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All of the latest questions and illustrations on "Engine Room General Subjects" are in the Online Study.

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Engine Room General Subjects Page 1

 

A In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following documents would be the most useful in dealing with a vessel oil spill resulting in a discharge into navigable waters? Shipboard oil pollution emergency plan Transfer procedures Oil record book Declaration of inspection New General Subjects Questions 2016
D In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type III Marine Sanitation Device"? A device that produces a fecal coli form bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter. A device that produces a fecal coli form bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. A device that produces a fecal coli form bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage or any waste derived from sewage. New General Subjects Questions 2016
C As a chief engineer aboard a vessel that has just been dry-docked and is being connected to shipyard facilities, what would you consider to be your FIRST priority? Ascertain that the sewage system shorelines are properly connected. Make a walkthrough of the dry hull looking for/at any hull cracks, propeller(s) and rudder. Ascertain that the electrical shore power is connected with proper phasing. Ascertain that the shipyard's cooling waterlines are properly connected. New General Subjects Questions 2016
B In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by gain? The signal in a controller that is obtained by subtracting the measured value of the controlled value from the set point. The ratio of the amplitude of the output signal of a component divided by the amplitude of the input signal. The progressive reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component. The undesirable characteristic in which the error of a control system oscillates with constant or increasing amplitude. New General Subjects Questions 2016
C In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter D (Tank Vessels), what is the minimum allowable flashpoint for a fuel to be burned in a steam boiler? 100F 120F 140F 160F New General Subjects Questions 2016
A How would you prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the steering system using the illustrated actuator? Illustration GS-0116 secure the valves in the supply and return lines tighten the locking screws in item "S" screw in the locking pin, item "J" tighten the locking pins, item "H" at each position of item "I" to keep the rudder from swinging New General Subjects Questions 2016
C In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type I Marine Sanitation Device"? A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter. A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage or any waste derived from sewage. New General Subjects Questions 2016
A In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), it is the duty of the chief engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until __________. that particular supply of oil is exhausted return to the first U.S. port where upon it must be sent ashore for chemical analysis and the findings submitted to the nearest officer in charge, Marine Inspection it can be sent ashore to the proper oil company personnel for testing and the results entered in the Oil Record Book, CG-480 the voyage is completed New General Subjects Questions 2016
C In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following statements is true concerning the signature of the Oil Record Book? The officer in charge of the engineering watch signs each entry occurring on the watch, and the chief engineer signs each page. The officer in charge of the navigational watch signs each entry occurring on the watch, and the master signs each page. The person in charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the master signs each page. The person in charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the chief engineer signs each page. New General Subjects Questions 2016
B You are at a shipyard in dry-dock. New anodes for the impressed current system are being installed. The yard workers are installing the capastic layer on the hull. What is the primary function of the capastic epoxy? It protects the anode from impact with foreign objects. It prevents shorting of the anode current to the hull and aids in a wider current distribution to the hull. It raises the anode off the hull so as to improve the range of the anode current. It protects the hull coating from excessive current. New General Subjects Questions 2016
C Which of the fasteners in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure "C" in illustration GS-0015? figure A figure F figure K figure D New General Subjects Questions 2016
B Bridge orders must be promptly carried out and a record kept. What orders must be recorded? Bridge orders need not be recorded Changes in shaft RPM or direction Changes in shaft RPM only Changes in shaft direction only New General Subjects Questions 2016
D In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter E (Load Lines), an international and coastwise load line assignment and certificate issued to a vessel by the American Bureau of Shipping is valid for a period of __________. 1 year 2 years 4 years 5 years New General Subjects Questions 2016
C In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature? Type I Type II Type III Type IV New General Subjects Questions 2016
A As a root cause analysis tool, what is the primary disadvantage to the fishbone (also known as the cause-and-effect) graphical approach to root cause analysis? The fishbone diagram does not show any cause sequences leading to failure. The fishbone diagram does not allow for more than one potential cause to be considered. The fishbone diagram does not attempt to group possible causes into categories. The fishbone diagram does not attempt to identify all the possible causes. New General Subjects Questions 2016
B A self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit is required to have its emergency storage batteries tested in accordance with 46 CFR regulations applicable to tests, drills, and inspections for MODU operations. What are the test criteria? The emergency batteries are to be tested once each 6 months and furnish power to the actual connected loads for a period of not less than 18 continuous hours. The emergency batteries are to be tested once each 6 months and furnish power to the actual connected loads for a period of not less than 2 continuous hours. The emergency batteries are to be tested once each 6 months and furnish power to the actual connected loads for a period of not less than 6 continuous hours. The emergency batteries are to be tested once each month and furnish power to the actual connected loads for a period of not less than 2 continuous hours. New General Subjects Questions 2016
B Which statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors? Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing temporary speed droop. Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing temporary speed droop. Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing permanent speed droop. Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing permanent speed droop. New General Subjects Questions 2016
C A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abruptly slows towards the end of its stroke, and then continues to creep to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following represents the probable cause? The cushion adjustment needle valve is open too far. The rod wiper is jammed in the cushion spear. The cushion adjustment needle valve is not open sufficiently. The exhaust oil is flowing freely through the cushion nose. New General Subjects Questions 2016
D In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the ballast water management regulations? Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. New General Subjects Questions 2016
A As shown in the illustrated D type single furnace boiler, what does item "G" represent? Illustration SG-0008 Superheater tubes Generating tubes Screening tubes Desuperheater tubes New General Subjects Questions 2016
B What is meant by the phrase "solid flooding"? A compartment completely filled from deck to overhead, with every cubic foot of the compartment occupied by some solid material. A compartment completely filled from deck to overhead, with every cubic foot of the compartment occupied by flooding water. A compartment nearly filled from deck to overhead, with nearly every cubic foot of the compartment occupied by flooding water, the remainder by the trapped air on the bottom. A compartment nearly filled from deck to overhead, with nearly every cubic foot of the compartment occupied by flooding water, the remainder by the trapped air on top. New General Subjects Questions 2016
C In which lubrication application is lubricating oil with demulsibility properties most likely to be used? Crosshead diesel engine cylinder oil. Gas turbine lubricating oil. Steam turbine lubricating oil. Trunk type diesel engine lubricating oil. New General Subjects Questions 2016
B In which of the following heat related illnesses is it appropriate to reduce the individual's core temperature by immersion in a tub of cold water or repeatedly sponging with cold water? Heat exhaustion Heat stroke Heat prostration Heat cramps New General Subjects Questions 2016
D If a person gets alkali (such as potassium hydroxide) in their eye when servicing a NiCd battery, what would be the appropriate eye irrigation solution? boric acid solution ammonia baking soda solution water New General Subjects Questions 2016
A Which of the following maintenance procedures would require a tag-out/lock-out to be performed? Changing the oil of an air compressor. Shifting and cleaning a duplex strainer. Draining compressed air system moisture separators of condensation. Adding makeup oil to a main engine while underway. New General Subjects Questions 2016
B What statement is true concerning remote valve position indication at a control station? 90 rotary valves generally have valve only open and closed indicators, whereas gate and globe valves generally have degree of opening indicators. 90 rotary valves and gate valves generally have valve only open and closed indicators, whereas globe valves generally have degree of opening indicators. 90 rotary valves and globe valves generally have valve only open and closed indicators, whereas gate valves generally have degree of opening indicators. Gate and globe valves generally have valve only open and closed indicators, whereas 90 rotary valves generally have degree of opening indicators. New General Subjects Questions 2016
A Which of the listed valve types is typically used for the intermediate and high pressure stages of a reciprocating air compressor? Ring-plate Strip-type Sliding Rotary New General Subjects Questions 2017
A When reviewing a machinery vibration analysis report, the reports states the vibrational frequency is 4000 cpm in the Y direction. What does this indicate? A vibrational frequency of 4000 cycles per minute in the Y direction A vibrational frequency of 4000 counts per minute in the Y direction A vibrational frequency of 4000 accelerations per minute in the Y direction A vibrational frequency of 4 mil in the Y direction New General Subjects Questions 2017
B In preparation for conducting a mariner assessment, an assessor must ascertain whether or not a candidate meets the assessment prerequisites. Which of the following indicates the prerequisite criteria that should be checked? Check whether the candidate meets prerequisite training, experience and successful completion of related assessments only. Credentials held are not required to be checked. Check whether the candidate meets prerequisite training, experience, credential, and successful completion of related assessments. All must be checked. Check whether the candidate meets prerequisite training and successful completion of related assessments only. Experience and credentials are not required to be checked. Check whether the candidate meets prerequisite successful completion of related assessments only. Training, experience, and credentials held are not required to be checked. New General Subjects Questions 2017
C A vessel has hydraulic winches and anchor windlasses powered by a central hydraulic system. One winch exhibits sluggish operation, poor speed and directional control. Selecting from the potential suggestions below, consider a most logical and systematic approach to formulate your answer to troubleshoot this unit?
{{{
1. Disassemble the hydraulic control valve, check "O" rings and check unit's filter.
2. Inspect unit visually, looking for hydraulic leaks and mechanical function of the control lever(s), such as looseness, and/or wear.
3. Open and inspect filters on the main hydraulic unit for particulates/cleanliness.
4. Test entire system's fluid for particulates, viscosity and moisture content.}}}
1-2-3-4 1-2-4-3 2-1-3-4 2-3-1-4 New General Subjects Questions 2017
C What system is represented by the simplified illustration? Illustration SE-0004 Hydraulic gland seal regulator for the turbo-generator turbines. Hydraulic throttle control for the main propulsion turbines. Hydraulic gland seal regulator for the main propulsion turbines. Hydraulic throttle control for the turbo-generator turbines. New General Subjects Questions 2017
A What document lists the maximum pressure that can be carried by a boiler? Certificate of inspection Boiler technical manual Engine room operating guide Declaration of inspection New General Subjects Questions 2017
B As it pertains to task scheduling in project management, what statement is true concerning the critical path? The critical path is that particular path of relationally dependent tasks which requires the most in manpower resources and as such that identifies the path with the highest man-hour requirements. The critical path is that particular path of relationally dependent tasks which requires the most time and as such determines the overall length of the project. The critical path is that particular path of relationally dependent tasks which requires the most in financial resources and as such that identifies the path with the highest budget items. The critical path is that particular path of tasks with no dependencies which requires the least time and as such determines the overall length of the project. New General Subjects Questions 2017
B What statement is true concerning critical speeds associated with rotating machinery? The vibration amplitude is greatest at the second order critical speed. The vibration amplitude is greatest at the first order (fundamental) critical speed. The vibration amplitude is greatest midway between 0 RPM and the first order (fundamental) critical speed. The vibration amplitude is greatest midway between the first order and the second order critical speed. New General Subjects Questions 2017
C What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity sensor as used for sensing the viscosity of heavy fuel oil? The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is inversely proportional to the oil viscosity. The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity. The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity. The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is inversely proportional to the oil viscosity. New General Subjects Questions 2017
A Four incandescent lamps are connected in series in a single circuit. If one of the lamp filaments burns out, what will happen to the other lamps? all go out become dimmer no change in brightness become brighter New General Subjects Questions 2017
A As a manager conducting a meeting, what action should you take when an attendee exhibits disruptive or inappropriate behavior? With respect, respond in a way appropriate to the behavior. Immediately expel the offending attendee from the meeting. Ignore the disruptive or inappropriate behavior. Aggressively confront the offending trainee. New General Subjects Questions 2017
C Based on an inspection of the cables on one of your ship's service generators, you've decided that the cables need to be replaced. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), the current-carrying capacity of the replacement generator cables should be what percentage of the continuous generator rating? Less than 15 percent Less than 100 percent Less than 115 percent Less than 220 percent New General Subjects Questions 2017
B During a yard period when a tailshaft survey is being performed and where the propeller shaft has been withdrawn, when is a surveyor attendance required? It is normally required that stern tube bearing assembly be attended by a surveyor. It is normally required that the shaft alignment be carried out in the presence of a surveyor. It is normally required that all shafting measurements be carried out in the presence of a surveyor. It is normally required epoxy casting be witnessed by a surveyor. New General Subjects Questions 2017
D The pump in a hydraulic system mounted on the unit in the illustration may begin to cavitate if __________. Illustration GS-0118 "A" is allowed to remain open "B" is over tightened "H" were to be removed and the system operated for thirty minutes without it being replaced "D" is not kept clean New General Subjects Questions 2017
B While recharging a commercial type refrigerator, with a hermetically sealed compressor with no pressure gauges, what could you use or do to achieve a proper full charge? Charge until you hear the compressor loading up, check refrigerator temperatures. Check nameplate for compressor's full load amperage and charge until that amperage is reached. Charge partially and observe refrigerator's temperatures. Add more if necessary. Overcharge and observe refrigerator's temperatures, evacuate excess refrigerant until thermostat control is achieved. New General Subjects Questions 2017
D Which of the following analytical tools can be used for trend analysis?
