 As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass __________. remains aligned with compass north
677 The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates __________. the direction of the vessel's head
678 Magnets in the binnacles of magnetic compasses are used to reduce the effect of __________. deviation
679 The line which connects the points of zero magnetic dip is __________. the magnetic equator
680 The points on the earth's surface where the magnetic dip is 90 are __________ the magnetic poles
681 Magnetic dip is a measurement of the angle between the __________ horizontal and the magnetic line of force
682 By convention, the Earth's north magnetic pole is colored __________. red 


683 By convention, the Earth's north magnetic pole is colored __________. red
684 By convention, the north seeking ends of a compass' magnets are colored __________. red
685 When a magnetic compass is not in use for a prolonged period of time it should __________. be shielded from direct sunlight
686 What is the compass course of a vessel heading SW? 225.0
687 What is the compass course of a vessel heading WNW? 292.5
688 What is the compass course of a vessel heading SE? 135.0
689 What is the compass course of a vessel heading NE? 045.0
690 Eight points of a compass are equal to how many degrees? 90
691 One point of a compass is equal to how many degrees? 11.25
692 A vessel heading NW is on a course of __________. 315.0
693 A vessel heading NE is on a course of __________. 045.0
694 A vessel heading SW is on a course of __________. 225.0
695 A vessel heading WNW is on a course of __________. 292.5
696 A Doppler log in the bottom return mode indicates the __________. speed over the ground
697 What will NOT induce errors into a Doppler sonar log? Increased draft
698 An ECDIS is required to display which information? Soundings
699 The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on ECDIS is the __________.

 standard display information


700 ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
701 How many targets can an Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) track at the same time? 20 

702 Which Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) data should you use in order to determine if a close quarters situation will develop with a target vessel? Initial range of acquisition
703 Your Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) has two guard zones. What is the purpose of the inner guard zone? Warn of small targets that are initially detected closer than the outer guard zone
704 The speed of sound through ocean water is nearly always __________. faster than the speed of calibration for the fathometer
705 All echo-sounders can measure the __________. actual depth of water below keel
706 In modern fathometers the sonic or ultrasonic sound waves are produced electrically by means of a(n) __________. transducer
707 When using GPS without Selective Availability, you may expect your horizontal accuracy to be better than __________. 20 meters
708 Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does a GPS receiver need in order to provide an exact three-dimensional position? Four
709 The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by __________. DGPS, within a coverage area
710 You are radar scanning for a buoy fitted with a racon. In illustration D017NG below, which radar screen represents the presentation you should expect on the PPI? B
711 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 5 knots on course 063T, and bears 136T at 78 miles from you. What is the course to steer and running time at 13 knots to intercept vessel A? 115, 7h 20m
712 You are approaching a sea buoy which emits a racon signal. This signal is most frequently triggered by which type of radar? 3 cm
713 A radar display which is oriented, so that north is always at the top of the screen, is called a(n) __________. stabilized display
714 You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the heading flash always points to 0. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash, what type of bearings are produced? Relative
715 Your radar is set on a true motion display. Which of the following will appear to move across the PPI scope ? Own ship's marker
716 Your radar displays your ship off center. As you proceed on your course, your ship's marker moves on the PPI scope while echoes from land masses remain stationary. What is this display called? True motion
717 When you turn on the fast time constant (differentiator) control of a radar it will __________. reduce clutter over the entire PPI by shortening the echoes
718 An indirect radar echo is caused by a reflection of the main lobe of the radar beam off the observer's vessel. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of indirect echoes? They always appear on a bearing of 90 from the true bearing of the contact.
719 Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index error? Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel 

720 In what order should the following sextant adjustments be made? 
{{{
I. Make telescope parallel to frame of sextant.
II. Set horizon glass perpendicular to frame of sextant.
III. Make index mirror and horizon glass parallel when index arm is set at zero.
IV. Set index mirror perpendicular to frame of sextant.}}} IV, II, III, I
721 The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the __________. index mirror
722 Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error? Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
723 Which is a nonadjustable error of the sextant? Centering error
724 Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60 on the limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0 to the 60 reading is __________. 30
725 For a well made and well maintained sextant, the maximum value of which correction is usually so small that it can be ignored? Instrument correction
726 The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may be corrected by the navigator. An error NOT correctable by the navigator is __________. prismatic error
727 What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant? Prismatic error
728 The index error is determined by adjusting the __________. micrometer drum
729 While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 5.5 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore? 3072 ft (936 meters)
730 You are approaching Chatham Strait from the south in foggy weather. You have Coronation Island and Hazy Islands on the radar. Suddenly the radar malfunctions. You then resort to using whistle echoes to determine your distance off Coronation Island. Your stopwatch reads 16.3 seconds for the echo to be heard. How far are you off Coronation Island? 1.5 miles
731 While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 2 1/2 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore? 460 yards
732 While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 3 1/2 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore? 640 yards 

733 A source of an air mass labeled mTw is __________. the Gulf of Mexico
734 A cloud of marked vertical development (often anvil-shaped) would be classified as __________. cumulonimbus
735 Which type of cloud is the classic "thunderhead"? Cumulonimbus
736 Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky, and are responsible for a large percentage of the precipitation in the temperate latitudes, are called __________. altostratus
737 The form of cloud often known as "mackerel sky" which is generally associated with fair weather is __________. cirrocumulus
738 A thin, whitish, high cloud popularly known as "mares' tails" is __________. cirrus
739 Cirrus clouds are composed primarily of __________. ice crystals
740 The bases of middle clouds are located at altitudes of between __________. 6,500 to 20,000 feet (1981 to 6096 meters)
741 A low, uniform layer of cloud resembling fog, but not resting on the ground, is called __________. stratus
742 Which type of cloud is among the most dependable for giving an indication of an approaching weather system? Altostratus
743 What will act to dissipate fog? Downslope motion of an air mass along a coast
744 Steam smoke will occur when __________. extremely cold air from shore passes over warmer water
745 Fog is most commonly associated with a(n) __________. warm front at night
746 The fog produced by warm moist air passing over a cold surface is called __________. advection fog
747 Advection fog is most commonly caused by __________. warm moist air being blown over a colder surface
748 What type of clouds are associated with a cold front? Cumulus and cumulonimbus
749 What weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front in the Northern Hemisphere? A line of cumulonimbus clouds
750 On a working copy of a weather map what color is the line that represents a warm front? Red
751 A line of clouds, sharp changes in wind direction, and squalls are most frequently associated with a(n) __________. cold front 
 o
752 The steepness of a cold front depends on __________. its velocity 

753 Which of the following statements concerning frontal movements is TRUE? A cold front generally passes faster than a warm front.
754 When crossing a front how do isobars tend to change? change from smooth curves within the air mass to sharp bends at the front
755 Which of the following causes the development of an occluded front? cold front overtaking a warm front
756 When does a weather front exist? when air masses of different temperatures meet
757 Cumulonimbus clouds are most likely to accompany a(n) __________. cold front
758 When a cold air mass and a warm air mass meet, and there is no horizontal motion of either air mass, it is called a(n) __________. stationary front
759 Which of the following is a boundary between two air masses? front
760 When a warm air mass overtakes a cold air mass, the contact surface is called a __________. warm front
761 Squall lines with an almost unbroken line of threatening dark clouds and sharp changes in wind direction, generally precede a(n) __________. fast-moving cold front
762 Which is a characteristic of the weather preceding an approaching warm front? Steadily falling barometric pressure
763 As a warm front approaches how does barometric pressure change? pressure falls
764 If you count 20 seconds between seeing lightning and hearing the thunder, how far is the storm away from you? 4 miles
765 Despite weather predictions for continued good weather, a prudent mariner should be alert for all of the following, EXCEPT a sudden __________. drop in temperature
766 If it is impossible to avoid a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere, the most favorable place to be when the storm passes is in __________. that half of the storm lying to the left of the storm's path
767 The navigable semicircle of a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere is that area of the storm measured __________. from the direction of the storm's movement counterclockwise 180
768 In a tropical cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere, a vessel hove to with the wind shifting counterclockwise would be __________. in the navigable semicircle
769 Where is the dangerous semicircle located on a hurricane in the Southern Hemisphere? To the left of the storm's track
770 The navigable semicircle of a tropical storm in the South Indian Ocean is located on which side of the storm's track? Right
771 The navigable semicircle of a typhoon in the Southern Hemisphere is the area __________. to the right of the storm's track
772 The approximate distance to a storm center can be determined by noting the hourly rate of fall of the barometer. If the rate of fall is 0.08 - 0.12 inches, what is the approximate distance to the storm center? 80 to 100 miles
773 Which condition indicates that you are in a hurricane's dangerous semicircle in the Northern hemisphere? A veering wind
774 The safest and most prudent procedure to follow while navigating in the vicinity of a tropical cyclone is to __________. take positive steps to avoid it if possible
775 If a hurricane several hundred miles away is moving in your general direction your barometer would __________. start to fall gradually
776 When a hurricane passes over colder water or land and loses its tropical characteristics, the storm becomes a(n) __________. extratropical low-pressure system
777 What is the direction of rotation of tropical cyclones, tropical storms and hurricanes in the Northern Hemisphere? Counterclockwise and inward
778 Which condition exists in the eye of a hurricane? An extremely low barometric pressure
779 In the relatively calm area near the hurricane center, the seas are __________. mountainous and confused
780 The dense black cumulonimbus clouds surrounding the eye of a hurricane are called cloud walls
781 What classification of tropical cyclone would have closed isobars, counter clockwise rotary circulation, and sustained winds between 34 and 63 knots? A tropical storm
782 Which condition would NOT indicate the approach of a tropical storm? Decrease in wind velocity
783 What is the FIRST sign of the existence of a well developed tropical cyclone? An unusually long ocean swell
784 What kind of weather would you expect to accompany the passage of a tropical wave? Heavy rain and cloudiness
785 A tropical wave is usually preceded by __________. good weather
786 Tropical storms and hurricanes are most likely to form in the Southern hemisphere during __________. January through March
787 You are underway on course 050T and your maximum speed is 10 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100T, 90 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285T at 19 knots. Which course should you steer at 10 knots to have the maximum CPA? 226
788 What natural feature is responsible for the rather even climate found on the Florida peninsula throughout the year? The Gulf Stream
789 Which meteorological feature controls the climate of the Gulf and the Gulf Coast area during late spring and summer? The Bermuda High
790 A millibar is a unit of __________. pressure
791 If you observe a rapid fall of barometric pressure you should __________. prepare for the onset of stormy weather with strong winds
792 As a high pressure system approaches, the barometer reading __________. rises
793 In the Southern Hemisphere winds in a low pressure system rotate in a __________. clockwise direction
794 The pressure gradient between the horse latitudes and doldrums runs __________. north to south
795 The diurnal pressure variation is most noticeable in the __________. doldrums
796 Little or no change in the barometric reading over a twelve hour period indicates __________. that present weather conditions will continue
797 In low latitudes the range of the diurnal variation of pressure is up to __________. 3.0 millibars
798 In low latitudes, the high(s) of the diurnal variation of pressure occur(s) at __________. 1000 and 2200
799 The diurnal variation of pressure is not visible in the middle latitudes in winter because __________. it is masked by the pressure changes of moving weather systems
800 Generally speaking, you should expect to find low atmospheric pressure prevailing in the earth's __________. equatorial area
801 Good weather is usually associated with a region of __________.

 high barometric pressure


802 The atmosphere in the vicinity of a high pressure area is called a(n) __________. anticyclone
803 The dew point is reached when the __________. air becomes saturated with water vapor
804 Relative humidity is defined as __________.

 the ratio of the actual vapor content at the current temperature to the air's vapor holding capability


805 On the Mississippi and Ohio Rivers, there is a special type of fog known as steam fog. It is caused by __________. cold air passing over much warmer water
806 Your ship is proceeding on course 320T at a speed of 25 knots. The apparent wind is from 30 off the starboard bow, speed 32 knots. What is the relative direction, true direction and speed of the true wind? Relative 80, true 040T, 16.2 knots
807 A ship is on course 195 at a speed of 15 knots. The apparent wind is from 40 on the port bow, speed 30 knots. The direction and speed of the true wind are __________. 127T, 21 knots
808 Your vessel is on course 180T speed 22 knots. The apparent wind is from 70 off the port bow, speed 20 knots. The true direction and speed of the wind are __________. 51T, 24.0 knots
809 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. Your position is LAT 6442'N, LONG 0228'W. How would this be encoded? 99647, 70025
810 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. You are hove to in a hurricane on a heading of 328T. The wind is from 030 true at 119 knots. How should this be encoded on the weather report form? 80399
811 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. One-half of the sky is covered with clouds, and the anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 340 relative at 14 knots. You are on course 307T at 12.6 knots. How should you encode group Nddff? 42205
812 Using the surface analysis in illustration D049NG below, which wind speeds are reported at position A? 15 knots
813 If the current and wind are in opposite directions, the sea surface represents __________. a higher wind speed than what really exists
814 You are anchored in the Aleutian Island chain and receive word that a tsunami is expected to strike the islands in six hours. What is the safest action? Get underway and be in deep, open-ocean water when the tsunami arrives.
815 The length of a wave is the length __________. measured from crest to crest
816 In shallow water, waves that are too steep to be stable, causing the crests to move forward faster than the rest of the wave, are called __________. breakers
817 Three or four feet of the total height of a storm surge in a hurricane can be attributed to __________. the decrease in atmospheric pressure
818 An anemometer on a moving vessel measures __________. apparent wind speed only
819 Apparent wind speed blowing across your vessel while underway can be measured by a(n) __________. anemometer
820 An aneroid barometer on a boat should always be __________. permanently mounted
821 An instrument useful in predicting fog is the __________. sling psychrometer
822 A hygrometer is a device used for determining __________. relative humidity
823 What is TRUE concerning an anemometer on a moving vessel? It measures apparent wind speed. 

824 What is used to measure wind velocity? Anemometer
825 An instrument that indicates wind direction is known as a(n) __________. wind vane
826 If your mercurial barometer reads 30.50 inches (1033 millibars) and the temperature is 56F (13C), what is the correct reading at 55N, 150W? 30.45 inches (1031 millibars)
827 Barometers are calibrated at a standard temperature of __________. 32F
828 The purpose of the "set" hand on an aneroid barometer is to __________. indicate any change in the reading of the barometer
829 On what does the operation of an aneroid barometer depend? Thin, metal, air tight cell
830 Prior to reading an aneroid barometer, you should tap the face lightly with your finger to __________. bring the pointer to its true position
831 The most important information to be obtained from a barometer is the __________. present reading of the pressure, combined with the changes in pressure observed in the recent past
832 The needle of an aneroid barometer points to 30.05 on the dial. This indicates that the barometric pressure is __________. 30.05 inches of mercury
833 Scales on aneroid barometers are usually graduated in inches of mercury in the general range of __________. 28 to 31 inches
834 A single barometric pressure reading of 28.60 indicates __________. a severe low pressure system
835 A psychrometer has two thermometers that provide dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures. By comparing these two temperature readings with a set of tables you can determine the __________. relative humidity and dew point
836 The apparent wind's speed can be zero, but only when two conditions are present. One condition is that the true __________. wind's speed equals the ship's speed
837 A steep barometric gradient indicates __________. strong winds
838 What do the numbers on isobars indicate? barometric pressure
839 You can follow the approach of a dangerous cyclonic storm by inspecting __________. a newspaper, a weather map, a weather fax, or a weather forecast
840 Plain language is usually used on marine weather __________. forecasts 

841 The direction of prevailing winds in the Northern hemisphere is caused by the __________. Earth's rotation
842 Weather conditions in the middle latitudes generally move __________. eastward
843 Wind velocity varies __________. directly with the pressure gradient
844 On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each hemisphere, the pressure diminishes. The winds along these gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation toward the east and are known as the __________. prevailing westerlies
845 Which wind pattern has the most influence over the movement of frontal weather systems over the North American continent? Prevailing westerlies
846 In the doldrums you can expect __________. frequent rain showers and thunderstorms
847 The winds with the greatest effect on the set, drift, and depth of the equatorial currents are the __________. trade winds
848 The consistent winds blowing from the horse latitudes to the doldrums are called the __________. trade winds
849 The "horse latitudes" are regions of __________. light airs and calms
850 Which statement describes the prevailing wind direction in mid-winter in the Gulf Coast area? 30% to 40% of mid-winter winds are from a northern quadrant.
851 A gale is characterized by a wind speed of __________. 34 to 47 knots
852 Monsoons are characterized by __________. steady winds that reverse direction semiannually 

853 Which wind results from a land mass cooling more quickly at night than an adjacent water area? Land breeze
854 Retrograde motion is the __________.