{{{
I) Lube oil analysis
II) Vibration analysis
III) Performance data analysis
IV) Thermographic analysis}}}
I and II only. III only. I, II, and III only. I, II, III, and IV New General Subjects Questions 2017
D The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe what event? release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant in the crankcase sudden evaporation of entrapped moisture from the crankcase lubricant sudden evaporation of entrapped air from the refrigerant liquid release of miscible refrigerant from the lubricant in the crankcase New General Subjects Questions 2017
B As a chief engineer, how often are you required to countersign the engine room log book? Every 4 hours Daily Weekly Monthly New General Subjects Questions 2017
B After unplugging a suspected damaged printed circuit board from its edge card connector, what may be revealed by slightly flexing the board? A board warped by excessive heat. A board with a hairline crack. A board with corroded connecting pins. A board with a complete break. New General Subjects Questions 2017
B In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), main propulsion water-tube boilers are not required to be fitted with a surface blow-off valve if the design pressure is __________. 300 psig (2169 kPa) or over 350 psig (2413 kPa) or over 500 psig (3548 kPa) or over 550 psig (3893 kPa) or over New General Subjects Questions 2017
C At what point during the overall assessment process should the assessor provide the candidate with a copy of the assessment control sheet? Record the results and determine the assessment outcome. Preparing for the assessment. Brief the candidate before the assessment. Debrief the candidate after the assessment New General Subjects Questions 2017
D "Arc eye" can be the result of gazing into an electric arc produced by an electric arc welder where the eyes are inadequately protected. What is the characteristic of the onset of symptoms such as pain, watering of the eyes, and gritty sensation like sand in the eyes? The onset of symptoms may be several days after the exposure depending on the intensity of the rays and the length of time of the exposure. The onset of symptoms is always immediate after the exposure regardless of the intensity of the rays and the length of time of the exposure. The onset of symptoms may be several weeks after the exposure depending on the intensity of the rays and the length of time of the exposure. The onset of symptoms may be several hours after the exposure depending on the intensity of the rays and the length of time of the exposure. New General Subjects Questions 2017
C Which of the following viscosity scales measures kinematic viscosity? Saybolt Universal Seconds (SSU) Furol Seconds Centistokes (cSt) Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) New General Subjects Questions 2017
B If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what is the significant difference between the two lubricating oils? The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature service) and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service. The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service. The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature service) and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service. The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service. New General Subjects Questions 2017
B The counterbalance valve (5) in the winch circuit shown in the illustration __________. Illustration GS-0161 regulates the amount of oil to the brake release cylinder helps prevent slung loads from dropping prematurely aligns the pump's discharge to the winch's hydraulic motor prevents over-travel of the winch when retrieving New General Subjects Questions 2018
B In accordance with the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), continuing violations of The Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international MARPOL regulations may constitute separate violations subject to civil penalties. Which of the following statements is true? Each hour of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. Each day of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. Each week of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. Each month of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. New General Subjects Questions 2018
D The device shown in the illustration is which of the following? Illustration GS-0116 oil scraper ring stuffing box for a crosshead engine diesel engine motor mount mechanical shaft seal vane type steering gear New General Subjects Questions 2018
B Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GS-RA-43 A single zone system A dual duct system A terminal reheat system A variable air volume system New General Subjects Questions 2018
D Which of the fluids listed is suitable and commonly used as a secondary refrigerant? Cuprous chloride Carbon dioxide Methyl alcohol Brine New General Subjects Questions 2018
D A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the high-side pressure gauge will show pressures which react in which way? increasing with each stroke decreasing to a vacuum decreasing with each stroke rising and falling with each stroke New General Subjects Questions 2018
C A high-pressure centrifugal chiller currently charged with R-134a is being evaluated for the need for leak testing. Using the leak test procedures decision tree illustrated and the R-134a pressure- temperature chart illustrated, with the machine idle and the pressures equalized at 10 psig with an ambient temperature of 60F, what statement is true? Illustration GS-RA-11 and GS-RA-47 The machine definitely does not have a leak; therefore no attempt at leak detection is necessary. The machine has a suspected leak; therefore nitrogen should be added to bring the pressure to 70 psig prior to checking for leaks. The machine has a suspected leak; therefore the refrigerant pressure should be raised to 35 psig by adding refrigerant prior to checking for leaks. The machine may or may not have a leak; therefore the machine should be checked for leaks without any adjustments in pressure. New General Subjects Questions 2018
D In an air conditioning system set up as shown in the illustration, as the room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space, the actual process is accomplished by what means? Illustration GS-RA-09 lowering both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature raising both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature raising the cooling coil temperature and lowering the reheater temperature lowering the cooling coil temperature and raising the reheater temperature New General Subjects Questions 2018
D Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the evaporator? Illustration MP-CW-06 The evaporator uses heat recovered from the jacket water cooler sea water as a heat source to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler. The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to generate fresh water and is piped in parallel with the jacket water cooler. The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and after the jacket water cooler. The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler. New General Subjects Questions 2018
A What system connection is represented by the labeled item "A" in the illustrated diagram of a hydraulic turbine gland seal regulator? Illustration SE-0019 Gland sealing steam to the turbine shaft glands. Gland exhaust to the gland exhaust condenser. Makeup steam from the auxiliary steam system. Excess dump to the main condenser via the LP turbine. New General Subjects Questions 2018
C What would be an indication that the vegetable box back pressure regulator is set too low? The vegetable box is at the correct temperature and the compressor experiences short- cycling. High discharge pressure on the compressor. Vegetable refrigeration box is holding the correct temperature but the vegetables are dehydrated and frost is observed on the vegetable box evaporator coil back to the back pressure regulator. Vegetable box does not pull down to correct temperature and the compressor suction pressure is low. New General Subjects Questions 2018
B In response to a fire on the main deck or in the accommodation spaces, who would ordinarily report immediately to the scene of the fire and act as second in command of the fire team led by the chief mate? Chief Engineer First Assistant Engineer Second Assistant Engineer Third Assistant Engineer New General Subjects Questions 2018
C Upon joining a vessel on 28 April 2013 you find the last dry-docking was May 2011. When is the next date for vessel dry-docking if the vessel is not enrolled in an underwater survey program in lieu of dry-docking? No later than May 2013. No later than November 2013. No later than May 2014. No later than May 2016. New General Subjects Questions 2018
A Vessel special surveys are conducted how often in the life of a vessel? Every 5 years after the anniversary date of construction or last special survey. Every 5 years after the anniversary date of construction always. Every 2 1/2 years after the anniversary date of construction or last special survey. Annually on the anniversary date of the last survey. New General Subjects Questions 2018
D A bunkering plan requires a list of the tanks to be filled and the order in which they are to be filled. Why is it preferable that fuel be bunkered into empty tanks, where possible? This helps avoid the possibility of fuel spills. This would cause less stress on the tank structures. This helps avoid possible undesirable trim angles. This helps avoid possible issues with incompatible fuels. New General Subjects Questions 2018
B In the event of a marine casualty, as a chief engineer what document would be considered a voyage record and must be made available to investigating officials? Machinery technical manuals Vessel engine room logbook Certificate of Inspection International Safety Management Code New General Subjects Questions 2018
A When observing the candidate's performance while conducting an assessment, what is the appropriate response from the assessor when a safety condition is being violated? The assessment must be terminated whenever safety conditions are being violated. The assessor should ask leading questions in an attempt to correct the unsafe condition. The assessor should offer unsolicited assistance in order to correct the unsafe condition. For the purposes of assessment, the safety condition violation should be ignored. New General Subjects Questions 2018
A Which of the listed central operating system types converts continuous analog signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and control? Digital Pneumatic Direct connected Electric/electronic New General Subjects Questions 2018
C In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), how long must the Oil Record Book be maintained on board those vessels for which the regulations apply? 1 year at a minimum. 2 years at a minimum. 3 years at a minimum. 4 years at a minimum. New General Subjects Questions 2018
A Which of the following condition-based maintenance data continuous monitoring techniques has the greatest value in predicting wear? Vibration analysis Thermography Lubricating oil analysis Acoustic analysis New General Subjects Questions 2018
B The air charge leaving an intercooler or after cooler of an air compressor can be expected to be which of the following? Supercooled. At or below the dew point. Superheated. All of the above. New General Subjects Questions 2018
D A common type of molded case circuit breaker has both thermal and magnetic trip elements. If a branch circuit breaker has only thermal or magnetic trip elements (but not both), it is common to use multiple series-connected protective devices to provide both short-circuit and overload protection. If a motor branch circuit is protected with both a thermal trip-type circuit breaker and fuses, what is the protective purpose of the fuses used in this arrangement? sustained overload protection short duration surge protection time-delay protection short-circuit protection New General Subjects Questions 2018
A According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33 Part 151), all oceangoing tankships of 150 GT and above and all other ships of 400 GT and above are required to prepare, submit, and maintain a USCG approved Oil Record Book and a (an) __________. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan synthetic plastic discharge plan oil discharge plan vapor recovery procedures plan New General Subjects Questions 2018
D When planning for a fire and emergency drill, the crew should be motivated and challenged to do their very best. What type of simulation promotes this level of motivation and meeting the challenge? Choosing an often-repeated scenario with which the crew is very familiar. Choosing an often-repeated scenario associated with a low fire risk area. Choosing a scenario representing a low fire risk in terms of flammables. Choosing a realistic scenario representing a high fire risk in terms of flammables. New General Subjects Questions 2018
B According to the 46 CFR regulations applicable to tests, drills, and inspections for mobile offshore drilling unit operations, for a self-propelled MODU, how often must the steering gear, whistle, general alarm bells, and communications between the bridge or control room and the engine room be tested while the MODU is on station? At least daily At least once each week At least once each month At least once each quarter New General Subjects Questions 2018
C What statement is true regarding the reading of a liquid filled manometer? Water does not wet the glass; therefore the reading should be taken at the top of the meniscus on water-filled manometers. Mercury wets the glass; therefore the reading should be taken at the top of the meniscus of mercury-filled manometers. The reading should be taken at the center of the curved surface of the meniscus, regardless whether the manometer is water-filled or mercury-filled. The reading should be taken at the edges of glass contact of the curved surface of the meniscus, regardless whether the manometer is water-filled or mercury-filled. New General Subjects Questions 2018
A What type of wound is generally associated with no bleeding and is very susceptible to infection? Puncture Abrasion Incision Laceration New General Subjects Questions 2018
A What is used to keep water leaking from a pump packing gland away from the bearing housing? water flinger rings shaft sleeves stuffing box gland lantern rings New General Subjects Questions 2019
A Your vessel requires the Certificate of Inspection (COI) to be renewed annually. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), how often must the steering gear be inspected? At each inspection. Every other inspection. Every 2.5 years. Every 5 years. New General Subjects Questions 2019
D Your vessel has a monthly predictive maintenance program for monitoring machinery vibrations and lubricating oil analysis. What information do the results of the vibration readings and oil analysis provide to you? Immediate possible machinery failure. Predictive data of eventual machinery failure. Definite data on machinery performance at the time of readings/analysis. Comparative data of machinery operation and condition. New General Subjects Questions 2019
D Which of the fresh water generators listed below is operated without a source of heat? Titanium plate type Flash type Submerged tube type Reverse osmosis type New General Subjects Questions 2019
B Which of the following could be a probable cause of abnormal valve wear and breakage? Lifting of intercooler relief valve. Faulty operation of a cylinder unloader. Compressor operation in an area of high relative humidity. Carbon build up in the piston ring belt. New General Subjects Questions 2019
C When using a thermal imager for the purpose of conducting a thermographic analysis of equipment, what form of energy produces the thermal signature radiating from the object surface? X-ray energy. Visible light energy. Infrared energy. Ultraviolet energy. New General Subjects Questions 2019
A When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of propulsor would be the most practicable for main propulsion? Controllable-pitch propeller Tandem propeller Fixed-pitch propeller Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller New General Subjects Questions 2019
A What maintenance management scheme does trend analysis support? Predictive maintenance management. Run-to-failure maintenance management. Planned maintenance management. Preventive maintenance management. New General Subjects Questions 2019
C What is the name of the semiconductor device with the essential characteristic that it decreases in resistance with an increase in temperature? thermistor with a positive temperature coefficient resistance temperature detector thermistor with a negative temperature coefficient thermocouple New General Subjects Questions 2019
B What is the functional purpose of the zener diode "CR1" as shown in section "D" of the regulated DC power supply? Illustration EL-0085 is a temperature compensator aids in output voltage regulation prevents excessive currents corrects power factor New General Subjects Questions 2019
C Release of refrigerant to the atmosphere during the process of purging of air and non-condensable gases can be kept to a permissible minimum by what action? purging through the top of the receiver rather than the top of the condenser purging through a dehydrator cracking the purge valve briefly and allowing the refrigerant to re-settle between purges purging through the discharge service valve rather than the top of the condenser New General Subjects Questions 2019
B Overcurrent protection for steering-gear systems circuits that power alternating-current motors must have an instantaneous trip set at what rating? At least 100% and not more than 175% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear motor. At least 175% and not more than 200% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear motor. At least 200% and not more than 275% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear motor. At least 300% and not more than 375% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear motor. New General Subjects Questions 2019
D One is slated to be a senior officer of a new vessel and is to participate in the 'Builder's Sea Trials'. What would you consider your responsibilities when asked to witness scheduled tests? Observe, report any possible deficiencies to the representatives of the regulatory bodies present. Observe and convey your comments of any possible deficiencies to the shipyard representative conducting the test. Observe, report any possible deficiencies to shipyard representatives and regulatory body representatives. Observe, note any deficiencies you may feel exist and convey them to your vessel owner's representatives. New General Subjects Questions 2019
C In accordance with Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), what is the inspection interval between hydrostatic tests of an oil-fired, water-tube, auxiliary boiler on a passenger vessel? 1 year. 2 years. 2.5 years. 5 years. New General Subjects Questions 2019
B In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops? The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is EITHER required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oily-water separator. The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high bilge oil content alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, and it is required to have a high bilge oil content alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility. New General Subjects Questions 2019
A In accordance with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for U.S. non- oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops? The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility. The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility. The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. New General Subjects Questions 2019
B In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following electrical repairs is permitted? Splice a flexible cord or cable with twist-on connectors if smaller than 18 AWG. Connect a flexible cord or cable to a fitting with so that tension is not transmitted to joints or terminal screws. Extend the length of a circuit with twist-on connectors if in an enclosure and wrapped securely with insulating tape. Splice a damaged conductor with twist-on connectors if the insulated cap is firmly secured to prevent loosening due to vibration. New General Subjects Questions 2019
D In accordance with 33 CFR-Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type III Marine Sanitation Device"? A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter. A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage or any waste derived from sewage. New General Subjects Questions 2019
C Given that valve "14" is the king solenoid valve, which of the following statements is true? Illustration RA-0012 Valves "28" and "36" are both freeze box solenoids. Valves "28" and "36" are both chill box solenoids. Valve "28" is the chill box solenoid, and valve "36" is the freeze box solenoid. Valve "36" is the chill box solenoid, and valve "28" is the freeze box solenoid. New General Subjects Questions 2019
B For the power hacksaw shown in the illustration, how should the teeth point for the blade being installed? Illustration GS-0187 pointing away from the motor end of the machine pointing toward the motor end of the machine pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth blade New General Subjects Questions 2019
A During a vessel dry-docking survey which of the following items are typically required by Class to be surveyed? Sea chests, tail shaft weardown readings and rudder assembly. Tail shaft weardown readings and rudder assembly only. Rudder assembly and sea chests only. Sea chests and tail shaft weardown readings only. New General Subjects Questions 2019
A According to 46 CFR Subchapter J, what is true concerning the installation of batteries used for diesel engine starting? be located as close as possible to the engine be located in a locker on the weather deck only be of the nickel alkaline type have sufficient capacity to provide at least 50 starts consecutively without recharging New General Subjects Questions 2019
D A two-stage hydraulic pump unit is used to __________. establish two individual flows to segregated segments of one system produce twice the flow rate than if only one element were to be used supply two individual flows to the same segments of the system if one of the pump elements were to fail develop the same flow rate across both pump elements with the discharge pressure of the second pump element being substantially higher than that of the first stage New General Subjects Questions 2019
A Clean low-pressure steam drains are collected in the __________. atmospheric drain tank main condenser hotwell contaminated drain inspection tank deaerating feedwater heater New General Subjects Questions 2020
D Following a grounding, what action should be performed prior to the use of the main engines? Shift to a low sea suction. Shift to a high fuel oil suction. Shift to a low fuel oil suction. Shift to a high sea suction. New General Subjects Questions 2020
B In the diagram illustrated, the direction of flow through item 3 is __________. Illustration GS-0125 dependent on the pump's discharge pressure in one direction only dependent on the pump's suction pressure in either direction New General Subjects Questions 2020
A What is a quick and effective way of determining whether or not a boiler water gauge glass is operating properly? Quickly opening and then reclosing the gauge glass drain valve. Quickly opening and then reclosing the gauge glass lower root valve. Watching for the level to fluctuate in the glass corresponding to ship movements such as pitching. Quickly opening and then reclosing the gauge glass upper root valve. New General Subjects Questions 2020
D Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and displaying the difference between the two? Compound gauge Duplex gauge Simplex gauge Differential pressure gauge New General Subjects Questions 2020
A What statement is true concerning the operation of continuous-level liquid level detectors? Continuous-level detectors produce an analog signal proportional to the liquid level in the tank. Continuous-level detectors produce a digital signal proportional to the liquid level in the tank. Continuous-level detectors produce a digital signal inversely proportional to the liquid level in the tank. Continuous-level detectors produce an analog signal inversely proportional to the liquid level in the tank. New General Subjects Questions 2020
D While paralleling 2 AC generators using synchronizing lamps only, when will both lamps go dark? when the generators are out of synchronism when the generators are running at the same speed when the generators are running at different speeds when the synchroscope is at approximately 0 degrees New General Subjects Questions 2020
C In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), what is the inspection interval between hydrostatic tests of an oil-fired, water-tube, auxiliary boiler on a passenger vessel? 1 year. 2 years. 2.5 years. 5 years. New General Subjects Questions 2020
C Which of the following refrigerants is normally classified as a low-pressure refrigerant based on a relatively high boiling point? HCFC-22 HCFC-123 HFC-23 HFC-134A New General Subjects Questions 2020
C During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity-controlled compressor, when all of the evaporators of a four-box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston shown in the illustration will be at what value? Illustration RA-0013 the lowest at its mid-range the highest of no consequence as the lube oil is not used in the operation of the unloader New General Subjects Questions 2020
B A box solenoid valve used in a multi-box refrigeration system is controlled by what switching device? evaporator outlet temperature actuated thermostat box temperature actuated thermostat discharge pressure actuated pressure switch suction pressure actuated pressure switch New General Subjects Questions 2020
D Light and other forms of radiation can act as a means of transporting heat energy from one body to another. This radiative transport is different from conduction and convection in that it does not involve __________. direct transfer of temperature gradient indirect transfer due to friction indirect transfer due to inefficiencies direct transfer of molecular motion New General Subjects Questions 2020
A A reciprocating multi-cylinder air conditioning or refrigeration compressor starts cycling on/off. What would one do to prevent cycling? Adjust compressor's unloader to reduce operating cylinders. Adjust cylinder unloader to increase system operating refrigerant pressure. Stop compressor and wait until the system stabilizes and restart compressor. Adjust system thermostatic control valve(s) to reduce system refrigerant demand. New General Subjects Questions 2020
A Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the jacket water heater? Illustration MO-0212 The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm. The jacket water heater is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental heat for the evaporator. The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle for the sole purpose of generating fresh water at the evaporator. The jacket water heater is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine heat. New General Subjects Questions 2020
B There are three pieces of information that should be included in delivering a message via a sound-powered telephone. Which of the following represents the proper sequence of information delivery? First: state the message. Second: give the name of the station being called. Third: give the name of the calling station. First: give the name of the station being called. Second: give the name of the calling station. Third: state the message. First: give the name of the calling station. Second: give the name of the station being called. Third: state the message. First: state the message. Second: give the name of the calling station. Third: give the name of the station being called. New General Subjects Questions 2020
D What type of eye protection affords the best protection from dust and airborne abrasives? Side-shielded safety glasses Full-face shield Standard safety glasses Eyecup safety goggles New General Subjects Questions 2020
D When changing fuses, what safety precaution should be taken after ensuring that the circuit is dead? wear safety glasses wear rubber boots stand on a rubber mat use a fuse puller New General Subjects Questions 2020
B Besides extreme exertion in a hot environment such as an engine room, what causes heat cramps which is pain and spasms associated with the abdomen, leg, and arm muscles? Taking in excessive amounts of salt and water in an attempt to rehydrate. Failure to replace salt lost as a result of profuse sweating. Failure to replace water lost as a result of profuse sweating. Taking in excessive amounts of salt in an attempt to restore electrolyte balance. New General Subjects Questions 2020
D How is the emergency bilge suction valve typically used? when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means New General Subjects Questions 2020
B When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________. remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment or wiring shutdown electrical power in the area apply ointment to the burned areas on the patient flush water over any burned area of the patient New General Subjects Questions 2020
C How is accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system prevented? by installing a swing check before each bilge valve by using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump by stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds by installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes New General Subjects Questions 2020
D If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, what does this indicate? Abandon ship. Man overboard. Dismissal from a boat drill. Fire and emergency. New General Subjects Questions 2020
A If you hear the general alarm sounded 3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle, what does this indicate? Dismissal from fire and emergency. Fire and emergency. Abandon ship. Dismissal from a boat drill. New General Subjects Questions 2020
C According to 33 CFR, which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flushwater at ambient air pressure and temperature? Type I Type II Type III Type IV New General Subjects Questions 2020