 apparent westerly motion of a planet with respect to stars


855 The Star Lists in the Nautical Almanac are based on which of the following magnitudes? Third
856 A double star is a star that __________. comprises two stars that appear close together
857 The Milky Way is an example of a __________. galaxy
858 Deneb is found in what constellation? Cygnus
859 Capella is found in what constellation? Auriga
860 Antares is found in what constellation? Scorpio
861 Altair is found in what constellation? Aquila
862 Superior conjunction occurs when __________. the Sun is between the Earth and a planet
863 Planetary aberration is due, in part, to __________. the body's orbital motion during the time required for its light to reach Earth
864 The spinning motion of a planet around its axis is called __________. rotation
865 The planet Venus can be observed in the morning before sunrise if it is well to the __________. west of and higher than the Sun
866 The precession of the equinoxes occurs in a(n) __________. westerly direction
867 The motion of celestial bodies relative to other celestial bodies is known as __________. space motion
868 The Sun is closest to the Earth in what month? January
869 Aphelion is the point where the Sun __________. is farthest from the Earth
870 During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________. south and increasing
871 The winter solstice is the point where the Sun is at __________. maximum declination south
872 The period of revolution of the Moon is __________. about 27.3 days
873 The period of rotation of the Moon on its axis is __________. about 27.3 days
874 What condition exists at apogee? The Earth is farthest from the Moon.
875 What happens because of augmentation? The Moon appears larger as the elevation increases.
876 In low latitudes, a first quarter Moon will always rise at about __________. 1200 LMT
877 A plane that cuts the Earth's surface and passes through the poles will always form __________. a meridian
878 The great circle of the celestial sphere that passes through the zenith, nadir, and the eastern point of the horizon is the __________. prime vertical
879 Concerning a celestial observation, the azimuth angle is measured from the principal vertical circle to the __________. vertical circle of the body
880 The arc of an hour circle between the celestial equator and a point on the celestial sphere, measured northward or southward through 90, is the __________. declination
881 The daily path of a celestial body that is parallel to the celestial equator is the __________. diurnal circle
882 The point on the celestial sphere that is directly below an observer is the __________. nadir
883 If the Sun's observed altitude is 2712', the zenith distance is __________. 6248'
884 In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the declination of the equator system? Altitude
885 In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the Greenwich hour angle of the celestial equator system? Azimuth
886 The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315 and the GHA of a planet is 150. What is the right ascension of the planet? 11 hours
887 The equator is __________. the primary great circle of the Earth perpendicular to the axis
888 15 of latitude is equal to __________. 900 miles
889 The distance between any two meridians measured along a parallel of latitude and expressed in miles is the __________. departure
890 The distance between any two meridians measured along a parallel of latitude __________. decreases with increased latitude
891 At about GMT 1436, on 3 December, the lower limb of the Moon is observed with a sextant having an index error of 2.5' on the arc. The height of eye is 32 feet. The sextant altitude (hs) is 338.8'. What is the observed altitude? Ho 429.1'
892 On 25 December you observe the Sun's lower limb. The sextant altitude (hs) is 406.9'. The height of eye is 47 feet and the index error is 1.6' on the arc. The temperature is 19F and the barometer reads 1030.8 millibars. What is the observed altitude (Ho)? 401.9'
893 In the Bay of Fundy, during twilight, you a take sight of Mars. The sextant altitude (hs) is 0335.5'. Your height of eye is 32 feet and there is no index error. The air temperature is -10C and the barometer reads 1010 millibars. What is the observed altitude (Ho)? 0315.8'
894 Which is NOT a side of the celestial navigational triangle? Altitude
895 The navigational triangle uses parts of two systems of coordinates, one of which is the celestial equator system, the other system is the __________. horizon system
896 In the navigational triangle, the angle at the elevated pole is the __________. meridian angle
897 An azimuth angle for a body is measured from the __________. observer's meridian
898 The azimuth angle of a sun sight is always measured from the __________. principal vertical circle
899 The error in a sextant altitude caused by refraction is greatest when the celestial body is __________. near the horizon
900 The phase correction should be applied to sights of Venus and Mars __________. during twilight observations only
901 What sextant correction corrects the apparent altitude to the equivalent reading at the center of the Earth? Parallax
902 When correcting the sextant altitude to apparent altitude you are correcting for inaccuracies in the reading and __________. for inaccuracies in the reference level
903 When correcting the sextant altitude to apparent altitude you are correcting for inaccuracies in the reference level and __________. for inaccuracies in the instrument
904 The correction tables in the Nautical Almanac for use with Moon sights do NOT include the effects of __________. instrument error
905 The radius of a circle of equal altitude for a body equals the body's __________. zenith distance
906 The radius of a circle of equal altitude of a body is equal to the __________. coaltitude of the body
907 The primary use of apparent time in marine navigation is to __________. determine the time of meridian transit
908 When the time is based on the movement of the visible Sun along the ecliptic the time is known as __________. apparent time
909 What is the equivalent of 252' in time units? 11 min. 28 sec.
910 What is the equivalent of 554' in time units? 23 min. 36 sec.
911 What is the equivalent of 47 min. 20 sec. in arc units? 1150'
912 What is the equivalent of 42 min. 48 sec. in arc units? 1042'
913 The sidereal day begins when the __________. first point of Aries is over the upper branch of the reference meridian
914 When does the sidereal day begin? When the first point of Aries is over the upper branch of the reference meridian
915 With respect to the vernal equinox, what is the length of the year? tropical year
916 The lunar day is also known as the __________. tidal day
917 At meridian transit, the diagram used by a navigator to illustrate the angles involved is based on the __________. plane of the observer's meridian
918 A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International Date Line on an eastbound course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at Greenwich when the vessel crosses the line? 2100, 24 January
919 The dividing meridian between zone descriptions +7 and +8 is __________.

 11230'W


920 Some places maintain a zone time of -13. What are the time and date at Greenwich if the zone time and date are 2152, 10 January? 0852, 10 January
921 The standard time meridian for zone description -12 is __________. 
 180.0
922 The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -4 and -5 is __________. 6730'E
923 Your longitude is 17959'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m on the 4th day of the month. Six minutes later, your position is 17959'E longitude. Your LMT and date are __________. 00h 02m on the 6th
924 Your longitude is 124E, and your local mean time is 0520 on the 5th of the month. The mean time and date at Greenwich is __________. 2104 on the 4th
925 The Local mean time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 7315'E. What time would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN? 0659
926 The change in the length of day becomes greater as latitude increases because of the __________. increased obliquity of the celestial sphere
927 A mean sun is used as the reference for solar time for three reasons. Which reason is NOT a cause for use of a mean sun? Measurement of time is along the celestial equator.
928 You are on course 355T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 275. What is the true bearing of the lighthouse? 270
929 You are on course 357T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 180. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse? 177
930 You are on course 180T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 225. What is the true bearing of the lighthouse? 045
931 You take a bearing of 264 of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix?
 350

932 You take a bearing of 356 of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix? 256 

933 You take a bearing of 191 and 313 to two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix? 069
934 You take a bearing of 142 and 259 of two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix? 201
935 Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The navigator of which vessel would be required to know the actual time of meridian transit in order to take an accurate observation at LAN? C 192T, Sp 23 knots
936 Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The navigator of which vessel would be required to know the actual time of meridian transit in order to take an accurate observation at LAN ? C 349T, Sp 25 knots
937 The line of position determined from a sight with an observed altitude (Ho) of 8845.0' should be __________. plotted as an arc around the GP of the body
938 The GP of a body for a high altitude sight is determined from the Greenwich hour angle and the __________. declination
939 At morning stars, the first stars that should be observed are those with an azimuth in which quadrant? Eastern
940 A dead reckoning (DR) plot __________.
 ignores the effect of surface currents
941 A dead reckoning (DR) plot __________.
 should be started each time the vessel's position is fixed

942 A current perpendicular to a vessel's track has the greatest effect on the vessel's course made good __________. at low vessel speeds
943 The direction in which a vessel is steered is the course. The path actually followed is the __________. course over the ground
944 The paths of intended travel between three or more points is the __________. track
945 The difference between the DR position and a fix, both of which have the same time, is caused by __________. current
946 How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix? One
947 You should plot your dead reckoning position __________.
 from every fix or running fix

948 Your dead reckoning position should be plotted __________. at least every hour on the hour in the open waters of the sea
949 Which position includes the effects of wind and current?
 Estimated position

950 You are plotting a running fix. The LOP to be run forward is an arc from a radar range, what technique should be used? The position of the object observed should be advanced to the new time and a new arc swung using the radius of the old arc.
951 What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position? Fix
952 A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times and advancing them to a common time is a(n) __________. running fix
953 A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of __________. fixed known objects on shore
954 A line of position derived by radar range from an identified point on a coast will be a(n) __________. arc
955 What is NOT an advantage of the rhumb line track over a great circle track? Plots as a straight line on Lambert conformal charts
956 What is the major advantage of a rhumb line track? The vessel can steam on a constant heading (disregarding wind, current, etc.).
957 A great circle crosses the equator at 162E. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude? 18W
958 A great circle crosses the equator at 93W. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude? 87E
959 A great circle crosses the equator at 157W. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude? 23E 

960 The vertex of a great circle track is in LONG 109E. An eastbound vessel would cross the equator in LONG __________. 161W
961 The upper vertex of a great circle track is in LONG 15600'E. Sailing eastward, the great circle track will cross the equator in LONG __________. 11400'W
962 From LAT 0712'N, LONG 8000'W, to LAT 4712'S, LONG 16918'E, the initial great circle course angle is 137.25. How would you name this course? N 137.25W
963 For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of __________. 21,600 miles
964 You are on course 344T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 090. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse? 074
965 You are outbound in a channel marked by a range astern. The range line is 273T. You are steering 090T and have the range in sight as shown in illustration D047NG below. What action should you take? Come right to close the range then when on the range steer 093 T.
966 You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 309T. You are steering 306T and have the range in sight as shown in illustration D047NG below. The range continues to open. What action should you take? Alter course to the left until the range closes, then steer to the left of 306T.
967 What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the starboard bow? 045
968 What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the port quarter? 225
969 You are on course 030T. The relative bearing of a lighthouse is 45. What is the true bearing? 075 

970 When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is in line above the lower light, you should __________. continue on the present course
971 You are on course 042T. To check the course of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 132
972 While steering a course of 150T, you wish to observe the Sun for a speed check. What would the azimuth have to be? 150T
973 If you are the Master of a towing vessel whose only working radar no longer functions, what must you do? Notify the Captain of the Port (COTP) if you cannot repair it within 96 hours.
974 Which piece of navigational safety equipment is NOT required on towing vessels over 12 meters in length, provided that the vessel remains within the navigable waters of the U.S.? GPS receiver
975 The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that all tests and inspections of gear take place and are logged __________. when a new Master assumes command
976 The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that each person that directs and controls the movement of the vessel can accurately fix the vessel's position using all of the following EXCEPT _________. buoys alone
977 A coastal current __________. flows outside the surf zone
978 In which month will the equatorial counter current be strongest? August
979 On a voyage from Halifax, N.S., to Dakar, West Africa, the Canary Current will __________. set the vessel to the right
980 The speed of an ocean current is dependent on __________. the density of the water
981 The two most effective generating forces of surface ocean currents are __________. wind and density differences in the water
982 Which statement(s) concerning the effect of Coriolis force on ocean currents is(are) correct? The Coriolis force is more effective in deep water.
983 A tide is called diurnal when __________. only one high and one low water occur during a lunar day
984 The term "flood current" refers to that time when the water __________. is flowing towards the land
985 Which current is responsible for the movement of icebergs into the North Atlantic shipping lanes? Labrador Current
986 The range of tide is the __________. difference between the heights of high and low tide
987 The range of tide is the __________. difference between the heights of high and low tide
988 Which current would you encounter on a direct passage from southern Africa to Argentina, South America? South Atlantic
989 You are on a voyage from New Orleans to Boston and navigating off the Florida coast. You will get the greatest benefit from the Gulf Stream if you navigate __________. about 20 miles east of Jupiter Inlet
990 You are on a voyage from New Orleans to Boston. When navigating off the Florida coast, you will get the greatest benefit from the Gulf Stream if you navigate __________. about 45 miles east of Cape Canaveral
991 You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R. There is a fresh N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter __________. steeper waves, closer together
992 You will find information about the duration of slack water in the __________. Tidal Current Tables
993 Information about the direction and velocity of rotary tidal currents is found in the __________. Tidal Current Tables
994 Information about the direction and velocity of rotary tidal currents is found in the __________. Tidal Current Tables
995 Information about direction and velocity of rotary tidal currents is found in the __________. Tidal Current Tables
996 Information about currents on the Pacific Coast of the U. S. are found in the __________. Tidal Current Tables
997 Where would you find information about the time of high tide at a specific location on a particular day of the year? Tide Tables
998 When daylight savings time is kept, the time of tide and current calculations must be adjusted. One way of doing this is to __________. add one hour to the times listed for the reference stations
999 The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables is the same as that used for the charts of the locality. The depression of the datum below mean sea level for Hampton Roads, Virginia is __________. 1.2 feet
1000 How many high waters usually occur each day on the East Coast of the United States? Two
1001 Your vessel goes aground in soft mud. You would have the best chance of refloating it on the next tide if it grounded at __________. low water spring
1002 When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase, what type of tides will occur? Neap
1003 Neap tides occur __________. when the Sun and Moon are at approximately 90 to each other, as seen from the Earth
1004 Neap tides occur when the __________. Moon is in its first quarter and third quarter phases
1005 When the Moon's declination is maximum north, which of the following will occur? Tropic tides
1006 Which statement is TRUE concerning equatorial tides? The difference in height between consecutive high or low tides is at a minimum.
1007 The average height of the surface of the sea for all stages of the tide over a 19 year period is called __________. mean sea level
1008 The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water is the __________. height of tide
1009 When there are small differences between the heights of two successive high tides or two low tides, in a tidal day, the tides are called __________. semidiurnal
1010 The point where the vertical rise or fall of tide has stopped is referred to as __________. the stand of the tide
1011 The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the water is called the __________. stand of the tide
1012 A lighted buoy to be left to starboard, when entering a U.S. port from seaward, shall have a __________. red light
1013 A nun buoy will __________. have an even number
1014 A buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicates a(n) __________. bifurcation
1015 A buoy having red and green horizontal bands would have a light characteristic of __________. composite group flashing
1016 During daylight hours black double-cone topmarks are the most important feature of cardinal marks. Which of the four topmarks shown in illustration D030NG below indicates the best navigable water lies to the west of the buoy? C
1017 In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick white light with 9 flashes every 15 seconds. Which of the four topmarks shown in illustration D030NG below would be fitted to the buoy? 
 C 
1018 In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick white light showing 6 flashes followed by one long flash at 15 second intervals. Which of the four topmarks in illustration D031NG below would be fitted to this buoy? C
1019 In illustration D044NG below, a pillar buoy is indicated by which letter? C
1020 You are in a buoyed channel at night and pass a lighted buoy with an irregular characteristic. You should report this to the __________. Coast Guard
1021 The IALA Buoyage Systems do NOT apply to __________. 
 lighthouses and lightships
1022 Information markers, when lighted, will display __________. white lights
1023 You sight a buoy fitted with a double-sphere topmark. If sighted at night, this buoy would show a __________. flashing white light showing a group of two flashes
1024 Buoys which only mark the left or right side of the channel will never exhibit a light with which characteristic? Composite group flashing
1025 When a buoy marks a channel bifurcation, the preferred channel is NOT indicated by __________. 
 whether the number is odd or even
1026 In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, red and green horizontally-banded buoys mark _______. junctions or bifurcations
1027 When outbound from a U.S. port, a buoy displaying a flashing red light indicates __________. the port side of the channel
1028 In the IALA Buoyage System, what are buoys with alternating red and green horizontal bands used to indicate? the preferred channel
1029 Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, a buoy displaying a red light will __________. be left to starboard when entering from seaward
1030 On approaching the English Channel on course 080T, you note the symbol YBY near a charted buoy. You must pass __________. westward of the buoy
1031 Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, when entering from seaward a lateral system buoy to be left to starboard may display which topmark shown in illustration D046NG below? C
1032 Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, a green spar buoy with a triangular topmark would indicate that the buoy __________. should be left to port when heading out to sea
1033 Under the IALA-A Buoyage system, a buoy marking the starboard side of the channel when approaching from seaward may have a __________. triangular topmark
1034 IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the starboard side of a channel would be marked by a __________. green conical buoy
1035 Where would you expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System? India
1036 Safe water buoys may show ONLY __________. white lights
1037 The light rhythm of Morse (A) is shown on __________. safe water buoys

1038 You are outbound in a buoyed channel on course 015T. You sight a white light showing a Morse characteristic bearing 359 relative. For safety, you should __________. stay in the channel and leave the buoy to port
1039 Under the IALA-A and B Buoyage Systems, a buoy with alternating red and white vertical stripes indicates __________. that there is navigable water all around
1040 A special mark (yellow buoy), if lighted, may exhibit which light rhythm? 
 Flashing
1041 A special purpose buoy shall be __________. yellow
1042 Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, a special mark possesses which of the following characteristics? May show a yellow light with a flashing rhythm
1043 Which light characteristic may be used on a special purpose mark? Fixed
1044 Which light characteristic may be used on a special purpose mark? Flashing
1045 Yellow lights may appear on __________. special purpose buoys
1046 In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, the light characteristic of group flashing (2) is used for lights on __________. the left descending bank
1047 Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, a preferred-channel buoy is __________. horizontally-banded red and green
1048 A triangular daymark would be colored __________. red
1049 A daymark used to indicate the safe water in a channel will have which of the shapes shown in illustration D045NG below? C
1050 A safe water daymark has what shape? Octagonal
1051 Entering from seaward, triangular-shaped daymarks are used to mark __________. the starboard side of the channel
1052 Which type of daymark is used to mark the starboard side of the channel when entering from sea? Red triangle
1053 What daymark shape is used in the lateral system? Triangle
1054 Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, passing daymarks on the left descending bank are __________. red triangles
1055 When a dual purpose marking is used, the mariner following the Intracoastal Waterway should be guided by the __________. 
 shape of the yellow mark
1056 You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW) when you sight a red nun buoy with a yellow triangle painted on it. Which statement is TRUE? 
 The ICW and another waterway coincide in this geographical area.
1057 You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW) when you sight a red nun buoy with a yellow square painted on it. Which statement is TRUE? 
 You should leave the buoy to port.
1058 You are sailing south on the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW) when you sight a green can buoy with a yellow square painted on it. Which of the following is TRUE? You should leave the buoy to port.
1059 Aids to navigation marking the intracoastal waterway can be identified by __________. yellow stripes, squares, or triangles marked on them
1060 What is the approximate geographic range of Fenwick Island Light, Delaware, if your height of eye is 42 feet (12.8 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS". 18.3 nm
1061 What is the approximate geographic range of Assateague Light, VA, if your height of eye is 52 feet (15.8 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS". 23.0 nm
1062 Your height of eye is 40 feet (12.2 meters). What is the approximate geographical distance at which Ambrose Light, NY, could be visible? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS". 21.0 nm
1063 What is the approximate geographic range of Race Rock Light, NY, if your height of eye is 27 feet (8.2 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS". 15.7 nm
1064 What is the approximate geographic range of Point Judith Light, Rhode Island, if your height of eye is 62 feet (18.9 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS". (use charted range of 20 miles as nominal range) 18.6 nm
1065 Geographic range is the maximum distance at which a light may be seen under __________. 
 perfect visibility conditions, limited only by the curvature of the Earth
1066 On navigational aids, what does the light characteristic "Fl(2+1)" mean? Light flashes combined in groups, with a different number of flashes in each group
1067 Which item in illustration D034NG below shows a flashing light? C
1068 Red sectors of navigation lights warn mariners of __________. shoals or nearby land
1069 A List of Lights entry (L Fl) is a single flashing light which shows a long flash of not less than __________. 2.0 seconds duration
1070 The period of a lighted aid to navigation refers to the __________. time required for the light to complete each cy
1071 The four standard light colors used for lighted aids to navigation are red, green, white, and __________. 
 yellow
1072 When trying to sight a lighthouse you notice a glare from a town in the background. The range at which the light may be sighted due to this glare is __________. considerably reduced
1073 Which factor(s) is/are used to develop the charted information of a lighthouse? Height and intensity of the light
1074 Luminous range is the _________ maximum distance at which a light may be seen under existing visibility conditi
1075 When a light is first seen on the horizon it will disappear again if the height of eye is immediately lowered several feet. When the eye is raised to its former height the light will again be visible. This process is called _________ bobbing a light
1076 The nominal range of a light may be accurately defined as the maximum distance at which a light may be seen _________ with ten miles visibil
1077 Drawbridges equipped with radiotelephones display a __________. blue and white sign showing the radio's channels
1078 The dumping of refuse in a lock is permitted __________. at no time
1079 In order to utilize the capacity of a lock to its maximum, pleasure craft are locked through with all of the following EXCEPT __________. oil barges
1080 Illustration D036NG below represents a fixed C of E lock and dam. What navigational light(s) is(are) exhibited at the position indicated by the letter D? Two green lights
1081 Illustration D037NG below represents a movable dam. If there is high water and the wickets are down so that there is an unobstructed navigable pass through the dam, what light(s) will be shown at D if the lock walls and piers are not awash? One red light
1082 The draw span of a floating drawbridge may be marked with __________. a yellow diam
1083 A bridge over a navigable waterway is being repaired. There is a traveler platform under the bridge's deck that significantly reduces the vertical clearance. If required by the CG district commander, how will this be indicated at night? A quick flashing red light at each lower corner
1084 Restricted areas at locks and dams are indicated by __________. signs and/or flashing red lights
1085 You are approaching Gallipolis Lock and Dam. The traffic signal light is flashing red. You should __________. hold your position and not attempt to enter the lock
1086 If your vessel must pass through a draw during a scheduled closure period, what signal should you sound to request the opening of the draw? Five short blasts
1087 You are approaching a drawbridge and have sounded the proper whistle signal requesting it to open. You hear a signal of one prolonged and one short blast from the bridge. Which action should you tak Approach under full control to pass through the brid
1088 If a towboat requires a double lockage it shall give which sound signal at a distance of not more than one mile from the lock? One long blast followed by two short blasts
1089 Permission to leave the riverward chamber of twin locks is given by the lockmaster and consists of which sound signal? Two short blasts
1090 You are downbound on the Ohio River locking through Greenup. The chamber has been emptied and the lower gates are open. You hear one short blast of the whistle from the lock. You should __________. leave the lock
1091 A lighthouse is 120 feet (36.6 meters) high and the light has a nominal range of 18 miles. Your height of eye is 42 feet (12.8). If the visibility is 11 miles, approximately how far off the light will you be when the light becomes visible 19.0 mi
1092 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 17 miles and a height above water of 28 feet (8.5 meters). Your height of eye is 32 feet (9.8 meters) and the visibility is 11.0 miles. At what approximate range will you first sight the light?
 12.6 miles

1093 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 22 miles and a height above water of 48 feet (14.6 meters). Your height of eye is 35 feet (10.7 meters) and the visibility is 20.0 miles. At what approximate range will you first sight the light? 14.7 nm
1094 The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 20 miles and is 52 feet high. If the visibility is 12.0 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what approximate distance will you sight the light? 13.7 miles
1095 The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 20 miles and is 52 feet (16 meters) high. If the visibility is 20 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet (6 meters), at what approximate distance will you sight the light? 13.5 nm
1096 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 12 miles and a height above water of 25 feet (7.6 meters). Your height of eye is 38 feet (11.6 meters) and the visibility is 5.5 miles. At what approximate range will you FIRST sight the light?  8.0 miles 
o
1097 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 6 miles and a height above water of 18 feet (5.5 meters). Your height of eye is 40 feet (12.2 meters) and the visibility is 27.0 miles. At which approximate range will you first sight the light? 9.8 miles
1098 A HYDROLANT warning would normally be sent for all of the following EXCEPT __________. extinguishment of Robbins Reef Light in New York City's Upper Bay
1099 All of the following can be found on a Pilot Chart EXCEPT information concerning the __________. amounts of precipitation
1100 You are proceeding under NCS (Naval Control of Shipping) and wish to send a message concerning an initial enemy contact. Which precedence would you assign this message? Z (FLASH)
1101 You are proceeding under NCS (Naval Control of Shipping) and wish to send a message concerning an initial enemy contact. Which precedence will you assign this message? Z (FLASH
1102 You are planning a voyage from San Francisco to Japan. Which publication contains information on the ocean routes? Sailing Directions (Planning Guide)
1103 The navigation regulations applicable to a U.S. inland waterway can be found in the __________. Coast Pilots
1104 On the Mississippi River, gage zero is the gage reading measured from the __________. National Geodetic Vertical Datum
1105 Normal pool elevation is the height in feet of the section of river above a dam. This height is measured from __________. mean sea level
1106 Navigation charts of the Upper Mississippi River are published by __________. Corps of Engineers, U.S. Army
1107 The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the left bank. This means that the light can be seen on the port side of a vessel __________. descending the river
1108 The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the right bank. This means that the light can be seen on the port side of a vessel __________.
 ascending the river

1109 What information is found in the chart title? Information on the sounding datum
1110 What information is NOT found in the chart title? 
 Date of first edition
1111 The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts is __________. mean high water
1112 Charted depth is the __________. vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom
1113 The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart would mean a __________. radar transponder beaco
1114 Chart legends which indicate a conspicuous landmark are printed in __________. capital letter
1115 The buoy symbol printed on your chart is leaning to the northeast. This indicates __________. nothing special for navigational purposes
1116 The depth of the water is indicated on a chart as 32 meters. This is equal to __________. 17.50 fathoms
1117 Which symbol represents a 20-fathom curve? -..-..-..-..-
1118 If you are sailing from the East Coast of the United States to the Caribbean Sea, which publication would contain information on weather, currents, and storms? Pilot Charts of the North Atlantic
1119 Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean? Pilot chart
1120 Solid green arrows on the main body of a pilot chart indicate __________. prevailing ocean current directions
1121 How is the annual rate of change for magnetic variation shown on a pilot chart? Gray lines on the uppermost inset chart
1122 What publication contains descriptions of the coast line, buoyage systems, weather conditions, port facilities, and navigation instructions for the United States and its possessions? Coast Pilots
1123 You are planning to enter an unfamiliar U.S. port. Which publication provides information about channel depths, dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine facilities available in that port? Coast Pilot
1124 Where would you expect to find climatological and meteorological tables for the Gulf Coast area? In the back of Coast Pilot #5
1125 Which publication contains information on navigation regulations, landmarks, channels, anchorages, tides, currents, and clearances of bridges for Chesapeake Bay? Coast Pilot
1126 What publication has information on the climate, distances, navigation regulations, outstanding landmarks, channels and anchorages of Long Island Sound? Coast Pilot
1127 If within 500 yards (460m) of a Northern Right Whale you are lawfully obligated to __________. turn away from the whale and leave at slow speed