A Item 4 shown in the illustration represents a __________. Illustration GS-0125 manifold suction line bilge system vacuum branch line New General Subjects Questions 2020
B Of the choices provided, which type of pump does the suction force principle primarily apply to? centrifugal pumps reciprocating pumps propeller pumps jet pumps New General Subjects Questions 2020
B Spring reinforced oil seals for retention of lubricant, are installed with the lip of the seal facing __________. Illustration GS-0152 away from the bearing housing recess toward the oil pressure being sealed away from the oil pressure being sealed toward the bearing preload washer New General Subjects Questions 2020
C The designation 'schedule 80' refers to __________. weight of steel plate tubing bursting strength piping wall thickness tensile strength of bolts New General Subjects Questions 2020
D When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, the packing gland nuts should be __________. left in that position loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing first tightened, and then backed off, start pump, and while running under normal conditions; tighten evenly and slightly, over time New General Subjects Questions 2020
B When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open until the cylinder is drained? Steam exhaust valve Steam cylinder drain valve Steam supply valve Water cylinder drain valve New General Subjects Questions 2020
C What is the color-coding for a storage container of R-134a refrigerant? grey green light blue purple New General Subjects Questions 2020
B What is the whistle signal for stop lowering boats? 1 short blast of the whistle. 2 short blasts of the whistle. 3 short blasts of the whistle. Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds. New General Subjects Questions 2020
B Which health hazard term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body tissue on contact? Cyanosis Cryogenic Freeze hazard Freon hazard New General Subjects Questions 2020
B Which of the following thermometers provides a remote display of temperature on a rotary dial scale and works on the principle of thermal expansion? Bimetallic thermometer Bourdon tube thermometer Liquid-in-glass thermometer Thermocouple pyrometer New General Subjects Questions 2020
C With regard to the relative flow patterns through the tubes and the shell of single pass shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what statement is true? In a parallel-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are in opposite directions. In a cross-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are in opposite directions. In a counterflow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are in opposite directions. In a counterflow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are in the same direction. New General Subjects Questions 2020
D What is the drive arrangement of refrigeration compressor shown in figure "B" of the illustration? Illustration RA-0041 serviceable, bolted, accessible semi-hermetic open external-drive welded, fully hermetic New General Subjects Questions 2020
D When testing the low pressure cut out switch, assuming the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test? stop the circulating pump stop the compressor secure the condenser close the compressor suction valve New General Subjects Questions 2020
B A "hygroscopic" lubricant used in refrigeration compressors would have what characteristic? losing its lubrication qualities at higher temperatures having a high affinity for moisture which requires it to be kept in a sealed container decreasing in viscosity at low temperatures being highly toxic New General Subjects Questions 2021
D As shown in the illustration, what is the diaphragm orifice labeled "H" used for? Illustration GS-0155 injector pressure reducer check valve time delay New General Subjects Questions 2021
C Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed-up before being operated because __________. warm-up allows the hydraulic system to become charged with oil hydraulic strainers operate only during the warm-up period warm-up allows the hydraulic fluid to reach proper viscosity warm-up allows the relief valves to be properly tested New General Subjects Questions 2021
C Some "hot gas" defrost systems reheat the refrigerant just prior to its returning to the compressor for what purpose? to prevent chill shocking the compressor suction valves to increase the circulation of liquid refrigerant to prevent the damaging effects of liquid slugging to improve the efficiency of the expansion valve New General Subjects Questions 2021
D The illustrated valve, figure "A", needs to be repaired due to a leak across the valve disk. To disassemble the valve you should __________. Illustration GS-0140 first fully loosen part 8, then turn the handwheel counter-clockwise to separate the bonnet from the body tighten part 4 turn the handwheel clockwise as viewed from the top, using a pipe wrench for assistance first fully loosen part 8, then turn the handwheel clockwise to separate the bonnet from the body New General Subjects Questions 2021
C To find the relative humidity of an accommodation space, you would use a __________. Enthalpy Chart Entropy Chart Psychrometric Chart Mollier Chart New General Subjects Questions 2021
A What device on the bridge shows the rudder's position? rudder angle indicator follow-up gear telemotor position Rapson slide indicator New General Subjects Questions 2021
C What differentiates "system-dependent" and "self-contained" recovery devices in refrigeration systems? self-contained recovery devices can only be used on large CFC and HCFC units the system compressor must be working to use system-dependent devices, the system compressor may or may not be operational when self-contained devices are used self-contained recovery devices usually contain a compressor, system-dependent recovery devices do not there is no difference between the devices New General Subjects Questions 2021
C When checking the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, under what conditions would the most accurate reading be obtained? immediately after start-up after being shut down for 3 hours with the crankcase heater secured several minutes after shutdown following a prolonged period of operation immediately after adding oil New General Subjects Questions 2021
B When drilling a hole in a piece of work chucked in a lathe, you should mount the drill chuck in the __________. compound rest tailstock headstock cross feed New General Subjects Questions 2021
C When internal threading for bolts, where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through, you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________. finishing tap plug tap taper tap bottoming tap New General Subjects Questions 2021
A When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor and is used as an aftercooler, what must be done with the reservoir? It must be frequently drained of condensed water. It must be fitted with a sight glass. It must be fitted with a moisture trap at the inlet. It must be fitted with a manhole. New General Subjects Questions 2021
C Which of the drill sets listed would commonly be referred to as a "Jobbers Set"? A set of numbered size drills from 1 to 60. A set of lettered size drills from A to Z. A set of fractional size drills from 1/16" to 1/2" A set of fractional size drills from 1/2" to 2" New General Subjects Questions 2021
B Which of the following could be the cause of leaking valves in an air compressor? irregular compression strokes abrasion, dust, and dirt excessive discharge pressure excessive compressor speed New General Subjects Questions 2021
C Which of the listed devices would be installed in the air compressor discharge line between the compressor and receiver of a control air system? Vacuum breaker Lubricator Moisture separator P-I converter New General Subjects Questions 2021
A Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________. tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level open the watertight door and take a quick look open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot New General Subjects Questions 2021
A Which of the following compressors would be used for a dead ship start-up of a ship's service diesel generator on a motor ship? Emergency air compressor Topping air compressor Ship's service air compressor Starting air compressor New General Subjects Questions 2021
D What statement represents the policy that should be implemented in terms of watch officers entering notes while maintaining the engine room logbook? Notes should be entered for routine occurrences and the actual time of occurrence should be noted. Notes should be entered for routine occurrences and the general time frame of occurrence should be noted (within 4 hours). Notes should be entered for non-routine occurrences and the general time frame of occurrence should be noted (within 4 hours). Notes should be entered for non-routine occurrences and the actual time of occurrence should be noted. New General Subjects Questions 2021
A You are on a ship with a large slow speed main engine that operates an Unattended Machinery Space. When entering the main machinery space to conduct maintenance or a machinery space round, what should be done? The navigational watch officer should be telephoned at agreed to intervals. The master should be telephoned at agreed to intervals. The chief engineer should be telephoned at agreed to intervals. The first assistant engineer should be telephoned at agreed to intervals. New General Subjects Questions 2021
B When responding to a "right rudder" command from the amidships position, which part/parts of the steering cylinders illustrated will be subjected to the highest hydraulic pressure? Illustration GS-0137 "C" and "I" "F" and "L" "F" only "C" only New General Subjects Questions 2021
B You are briefing the electrician on the specifics of a job you are expecting the electrician to perform. What technique should you use to make sure the electrician understands what is expected? Ask the electrician, "Do you have any questions?" Tell the electrician, "Just to make sure you understand, repeat the instructions back to me." Tell the electrician, "OK. Now you are ready to proceed." Ask the electrician, "Is there anything I left out that needs to be clarified?" New General Subjects Questions 2021
A An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. What type of drawings are generally furnished in the fire control plan? Top plan views (for each deck) Side elevation views (from port and starboard) Perspective view (overall) End elevation views (from bow and stern) New General Subjects Questions 2021
C In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), which of the following pressure vessels listed on the ship's Certificate of Inspection (COI) would be required to be inspected every 5 years, assuming that the ship is inspected annually? Tubular heat exchanger. Hydraulic accumulator. Starting air tank. Refrigeration system receiver tank. New General Subjects Questions 2021
A Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve is used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling the steam flow. What would be the result if the control diaphragm became ruptured? Illustration GS-0051 The valve would fail in the fully open position, most likely resulting in a high fuel oil temperature alarm condition. The valve would fail in the exact position just before the control diaphragm ruptured. The fuel temperature will fluctuate with changes in fuel demand. The valve would fail in the fully closed position, most likely resulting in a low fuel oil temperature alarm condition. It is not possible to predict how the valve would respond to a ruptured diaphragm. New General Subjects Questions 2021
B Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), if a vessel equipped with a Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is UNACCEPTABLE? Closing each valve leading to an overboard discharge and removing the handle. Closing and tagging each valve leading to an overboard discharge. Padlocking each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed position. Using a non-releasable wire-tire to hold each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed position. New General Subjects Questions 2021
A In the illustrated schematic, which component is the device that was used to replace the six-way valve, as found on many older type steering gears? Illustration GS-0123 "A" "B" "F" "H" New General Subjects Questions 2021
D With regards to a reverse osmosis unit, what is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through? Low fresh water outlet salinity. Higher than normal brine overboard back pressure. Lower than normal fresh water production. High fresh water outlet salinity. New General Subjects Questions 2021
A While securing the air conditioning compressor you close the suction valve and the compressor stops after a short period of time. Subsequent attempts to start it produce no result. What control component would you suspect is preventing the compressor from starting? The low-pressure cutout switch. The high-pressure cutout switch. The lube oil differential pressure switch. The water regulating valve. New General Subjects Questions 2021
C Which of the drill sizes listed represents the largest size drill? A X Z XX New General Subjects Questions 2021
D If outside air at 80 degrees F and 70 percent relative humidity is conditioned, what will be the resulting dew point temperature of the air just before it comes into contact with the cooling coil? Illustration GS-RA-22 67 degrees F 73 degrees F 64 degrees F 70 degrees F Air Conditioning Systems
C In a two stage centrifugal air conditioning system, the liquid refrigerant passes through the condenser directly to what component? chiller expansion valve economizer evaporator Air Conditioning Systems
A What is one benefit of maintenance of proper air circulation in an air conditioned cargo space? reduced slime and mold increased moisture content increased density of the air more temperature differential Air Conditioning Systems
A In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning system is usually charged with what substance? the same refrigerant as the system bees wax distilled water mercuric sulfate Air Conditioning Systems
B Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by an air conditioning system? Cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point. Cooling the air to a point below dew point, and then reheating it. Heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it. Heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point. Air Conditioning Systems
A To add small amounts of refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the refrigerant should be introduced through a particular valve and in a particular state. What valve and state combination is correct? suction service valve as a vapor discharge service valve as a vapor discharge service valve as a liquid suction service valve as a liquid Air Conditioning Systems
A When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cut-out switch, assuming that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test? close the "king" valve stop the circulating pump secure the condenser stop the compressor Air Conditioning Systems
B The compressor used in a water-cooled air conditioning system is short cycling. A service check determines that the suction pressure remains above the normal cut-in point during cycling and that the discharge pressure rapidly builds up to the cut-out point while running and gradually falls to the cut-in point during the off cycle. What is likely the cause? back seated discharge service valve reduction in condenser water flow (scaled condenser) front seated liquid line service valve loosely fitted compressor drive belt Air Conditioning Systems
D Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, what statement is true? Illustration GS-RA-58 When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it is possible to achieve the recovery levels required by law without any further recovery. When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, the vent hose connection should be closed. When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it is permissible to exceed 90% of the weight capacity of the refrigerant drum. When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it minimizes the risk of chiller tube freeze-up. Air Conditioning Systems
D The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of what conditions? low pressure in the condenser at low load low pressure in the condenser at high load low pressure in the evaporator at high load low pressure in the evaporator at low load Air Conditioning Systems
A In an air conditioning system, low discharge head pressure associated with a reciprocating compressor can be the result of what condition? leaky suction valves air in the evaporator coils air in the condenser insufficient cooling water to the condenser Air Conditioning Systems
B The air temperature associated with a direct reciprocating air conditioning plant is found to be too warm, and the compressor is not operating. A service check determines the compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in point, with a normal head pressure, and high evaporator superheat. Which of the following could be the cause of this problem? Cooling water flow to the condenser is excessive. The low pressure control contacts are stuck open. A liquid line solenoid valve has failed closed. A liquid line solenoid valve is stuck open. Air Conditioning Systems
D Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning compressor as a result of what condition? lowered compressor operating temperatures excessive foaming of the oil in the crankcase reducing the cloud or floc point of the oil overheating and carbonization of the oil in the crankcase Air Conditioning Systems
A As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller high efficiency purge recovery unit piping schematic, what statement is true concerning the vacuum pump? Illustration GS-RA-55 The vacuum pump is designed to remove refrigerant vapor from the carbon filter tank and transfer these vapors to the evaporator to minimize the loss of refrigerant to the atmosphere. The vacuum pump is designed to remove air and non-condensable gases from the evaporator and transfer these gases to the carbon filter tank for eventual venting to the atmosphere. The vacuum pump is designed to remove refrigerant vapor from the carbon filter tank and transfer these vapors to the purge chamber to blow the float valve clear. The vacuum pump is designed to perform a dehydration evacuation on the system prior to charging with refrigerant. Air Conditioning Systems
C Which of the following filled thermal systems used as a temperature transmitting/receiving system usually is associated with a display with a non-uniform scale? Mercury-filled systems Liquid-filled systems Vapor-pressure systems Gas-filled systems Automation Systems
B Suppose that a standard remote reading bourdon tube thermometer has a scale of 40 to 240F. If the accuracy of the thermometer is plus or minus 1% of the span, what would the range of measured temperature be if the thermometer indicates 180F? 177.6 to 182.4⁰F 178 to 182⁰F 178.2 to 181.8⁰F 179 to 181⁰F Automation Systems
B In what electrical temperature transmitting system is the system voltage generated by the magnitude of temperature difference between hot and cold junctions? Bimetallic sensor Thermocouple Thermistor Resistance temperature detector Automation Systems
A If it is desired to determine the average temperature across a large duct, what thermocouple wiring technique can be used to generate an emf proportional to the average temperature? Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired in parallel, where the sum of the individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples. Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired series-opposing, where the sum of the individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples. Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired series-aiding, where the sum of the individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples. Only one thermocouple can be used, and the hot junction must be strategically located to get an effective average temperature. Automation Systems
A If it is desired to determine the temperature difference between two locations using thermocouples, what wiring technique can be used to accomplish this? The two thermocouples would be wired in series-opposing to measure the difference between the two temperatures. The two thermocouples would be wired in parallel to measure the differences between the two temperatures. The two thermocouples would be wired in series-aiding to measure the difference between the two temperatures. It is not possible to measure a temperature difference using two thermocouples. Automation Systems
C Which of the listed temperature sensors consists of finely coiled wire, such as platinum, where the resistance varies directly with temperature? Thermistor Bimetallic device Resistance temperature detector Thermocouple Automation Systems
D Which of the listed temperature sensors is made of heat-treated metallic oxides and generally has a negative coefficient of resistance? Bimetallic device Resistance temperature detector Thermocouple Thermistor Automation Systems
D What is the application for a temperature measuring device known as a pyrometer? Moderate to high temperature applications such as engine cooling and lubrication. Extremely low temperature applications such as cryogenics. Low to moderate temperature applications such as refrigeration and air conditioning. Extremely high temperature applications such as boiler or engine exhaust temperatures. Automation Systems
D A radiation pyrometer is sensitive to what form of radiation? Infraviolet radiation Ultrared radiation Ultraviolet radiation Infrared radiation Automation Systems
B For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic temperature indicator has a calibrated scale of -40 to +40 ⁰F, what would be the actual measured temperature if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air? -10⁰F 0⁰F +10⁰F +25⁰F Automation Systems
A Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for measuring pressures very close to atmospheric pressure such as boiler furnace draft pressure? Diaphragm type pressure gauge Bellows type pressure gauge Spiral or helical type pressure gauge Bourdon tube pressure gauge Automation Systems
B Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for measuring most pressures, typically above 10 psig and is by far the most common type? Diaphragm type pressure gauge Bourdon tube pressure gauge Spiral or helical type pressure gauge Bellows type pressure gauge Automation Systems
C Suppose that a standard bourdon tube pressure gauge has a scale of 0 to 1000 psig. If the accuracy of the gauge is plus or minus .5% of the span, what would the range of measured pressure be if the gauge indicates 690 psig? 640 to 740 psig 680 to 700 psig 685 to 695 psig 686.55 to 693.45 psig Automation Systems
D What is used to protect a direct sensing steam pressure gauge from damage from contact with steam? The installation of a damping needle valve in the entrance to the gauge. The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented horizontally in the entrance to the gauge. The installation of thermal insulation on the gauge. The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented vertically in the entrance to the gauge. Automation Systems
B For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air? 300 psig 500 psig 600 psig 750 psig Automation Systems
C For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if an analog pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 30 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted analog signal current to the indicator is 12 mA, assuming the industry standard of 4 to 20 mA is used for instrument current? 8 psig 12 psig 15 psig 24 psig Automation Systems
B For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 5000 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 6 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air? 1000 psig 1250 psig 1500 psig 1800 psig Automation Systems
C Which of the following pressure sensing mechanisms in a linear-scaled pneumatic indicator is generally used to sense pneumatic pressure as received from a pneumatic pressure transmitter? Diaphragm Bourdon tube Bellows Spiral or helical coil Automation Systems
D In which of the following applications would a mechanical pressure seal be used with a pressure measuring instrument? Isolation of high-temperature products from the measuring element. Isolation of high-pressure products from the measuring element. Isolation of non-viscous products from the measuring element. Isolation of corrosive products from the measuring element. Automation Systems
C Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for measuring extremely high pressures up to 80,000 psig? Bellows type pressure gauge Diaphragm type pressure gauge Helical type pressure gauge Bourdon tube pressure gauge Automation Systems
A What statement is true concerning the operating principle of a liquid level sensing and transmitting system of the capacitance type? The capacitance method is generally used with non-conductive liquids and works on the principle of the substantial difference between the dielectric constant of air and that of the liquid in the tank. The capacitance method is generally used with conductive liquids and works on the principle of the substantial difference between the dielectric constant of air and that of the liquid in the tank. The capacitance method is generally used with conductive liquids and works on the principle of the substantial difference between the specific gravity of air and that of the liquid in the tank. The capacitance method is generally used with non-conductive liquids and works on the principle of the substantial difference between the specific gravity of air and that of the liquid in the tank. Automation Systems
B For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if an electronic level indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1800 mm, what would be the actual measured liquid level of the tank if the transmitted signal current is 12 mA, assuming the industry standard of 4 to 20 mA is used for instrument current? 800 mm 900 mm 1000 mm 1080 mm Automation Systems
D What type of liquid level indicator which senses head or pressure requires a supply of compressed air? Differential pressure transmitter Float type Diaphragm box Bubble tube system Automation Systems
C Which of the following level indicating system sensor types is ideally suited for discrete-level detection as opposed to continuous-level detection? Capacitance probes Float operated potentiometer Float actuated limit switches Differential pressure transmitter Automation Systems
C What type of flow measuring device would measure totalized flow volume as opposed to an instantaneous flow rate? Variable area type, such as a rotameter Constriction type, differential head such as a venturi tube Positive displacement meter, such as nutating disk Velocity flowmeter such as a turbine type Automation Systems
D With a constriction type, differential head flow meter, which of the following would be an example of a primary device? Pneumatic or electronic transmitter Diaphragm or bellows meter Mercury manometer Orifice plate or venturi tube Automation Systems
C Which of the following flow meter primary devices works on the constriction type, differential head principle? Turbine Vortex Venturi tube Magnetic Automation Systems
D What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter? The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow. The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow. The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow. The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow. Automation Systems
B For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic instantaneous flow indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 gpm, what would be the actual measured instantaneous flow rate if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air? 375 gpm 500 gpm 625 gpm 750 gpm Automation Systems
B Which of the following speed tachometers produces an analog signal proportional to the shaft speed? Toothed-rotor Hall-effect tachometer Direct current tachometer Optical tachometer Toothed-rotor variable-reluctance tachometer Automation Systems
C Suppose the photo detector of an optical tachometer detects a time interval of 0.05 seconds between the leading edges of the pulses created by the reflective stripe during shaft rotation. What is the rpm of the shaft? 900 rpm 1000 rpm 1200 rpm 1800 rpm Automation Systems
D What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity
sensor as used for sensing the viscosity of heavy fuel oil?
The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is inversely proportional to the oil
viscosity.
The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity. The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is inversely proportional to the oil
viscosity.
The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity. Automation Systems
A What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity transmitter as used for indicating the viscosity of heavy fuel oil? The viscosity transmitter is a differential pressure transmitter receiving both capillary tube inlet and outlet pressures from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single viscosity signal to the viscosity indicator. The viscosity transmitter is a differential temperature transmitter receiving both capillary tube inlet and outlet temperatures from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single viscosity signal to the viscosity indicator. The viscosity transmitter is a single temperature transmitter receiving capillary tube inlet temperature from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single viscosity signal to the viscosity indicator. The viscosity transmitter is a single pressure transmitter receiving capillary tube inlet pressure from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single viscosity signal to the viscosity indicator. Automation Systems
A What is the operating principle upon which a salinometer is based? Conductance of water Specific gravity of water Optical transparency of water Capacitance of water Automation Systems
D What statement is true concerning the operation of a distilling plant or boiler feed water salinometer?