1128 Light Lists for coastal waters are __________. accurate thru NM number on title page and must be corrected
1129 Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December. Your DR position at that time is LAT 1502'N, LONG 4602'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for morning sights is TRUE? At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian observation.
1130 When determining compass error by an azimuth of Polaris, you enter the Nautical Almanac with the __________. LHA Aries
1131 Civil twilight starts at 1812 zone time on 26 August, Your DR position at that time is LAT 2106'S, LONG 1456'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for evening sights is TRUE? Venus may be identified from Saturn and Jupiter because it is the brightest.
1132 What is a "Special Warning"? A broadcast disseminating an official government proclamation affecting shippin
1133 Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE? The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS, and NAVAREA warnings are the same
1134 In addition to the National Weather Service, what agency provides plain-language radio weather advisories for the coastal waters of the United States? U.S. Coast Guard
1135 Information about temporary, short term changes affecting the safety of navigation in 
U.S. waters is distributed to navigational interests by the __________. Local Notice to Mariners
1136 What is the most important source of information to be used in correcting charts and keeping them up to date? Notice to Mariners
1137 Your vessel's operators send a message that your vessel has been consigned to Voluntary Naval Control of Shipping. The message will refer you to __________. Radio Aids to Navigation (PUB 117)
1138 Which statement about Naval Control of Shipping in wartime is TRUE? It is mandatory in wartime.
1139 Which publication is NOT carried on board U.S. merchant vessels operating under Naval Control of Shipping? Tactical Control and Routing of Merchant Vessels
1140 In a national emergency, when communicating via the Navy, messages are sent by precedence. A message designated PRIORITY will be delivered within __________. 3 hours
1141 Under Naval Control of Shipping who is responsible for routing and diverting ships and convoys? The Operational Control Authority
1142 In time of war Naval Control of Shipping Authorities may give orders concerning the __________. ship's route
1143 At the outbreak of war your ship is caught in an enemy port. Which statement is FALSE? You should resist boarding by local officials.
1144 At the establishment of Naval Control of Shipping (NCS), ships at sea will __________. continue voyages unless in danger areas defined in the advisory or supplemental message
1145 You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good seamanship would require that you have on board, available for reference and use, all of the following EXCEPT the __________. Sailing Directions (Enroute)
1146 The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on all of the following EXCEPT __________. ocean currents
1147 Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and shoals? General charts
1148 A chart with a natural scale of 1:160,000 is classified as a __________. 
 general chart
1149 A coastal chart could have a scale of __________. 1:100,000
1150 The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that __________. 1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's surface
1151 In very high latitudes, the most practical chart projection is the __________. Lambert conformal
1152 Which statement about a gnomonic chart is correct? 
 Parallels, except the equator, appear as curved lines.
1153 On the Western Rivers, a vessel crossing a river must __________. keep out of the way of a power-driven vessel ascending or descending the river
1154 Vessels regularly navigating Ohio and Mississippi rivers above Cairo, Illinois, and their tributaries, shall at all times have on board a copy of __________. U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Navigation Regulations (Blue Book)
1155 You are in a channel in U.S. waters near an industrial plant with a load/discharge facility for barges. You hear a siren being sounded at the facility. What does this indicate? There is danger at the facility due to a fire or cargo release.
1156 Which instrument may a towing vessel, engaged in towing exclusively on the Western Rivers, use in place of a magnetic compass? Illuminated Swing Meter
1157 A bluff bar is a bar __________. that has a sharp drop off into deep water
1158 You are ascending a river and exchanging navigational information via radiotelephone with a descending vessel. If the descending vessel advises you to "watch for the set" above point X, what would you expect to encounter above point X? A sideways movement of your vessel
1159 A backlash below a lock is defined as a __________. an eddy working along the lower guide wall
1160 A deadhead is a(n) __________. tree or log awash in a nearly vertical position
1161 The controlling depth of the river is __________. the least available water in a channel which limits the draft of boats and tows
1162 When using the ARPA in heavy rain, which action should you take? Navigate as though the effective range of the radar has been reduced.
1163 The typical operating range of automatic identification systems (AIS) at sea is nominally __________. 20-25 nm
1164 With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which information is required to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds? Time stamp
1165 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS)? 
 AIS provides near real-time information regarding another vessel's speed over ground and heading regardless of visibility.
1166 Time signals broadcast by WWV and WWVH are transmitted __________. continuously throughout day
1167 Yesterday you took a time tick using the 1200 GMT broadcast, and the chronometer read 11h 59m 59s. Today at the 1200 GMT time tick the chronometer read 00h 00m 01s. What is the chronometer error? Fast 1 second
1168 Yesterday your chronometer read 03h 01m 56s at the 1500 GMT time tick. Today your chronometer read 03h 01m 54s at the 1500 GMT time tick. What is the chronometer rate? -2s
1169 Yesterday your chronometer read 11h 59m 59s at the 1200 GMT time tick. Today the chronometer reads 11h 59m 57s at the 1200 time tick. What is the chronometer rate? -2s
1170 What is the gyrocompass error resulting from your vessel's movement in OTHER than an east-west direction? speed erro
1171 The directive force of a gyrocompass __________. decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic equato
1172 Which statement about the gyrocompass is FALSE? Its accuracy remains the same at all latitudes
1173 Compass deviation is caused by __________. magnetism within the vessel
1174 Variation is the angular measurement between __________. magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
1175 True heading differs from magnetic heading by __________. variation
1176 The difference in degrees between true north and magnetic north is called __________. variation
1177 The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be broken down into a series of components which are referred to as __________. coefficients
1178 If a ship is proceeding towards the magnetic equator, the uncorrected deviation due to permanent magnetism __________. decreases
1179 If the compass heading and the magnetic heading are the same then __________. there is no deviation on that heading
1180 The compass deviation changes as the vessel changes __________. heading
1181 Variation in a compass is caused by __________. magnetism from the earth's magnetic field
1182 Magnetic variation changes with a change in __________. the vessel's position
1183 The chart indicates the variation was 345'W in 1988, and the annual change is increasing 6'. If you use the chart in 1991 how much variation should you apply? 403'W
1184 The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in polarity due to __________. major structural repair
1185 Permanent magnetism is caused by __________. the earth's magnetic field affecting the ship's hard iron during construction
1186 At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron because __________. there is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field
1187 The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic compass when the __________. vessel is near the magnetic equator
1188 Magnetism which is present only when the material is under the influence of an external field is called __________. induced magnetism
1189 What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass? Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and those of opposite polarity attract
1190 By convention, the south seeking ends of a compass' magnets are colored __________. blue
1191 When a magnetic compass is not in use for a prolonged period of time it should __________. be shielded from direct sunlight
1192 A magnetic compass card is marked in how many degrees? 360
1193 A magnetic compass card is marked in how many degrees? 360
1194 The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass? Lubber's line
1195 What is the compass course of a vessel heading NW? 315.0
1196 What is the compass course of a vessel heading WSW? 247.5
1197 What is the compass course of a vessel heading SSE? 157.5
1198 What is the compass course of a vessel heading ENE? 067.5
1199 A vessel heading WSW is on a course of __________. 247.5
1200 A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________. 157.5
1201 A vessel heading SE is on a course of __________. 135.0
1202 A vessel heading ENE is on a course of __________. 067.5
1203 You have replaced the chart paper in the course recorder. What is NOT required to ensure that a correct trace is recorded? Test the electrical gain to the thermograph pens
1204 An ECDIS is required to display which information? Depth contours
1205 ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the voyage track for the previous __________. 12 hours
1206 When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual to __________. 
 receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day, and one nearer the surface at night
1207 An electronic depth finder operates on the principle that __________. sound waves travel at a constant speed through water
1208 When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a two-dimensional fix? 
 3
1209 A low HDOP (Horizontal Dilution of Precision) number such as 2 indicates a __________. good fix
1210 Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from several satellites simultaneously? Continuous
1211 Illustration D011NG below represents the geographic location of a vessel and the radar presentation at the same time. Which statement is TRUE? Ship No. 1 does not appear as an individual target due to the effect of beam width.
1212 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course 233T, and bears 264T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer and running time at 13 knots to intercept vessel A? 254, 7h 37m
1213 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course 233T, and bears 346T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to intercept vessel A? 327
1214 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 6 knots on course 133T, and bears 042T, 105 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 10 knots? 12h 58m
1215 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 5.5 knots on course 033T, and bears 284T, 43 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 16 knots? 2h 32m
1216 Coral atolls, or a chain of islands at right angles to the radar beam, may show as a long line rather than as individual targets due to __________. the effects of beam width
1217 The signal from a ramark will show on the PPI as a __________. radial line from the transponder to the center of the PPI
1218 Your radar has a beam width of 2. The radar gyro bearing of the right tangent of an island is 316. The gyro error is 1E. Which true bearing should be plotted on the chart? 316
1219 The beam width of your radar is 2. The left tangent bearing of a small island, as observed on the PPI scope, is 056pgc. If the gyro error is 2E, what bearing would you plot on the chart? 059
1220 You have another ship overtaking you close aboard to starboard. You have 3 radar targets bearing 090 relative at ranges of .5 mile, 1 mile, and 1.5 miles. In this case, the unwanted echoes are called __________. multiple echoes
1221 A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a __________. positive correction
1222 Index error of a sextant is primarily caused by __________. the horizon glass not being parallel to the index mirror
1223 A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the horizon forms a continuous line with the actual image. When the sextant is rotated about the line of sight the images separate. The sextant has __________. side error
1224 While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ship's fog horn 3 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore? 550 yards
1225 While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 2 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore? 360 yards
1226 You are steaming west in the South Atlantic in an extra tropical cyclonic storm, and the wind is dead ahead. According to the law of Buys Ballot, the center of low pressure lies __________. to the south of you
1227 According to Buys Ballot's law, when an observer in the Northern Hemisphere experiences a northeast wind the center of low pressure is located to the __________. south-southeast
1228 If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure area to be 100 miles due east of your position, what winds can you expect in the Northern Hemisphere? North to northwest
1229 You are steaming eastward in the North Atlantic in an extra tropical cyclonic storm and the wind is dead ahead. According to the law of Buys Ballot, the center of the low pressure lies __________. to the south
1230 The probability of a sudden wind may be foretold by __________. a fast approaching line of dark clouds
1231 Which type of cloud formation should be of immediate concern to small craft operators? cumulonimbus
1232 Cumulonimbus clouds can produce __________. gusty winds, thunder, rain or hail, and lightning
1233 Small, visible mound-like protuberances on the bottom of cumulonimbus clouds, that are potential breeding grounds for waterspouts and tornadoes, are called __________. mamma
1234 The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate vicinity of a ship at sea would be accompanied by which of the following conditions? Rain and poor visibility
1235 The low, dark, sheet-like cloud which is associated with continuous precipitation for many hours is a __________. nimbostratus cloud
1236 Clouds form __________. as a mass of warm, humid air rises into the atmosphere and cools, condensing moisture into small droplets
1237 Fog forms when the air __________. temperature is equal to, or below the dew point temperature
1238 Radiation fog __________. is formed by a temperature inversion
1239 Fog forms when the air temperature is at or below __________. the dew point
1240 While on watch, you notice that the air temperature is dropping and is approaching the dew point. Which type of weather should be forecasted? Fog
1241 When compared to air temperature, which factor is most useful in predicting fog? Dew point
1242 The type of fog that occurs on clear nights with very light breezes and forms when the earth cools rapidly ? radiation fog
1243 Fog is likely to occur when there is little difference between the dew point and the __________. air temperature
1244 Which condition would most likely result in fog? Warm moist air blowing over cold water
1245 When warm moist air blows over a colder surface and is cooled below its dew point, the result is __________. advection fog
1246 The fog most commonly encountered at sea is called __________. advection fog
1247 Which condition will occur after a cold front passes? Humidity decreases
1248 What happens to the barometric pressure after a cold front passes? rises, and the temperature drops
1249 How does the temperature change with the passage of an occluded front? depends on whether warm type or cold type occlusion
1250 As a cold front passes how do the pressure and the winds change? pressure rises and winds become gusty
1251 In the Northern Hemisphere, what do winds veering sharply to the west or northwest with increasing speed indicate? cold front has passed
1252 A cloud sequence of cirrus, cirrostratus, and altostratus clouds followed by rain usually signifies the approach of a(n) __________. warm front
1253 Steady precipitation is typical of __________. a warm front weather condition
1254 Which of the symbols shown in illustration D018NG below represents a warm front? C
1255 You are attempting to locate your position relative to a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere. If the wind direction remains steady, but with diminishing velocity, you are most likely __________. on the storm track behind the center
1256 The left half of the storm is called the navigable semicircle because __________. Both A and B
1257 In the Northern Hemisphere, if your vessel is in a hurricane's navigable semicircle it should be positioned with the wind on the __________. starboard quarter, hold course and make as much speed as possible
1258 Which condition suggests that your present position lies in the navigable semicircle of a tropical storm? A backing wind
1259 In the Northern Hemisphere you are caught in the dangerous semicircle of a storm with plenty of sea room available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the __________. starboard bow and make as much headway as possible
1260 You can determine if your vessel's position is in the dangerous or navigable semicircle of a hurricane by __________. Both A and B
1261 The eye of a hurricane is surrounded by dense black cumulonimbus clouds which are called the __________. wall cloud
1262 Tropical cyclones normally form within which of the following belts of latitude? 5 to 15
1263 Tropical cyclones are classified by form and intensity. Which system does not have closed isobars? Tropical disturbance
1264 What level of development of a tropical cyclone has a hundred mile radius of circulation, gale force winds, less than 990 millibars of pressure and vertically formed cumulonimbus clouds? A tropical storm
1265 Early indications of the approach of a hurricane may be all of the following EXCEPT __________. short confused swells
1266 What indicates the arrival of a hurricane within 24 to 36 hours? 
 Unusually good weather with above average pressures followed by a slow fall of 4 millibars in six hours
1267 Which change in the condition of the seas could indicate the formation of a tropical storm or hurricane several hundred miles from your location? A long swell from an unusual direction
1268 Low pressure disturbances, which travel along the intertropical convergence zone, are called __________. tropical waves
1269 A easterly wave is located 200 miles due west of your position, which is north of the equator. Where will the wave be in 24 hours? Farther away to the west
1270 You are in the Northern Hemisphere and a tropical wave is located 200 miles due west of your position. Where will the wave be located 24 hours later? Farther away to the west
1271 In the Northern Hemisphere, what type of cloud formations would you expect to see to the west of an approaching tropical wave? Cumulus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest direction
1272 The highest frequency of tropical cyclones in the North Atlantic Ocean occurs during __________. August, September and October
1273 What is the average speed of movement of a hurricane prior to recurvature? 10 to 12 knots
1274 The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of a tropical cyclone because of the __________. wind circulation and forward motion of the storm
1275 A storm's track is characterized by all of the following except __________. the speed at which the storm is moving
1276 You are underway on course 050T and your maximum speed is 13 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 120T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265T at 25 knots. What course should you steer at 13 knots to have the maximum CPA? 324T
1277 You are underway on course 050T and your maximum speed is 10 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100T, 90 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285T at 19 knots. If you maneuver at 10 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA? 
 53 miles
1278 You are underway on course 050T and your maximum speed is 13 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100T, 120 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 275T at 25 knots. If you maneuver at 13 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA? 72 miles
1279 You are underway on course 050T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 120T, 110 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285T at 25 knots. What course should you steer at 12 knots to have the maximum CPA? 346
1280 You are underway on course 050T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 080T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265T at 22 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA? 63 miles
1281 Mechanical lifting of air by the upslope slant of the terrain is called __________. topographic lifting
1282 The climate of the northern Gulf coast __________. 
 is a warm marine type of climate
1283 A type of precipitation that occurs only in thunderstorms with strong convection currents that convey raindrops above and below the freezing level is known as ________. hail


1284 In the Northern Hemisphere, when the center of a high pressure system is due east of your position, you can expect winds from the __________. south to east
1285 When a high pressure system is centered north of your vessel in the Northern Hemisphere __________. the wind direction is generally easterly
1286 A slow rise in the barometric pressure forecasts __________.

 improving weather conditions


1287 The flow of air around an anticyclone in the Southern Hemisphere is __________. counterclockwise and outward
1288 Anticyclones are usually characterized by __________. dry, fair weather
1289 In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind circulation surrounded by higher pressure is a __________. low
1290 Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________. low barometric pressure
1291 The daily recurring pattern of pressure changes most noticeable in low latitudes is the __________. diurnal variation of pressure Center
1292 The diurnal variation of pressure is most noticeable __________. in the doldrums
1293 Which general weather conditions should you expect to find in a low pressure system? Precipitation and cloudiness
1294 Most high pressure areas in the United States are accompanied by __________. clear, cool weather
1295 A phenomenon where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of other surrounding regions is called __________. a high pressure area; an anticyclone; or a "high"
1296 Compared to a low pressure system, generally the air in a high is __________. cool, more dense, and drier
1297 You are located within a stationary high pressure area. Your aneroid barometer is falling very slowly. This indicates a(n) __________. decrease in the pressure of the system
1298 The dry-bulb temperature is 78F and the wet-bulb temperature is 62F. What is the relative humidity? illustration D008DG

 39 (%)