The greater the salt content of water, the greater the conductivity of the water, and temperature correction is unnecessary because conductivity does not change with changes in temperature. The greater the salt content of water, the lower the conductivity of the water, and temperature correction is necessary because conductivity decreases with a rise in temperature. The greater the salt content of water, the lower the conductivity of the water, and temperature correction is necessary because conductivity increases with a rise in temperature. The greater the salt content of water, the greater the conductivity of the water, and temperature correction is necessary because conductivity increases with a rise in temperature. Automation Systems
B If an oil-in-water content monitor uses a lamp emitting light in the visible spectra in conjunction with a reference photo-cell and a sampling photocell, what is the operating principle upon which this oil-in-water content monitor works? The monitor works on the fluorescence principle where the greater the oil content, the less the amount of ultra-violet light detected by the sampling photo-electric cell as compared to the reference photo-electric cell. The monitor works on the absorption/scattering principle where the greater the oil content, the less the amount of visible light detected by the sampling photo-electric cell as compared to the reference photo-electric cell. The monitor works on the fluorescence principle where the greater the oil content, the greater the amount of ultra-violet light detected by the sampling photo-electric cell as compared to the reference photo-electric cell. The monitor works on the absorption/scattering principle where the greater the oil content, the greater the amount of visible light detected by the sampling photo-electric cell as compared to the reference photo-electric cell. Automation Systems
B For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what is a common industry standard for pneumatic signal pressure range? 0 to 100 psig 3 to 15 psig 0 to 10 psig 3 to 150 psig Automation Systems
C For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what is a common industry standard for electronic signal current range? 4 to 20 A 1 to 10 A 4 to 20mA 0 to 10 mA Automation Systems
D Vibration characteristics to establish a baseline signature or to check the mechanical condition of machinery are measured under which of the following operative conditions? Low torque High torque Abnormal Normal Automation Systems
C Which of the following statements is NOT a function of an effective vibration analysis program? To verify that proper repairs have been accomplished. To check machinery condition. To verify equipment alignment. To troubleshoot suspected problems. Automation Systems
B A reading taken with a portable hand-held vibration meter is capable of indicating which of the following conditions? The unit being tested has bad bearings. The unit being tested is operating normally. The unit being tested has a bad stator. The unit being tested has a bad rotor. Automation Systems
C Which of the following technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation device? Biological treatment plant Chemical treatment plant Sewage holding tank Direct overboard sewage discharge Auxiliary Machinery
A Which of the following sewage handling technologies would be associated with maintaining a culture of aerobic bacteria? Biological sewage plant Sewage holding tank Direct overboard sewage discharge Chemical treatment plant Auxiliary Machinery
C By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge overboard? Disinfection is not required on biological sewage treatment plants.  Ultraviolet light irradiation is the only approved means of disinfection. Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution and ultraviolet irradiation are both approved means of disinfection. Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution is the only approved means of disinfection. Auxiliary Machinery
C If a biological sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential order of treatment chambers within the plant? Sedimentation, disinfection, aeration Disinfection, aeration, sedimentation Aeration, sedimentation, disinfection Sedimentation, aeration, disinfection Auxiliary Machinery
B Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is __________. water-tube supercritical circulation water-tube forced circulation fire-tube controlled circulation fire-tube express circulation Auxiliary Machinery
C The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent __________. accidental dry firing and overpressure uncontrolled fires in the furnace explosions in the boiler furnace overheating of the pressure parts Auxiliary Machinery
A A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system __________. opens the burner circuit upon sensing a flame failure detects a flame failure by monitoring radiant heat from glowing refractory requires mechanical linkage to secure the burner fuel supply must be bypassed at low firing rates Auxiliary Machinery
A In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler,__________. steam demand response is comparatively rapid steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler unevaporated feed water is discharged through the skim tube steam demand response is slow Auxiliary Machinery
D Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to __________. completely drain the boiler in an emergency prevent sludge from forming in the steam drum remove floating impurities from the boiler water surface remove settled solids from the water drum Auxiliary Machinery
A The purpose of try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________. provide an alternate means of determining the water level, if the gage glass fails provide a means of adding chemical feed to the boiler water provide a means for blowing down the gage glass act as a steam sentinel valve, if any of the fusible plugs should melt Auxiliary Machinery
A Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct? Combustion gases flow through the tubes. Flames impinge on the tubes. Combustion occurs in the tubes. Water flows through the tubes. Auxiliary Machinery
B The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________. Illustration MO-0064 forced circulation, coil-type single-pass, fire-tube, scotch marine two-pass, scotch marine two-pass, water-tube Auxiliary Machinery
B The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by __________. girder stays fire-tubes and stay-tubes external boiler plating separate crown sheets Auxiliary Machinery
B Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to __________. provide a means of draining the boiler warn the engineer of low water level cool the crown sheet at high firing rates open the burners' electrical firing circuits Auxiliary Machinery
D Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on an auxiliary boiler, are __________. automatically supplied with warmer air on demand automatically supplied with more fuel on demand equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers cycled on and off in response to steam demand Auxiliary Machinery
D The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How this temperature is normally controlled? The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating by the admission of combustion air into the combustion chamber. The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of auxiliary fuel to the burner. The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the exhaust gas flow. The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of relatively cool ambient air into the exhaust stream. Auxiliary Machinery
C How is solid trash and garbage generally admitted to a solid-waste incinerator on most ships? The trash is admitted via a ram feed system. The trash is admitted via screw feed system. The trash is admitted manually via a loading door. The trash is admitted via a chute. Auxiliary Machinery
B In burning oily-waste sludge in a solid-waste/sludge incinerator, what statement is true? Cooling of the sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is required if the water content of the sludge is too low to support combustion on sludge alone. Heating of the sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is required if the water content of the sludge is too high to support combustion on sludge alone. Cooling of the sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is required if the water content of the sludge is too high to support combustion on sludge alone. Heating of the sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is required if the water content of the sludge is too low to support combustion on sludge alone. Auxiliary Machinery
D Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant? The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps promote settling in the aeration chamber. The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps promote settling in the aeration chamber. The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber. The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber. Auxiliary Machinery
C The usual method of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start-up is accomplished by __________. temporarily discharging to the air receiver the use of a precharged accumulator holding the suction valve open holding the discharge valve open Basic Safety Procedures
D Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the proper technique for lifting an object? Bend over and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body. Bend the knees and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body. Bend over and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body. Bend the knees and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body. Basic Safety Procedures
C What statement is true concerning portable power tools? A power tool fitted with a three conductor cable and three-prong plug may be safely used with an ungrounded outlet as long as a three prong receptacle to two prong plug adapter is used. Power tools other than those as approved as double-insulated require the use of two conductor cables, two-prong plugs, and ungrounded receptacles. Unless the power tool is an approved double-insulated type, an ungrounded power tool has the potential to cause a fatal accident due to electrical shock. Double-insulated power tools require the use of three conductor cables, three-prong plugs, and grounded receptacles. Basic Safety Procedures
B What is the best protection against hand injuries from pinch points associated with being required to perform maintenance or repairs on rotating machinery? Donning the appropriate head protection such as a hard hat. Properly locking out and tagging out the machine before work begins. Donning the appropriate hand protection such as work gloves. Donning the appropriate foot protection such as steel-toed safety shoes. Basic Safety Procedures
D Steel-toed safety shoes are recommended for many types of work. What type of work activity would be an exception to the rule and where steel-toed shoes would NOT be recommended? Welding fabrications work Rigging and hoisting work Machine shop work Electrical maintenance work Basic Safety Procedures
D What type of eye protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne impact hazards? Full-face shield Side-shielded safety glasses Eyecup or cover-type safety goggles Full-face shield and safety goggles Basic Safety Procedures
D What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time constraints associated with its use? Emergency escape breathing apparatus Powered air-purifying respirator Reusable full-mask respirator Self-contained breathing apparatus Basic Safety Procedures
C What statement is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to manipulate threaded fasteners? When extra leverage is needed for wrenches and drive tools, the use of a cheater bar is recommended. Push wrenches and drive tool handles rather than pull them for greater control and balance and to avoid injury. Six point sockets are less prone to slippage than twelve point sockets. For initial breaking loose and final tightening of fasteners, the use of open end wrenches isrecommended.recommended. Basic Safety Procedures
B When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags? Orange Red Yellow Green Basic Safety Procedures
D Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags? Whenever you feel that it is safe to do so. Whenever permission is granted by your supervisor. Whenever there is a break in the actual maintenance activity. Under NO circumstances should the equipment be operated when tagged. Basic Safety Procedures
B When installing CAUTION tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags? Red Yellow Orange Green Basic Safety Procedures
A Under what conditions is a DANGER tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs? When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel OR harm the equipment. When operation of the equipment requires unusual caution to be exercised. When operation of the equipment will harm the equipment ONLY. When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel ONLY. Basic Safety Procedures
D Under what conditions is a CAUTION tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs? When operation of the equipment will harm the equipment ONLY. When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel ONLY. When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel OR harm the equipment. When operation of the equipment requires temporary special instructions to be provided. Basic Safety Procedures
C Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags? Whenever there is a break in the actual maintenance activity. Whenever you feel that it is safe to do so. Only when the tags have been removed by an authorized person. Whenever permission is granted by your supervisor. Basic Safety Procedures
C The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________. rolling member size inner race cone width manufacturer's numerical code outer ring width Bearings
D Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings? They have a relatively high power loss due to friction. They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time. Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention. They are well adapted to variable speed operation. Bearings
C Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing? Thrust bearing Piston pin bushing Spring bearing All of the above. Bearings
D An example of an anti-friction bearing is a __________. line shaft or spring bearing Kingsbury thrust bearing rubber cutlass strut bearing ball bearing Bearings
A Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other? Ball Roller Tapered roller Needle Bearings
C Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings? They have a greater tolerance for high speed applications. They are subject to less pitting and metal fatigue. They have a greater contact area. They are installed with tighter clearances. Bearings
D Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________. all air pockets are vented from the grease dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing the grease is properly distributed within the bearing a path of expansion is provided for the grease Bearings
C When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________. apply even pressure to the outer race apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races apply even force to the inner race tap the outer race with a mallet Bearings
A In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________. spring force a pressure gun a zerk fitting gravity flow Bearings
D Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps? The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft. The outer race should be free to turn in its housing. Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation. They are usually pressed onto their shafts. Bearings
D Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft? An acetylene torch and hammer A tapered 'come-a-long' A steel drift pin and hammer An arbor press Bearings
D To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________. 75-95% of the original void space in the bearing 10-25% of the original void space in the bearing 50-75% of the original void space in the bearing 25-50% of the original void space in the bearing Bearings
B Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________. excessive channeling of the grease high temperatures to develop as result of churning emulsification of the thickener additive gelling of the base oil Bearings
C A ball bearing will overheat if __________. filled with grease to 65% of the total open spaces within the bearing operated at designed high speed completely packed full of grease in use for a long time Bearings
C The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________. inner race cone width outer ring width manufacturer's numerical code rolling member size Bearings
D Which of the following roller bearing types would be limited to radial thrust load applications? single row spherical roller bearing single row tapered roller bearing double row spherical roller bearing single row cylindrical roller bearing Bearings
A What statement is true concerning the hydrostatic lubrication of plain bearings? An outside pressure source is required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present at any shaft speed. An outside pressure source is not required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present only at operational speed. An outside pressure source is required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present only at operational speed. An outside pressure source is not required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present at any shaft speed. Bearings
A With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is meant by a radial load? A radial load is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft. A radial load is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft. A radial load is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft. A radial load is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft. Bearings
A With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is meant by an axial load? An axial load is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft. An axial load is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft. An axial load is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft. An axial load is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft. Bearings
B Concerning the start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic lubrication, what is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to operational speed? First full-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication. First boundary lubrication, followed by mixed-film lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication. First boundary lubrication, followed by full-film lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication. First mixed-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication. Bearings
C Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing which substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction? a sleeve bearing a plain bearing a ball bearing a journal bearing Bearings
A Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a plain bearing which substitutes fluid friction for sliding friction? a journal bearing a roller bearing a needle bearing a ball bearing Bearings
B After adding grease to a ball bearing with a hand-held grease gun, you should __________. close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in

the bearing
run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while save the used grease for chemical analysis remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape Bearings
D What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in terms of the quantity of grease in the housing? The bearing temperature would tend to produce unusual vibrations. The bearing temperature would tend to run cooler than normal for the load. The bearing would tend to produce a noticeable change in sound. The bearing temperature would tend to run hotter than normal for the load. Bearings
C Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is true? The outer race should be free to turn its housing. Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation. They are usually pressed on to their shafts. The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft. Bearings