1299 The dew point temperature is __________. the temperature at which the air is saturated with water vapor
1300 Steam fog is most likely to occur on the Mississippi and Ohio Rivers in __________. fall, around early morning
1301 Wind direction may be determined by observing all of the following EXCEPT __________. swells
1302 The best estimate of the wind direction at sea level can be obtained from observing the direction of the __________. waves
1303 When reporting wind direction, you should give the direction in __________. true degrees
1304 When recording the wind direction in the weather log, you would report the __________. direction the wind is blowing from
1305 Your vessel is on course 150T, speed 17 knots. The apparent wind is from 40 off the starboard bow, speed 15 knots. What is the speed of the true wind? 11.0 knots
1306 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, at 1800 ZT on 31 October your position is LAT 2450'N, LONG 9237'W. You are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. How should you encode the first three groups after the call sign if you estimate the wind? 01003, 99248, 70926
1307 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, at 0600 ZT on 31 January your position is LAT 0049'S, LONG 8427'E. You are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. How should you encode the first three groups after the call sign if you estimate the wind? 31003, 99008, 30844
1308 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. The dry bulb thermometer reads 30F (-1C) and the wet bulb thermometer reads 28F (-2C). How would you encode the air temperature groups in the report? 11011, 2104/
1309 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. The dry bulb thermometer reads 78F and the wet bulb thermometer reads 75F. How would you encode the air temperature groups in the report? 10256, 2023/
1310 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. The dry bulb thermometer reads 54F and the wet bulb thermometer reads 50F. How would you encode the air temperature groups in the report? 10122, 2008/
1311 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. The sky is overcast, and the anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 144 relative at 8 knots. You are on course 162T at 15 knots. How should you encode group Nddff? 83322
1312 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program. You are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. Three-quarters of the sky is covered with clouds, and the anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 226 relative at 17.7 knots. You are on course 020T at 8 knots. How should you encode group Nddff? 62324
1313 Using the surface analysis in illustration D049NG below, what weather conditions would you expect to find at position A? Winds NW-W at 15 knots, partly cloudy, and slight seas
1314 Above-normal tides near the center of a hurricane may be caused by the __________. storm surge
1315 What should you expect when you encounter a tsunami in the open ocean? No noticeable change from the existing sea state
1316 What is the distance from the bottom of a wave trough to the top of a wave crest? Wave height
1317 On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave is not affected by the __________. water depth exceeding 100 feet
1318 The speed at which an ocean wave system advances is called __________. group velocity
1319 Swells that have outrun the storm are produced in the __________. right front quadrant
1320 Swell is the rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to __________. distant winds
1321 An instrument that maintains a continuous record of humidity changes is called a __________. hygrograph
1322 A wind vane on a moving vessel shows __________. apparent wind direction
1323 The barometer is an instrument for measuring the __________. atmospheric pressure
1324 Which of the following is a standard correction applied to the reading of an aneroid barometer? elevation
1325 Which indication on the barometer is most meaningful in forecasting weather? The direction and rate of change of barometric pressure
1326 Which instrument is used to predict the approach of a low pressure system? Barometer
1327 Which of the following is the most useful factor for predicting weather? The rate and direction of change of barometric readings
1328 Barometer readings in weather reports are given in terms of pressure at __________. sea level
1329 In most cases, the direction of the apparent wind lies between the bow and __________. the direction of the true wind
1330 An isotherm is __________. a line connecting points of equal temperature on a weather map
1331 A line on a weather chart connecting places which have the same barometric pressure is called an __________. isobar
1332 What benefit is a weather bulletin to a mariner? It gives the mariner time to prepare for weather changes.
1333 NOAA VHF weather reports are continuously broadcast on VHF channels WX-1, WX-2 and WX-3 on a frequency of __________. 162.55, 162.40, 162.475 MHz
1334 Prevailing winds between 30N and 60N latitude are from the __________. 
 west
1335 The direction of the surface wind is __________. from high pressure toward low pressure deflected by the earth's rotation
1336 The prevailing westerlies of the Southern Hemisphere blow 18 - 30 knots __________. all year long
1337 The direction of the southeast trade winds is a result of the __________. rotation of the earth
1338 On the pole side of the trade wind belt, there is an area of high pressure with weak pressure gradients and light, variable winds. This area is called the __________. horse latitudes
1339 In the doldrums you will NOT have __________. steep pressure gradients
1340 The prevailing winds in the band of latitude from approximately 5N to 30N are the __________. northeast trade winds
1341 During the winter months, the southeast trade winds are __________. stronger than during the summer months
1342 The southeast trade winds actually blow toward the __________. northwest
1343 The horse latitudes are characterized by __________. weak pressure gradients and light, variable winds
1344 In regions near the poles, the winds are generally described as __________. easterlies
1345 A tropical storm is a tropical cyclone that generates winds of __________. between 34 and 63 knots
1346 A weather forecast states that the wind will commence backing. In the Northern Hemisphere, this would indicate that it will __________. shift in a counterclockwise manner
1347 A weather forecast states that the wind will commence veering. In the Northern Hemisphere this indicates that the wind will __________. shift in a clockwise manner
1348 What wind reverses directions seasonally? Monsoon winds
1349 A very light breeze that causes ripples on a small area of still water is a __________. cat's paw
1350 What will a veering wind do? Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere
1351 In the Northern Hemisphere a wind is said to veer when the wind __________. changes direction clockwise, as from north to east, etc.
1352 A katabatic wind blows __________. down an incline due to cooling of the air
1353 Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knots? Beaufort force 12
1354 Your vessel is at the equator at midnight on 1 January, and a star is observed rising. At what time will this same star rise on 1 February, assuming your vessel's location is still at the equator? 2158
1355 A variable star is one that __________. exhibits a change in magnitude
1356 A star that suddenly becomes several magnitudes brighter and then gradually fades is a __________. nova
1357 A group of stars which appear close together and form a striking configuration such as a person or animal is a __________. constellation
1358 Miaplacidus is found in what constellation? Carina
1359 Bellatrix is found in what constellation? Orion
1360 Denebola is found in what constellation? Leo
1361 The magnitude of three stars is indicated. Which star is the brightest? Vega + 0.1
1362 Inferior conjunction is possible for __________. Venus
1363 Mars is only seen at two phases, one of which __________. is the full phase
1364 What is the brightest navigational planet? Venus
1365 Other than the Sun and Moon, the brightest object in the sky is __________. Venus
1366 The precession of the equinoxes of the Earth is __________. similar to a top spinning with its axis tilted
1367 The points where the Sun is at 0 declination are known as __________. equinoxes
1368 The Moon is subject to four types of libration. Which of the following is NOT one of these types of libration? Horizontal libration
1369 The Moon is farthest from the Earth at __________. apogee
1370 Upper limb observations of the Moon are used more frequently than those of the Sun because of the location of the Moon in the sky and the __________. phase of the Moon
1371 In low latitudes, a last quarter moon will always rise at about __________. 2400 LMT
1372 A celestial body will cross the prime vertical circle when the latitude is numerically __________. greater than the declination and both are of the same name
1373 The Sun's center is coincident with the principal vertical circle when __________. in lower transit
1374 The prime vertical is the reference point from which the angle of which type of observation is measured? Amplitude
1375 The principal vertical circle is that great circle on the celestial sphere that passes through the __________. zenith and the north and south poles
1376 The point on the celestial sphere that is directly below an observer is the __________. zenith
1377 Zenith distance is equal to __________. 90 - Ho
1378 The difference of latitude (l) between the geographic position (GP) of a celestial body and your position, at the time of upper transit, is represented by __________. zenith distance
1379 At upper transit, if the zenith distance is 34, the geographical distance from the observer to a body's GP is __________. 2040 miles
1380 In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the poles on the Earth? Zenith, nadir
1381 In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the local hour angle of the celestial equator system? Azimuth
1382 In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the meridian angle of the celestial equator system? Azimuth angle
1383 Right ascension is primarily used by the navigator for __________. plotting on star finders
1384 The celestial coordinate of a star that is relatively constant in value is the __________. sidereal hour angle
1385 The GHA of a star __________. increases at a rate of approximately 15 per hour
1386 In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is equivalent to the colatitude of the Earth system of coordinates? Polar distance
1387 The navigator is concerned with three systems of coordinates. Which system is not of major concern? Ecliptic
1388 17 degrees of latitude is equal to __________. 1020 miles
1389 A line on the Earth parallel to the equator is a __________. small circle
1390 On 16 January, you take a sight of a star. The sextant altitude (hs) is 433.0'. The temperature is -10C, and the barometer reads 992 millibars. The height of eye is 42 feet. The index error is 1.9' off the arc. What is the observed altitude (Ho)? 417.0'
1391 A vertex of the navigational triangle is NOT located at the __________. coaltitude
1392 The navigational triangle uses parts of two systems of coordinates, one of which is the horizon system and the other is the __________. celestial equator system
1393 When applying a dip correction to the sighted sextant angle (hs), you always subtract the dip because you are correcting __________. hs to the sensible horizon
1394 A time diagram is a diagram on the plane of the __________. celestial equator
1395 The equation of time is 8m 00s. The mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If you are 2W of the central meridian of your time zone, when will the apparent Sun cross your meridian? 1216
1396 When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac for use in celestial navigation, it is used to determine __________. time of local apparent noon
1397 Apparent time is based on __________. the visible sun moving along the ecliptic
1398 What is the equivalent of 37 min. 32 sec. in arc units? 923'
1399 What is the equivalent of 10 min. 52 sec. in arc units? 243'
1400 What is the equivalent of 0 min. 16 sec. in arc units? 004'
1401 What is the equivalent of 1048' in time units? 43 min. 12 sec.
1402 The approximate positions of the stars are based on sidereal time, which is based upon rotation of the Earth relative to __________. vernal equinox
1403 Sidereal time is used by navigators when __________. used in the form of LHA Aries
1404 The date is the same all over the world at __________. 1200 GMT
1405 On 5 July, at 1200 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westward. What is your local time? It is 1200, 6 July.
1406 Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the zone time and date if the Greenwich time and date are 0152, 10 January? 1452, 10 January
1407 You are on a vessel at 0400 ZT on 3 July, and the ZD for your position is -8. What is the GMT? 2000, 2 July
1408 The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -2 and -3 is __________. 3730'E
1409 On March 17, at 0500 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming eastward to west longitude. What is your local time? It is 0500, March 16.
1410 The navigator aboard a ship at approximately 165E longitude observes the Sun at ZT 14-25-04 on 21 September. What is the GMT and Greenwich date of the observation? 03-25-04, 21 September
1411 A ship is in longitude 5400'W on a true course of 090. The ship's clocks are on the proper time zone. At what longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain the proper zone time? 5230'W
1412 Your longitude is 17959'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of the 4th day of the month. Six minutes later your position is 17959'E longitude. Your LMT and date is now __________. 00h 02m on the 6th
1413 The difference in local time between an observer on 114W and one on 119W is __________. 20 minutes
1414 It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54E longitude. Which statement is TRUE? The observer is in time zone -4.
1415 The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 7030'E. Which time would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN? 0728
1416 During daylight savings time the meridian used for determining the time is located farther __________. east
1417 You are on course 344T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 270. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?
 254

1418 You take a bearing of 356 of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix? 082
1419 You take a bearing of 142 and 259 of two objects. What bearing of a third object will give the best fix? 019
1420 Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The navigator of which vessel would be required to know the actual time of meridian transit in order to take an accurate observation at LAN? C 162T, Sp 27 knots
1421 Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The navigator of which vessel would be required to know the actual time of meridian transit in order to take an accurate observation at LAN?

 C 166T, Sp 24 knots


1422 When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible horizon when __________. in high latitudes
1423 What is the longitude of the geographical position of a body whose Greenwich hour angle is 21030'? 14930'E
1424 What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 21515'? 14445'E
1425 When plotting a circle of equal altitude for a high altitude sight, the radius of the circle is determined by the formula __________. 90 - Ho
1426 The GP of a body for a high altitude sight is determined from the declination and the __________. Greenwich hour angle
1427 What is the major advantage of high altitude observations? The same body can be used for a fix from observations separated by several minutes.
1428 Why are low altitude sun sights not generally used? Errors due to unusual refraction may exist.
1429 At evening stars, the first stars that should be observed are those with an azimuth in what quadrant? Eastern 

1430 At evening stars, the last stars that should be observed are those with an azimuth in what quadrant? Western
1431 In general, the most effective period for observing stars and planets occurs during the darker limit of __________. civil twilight
1432 Which statement concerning current is TRUE? The drift of the current should be averaged out on a one hour basis.
1433 You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly current. Without considering wind, how may you allow for the set? Head your vessel slightly to the right
1434 In illustration D051NG below, why was the position labeled "E" plotted? a dead reckoning position is plotted for each speed change
1435 In illustration D051NG below what is indicated by the position labeled "C"? running fix
1436 You are navigating in pilotage waters using running fixes. The maximum time between fixes should be about __________. 30 minutes
1437 In illustration D051NG below, why was the position labeled "D" plotted? a dead reckoning position is plotted for each course change
1438 You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How should this current be treated in determining the position? The course and speed made good should be determined and used to advance the LOP.
1439 Which statement about an estimated position is TRUE? It may be based on a single LOP or questionable data.
1440 A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken at nearly the same time, is a(n) __________. fix
1441 A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's course and speed is a(n) __________. estimated position
1442 You are running parallel to the coast and estimate that the current is against you. In plotting a running fix using bearings from the same object on the coast, the greatest safety margin from inshore dangers will result if what speed is used to determine the fix? Minimum speed estimate
1443 You are running parallel to the coast and plotting running fixes using bearings of the same object. You are making more speed than assumed for the running fix. In relation to the position indicated by the fix you will be __________. farther from the coast
1444 When using a radar in an unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from __________. ranges
1445 A chart position enclosed by a square is a(n) __________. estimated position
1446 You determine your vessel's position by taking a range and bearing to a buoy. Your position will be plotted as a(n) __________. estimated position
1447 A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at any given time is a __________. line of position
1448 What is a characteristic of a rhumb line? It cuts each meridian at the same angle.
1449 Except for N-S courses, and E-W courses on the equator, a great circle track between two points, when compared to a rhumb line track between the same two points, will __________. always be nearer to the elevated pole
1450 The shortest distance between any two points on earth defines a __________. great circle
1451 A great circle crosses the equator at 141E. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude? 39W
1452 A great circle crosses the equator at 127W. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude? 53E
1453 A great circle crosses the equator at 17W. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude? 163E
1454 The distance in longitude from the intersection of a great circle and the equator to the lower vertex is how many degrees of longitude? 90
1455 The longitude of the upper vertex of a great circle track is 169E. What is the longitude of the lower vertex? 011W
1456 The initial great circle course angle between LAT 23003400'S, LONG 1800'E is 063.8. What is the true course? 116.2T
1457 You are on course 355T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 275. What is the true bearing of the lighthouse? 270
1458 You are on course 344T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 270. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse? 254
1459 You are outbound in a channel marked by a range astern. The range line is 309T. You are steering 127T and have the range in sight as shown in illustration D047NG below. What action should you take? Come right to close the range then when on the range steer 129T.
1460 What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the port beam? 270
1461 You are on course 180T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 225. What is the true bearing of the lighthouse?
 045

1462 What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the starboard quarter? 135
1463 You are on course 027T and take a relative bearing to a lighthouse of 220. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse? 247
1464 A relative bearing is always measured from __________. the vessel's head
1465 What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the starboard quarter? 135
1466 If a chart indicates the depth of water to be 6 fathoms and your draft is 6.0 feet, what is the depth of the water under your keel? (Assume the actual depth and charted depth to be the same) 30.0 feet
1467 When making landfall at night, the light from a powerful lighthouse may sometimes be seen before the lantern breaks the horizon. This light is called the __________. loom
1468 When making landfall at night, you can determine if a light is a major light or an offshore buoy by _________. checking the period and characteristics against the Light List
1469 When navigating a vessel, you __________. should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position
1470 When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is above the lower light you should __________. continue on the present course
1471 You are on course 226T. In order to check the latitude of your vessel, you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 000
1472 You are on course 312T. To check the speed of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 312
1473 A line of position from a celestial observation is a segment of a __________. circle of equal altitude
1474 You are on course 201T. To check the speed of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 201
1475 A latitude line will be obtained by observing a body __________.



 at lower transit



1476 While steering a course of 150T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check. What would the azimuth have to be? 000T
1477 You are on course 138T. To check the latitude of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 000
1478 The owner or Master of a towing vessel must ensure that each person that directs and controls the movement of the vessel knows all of the following EXCEPT _________. the ownership of the vessel(s) being towed
1479 The Benguela Current flows in a __________. NW'ly direction along the SW coast of Africa
1480 Which current would you encounter on a direct passage from London, England, to Cape Town, South Africa? Benguela Current
1481 The set of the equatorial countercurrent is generally to the __________. east
1482 What describes a flood current? Horizontal movement of the water toward the land after low tide
1483 The cold ocean current which meets the warm Gulf Stream between latitudes 40 and 43N to form the "cold wall" is called the __________. Labrador Current
1484 The range of tide is the __________. difference between the heights of high and low tide
1485 A rotary current sets through all directions of the compass. The time it takes to complete one of these cycles, in a locale off the East coast of the US, is approximately __________. 12 1/2 hours
1486 Which term refers to the direction a current is flowing? Set
1487 Which statement is TRUE concerning the current of the Gulf Stream? Variations in the trade winds affect the current.
1488 How long would a steady wind need to blow in order to create a wind driven current? 12 hours
1489 Generally speaking, a ship steaming across the North Pacific from Japan to Seattle is likely to experience __________. favorable currents for practically the entire crossing
1490 When a current flows in the opposite direction to the waves, the wave __________. height is increased
1491 You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There is a strong N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter __________. steeper waves, closer together
1492 Where will you find information about the duration of slack water? Tidal Current Tables
1493 When the declination of the Moon is 012.5'S, you can expect some tidal currents in Gulf Coast ports to __________. become weak and variable
1494 The velocity of a rotary tidal current will be decreased when the Moon is __________. at apogee
1495 To predict the actual depth of water using the Tide Tables, the number obtained from the Tide Tables is __________. added to or subtracted from the charted depth
1496 The time meridian that is used when computing the currents for Pensacola Bay, Florida, is __________. 90W
1497 The tides in Boston Harbor generally __________. have a greater range than the tides in Gulf Coast ports
1498 The lunar or tidal day is __________. about 50 minutes longer than the solar day
1499 Spring tides occur __________. when the moon is new or full
1500 Spring tides occur when the __________. Moon is new or full
1501 Neap tides occur only __________. when the Moon is at quadrature
1502 In some parts of the world there is often a slight fall in tide during the middle of the high water period. The effect is to create a longer period of stand at higher water. This special feature is called a(n) __________. double high water
1503 Tropic tides are caused by the __________. Moon being at its maximum declination
1504 Priming of the tides occurs __________. when the Moon is between new and first quarter and between full and third quarter
1505 The height of tide is the __________. difference between the depth of the water and the area's tidal datum
1506 The distance between the surface of the water and the tidal datum is the __________. height of tide
1507 The distance between the surface of the water and the tidal datum is the __________. height of tide
1508 What is the definition of height of tide? The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water at any time
1509 The difference between the heights of low and high tide is the __________. range
1510 The difference between the heights of low and high tide is the __________. range
1511 Spring tides are tides that __________. have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal
1512 You are heading out to sea in a buoyed channel and see a quick-flashing green light on a buoy ahead of you. In U.S. waters, you should leave the buoy __________. 
 to starboard
1513 You are steaming southward along the west coast of the United States when you encounter a buoy showing a flashing red light. The buoy should be left on __________. the vessel's port side
1514 As your vessel is heading southward along the east coast of the United States, you encounter a buoy showing a red flashing light. How should you pass this buoy? Leave it to your starboard.
1515 A white buoy with an open-faced orange diamond on it indicates __________. danger
1516 A white buoy with an orange cross within a diamond marked on it indicates __________. vessels are excluded from the area
1517 An orange and white buoy with a rectangle on it displays __________. All of the above
1518 Buoys which mark isolated dangers are painted with alternating _________. red and black bands
1519 Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, when entering from seaward a lateral system buoy to be left to port may display which of the topmarks shown? Illustration D046NG D
1520 A lighted preferred-channel buoy may show a __________. composite group-flashing light
1521 While proceeding along the Norwegian coast on course 039T, you sight the black-yellow-black banded buoy shown in illustration D021NG below, bearing 053T. What action should you take? Alter course to 060 and ensure that the true bearings decreases
1522 Which cardinal quadrant is represented by the topmark in illustration D024NG below? Western
1523 While steaming north of the Irish coast, you sight a buoy which shows the light rhythm shown in illustration D028NG below. How would you pass this buoy? East of the buoy
1524 In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy with a quick light showing 3 flashes every 10 seconds. Which topmark in illustration D030NG below would be fitted to this buoy under the IALA Buoyage Systems? D
1525 While preparing to enter a Brazilian port, you see ahead a red and green horizontally-striped buoy. The upper band is red. What action should you take? Alter course to leave the buoy to starboard.
1526 In illustration D044NG below, what type of buoy is indicated by the letter D? nun
1527 If you observe a buoy off station you should __________. immediately contact the nearest Coast Guard office by radiotelephone
1528 White lights may be found on __________. information and regulatory buoys
1529 You sight a spar buoy with the top mark shown in illustration D027NG below. You must take which of the following actions? keep well clear of the buoy and pass on either side
1530 What is the light phase characteristic of a lighted isolated-danger mark? Group flashing
1531 In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, lateral aids as seen entering from seaward will display lights with which characteristic? All of the above
1532 Which buoy is NOT numbered? Preferred-channel buoy
1533 Red lights may appear on __________. horizontally banded buoys
1534 When entering from seaward, a buoy displaying a single-flashing red light indicates __________. the starboard side of the channel
1535 Which buoy may be odd numbered? An unlighted can buoy
1536 In the IALA Buoyage System, preferred-channel-to-port or preferred-channel-to starboard buoys, when fitted with lights, will show a __________. composite group flashing (2 + 1) light
1537 While steaming on course 280T, you sight a buoy showing a very quick-flashing (VQ) white light well to port. Maintaining course, you sight another buoy showing a quick-flashing (Q) white light. You should pass __________. 
 north of the buoy
1538 You are underway on course 142T when you sight a buoy bearing 105T. The buoy's white light has a characteristic of continuous very-quick flashing. To ensure that your vessel remains in the best navigable water you would __________. 
 alter course to port and pass north of the buoy
1539 You are underway in the North Sea on course 216T when you sight a buoy bearing 021 relative. Under the IALA Buoyage System, you are in the best navigable water if the buoy __________. has a light characteristic of Q(6) + L Fl 15s
1540 You are on course 090T when you sight a flashing white light with a characteristic of VQ(9)10s. You immediately change course to 030T. After one hour, you sight another flashing white light with the characteristic of VQ. You must pass well __________. 
 north of this buoy
1541 What is NOT a characteristic of cardinal marks? 
 Square or triangular topmarks
1542 You are steaming along the coast of Ireland in the Irish Sea. You sight a lighted buoy with a white flashing light showing a group of two flashes. The buoy indicates you __________. should pass well clear on either side of the buoy
1543 In waters where the cardinal system is used you would expect to find danger __________. lying to the south of a northern quadrant buoy
1544 You are entering an African port and see ahead of you a red can-shaped buoy. What action should you take? Alter course to leave the buoy to port
1545 Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not show which light characteristic? Group Flashing (2 + 1)
1546 Under the IALA-A Buoyage system, a buoy marking the port hand of the channel when approaching from seaward may NOT have a __________. conical shape
1547 Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, a buoy indicating the preferred channel is to port would have __________. horizontal bands
1548 Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, a buoy indicating that the preferred channel is to port when entering from seaward, can have a __________. green light
1549 A safe water mark may be __________. All of the above
1550 A spherical buoy may be __________. lettered
1551 How is a safe water mark, that can be passed close aboard on either side, painted and lighted? 
 Red and white stripes with a Morse (A) light