C In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________. a pressure gun a zerk fitting spring force gravity flow Bearings
B Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a __________. split die split washer or backup ring jack screw ring gage Bearings
B A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity? Less than 1/4 1/3 to 1/2 1/2 to 3/4 More than 3/4 Bearings
C A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________. water in the bearing dirt in the bearing vibration while the bearing is not in operation abrasives in the lubricant Bearings
B A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied? the shaft the inner race the outer race the housing Bearings
D A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the housing in which it is being installed with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied? the shaft the housing the inner race the outer race Bearings
A A roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed. What thermal method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate? Heating the bearing in an oil-bath bearing heater. Cooling the bearing with dry ice. Cooling the shaft with liquid refrigerant. Heating the bearing with an oxyacetylene torch. Bearings
D Rolling element bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What is the first evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure? Discoloration of the races or rolling elements. The presence of metallic particles in the lubricant. The presence of small cracks in the rolling elements. The presence of small cracks in the races. Bearings
D Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other? Needle Tapered roller Roller Ball Bearings
B The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________. inner race cone width manufacturer's numerical code outer ring width rolling member size Bearings
B Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other? Tapered roller Ball Needle Roller Bearings
A Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings? They are well adapted to variable speed operation. They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time. Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention. They have a relatively high power loss due to friction. Bearings
B Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing? Piston pin bushing Spring bearing Thrust bearing All of the above. Bearings
D When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied to the bearing __________. outer race retainer plate raceway inner race Bearings
D Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________. excessive channeling of the grease gelling of the base oil emulsification of the thickener additive high temperatures to develop as result of churning Bearings
A As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________. reducing the quantity of lubricant until only a mist of oil is present on the ball bearings installing oil rings on the ball bearings adding more lubricant until the ball bearings are completely covered with a layer of oil maintaining a continuous fluid film of oil on the bearings Bearings
A A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________. vibration while the bearing is not in operation abrasives in the lubricant dirt in the bearing water in the bearing Bearings
B In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________. a zerk fitting spring force gravity flow a pressure gun Bearings
C Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a __________. jack screw ring gage split washer or backup ring split die Bearings
A Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a lube oil purifier is correct? They should be operated at maximum design speed and recommended operating capacity. They should be operated as slowly as possible to ensure a long service life. They should not be primed with water when operated as a separator. They should be operated as clarifiers for optimum moisture removal. Bilge Systems
D The water seal in a centrifuge, operating at normal speed, prevents the lube oil from discharging from the water outlet. Another function of the seal is to __________. provide a means of 'washing' the oil as it passes through the bowl keep the bowl at a temperature below that of the lube oil input develop permanent emulsions with the lube oil provide an area for separated water to pass and create a path to remove the water from the bowl Bilge Systems
D Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by __________. installing a swing check before each bilge valve using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds Bilge Systems
D The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________. to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means Bilge Systems
B In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration GS-0042 One Two Three Four Bilge Systems
C Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? Illustration GS-0139 3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed. 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed. 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed. 1, 2, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed. Bilge Systems
D One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the __________. motor overload will open motor will overheat relief valve will open pump will overheat Bilge Systems
D One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the __________. motor overload will open relief valve will open motor will overheat pump will overheat Bilge Systems
B In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration GS-0042 One Two Three Four Bilge Systems
D The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________. to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means Bilge Systems
A Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by __________. stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes installing a swing check before each bilge valve Bilge Systems
B Under what conditions is it permissible to pump machinery space bilges directly overboard without processing by an oily water separator? When the bilge water holding tank is full. When presented with a flooding emergency. When operating in international waters beyond the 200 mile limit. When, by visual inspection, the bilges appear to be free of oil. Bilge Systems
B What is meant by the term independent bilge suction? The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. The means by which a cargo hold bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. The means by which a cargo hold bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. Bilge Systems
B What is meant by the term emergency bilge suction? The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. Bilge Systems
D Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated centrifugal pump under manual supervision? Shaft alley bilges Machinery space bilges Engine room bilges Dry cargo hold bilges Bilge Systems
C Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? Illustration GS-0139 3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed. 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed. 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed. 1, 2, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed. Bilge Systems
A What is the primary reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as applicable to vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters? Prevent invasion of non-indigenous foreign marine species into U.S. waters. Prevent oil pollution of environmentally sensitive areas within U.S. waters. Prevent changes in salinity or salt content of coastal U.S. waters. Prevent sedimentary deposits in ports and harbor areas of U.S. waters. Bilge Systems
D Which of the following ballasting operations performed in conjunction with off-loading cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump? Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline. Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline. Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline. Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline. Bilge Systems
A Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump? Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline. Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline. Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline. Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline. Bilge Systems
B With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the forepeak and aft peak tanks? Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel. Adjusting the trim of the vessel. Correcting a list condition on the vessel. Correcting a condition of hogging or sagging of the vessel. Bilge Systems
A With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the double-bottom ballast tanks? Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel or correcting a condition of list. Adjusting the trim of the vessel. Correcting a condition of sagging of the vessel. Correcting a condition of hogging of the vessel. Bilge Systems
C With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant by the term "ballasting"? Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading cargo.  Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of list. Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading cargo. Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of hogging or sagging. Bilge Systems
B With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant by the term "deballasting"? Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of hogging or sagging. Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading cargo. Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading cargo. Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a condition of list. Bilge Systems
B With regards to a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term "segregated" ballast? Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from engine room bilge systems. Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from cargo or fuel oil systems. Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from sea water circulating or fire main systems. Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely separate from clean bilge systems. Bilge Systems
D Besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the ballast water management regulations? Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. Bilge Systems
C Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? Illustration GS-0139 3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed. 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed. 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed. 1, 2, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed. Bilge Systems
B In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration GS-0042 One Two Three Four Bilge Systems
A One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the __________. pump will overheat relief valve will open motor overload will open motor will overheat Bilge Systems
A The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________. if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty Bilge Systems
D Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by __________. using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump installing a swing check before each bilge valve installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds Bilge Systems
D As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically removed and examined. Prior to resecuring the valve bonnets, the valve __________. disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary bonnet flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened All of the above. Bilge Systems
C The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not been successful. The next practical solution would be to __________. place 20 gallons ( 75.7 L) of fuel oil tank wash into the affected bilge well to clear the blockage
 
change the trim of the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the

voyage
properly and safely empty the well with a portable pump then manually muck it out All of the above. Bilge Systems
B The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft starboard engine room bilge-well suddenly fails to be pumped out. Which of the following should be done first to determine the cause? Open the bilge pump for inspection. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected. Remove each of the manifold valves. Remove only the manifold valve to the affected bilge-well. Bilge Systems
D You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well that is fouled, with one foot of water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be carried out? Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps. It is only necessary to transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well. Send the wiper into the well with only a scoop and pail. Remove the bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line. Bilge Systems
C If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the __________. bilge well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely emptied bilge well aft connected to that valve will siphon its contents to the forward bilge wells bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent the other bilges from being pumped out All of the above. Bilge Systems
C If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any water, which of the following problems is the most probable cause? The discharge valve is clogged. The wearing rings are excessively worn. The suction strainer is clogged. The shaft is worn. Bilge Systems
A If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges, you would check for all of the following EXCEPT __________. the circuit breaker for leaks in the suction piping the suction strainer relief valve is not properly seated Bilge Systems
D In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the proportional mode of control? It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain. It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the error is changing. It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of

 error over time.
It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error. Closed - Loop Control System
B Suppose a temperature transmitter has an input range from 0 to 100 degrees Celsius and an output range of 4 to 20 milliamps. Assuming that the transmitter has a linear response pattern, what is the output current in milliamps if the input temperature is 40 degrees Celsius? 16.00 mA 10.40 mA 13.60 mA 6.40 mA Closed - Loop Control System
A What process control system control mode is most likely to have steady-state error (also known as offset or residual error)? Proportional mode Proportional + Derivative mode Proportional + Integral + Derivative mode Proportional + Integral mode Closed - Loop Control System
C For a process control system using the proportional control mode, what statement is true? Increasing the proportional gain without limit will always decrease the steady-state error.
 
o
Increasing the proportional gain without limit will always increase the steady-state error. Increasing the proportional gain within limits will decrease the steady-state error, but too much gain may cause instability. Decreasing the proportional gain within limits will decrease the steady-state error, but too little gain may cause instability. Closed - Loop Control System
B As a result of a load or setpoint change, in addition to minimizing the maximum value of the error, what are the two additional objectives of a closed-loop control system? The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and maximize the residual error. The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and minimize the residual error. The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and maximize the residual error. The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and minimize the residual error. Closed - Loop Control System
B For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multi-stage air compressor, interstage cooling will __________. allow isothermal compression of the air charge decrease the power required for compression increase the power required for compression allow the compressed air volume to remain constant Compressed Air Systems
D The unloading system on an air compressor will __________. reduce the compressor frictional load when starting increase compressor discharge pressure on demand increase compressor operating speed as necessary allow the motor to turn the compressor opposed only by friction Compressed Air Systems
A The primary function of the device illustrated is to __________. Illustration GS-0029 remove all but the frictional load of an air compressor at start-up intensify the pressure developed by an air compressor during its normal running operation pre-charge the cylinders of an air compressor prior to the start-up of the unit open the discharge valves during the compressors operation to supply compressed air Compressed Air Systems
C Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety valve? The actuator closing spring on a relief valve is in a compressed state whereas the actuator closing spring on a safety valve acts in tension.  Relief valves are capable of being gagged whereas safety valves are not. A relief valve gradually opens as pressure increases above set point pressure whereas a safety valve fully opens at the set point pressure. The blow down of a relief valve is greater than the blow down of a safety valve. Compressed Air Systems
C One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________. Illustration GS-0119 act as a cyclonic oil separator act solely as a heat exchanger act as a lube oil sump provide storage for compressed cryogenic gases Compressed Air Systems
D One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________. Illustration GS-0119 act solely as a heat exchanger act as a cyclonic pneumatic dehydrator provide storage for compressed cryogenic gases act as a lube oil sump Compressed Air Systems
D The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically operated as __________. Illustration GS-0119 a diesel engine air start unit only a constant pressure unit while operating under all load conditions an on-off cycle unit a constant capacity unit Compressed Air Systems
C An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an aftercooler to __________. inject water vapor into the compressed air prevent overheating of first stage valves increase compressor efficiency and economy reduce the compressed air charge density Compressed Air Systems
A The cylinders and intercoolers of most low-pressure air compressors are cooled by __________. air CO2 oil water Compressed Air Systems
A For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multi-stage air compressor, interstage cooling will __________. decrease the power required for compression allow the compressed air volume to remain constant allow isothermal compression of the air charge increase the power required for compression Compressed Air Systems
D The unloading system on an air compressor will __________. reduce the compressor frictional load when starting increase compressor discharge pressure on demand increase compressor operating speed as necessary allow the motor to turn the compressor opposed only by friction Compressed Air Systems
D The usual method of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start-up is accomplished by __________. the use of a precharged accumulator temporarily discharging to the air receiver holding the discharge valve open holding the suction valve open Compressed Air Systems
D Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station? Non-return valve Vacuum breaker Lubricator Moisture separator Compressed Air Systems
A If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the combustion control system and other pneumatic controllers, the entire system is known as the __________. control air system ships service air system forced draft air system supply air system Compressed Air Systems
C One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to __________. remove all traces of oil from the air dry the air discharged from the intercooler minimize the system's line pulsations receive exhaust air from pneumatic accessories Compressed Air Systems
B When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor and is used as an after cooler, the reservoir must be __________. fitted with a moisture trap at the inlet frequently drained of condensed water fitted with a manhole fitted with a sight glass Compressed Air Systems