1552 In United States waters, a buoy having red and white vertical stripes has a light characteristic of __________. Morse (A)
1553 What is a lighted safe water mark fitted with to aid in its identification? 
 A spherical topmark
1554 A survey (special purpose mark) buoy __________. None of the above
1555 In both regions of the IALA buoyage system, which topmark shown in illustration D022NG below is used on a special mark? D
1556 Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, a yellow buoy is a __________. special purpose mark
1557 You have been informed that dredging operations may be underway in your vicinity. Which buoy indicates the dredging area? Yellow buoy
1558 Spoil grounds, anchorage areas, cable areas, and military exercise areas are all marked by yellow buoys. Which special mark on the buoy will indicate the specific area you are in? Lettering on the buoy
1559 Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a yellow buoy may mark __________. All of the above
1560 The light characteristic of composite group flashing (2 + 1) is used in the Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers for lights on __________. preferred-channel buoys
1561 If your vessel were proceeding up river (ascending), the port side of the channel would be marked according to the U. S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers by __________. green can buoys
1562 Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, the buoys marking the starboard side of the channel when going upstream will be __________. red
1563 In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers, a preferred channel buoy to be left to port while proceeding downstream will __________. All of the above
1564 You are in a channel inbound from sea. A daymark used to mark a channel junction, when the preferred channel is to port will have the shape indicated by what letter in illustration D045NG below? D
1565 A daymark used to indicate the starboard side of the channel when approaching from seaward will have the shape indicated by what letter in illustration D045NG below? D
1566 In illustration D045NG below, what two shapes shown are used to indicate a preferred channel? A and D
1567 Which type of daymark is used to mark the port side of the channel when entering from sea? Green square
1568 What are the colors of a mid-channel daymark? 
 Red and white
1569 Which daymark has no lateral significance? Black and white diamond
1570 If your vessel were proceeding down river (descending), a green square marker with a green reflector border on the right bank would be a __________. passing daymark
1571 While proceeding downriver (descending) you sight a red diamond-shaped panel with small, red reflector squares in each corner on the left bank. Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System on the Western Rivers this is a ________. crossing daymark
1572 A green buoy has a yellow triangle on it. This is a(n) __________. dual purpose marking used where the ICW and other waterways coincide
1573 Determine the approximate geographic visibility of an object, with a height above the water of 85 feet (25.9 meters), for an observer with a height of eye of 60 feet (18.3 meters). 
 19.9 nm
1574 What is the approximate geographic range of Shinnecock Light, NY, if your height of eye is 24 feet (7.3 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS". 15.9 nm
1575 On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white with a red sector. The red sector __________. indicates a danger area
1576 A light having characteristics which include color variations is defined as _________ alternating
1577 Which of the following traits possessed by an articulated light makes it superior to other types of buoys? It has a reduced watch circle
1578 An alternating light __________. shows a light that changes color
1579 A light that has a light period shorter than its dark period is described as __________. flashing
1580 What is characteristic of an isophase light? 1 sec. flash, 1 sec. eclipse
1581 Which item in illustration D034NG below shows a Morse (A) light? D
1582 What characteristics can be used to identify a lighthous All of the above
1583 Clearance gauges at bridges indicate __________. distance from the water to low steel of the bridge
1584 Descending boats, while awaiting their turn to enter a lock, shall NOT block traffic from the lock. They shall be above the lock by at LEAST __________. 
 400 feet
1585 The following types of vessels are awaiting lockage on the upper Mississippi. Which type of vessel is normally passed through the lock first? Commercial passenger vessels
1586 The draw span of a floating drawbridge may be marked with __________. a yellow light showing Morse Code
1587 You are approaching a multiple-span bridge at night. The main navigational channel span will be indicated by __________. 3 white lights in a vertical line in the center of the span
1588 The white lights in a vertical line on a multiple-span bridge indicate _________ the main channel
1589 You are approaching a vertical lift bridge. You know the span is fully open when __________. there is a range of green lights under the lift span
1590 The channel under a bridge is marked with aids from the lateral system. The centerline of the channel is marked on the bridge with __________. a red-and-white octagon
1591 You are downbound approaching a lock and see 3 green lights in a vertical line. This indicates __________. the upstream end of the river wall
1592 You are approaching the first of two drawbridges that span a narrow channel. The second drawbridge is close to the first. Which signals should you sound? Sound the request-for-opening signal and, after the bridge acknowledges it, sound the request-for-opening signal for the second bridge.
1593 The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 14 miles and is 42 feet 
(12.7 m) high. If the visibility is 16 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet (6.1 m), at which approximate distance will you sight the light? 12.8 miles
1594 The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 18 miles and is 38 feet high. If the visibility is 6 miles and your height of eye is 15 feet, at which distance will you sight the light?
 11.7 nm
1595 The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 8 miles and is 48 feet(14.6 meters) high. If the visibility is 6 miles and your height of eye is 35 feet(10.7 meters), at what approximate distance will you sight the light? 5.9 nm
1596 The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 18 miles and a height above water of 22 feet (6.7 meters). Your height of eye is 16 feet (4.9 meters) and the visibility is 2.0 miles. At which approximate range will you first sight the light? 5.8 miles
1597 Northern right whales can be identified by __________. All of the above
1598 NGA (NIMA) charts are adopting the metric system. In order to change a charted depth in meters to feet you may use the conversion table found __________. All of the above
1599 A major advantage of the NAVTEX system when compared to other systems is that __________. warnings are printed out for reading when convenient
1600 You are proceeding under NCS (Naval Control of Shipping) when you wish to send a message concerning your ships diversion. Which precedence would you assign this message? 
 P (PRIORITY)
1601 You are proceeding under NCS (Naval Control of Shipping) when you wish to send a message concerning your ships diversion. Which precedence would you assign this message? P (PRIORITY)
1602 On an isomagnetic chart, the line of zero variation is the __________. agonic line
1603 Magnetic information on a chart may be __________. 
 All of the above
1604 The agonic line on an isomagnetic chart indicates the __________. points where there is no variation
1605 How is variation indicated on a small-scale nautical chart? Isogonic lines
1606 Which information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical chart provide? 
 True directions
1607 Charts showing the coast of Mexico are produced by the United States __________. National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency
1608 At McAlpine L & D, normal upper pool elevation is 420.0 feet (130.8 meters) MSL, equal to 12.0 feet (3.7 meters) on the upper gage. The vertical clearance at the Clark Memorial Highway bridge is 72.6 feet (22.1 meters) above normal pool. What is the clearance if the gage reads 10.6 feet (3.2 meters)? 74.0 feet (22.6 meters)
1609 Information about major breakdowns, repairs, or other emergency operations with regard to weirs and (or) wicket dams, on the western rivers, may be obtained by consulting the __________. 
 Broadcast Notice to Mariners
1610 The Light List shows a lighted aid to navigation on the left bank. This means that the light can be seen on the starboard side of a vessel __________. ascending the river
1611 All aids to navigation listed in the Mississippi River System Light List are shown as miles from a reference point and on the __________. left or right descending bank
1612 In which source could you find the vertical clearance of a bridge on the Ohio River? Light List of the Mississippi River System
1613 Which information is found in the chart title? Survey information
1614 The survey information upon which a chart is based is found __________. near the chart title
1615 What is the length of a nautical mile? 6,076 feet
1616 The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and __________. 
 annual rate of variation change
1617 When utilizing a Pacific Coast chart, the reference plane of soundings is __________. mean lower low water
1618 Mean lower low water is the reference plane used for __________. soundings on the U.S. east and west coasts
1619 The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables is __________. the same as that used for the charts of the locality
1620 The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean __________. high water line
1621 Mean high water is the reference plane used for __________. heights above water of land features such as lights
1622 Which statement concerning the chartlet in illustration D010NG below is true? (Soundings and heights are in meters)
 The sunken wreck southwest of Beito Island shows the hull or superstructure above the sounding datum.
1623 The symbol which appears beside a light on a chart reads "Gp Fl R (2) 10 sec 160 ft 19M". Which characteristic describes the light? None of the above
1624 The symbol which appears beside a light on a chart reads "Gp Fl R (2) 10 sec 160 ft 19M". Which characteristic does the light possess? It has a red light.
1625 You are required to enter a lock on your voyage. Information on the lock regulations, signals, and radio communications can be found in __________. Coast Pilot
1626 You are required to enter a lock on your voyage. Information on the lock regulations, signals, and radio communications can be found in __________.
 Coast Pilot
1627 It is unlawful to approach within how many yards of a northern right whale? 500
1628 Information on northern right whales can be found in __________. the Coast Pilot
1629 Which agency publishes the Light Lists? 
 United States Coast Guard
1630 Some lights used as aids to marine navigation have a red sector to indicate a danger area. The limits of a colored sector of a light are listed in the Light List in which of the following manners? True bearings as observed from the ship toward the light
1631 The Light List Does NOT contain information on __________. aeronautical lights useful for marine navigation
1632 Which publication lists Class I and II private aids to navigation in or along navigable waters of the United States? Light List
1633 Which describes privately maintained aids to navigation included in the Light List? 
 must conform to the standards of the U.S. Aids to Navigation System
1634 What is the major limitation in using the Sight Reduction Tables for Air Navigation Volume I (Pub. No. 249) for star sights? Only certain stars are included and sights must be limited to those stars.
1635 The principal advantage of NAVTEX radio warnings is that __________. they can be used by mariners who do not know Morse code
1636 What U.S. agency is responsible for NAVAREA warnings? National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency
1637 The maritime radio system consisting of a series of coast stations transmitting coastal warnings is called __________. NAVTEX
1638 Which publication indicates the HYDROLANTS or HYDROPACS issued since the previous working day? Daily Memorandum
1639 The Local Notice to Mariners is usually published __________. weekly
1640 Which is a weekly publication advising mariners of important matters affecting navigational safety? Notice to Mariners
1641 You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by __________. All of the above
1642 Which Naval Control of Shipping publication should be aboard your vessel? ATP-2, Volume II "Allied Control of Shipping Manual - Guide to Masters"
1643 Naval Control of Shipping (NCS) publications should be __________. All of the above
1644 After inventorying the Naval Control of Shipping publications you find there is no copy of ATP-2, Volume II "Allied Control of Shipping Manual - Bridge Supplement". You should ask for a replacement from the __________. Maritime Administration
1645 Naval authorities would NOT give orders about which of the following, when the vessel is under control of the Naval Control of Shipping Organization? 
 Schedules for loading cargo
1646 In a national emergency, when communicating via the Navy, messages are sent by precedence. A message designated ROUTINE will be delivered within __________. 6 hours
1647 In a national emergency, when communicating via the Navy, messages are sent by precedence. A message designated PRIORITY will be delivered within __________. 3 hours
1648 In a national emergency, when communicating via the Navy, messages are sent by precedence. A message designated FLASH will be delivered within __________. less than 10 minutes
1649 In a national emergency, when communicating via the Navy, messages are sent by precedence. A message designated FLASH will be delivered within __________. 10 minutes
1650 Allied Naval Control of Shipping (NCS) has been established. Which statement is TRUE? After Naval Control of Shipping has been established, permission to sail must come from local naval authorities or consular officers.
1651 Your ship is in a neutral port when full Naval Control of Shipping is established. You may expect to be boarded and instructed by a(n) __________. Any of the above
1652 Under defense plans, operation of electronic aids may be temporarily suspended with __________. no notice
1653 The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________. coastal anchorages
1654 A chart with a scale of 1:80,000 would fall into the category of a __________. coastal chart
1655 A sailing chart could have a scale of __________. 1:700,000
1656 On a gnomonic chart, a great circle track between Los Angeles and Brisbane will appear as a __________. straight line
1657 The only cylindrical chart projection widely used for navigation is the __________. 
 Mercator
1658 You wish to measure the distance on a Mercator chart between a point in latitude 4230'N and a point in latitude 4030'N. To measure 30 miles at a time you should set the points of the dividers at __________. 4115' and 4145'
1659 A vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers has the right of way over __________. None of the above
1660 A vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers, must keep out of the way of a power-driven vessel __________. All of the above
1661 A power-driven vessel operating in a narrow channel with a following current, on the Western Rivers, is meeting an upbound vessel. Which statement is TRUE? All of the above
1662 You are in charge of a power-driven vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers. You must keep out of the way of __________. All of the above
1663 Which is TRUE of a downbound power-driven vessel, when meeting an upbound vessel on the Western Rivers? All of the above
1664 The term "Western Rivers," when it refers to regulations requiring towing vessels to carry navigational-safety equipment, charts or maps, and publications, includes the __________. All of the above
1665 You are in a channel in U.S. waters near an industrial plant with a load/discharge facility for barges. You see an emergency rotating flashing light on the facility light up. What does this indicate? There is danger at the facility due to a fire or cargo release.
1666 A facility used for the discharge of a cargo of a particular hazard, such as chlorine, butane or ethane, must have what to warn water traffic of an immediate danger during fire or cargo release? A siren or rotating flashing light
1667 Which publication(s) must a towing vessel of 12 meters or more in length carry when operating on US waters other than the Western Rivers? All of the above
1668 A tow that is properly aligned to pass through a narrow opening between two bridge piers is "__________". in shape
1669 A current moving across a lock entrance toward the river or toward the dam is called a(n) __________. outdraft
1670 The "head of the bend" is the __________.

 top or upstream beginning of a bend
1671 What term is used to describe a tank barge constructed with the structural framing outside the cargo tank and the cargo tank plating separated from the shell plating? Double hull
1672 What term is used to describe a river barge designed to carry coal or any similar cargo not requiring weather protection? Open hopper
1673 You are pushing a tow ahead, at high speed, near the right hand bank of a canal. The forces affecting your towboat and tow will tend to __________. push the head of the tow away from, and pull the stern of the towboat into, the right hand bank
1674 A towboat has the same draft as the barges it is pushing ahead. If the distance from the stern of the towboat to the head of the tow is 800 feet, where is the approximate location of the pivot point of the unit? 250 feet from the head of the tow
1675 A towboat is pushing barges ahead at a dangerously fast speed when __________. water comes over the foredeck of the lead barges
1676 The proper way to approach a downstream lock where there is an outdraft is to be __________. close in to the land wall, keeping the stern in at all times
1677 What will cause the ARPA to emit a visual alarm, audible alarm, or both? 
 A tracked target entering your preset CPA-TCPA limits
1678 Your ARPA has been tracking a target and has generated the targets course and speed. The radar did not receive a target echo on its last two scans due to the weather. What should you expect under these circumstances? 
 The ARPA will generate data as if the target was still being tracked by radar.
1679 Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate the __________. speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
1680 Your ARPA has automatic speed inputs from the log. Due to currents, the log is indicating a faster speed than the speed over the ground. What should you expect under these circumstances? The targets true course vector will be in error.
1681 Which ARPA data should you use in order to determine if a close quarters situation will develop with a target vessel? Relative track information
1682 Your ARPA has two guard zones. What is the purpose of the inner guard zone? Warn of small targets that are initially detected closer than the outer guard zone
1683 With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which information is expected to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds? Ship's heading
1684 With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which information is required to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds? Course over ground and MMSI
1685 Automatic identification systems (AIS) are expected to broadcast all of the following information EXCEPT __________. port of origin
1686 While underway, a vessel over 100,000 gross tons with an automatic identification systems (AIS) is expected to broadcast all of the following information every 1 to 10 seconds EXCEPT __________. name of vessel
1687 Which information must automatic identification systems (AIS) automatically provide to appropriately equipped shore stations, vessels and aircraft? All of the above
1688 With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS) which of the following information is broadcast every one to ten seconds? Navigational status
1689 With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which information is required to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds? None of the above
1690 With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which information is expected to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds? All of the above
1691 Automatic identification systems (AIS) are required to __________. All of the above
1692 The short text messaging feature of the automatic identification system (AIS) allows for messages of up to __________. 
 158 characters
1693 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS)? 
 AIS is a short-range VHF-FM system that automatically broadcasts a vessel's position, course, speed and other safety related information to all those with similar equipment in the area.
1694 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic identification systems (AIS)? 
 AIS can be used to make passing arrangements via ship-to-ship text messaging but a vessel operator is not relieved from the requirement to sound whistle signals or make arrangements via bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone.
1695 Yesterday your chronometer read 11h 59m 58s at the 1200 GMT time tick. Today your chronometer reads 12h 00m 00s at the 1200 time tick. What is the chronometer rate? 
 +2s
1696 Yesterday your chronometer read 02h 59m 58s at the 1500 GMT time tick. Today the chronometer reads 03h 00m 02s at the 1500 GMT time tick. What is the chronometer error? 02s fast
1697 Chronometer error may be found by __________. 
 All of the above
1698 When using a mechanical (windup type) marine chronometer, how often should it be reset? Only when it is overhauled
1699 Yesterday your chronometer read 11h 59m 59s at 1200 GMT time tick. Today the chronometer reads 12h 00m 01s at the 1200 GMT tick. What is the chronometer rate? 
 +2s
1700 The reaction of a gyrocompass to an applied force is known as __________. precession
1701 Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass by __________. All of the above
1702 The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to compensate for __________. induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
1703 Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel? Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle
1704 The Flinders bar on a magnetic compass compensates for the __________. induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
1705 Which statement about the Flinders bar of the magnetic compass is CORRECT? It compensates for the error caused by the vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field.
1706 The principal purpose of magnetic compass adjustment is to __________. 
 reduce the deviation as much as possible
1707 The Flinders bar and the quadrantal spheres should be tested for permanent magnetism at what interval? Annually
1708 If the magnetic heading is greater than the compass heading, the deviation is __________. east
1709 The difference between magnetic heading and compass heading is called __________. deviation
1710 Deviation is the angle between the __________. magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card
1711 Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in __________. geographical location
1712 When crossing the magnetic equator the __________. heeling magnet should be inverted
1713 What are the only magnetic compass correctors that correct for both permanent and induced effects of magnetism? Heeling magnets
1714 The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading by __________. compass error
1715 The chart indicates the variation was 345'E in 1988, and the annual change is increasing 6'. If you use the chart in 1991 how much variation should you apply? 403'E
1716 Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass by __________. All of the above
1717 The MOST important feature of the material used for making the binnacle of a standard magnetic compass is that it is __________. nonmagnetic
1718 Which would influence a magnetic compass? All of the above
1719 The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in polarity due to __________. All of the above
1720 Which would influence a magnetic compass? All of the above
1721 Magnets are placed in horizontal trays in the compass binnacle to compensate for the __________. permanent magnetism of the vessel
1722 The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of the Earth's total magnetic force. This magnetic force is GREATEST at the __________. magnetic equator
1723 Induced magnetism is found in __________. soft iron
1724 The line connecting the points of the earth's surface where there is no dip is the __________. magnetic equator
1725 By convention, the south pole of a magnet is painted __________. blue
1726 What is an advantage of the magnetic compass aboard vessels? It is reliable due to it's essential simplicity.
1727 What is the compass course of a vessel heading NNW? 337.5
1728 Which of the following is a compass card without north-seeking capability that is used for relative bearings? pelorus
1729 How many points are there in a compass card? 32
1730 A vessel heading NNW is on a course of __________. 337.5
1731 A Doppler speed log indicates speed through the water __________. in the volume reverberation mode
1732 If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the minimum data required by IMO/IHO, to include all of the following EXCEPT __________. tidal currents
1733 Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as required by IMO/IHO? All of the above
1734 Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS? All of the above
1735 Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS? Ship hydrodynamic information
1736 The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic navigational chart (ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2) the updates to the ENC by appropriate means, and (3) the additional data added by the mariner, is called the __________. system electronic navigational chart
1737 The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS display and consists of information which is required at all times in all geographic areas and under all circumstances is the __________. display base information
1738 Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest edition of information originated by a government-authorized hydrographic office and conform to the standards of (the) __________. International Hydrographic Organization
1739 ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? All of the above
1740 Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals? 
 All of the above
1741 Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to perform? All of the above
1742 An Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) will drop off a target's vector if more than __________ minutes elapse between each manual plot. 
 o 10
1743 Electronic Plotting Aid (EPA) has which built in functions? All of the above
1744 When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate __________. two depth readings
1745 The speed of sound in water is approximately __________. 4.5 times its speed in air
1746 When using a recording depth finder in the open ocean, what phenomena is most likely to produce a continuous trace that may not be from the actual ocean bottom? Echoes from a deep scattering layer
1747 When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites that your receiver is locked onto? Horizontal Dilution of Precision
1748 With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving the same accuracy as a military receiver if __________. selective availability is set to zero
1749 Which statement concerning GPS is TRUE? It may be suspended without warning.
1750 Most GPS receivers use the Doppler shift of the carrier phase to compute __________. Speed
1751 What does not contribute to the commercial GPS receiver position error? Ship's speed
1752 With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________. All of the above
1753 With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________. a warning of loss of position
1754 A hand held instrument used to measure distances between objects and the ship is a __________. stadimeter
1755 Illustration D011NG below represents the geographic location of a vessel and the radar presentation at the same time. Which statement is TRUE? A tangent bearing of the headland to the south-southeast should be corrected by adding one-half of the beam width.
1756 When using the radar for navigating __________. 
 and using ranges, the most rapidly changing range should be measured first
1757 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 6 knots on course 133T, and bears 042 at 105 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 10 knots to intercept vessel A? 079
1758 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 5.5 knots on course 033T, and bears 284T at 43 miles from you. What is the course to steer and running time at 16 knots to intercept vessel A? 303, 2h 32m
1759 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 6 knots on course 133T, and bears 343T at 92 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 9 knots to intercept vessel A? 003
1760 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course 233T, and bears 264T, 68 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 13 Knots? 7h 37m
1761 You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 5.5 knots on course 033T, and bears 248T at 64 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 13 knots? 3h 44m
1762 You have been observing your radar screen and notice that a contact on the screen has remained in the same position, relative to you, for several minutes. Your vessel is making 10 knots through the water. Which statement is TRUE? The contact is on the same course and speed as your vessel.
1763 When the index and horizon mirrors of a properly adjusted sextant are at an angle of 45 to each other, the arc reads __________. 90
1764 A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a __________. 
 negative correction
1765 In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the __________. horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set at zero
1766 Which of these sextant errors is nonadjustable? All of the above
1767 While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ship's fog horn 4 1/2 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore? 825 yards
1768 While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ship's fog horn 4 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore? 730 yards
1769 A warm air mass is characterized by __________. stability
1770 An air mass is termed "warm" if __________. the ground over which it moves is cooler than the air
1771 Air temperature varies with __________. All of the above
1772 The process by which the temperature and/or moisture characteristics of an air mass changes is called __________. modification
1773 In North America the majority of the weather systems move from __________. west to east
1774 Which of the listed properties does warm air possess? All of the above
1775 Ascending and descending air masses with different temperatures is part of an important heat transmitting process in our atmosphere called __________. convection
1776 Air masses near the earth's surface __________. All of the above
1777 According to Buys Ballot's Law, when an observer in the Southern Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, the center of the low pressure is located to the __________. south-southwest
1778 If an observer in the Northern Hemisphere faces the surface wind, the center of low pressure is to his _________. right, slightly behind him
1779 What enables you to estimate the bearing of a storm's center? Buys Ballot's Law
1780 On a clear, warm day, you notice the approach of a tall cumulus cloud. The cloud top has hard well defined edges and rain is falling from the dark lower edge. Should this cloud pass directly overhead __________. it will be preceded by a sudden increase in wind speed
1781 Cumulus clouds that have undergone vertical development and have become cumulonimbus in form, indicate __________. probable thunderstorm activity
1782 A sign of thunderstorm development is a cumulus cloud __________. All of the above
1783 From which type of cloud can a tornado or waterspout develop? Cumulonimbus
1784 Clouds with the prefix "nimbo" in their name __________. are rain clouds
1785 Altocumulus clouds are defined as __________. middle clouds
1786 High clouds, composed of small white flakes or scaly globular masses, and often banded together to form a "mackerel sky", would be classified as __________. cirrocumulus
1787 Which cloud commonly produces a halo about the Sun or Moon? Cirrostratus
1788 Cloud formations are minimal when the __________. surface temperature and temperature aloft are equal
1789 Which type of weather could you expect soon after seeing "hook" or "comma" shaped cirrus clouds? Rain with the approach of a warm front
1790 What occurs when rising air cools to the dew point? Clouds form
1791 The presence of stratus clouds and a dying wind will usually result in __________. thick fog
1792 Fog is formed when __________. All of the above
1793 Fog generally clears when the __________. All of the above
1794 How is an occluded front represented on a weather map? purple line
1795 Your vessel is enroute from Japan to Seattle and is located at position I on the weather map in illustration D013NG below. You should experience which weather condition? Thundershowers
1796 When cold air displaces warm air you have a(n) __________. cold front
1797 On a working copy of a weather map, a cold front is represented by what color line? Blue
1798 On a working copy of a weather map what color is the line that represents a stationary front? Alternating red and blue
1799 A cold front moving in from the northwest can produce __________. thunderstorms, hail, and then rapid clearing
1800 Which of the following typically happens to the barometric pressure after a cold front passes? rises, often quite rapidly, with clearing skies
1801 Which statement is TRUE when comparing cold and warm fronts? Cold fronts are more violent and of shorter duration.
1802 Which type of front forms when a cold front overtakes and forces a warm front upwards? An occluded front
1803 Brief, violent showers frequently accompanied by thunder and lightning are usually associated with __________. passage of a cold front
1804 What is true about a front? All of the above
1805 The first indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be __________. high cirrus clouds gradually changing to cirrostratus and then to altostratus
1806 What is typical of warm front weather conditions? Steady precipitation
1807 Which of the symbols shown in illustration D018NG below represents an occluded front? D
1808 If you are caught in the left semicircle of a tropical storm, in the Southern Hemisphere, you should bring the wind __________. on the port bow, and make as much way as possible
1809 When your vessel is on or near the path of an approaching tropical storm the __________. All of the above
1810 In the Northern Hemisphere, the right half of the storm is known as the dangerous semicircle because __________. All of the above
1811 When your vessel is on the storm track but behind the storm's center the __________. All of the above
1812 The National Weather Service differentiates between small craft, gale, whole gale, and hurricane warnings by the __________. wind speed forecasted
1813 The first cloud formations you can use to indicate the bearing of the center of a hurricane or tropical storm are __________. the point of convergence of the cirrus clouds
1814 Which kind of conditions would you observe as the eye of a storm passes over your vessel's position? Huge waves approaching from all directions, clearing skies, light winds, and an extremely low barometer
1815 A vessel entering the eye of a hurricane should expect __________. All of the above
1816 In the Northern Hemisphere, the largest waves or swells created by a typhoon or hurricane will be located __________. forward and to the right of its course
1817 Ocean swells originating from a typhoon can move ahead of it at speeds near __________. 50 knots
1818 The hurricane season in the North Atlantic Ocean reaches its peak during the month of __________. September
1819 Hurricanes may move in any direction. However, it is rare and generally of short duration when a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere moves toward the __________. southeast
1820 What is the average speed of the movement of a hurricane following the recurvature of its track? 20 to 30 knots
1821 How can you estimate the position of a tropical storm's center? All of the above
1822 You are underway on course 050T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 080T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265T at 22 knots. What course should you steer at 12 knots to have the maximum CPA? 208
1823 You are underway on course 050T and your maximum speed is 13 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100T, 120 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 275T at 25 knots. What course should you steer at 13 knots to have the maximum CPA? 333
1824 You are underway on course 120T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 150T, 120 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 295T at 20 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA? 117 miles
1825 You are underway on course 050T and your maximum speed is 11 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 070T, 80 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 270T at 19 knots. What course should you steer at 11 knots to have the maximum CPA? 215
1826 The region containing 3/4 of the mass of the atmosphere and the region to which are confined such phenomena as clouds, storms, precipitation and changing weather conditions is called __________. troposphere
1827 The Earth's irregular heating is caused by __________. 
 All of the above
1828 What is the primary source of the earth's weather? The sun
1829 Weather patterns in the Gulf area of the United States are _____. those of a transition zone between tropical and a temperate area
1830 A light, feathery deposit of ice caused by the sublimation of water vapor directly into the crystalline form, on objects whose temperatures are below freezing, is called __________. frost
1831 Which of the following is NOT a form of precipitation? frost
1832 Which condition(s) is(are) necessary for the formation of dew? All of the above
1833 Atmospheric pressure may be measured with a(n) __________. All of the above
1834 The standard atmospheric pressure in millibars is __________. 1013.2
1835 A generally circular low pressure area is called a(n) __________. cyclone
1836 The wind direction around a low pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is __________. counterclockwise and inward
1837 A barometer showing falling pressure indicates the approach of a __________. low pressure system
1838 In low latitudes, the low(s) of the diurnal variation of pressure occur(s) at __________. 0400 and 1600
1839 When your barometer reading changes from 30.25 to 30.05 in a 12-hour period it indicates __________. little or no immediate change
1840 Two well-developed high pressure areas may be separated by a __________. trough of low pressure
1841 Two well-developed low pressure areas may be separated by a __________. ridge of higher pressure
1842 Which weather system produces strong cold winds called "Northers" during the winter months in the Gulf of Mexico? Both A and B
1843 The dry-bulb temperature is 78F (26C) and the wet-bulb temperature is 68F (20C). What is the relative humidity? illustration D008DG 60 (%)
1844 The expression "the air is saturated" means __________. the relative humidity is 100%
1845 As the temperature of an air mass decreases, the __________. relative humidity increases
1846 While upbound through Memphis, the weather report on the TV news indicates that a cold front will cross western Kentucky and Tennessee the next morning. What weather should accompany this front? Gusting winds shifting to the northwest with thunderstorms
1847 Your vessel is on course 270T, speed 10 knots. The apparent wind is from 10 off the port bow, speed 30 knots. From which direction is the true wind? 255T
1848 Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, at 1200 ZT on 31 July, your position is LAT 2433'N, LONG 17305'W. You are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. How should you encode the first three groups after the call sign if you estimate the wind? 
 01003, 99245, 71731
1849 Using the surface analysis in illustration D049NG below, what change in the wind direction could be expected at position "D" if the low were moving northeasterly? 
 Veering to the west
1850 Using the surface analysis in illustration D049NG below, what wind speed is reported in position C? 30 knots
1851 You are steaming in the open ocean of the North Pacific between the Aleutian Chain and Hawaii. A warning broadcast indicates that an earthquake has occurred in the Aleutians and has generated a tsunami that is predicted to hit Hawaii. What action is necessary for the ship's safety? No special action as tsunamis are inconspicuous in the open ocean
1852 The height of a wave is the vertical distance __________. from crest to trough
1853 Fetch is the __________. stretch of water over which a wave-forming wind blows
1854 In mid-ocean, the characteristics of a wave are determined by three factors. What is NOT one of these factors? Effect of the moon's gravity
1855 The largest waves (heaviest chop) will usually develop where the wind blows __________. against the flow of the current
1856 Swell is the rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to __________. distant winds
1857 The chart of a beach area shows a very steep slope to the underwater beach bottom. Which type of breakers can be expected when trying to land a boat on this beach? Surging
1858 The chart of a beach area shows a very flat slope to the underwater beach bottom. What type of breakers can be expected when trying to land a boat on this beach? Spilling
1859 Freezing salt water spray should be anticipated when the air temperature drops below what temperature? 28F (-2.2C)
1860 A microbarograph is a precision instrument that provides a __________. charted record of atmospheric pressure over time
1861 A sylphon cell is a part of a __________. barograph
1862 A sling psychrometer is used to measure __________. dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures
1863 What instrument measures wind velocity? Anemometer
1864 In a microbarograph, the pen should be checked and the inkwell filled __________. each time the chart is changed
1865 Atmospheric pressure may be measured with a(n) __________. All of the above
1866 Which of the following statements is FALSE? A psychrometer measures wind pressure.
1867 For an accurate barometer check, you would __________. check it against radio or National Weather Service reports of the immediate vicinity
1868 The passing of a low pressure system can be determined by periodically checking the __________. barometer
1869 Aneroid barometers are usually calibrated to indicate atmospheric pressure in __________. inches of mercury and millibars
1870 You should log all barometer readings taken at sea __________. All of the above
1871 The velocity of the apparent wind can be less than the true wind and from the same direction, if certain conditions are present. One condition is that the __________. true wind is from dead astern
1872 The velocity of the apparent wind can be more than the true wind, and come from the same direction, if certain conditions are present. One condition is that the __________. true wind must be from dead ahead
1873 Lines drawn through points on the Earth having the same atmospheric pressure are known as __________. isobars
1874 At what angle to the isobars do surface winds blow over the open sea? About 15
1875 On a weather map, a large letter "H" means __________. 
 a high pressure area with cool, dry air, and fair weather
1876 Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel? Wave period
1877 In a weather report, the term "visibility" expresses __________. the distance in miles at which prominent objects are identifiable
1878 As a Merchant Marine Officer you are expected to be able to do which of the following? All of the above
1879 Weather information is available from __________. All of the above
1880 Static on your AM radio may be __________. an indication of nearby thunderstorm activity
1881 While taking weather observations, you determine that the wind is coming from the west. In the weather log, you would record the wind direction as __________. 270
1882 It is desirable that a vessel encountering hurricane or typhoon conditions sends weather reports to the closest meteorological service at least every __________. 3 hours
1883 When within 300 miles of a named tropical storm or hurricane, it is standard practice to send weather reports every __________. 3 hours
1884 Weather forecast messages are usually __________. 
 broadcast in plain language
1885 In illustration D009NG below, your position X is at LAT 35S. Which winds are you experiencing? Northeasterly
1886 Where are the prevailing westerlies of the Southern Hemisphere located? Between 30 and 60 latitude
1887 The wind flow from the horse latitudes to the doldrums is deflected due to __________. Coriolis force
1888 The region of high pressure extending around the Earth at about 35N latitude is called the __________. horse latitudes
1889 Which of the following is associated with consistently high barometric pressure? The horse latitudes
1890 Air circulation is caused or affected by __________. 
 All of the above
1891 The force resulting from the earth's rotation that causes winds to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere is called __________. Coriolis effect
1892 A hurricane is characterized by winds of __________. 64 knots or greater
1893 A local wind which occurs during the daytime and is caused by the different rates of warming of land and water is a __________. sea breeze
1894 A sea breeze is a wind __________. that blows towards an island during the day
1895 A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the Pacific coast of Mexico, particularly during the colder months, is called __________. Tehuantepecer
1896 In the Northern Hemisphere, a wind that shifts counterclockwise is a __________. backing wind
1897 A "Norther" in the Gulf of Mexico is __________. All of the above
1898 Polaris is part of what constellation? Ursa Minor
1899 Under ideal viewing conditions, the dimmest star that can be seen with the unaided eye is of what magnitude? Sixth
1900 A large group of stars revolving around a center is known as a __________. galaxy
1901 Mars will not be visible __________. at conjunction
1902 What celestial body may sometimes be observed in daylight? Venus
1903 The largest of the navigational planets is __________. Jupiter
1904 The parallel of latitude at 2327'N is the __________. Tropic of Cancer
1905 The parallel of latitude at 6633'N is the __________. Arctic Circle
1906 The spinning of a celestial body about its axis is known as __________. rotation
1907 "Rotation" is the __________. spinning of a celestial body about its axis
1908 A celestial body's complete orbit around another body is __________. a revolution
1909 "Revolution" is the __________. motion of a celestial body in its orbit
1910 "Space motion" is the __________. motion of a body in the solar system relative to the stars
1911 The path that the Sun appears to take among the stars is the __________. ecliptic
1912 The First Point of Aries is the position of the Sun on the celestial sphere on or about __________. March 21
1913 The Moon and Sun are in line over your meridian. Tomorrow when the Sun is over your meridian, the Moon will be __________. about 12East of the meridian
1914 The Moon is subject to four types of libration. Which of the following is NOT one of these types of libration? Vertical libration
1915 What condition exists at perigee? The Moon is closest to the Earth.
1916 The major problem with Moon sights is the __________. lack of a well defined limb during certain phases and positions in the sky
1917 In low latitudes, the new Moon will always rise at about __________. sunrise
1918 The Sun's center may be coincident with both the celestial equator and the observer's prime vertical circle when __________. its declination is zero
1919 In which of the following does the arc of a great circle pass through a body and the celestial poles? hour circle
1920 In the horizon system of coordinates what is the equivalent to the meridians on the Earth? Vertical circles
1921 Sidereal hour angle is always __________. All of the above
1922 The angle that is measured westward from the first point of Aries to the hour circle of the body along the celestial equator is the __________. sidereal hour angle
1923 The zenith is the point on the celestial sphere that is __________. directly over the observer
1924 In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to latitude on the Earth? Altitude
1925 In the horizon system of coordinates what is the equivalent to the celestial equator of the celestial equator system? Horizon
1926 In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the parallels of declination of the celestial equator system? Parallels of altitude
1927 The angle measured eastward from the vernal equinox along the celestial equator often expressed in time units is the __________. right ascension
1928 The path of a celestial body during its daily apparent revolution around the Earth is called its __________. diurnal circle
1929 A parallel of latitude other than the equator is a __________. small circle
1930 The angle at the pole measured through 180From the prime meridian to the meridian of a point is known as __________. longitude
1931 What great circle is always needed to form the astronomical triangle? Celestial Meridian
1932 The diameter of the Sun and Moon as seen from the Earth varies slightly but averages about __________. 32'
1933 Where do you find the semidiameter correction to be used to correct sextant observations of the stars? No semidiameter correction is used.
1934 A phase correction may be applicable to correct the sextant altitude correction of __________. third magnitude stars only
1935 The correction tables in the front of the Nautical Almanac for use with sun sights do NOT include the effects of __________. irradiation
1936 The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is indicated by the __________. equation of time
1937 What is the equivalent of 8329.6' in time units? 5h 33m 58.4s
1938 What is the equivalent of 048' in time units? 3 min. 12 sec.
1939 What is the equivalent of 436' in time units? 18 min. 24 sec.
1940 The sidereal day begins __________. when the first point of Aries is over the upper branch of the reference meridian
1941 A sidereal day is shorter than a solar day. This difference is due to __________. the use of different reference points
1942 The lunar day is __________. longer than a solar day
1943 The standard meridian for the time zone +1 is __________. 15W
1944 The standard time meridian for zone description -1 is __________. 15E
1945 If the GMT is 1500, the time at 75E longitude is __________. 2000
1946 On November 1st the zone time is 1700 EST (ZD +5) in LONG 75W. What is the corresponding zone time and date in LONG 135E? 0700, November 2nd
1947 A ship is in longitude 5400'W on a true course of 270. The ship's clocks are on the proper time zone. At what longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain the proper zone time? 6730'W
1948 Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the zone time and date if the Greenwich time and date are 2152, 10 January? 1052, 11 January
1949 The standard time meridian for description +12 is __________. 180.0
1950 The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -10 and -11 is __________. 15730'E
1951 The LMT of sunrise on the standard meridian is 0552. Your longitude is 9915'E. What is your ZT of sunrise? 0615
1952 The change in the length of the day becomes greater as latitude increases because of the __________. increased obliquity of the Sun's diurnal circle
1953 Which condition exists at the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere? The Southern Hemisphere is having winter.
1954 The mean sun used to measure time moves __________. along the celestial equator at 15 per hour
1955 During daylight savings time the meridian used for determining the time is located farther __________. east
1956 Daylight savings time is a form of zone time that adopts the time __________. one zone to the east
1957 Daylight savings time is a form of zone time that adopts the time __________. one zone to the east
1958 Universal time (UTI) is another name for __________. Greenwich mean time
1959 You take a bearing of 176 of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix? 272
1960 You take a bearing of 191 and 313 to two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix? 249
1961 You take a bearing of 086 of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix? 196
1962 You take a bearing of 264 of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix?
 182
1963 You take a bearing of 043 and 169 of two objects. What bearing of a third object will give the best fix? 102
1964 You take bearings of 313T and 076T on two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix? 187T
1965 In order for a star to be used for a sight at lower transit, the star must __________. be circumpolar
1966 An amplitude of the Sun in high latitudes __________. is most accurate when the Sun's center is observed on the visible horizon
1967 What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 23227'? 12733'E
1968 The line of position should be plotted as a circle around the GP of the body when the Ho exceeds what minimum value? 87
1969 What is the major problem with taking high altitude sun observations? It is difficult to establish the point where the sextant is vertical to the horizon.
1970 Discounting slip, if your vessel is turning RPM for 10 knots and making good a speed of 10 knots, the current could be __________. slack
1971 You are heading in a northerly direction when you come across an easterly current. Your vessel will __________. be pushed to starboard
1972 At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE? The drift is 0.25 knot.
1973 At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile west of your DR. Which statement is TRUE? The set is 270, drift 0.25 knot.
1974 At 0000 you fix your position and change course to 270T. At 0030 you again fix your position, and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE? The set is 090, drift 1.0 knot.
1975 Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used in relation to a fix? Known compass error
1976 You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears 185T. You steady up on a compass course of 180 with the range in line dead ahead. This indicates that you(r) __________. compass has some easterly error
1977 The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the __________.
 track line
1978 You should plot a dead reckoning position after every __________. All of the above
1979 You are taking bearings on two known objects ashore. The BEST fix is obtained when the angle between the lines of position is __________. 90
1980 Which position includes the effects of wind and current? Estimated position
1981 A chart position enclosed by a semi-circle is a(n) __________. dead reckoning position
1982 A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n) __________. 
 estimated position
1983 Lines of position may be __________. All of the above
1984 A line of position is __________. a line on some point of which the vessel may be presumed to be located
1985 A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in line is called a(n) __________. range line
1986 When is the rhumb line distance the same as the great circle distance? Course 180T when you cross the equator
1987 What defines a great circle? The intersection of a plane passing through the center of a sphere.
1988 A great circle crosses the equator at 173E. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude? 7W
1989 A great circle will intersect the equator at how many degrees of longitude apart? 180
1990 Your vessel has changed course and is heading 285T, you are on the charted range and it appears as in illustration D048NG below. After several minutes the range appears as in illustration D047NG below and your heading is still 
285T. What does this indicate? north-setting current
1991 You are on course 357T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 180. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse? 177
1992 You are on course 277T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 045. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse? 322
1993 A nautical mile is a distance of approximately how much greater than or less than a statute mile? 1/7 greater
1994 You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 309T. You are steering 306T and have the range in sight as shown in illustration D048NG below. Which action should you take? Immediately alter course to the right to bring the range in line.
1995 You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 040T. You are steering 036T. The range is in sight as shown in illustration D047NG below, and is closing. Which action should you take? Continue on course until the range is closed, then alter course to the right.
1996 You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 133T. You are steering 129T and have the range in sight as shown in illustration D048NG below. Which action should you take? Immediately alter course to the right to bring the range in line.
1997 You are outbound in a channel marked by a range astern. The range line is 133T. You are steering 315T and have the range in sight as shown in illustration D048NG below. What action should you take? Come left to close the range then when on the range steer 313T.
1998 Your vessel is entering port when you change course and steady up on a range with the lights in line. After a few minutes you observe the range lights as shown in illustration D047NG below. How should your heading be altered? left, and when the range lights are in line again, steer to keep them in line fine on the starboard bow
1999 What is the relative bearing of an object dead astern? 180
2000 What is the relative bearing of an object sighted dead ahead? 
 000
2001 What is the relative bearing of an object on the port beam? 270
2002 You are underway in a vessel with a draft of 6.0 feet. You are in an area where the charted depth of the water is 4 fathoms. You would expect the depth of water beneath your keel to be approximately __________. 18 feet
2003 When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an indeterminate position will result in which situation? A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.
2004 If several navigational lights are visible at the same time, each one may be positively identified by checking all of the following EXCEPT what against the Light List? Intensity
2005 When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be considered?
 The buoy may not be in the charted position.
2006 When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation? Only when fixed aids are not available
2007 When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is in line above the lower light, you should __________. continue on the present course
2008 When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is above the lower light you should __________. continue on the present course
2009 You are on course 303T. To check the speed of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 123
2010 You are on course 209T. In order to check the longitude of your vessel, you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 270
2011 You are on course 146T. To check the speed of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 146
2012 You are on course 061T. To check the longitude of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing? 090
2013 A star is observed at lower transit. The line of position derived from this sight is __________. a latitude line
2014 What must the owner or Master do if any of the towing vessel's required navigational safety equipment fails during a voyage? All of the above
2015 Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning radio equipment on towing vessels of 26 feet or more in length? All of the above.
2016 Which towing vessel(s) is/are exempt from carrying radar? All of the above
2017 Towing vessels of more than 39.4 feet in length must carry charts or maps __________. All of the above
2018 The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that all tests and inspections of gear take place and are logged __________. before embarking on a voyage of more than 24 hours
2019 The test of a towing vessel's steering gear control system includes each item EXCEPT __________. timing the movement of the rudder from hard over to hard over
2020 Which installed equipment must be tested and logged when a new Master assumes command? All of the above must be tested
2021 Which information is NOT required to be posted in or near the wheelhouse? A diagram of advance and transfer for turns of 30, 60, 90 and 120 at full speed with maximum rudder and constant power
2022 As the South Equatorial Current approaches the east coast of Africa, it divides with the main part flowing south to form the warm __________. Agulhas Current
2023 The Brazil Current flows in which general direction? Southwesterly
2024 What current flows southward along the west coast of the United States and causes extensive fog in that area? California Current
2025 The movement of water away from the shore or downstream is called a(n) __________. ebb current
2026 What describes an ebb current? Horizontal movement of the water away from the land following high tide
2027 In order to get the maximum benefit from the Gulf Stream, on a voyage between Houston and Philadelphia, you should navigate __________. about 75 miles east of Ormond Beach, FL
2028 The current that, in many respects, is similar to the Gulf Stream is the __________. Kuroshio
2029 The Humboldt Current flows in which direction? North
2030 The steady current circling the globe at about 60S is the __________. West Wind Drift
2031 The West Wind Drift is located __________. near 60S
2032 Ocean currents are well defined and __________. remain fairly constant in direction and velocity throughout the year
2033 You are bound for Baltimore via Cape Henry on a 15 knot ship. If the flood at Chesapeake Bay entrance begins at 1800 EST (ZD +5), at what time would you depart from the Chesapeake Bay entrance to have the most favorable current? 2030 hours
2034 Where will you find information about the duration of slack water? Tidal Current Tables
2035 Information about the direction and velocity of rotary tidal currents is found in the __________. Tidal Current Tables
2036 Where can information about the currents for the Pacific Coast of the U. S. be obtained? Tidal Current Tables
2037 Data relating to the direction and velocity of rotary tidal currents can be found in the __________. Tidal Current Tables
2038 The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is __________. predicted in Tidal Current Tables
2039 How many slack tidal currents usually occur each day on the east coast of the United States? Four
2040 To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reach an entrance or strait at which time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable current? 30 minutes before
2041 The velocity of a rotary tidal current will increase when the Moon is __________. All of the above
2042 When the moon is new or full, which type of tides occur? Spring
2043 An important lunar cycle affecting the tidal cycle is called the nodal period. How long is this cycle? 19 years
2044 Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides? They have a decreased range from normal.
2045 Mean high water is the average height of __________. all high waters
2046 The diurnal inequality of the tides is caused by __________. the declination of the Moon
2047 What is the definition of height of tide? The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water at any time
2048 The difference between the heights of low and high tide is the __________. range