C The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________. Illustration GS-0120 generate electricity pump heavy liquids compress air pump refrigerant Compressed Air Systems
C One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________. Illustration GS-0119 act solely as a heat exchanger provide storage for compressed cryogenic gases act as a lube oil sump act as a cyclonic pneumatic dehydrator Compressed Air Systems
B As demand on the device shown in the illustration fluctuates in the pressure range of 100 to 110 psi, the output of the unit is controlled by __________. Illustration GS-0119 proportional modulation of the compressor speed the modulation of the opening of a butterfly valve located in the air intake change in control pressure to modulate the discharge of compressed air to the atmosphere complete shut down until the lower pressure limit is reached causing it to restart Compressed Air Systems
C A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low pressure reciprocating air compressor will __________. prevent the valve from wire drawing have no effect on compressor operation retard the opening and closing of the valve provide quieter valve operation Compressed Air Systems
C Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause __________. carbon deposits on valves and pistons excessive compressor discharge pressure excessive wear on valves and cylinder liners a clogged air intake Compressed Air Systems
C Carbon deposits forming on the discharge valves of an air compressor are caused by oil deterioration under high pressure. The first step in reducing these deposits would be to __________. increase the oil volatility use a high viscosity oil reduce the discharge temperatures with intercoolers increase the compression ratio Compressed Air Systems
D Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor is caused by __________. insufficient intercooler cooling low ambient air pressure leaky discharge valves on the HP cylinder leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder Compressed Air Systems
D After coolers are used with air compressors to __________. dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air ensure complete expansion of the compressed air decrease the density of compressed air reduce the temperature of compressed air Compressed Air Systems
A If an air compressor is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement concerning operation is true? In the hand mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading. In the hand mode, the compressor will cycle on and off. In the auto mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading. In the off mode, the compressor will cycle on and off. Compressed Air Systems
D The device shown in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration GS-0029 reduce the pressure in the ship's service air system maintain correct tension on the drive belts while the compressor is in operation grind sewage prior to entering the sewage treatment plant unload the cylinders of an air compressor Compressed Air Systems
A If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor mechanical unloading system will __________. fail to function as designed, but the compressor having no load will start with little or no difficulty still function normally at start-up fail to work, and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the compressor will be overloaded Still function normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive motor Compressed Air Systems
B Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by the __________. first-stage unloader intercooler relief valve last-stage unloader after cooler relief valve Compressed Air Systems
A The air charge leaving an intercooler, or after cooler of an air compressor can be expected to be __________. at or below the dew point superheated super cooled All of the above. Compressed Air Systems
C Which of the listed valve types is typically used for suction and discharge valves on modern low pressure air compressors? Sliding Rotary Reed Poppet Compressed Air Systems
C In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners, which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low pressure air compressors? Barrel Valve-in-head Trunk Differential Compressed Air Systems
D Which of the following compressors would be used for a cold-ship start-up of a ship's service diesel generator on a motor ship? Ship's service air compressor Starting air compressor Topping air compressor Emergency air compressor Compressed Air Systems
D Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at approximately 100 psig? Starting air compressor Topping air compressor Emergency air compressor Ship's service air compressor Compressed Air Systems
C If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during startup, you should __________. check for a defective high pressure cut-out switch check the air filter check the operation of the unloaders check for a receiver outlet valve which may be partially closed Compressed Air Systems
D In a twin-tower desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is the procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant becomes saturated with moisture? The towers are shifted, and the off-going tower is refrigerated. Heat is applied to the tower on service and it remains on service while heating. The tower on service is refrigerated and it remains on service while cooling. The towers are shifted, and heat is applied to the off-going tower. Compressed Air Systems
D If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should __________. replace that belt only adjust belt tension dress the worn belt replace all of the belts Compressed Air Systems
A The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When mounted, these bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to __________. allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up reduce torsional vibration in the crankshaft prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft allow for crank web deflection Compressed Air Systems
B After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet and discharge valves is to use __________. gasoline diesel oil naphtha ammonia Compressed Air Systems
C How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture and emulsions? Quarterly Weekly Daily Monthly Compressed Air Systems
D When checking the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick, under what conditions should the oil level be checked? With the compressor running at speed and unloaded. With the compressor running at speed and loaded. With the compressor in the auto mode and currently not running. With the compressor in the off mode incapable of starting. Compressed Air Systems
C As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned, what statement is true? For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than with a clean filter.  For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than with a clean filter. For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than with a clean filter. For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than with a clean filter. Compressed Air Systems
A Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for adjusting the metering rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set. Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip rate or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate. Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip rate or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate. Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip rate or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air flow. Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip rate or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air flow. Compressed Air Systems
C Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station? The bowl should be drained daily with no need to check the moisture level. The bowl should be drained whenever moisture droplets appear in the bowl. The bowl should be drained before the moisture level reaches the lower baffle. The bowl should be drained after the bowl completely fills with moisture. Compressed Air Systems
C A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low pressure reciprocating air compressor will __________. prevent the valve from wire drawing provide quieter valve operation retard the opening and closing of the valve have no effect on compressor operation Compressed Air Systems
A What statement is true concerning carbon deposit formation on reciprocating compressor cylinder valves? The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures. The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures. The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures. The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures. Compressed Air Systems
C Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause __________. a clogged air intake carbon deposits on valves and pistons excessive wear on valves and cylinder liners excessive compressor discharge pressure Compressed Air Systems
B Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor is caused by __________. leaky discharge valves on the HP cylinder leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder low ambient air pressure insufficient intercooler cooling Compressed Air Systems
D Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a reciprocating air compressor suction valve? Carbon build up in the piston ring belt. Lifting of intercooler relief valve. compressor operation in an area of high relative humidity. Faulty operation of a cylinder unloader. Compressed Air Systems
A In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from __________. heating of the air leaving the cylinders constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume adiabatic compression in the intercooler inaccurate valve timing Compressed Air Systems
A Which of the following causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven reciprocating air compressor drive motor running current draw? Excessive drive belt tension. Insufficient drive belt tension. Excessive internal running clearances. Clogged air intake filter. Compressed Air Systems
A If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its design parameters, what would be the effect? Higher than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity. Lower than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity. Higher than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity. Lower than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity. Compressed Air Systems
A If a belt-driven reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design displacement capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause? Insufficiently tensioned drive belts. Misalignment between the compressor and its driver. Improperly lubricated bearings. Excessively tensioned drive belts. Compressed Air Systems
D If a reciprocating air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to properly seat, what statement is true concerning the result? The compressor would have longer running periods at higher displacement capacity between operating cycles. The compressor would have shorter running periods at lower displacement capacity between operating cycles. The compressor would have shorter running periods at higher displacement capacity between operating cycles. The compressor would have longer running periods at lower displacement capacity between operating cycles. Compressed Air Systems
B Which of the listed central operating system types requires conversion of continuous analog signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and control. Pneumatic Digital Electric/electronic Direct connected Control Systems
A As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the workstations labeled "LOS" associated with the port power management system? Illustration EL-0096 These are local operating system workstations that allow local control of processes related to the operation and control of the port switchboard and its associated generators. These are local oil system workstations that allow local control of processes related to the lubrication of the port generators. These are local operating system workstations that allow local control of processes related to the lubrication of all machinery within the engineering plant. These are local operating system workstations that allow local control of processes related to the operation and control of all functions within the engineering plant. Control Systems
B As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the data communication pathways labeled "Dual CAN"? Illustration EL-0096 These are control area networks providing supply and return pathways for communication. These are control area networks providing redundancy so as to maintain communications despite a bus failure. These are communication access nodes providing redundancy so as to maintain communications despite a node failure. These are communication access nodes providing supply and return pathways for communication. Control Systems
D As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the units labeled "WCU" in the accommodations? Illustration EL-0096 These are watch cabin units extending the alarm system to engineer staterooms vessels with engine rooms requiring 24-hour manning of watches. These are watch control units extending remote operating system functionality to engineer staterooms vessels with periodically unmanned engine rooms. These are watch control units extending remote operating system functionality to engineer staterooms vessels with engine rooms requiring 24-hour manning of watches. These are watch cabin units extending the alarm system to engineer staterooms vessels with periodically unmanned engine rooms. Control Systems
A As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the units labeled "ROS" which are remote operating system workstations? Illustration EL-0096 Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations differ depending on system configuration and need. The ROS located in the ship's office is designated as the master ROS. The ROS located in the wheelhouse is designated as the master ROS. Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations are all identical. Control Systems
C As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for supervisory control, which statement is true concerning the block "COMPUTER" with respect to closed-loop control processes? Illustration EL-0094 The computer normally has no role in the various closed-loop control processes. It is only used for backup control purposes.  The computer has no role in the various closed-loop control processes regardless of the control mode. The computer provides the set point input data to the analog controllers, but the analog controllers actually control the closed-loop processes. The computer provides the set point input data to the process control loop, as well as the measured variable data. The analog controllers are only used for manual backup control. Control Systems
A As shown in figure "B" in the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for supervisory control, what is the function of the block "ANALOG (A-D MUX)"? Illustration EL-0094 A high speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large number of analog sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to digital values for processing by the CPU. A low speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small number of analog sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals to digital values for processing by the CPU. A low speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small number of digital sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals to analog values for processing by the CPU. A high speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large number of digital sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to analog values for processing by the CPU. Control Systems
C As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram for a central operating system configured for supervisory control, what is becoming the industry standard for transmission of analog signals for a measured variable? Illustration EL-0094 -10 volts to +10 volts 1 volt to 5 volts 4 milliamps to 20 milliamps 10 milliamps to 50 milliamps Control Systems
A As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL OUTPUT" represent? Illustration EL-0095 It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission to the digital actuators. It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission to the digital actuators. It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission to the analog actuators. It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for transmission to the analog actuators. Control Systems
A As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG A/D" represent? Illustration EL-0095 It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals for CPU processing. It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital signals for CPU processing. It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals for CPU processing. It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog signals for CPU processing. Control Systems
D As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL CONTACT" represent? Illustration EL-0095 It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog signals for CPU processing. It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals for CPU processing. It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals for CPU processing. It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital signals for CPU processing. Control Systems
B As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the area networks? Illustration EL-0096 The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant network, with no interconnectivity between the two networks. The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant network, with both networks being interconnected. The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant network, with both networks being interconnected. The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant network, with no interconnectivity between the two networks. Control Systems
B Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the liquid level in a pressure vessel such a water-tube boiler steam drum? Capacitance probe Differential pressure sensor Static pressure sensor Displacement float level sensor Control Systems
A Which of the following illustrations represents the proper method of circuit grounding for a low level analog signal cable? Illustration EL-0124 A B C D Control Systems
C As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent? Illustration EL-0095 It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission to the digital actuators.  It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for transmission to the analog actuators. It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission to the analog actuators. It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission to the digital actuators. Control Systems
C As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent? Illustration EL-0095 It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission to the digital actuators.  It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for transmission to the analog actuators. It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission to the analog actuators. It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission to the digital actuators. Control Systems
B As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the voltage sensing unit? Illustration EL-0066 The voltage sensor delivers an AC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output voltage to the comparator. The voltage sensor delivers a relatively low value of DC signal voltage proportional to the alternator output voltage to the comparator. The voltage sensor delivers a relatively low value of single phase AC signal voltage proportional to the alternator output voltage to the comparator. The voltage sensor delivers a DC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output voltage to the comparator. Control Systems
B What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing? Thermistor probe Radiation pyrometer Resistance temperature detector Thermocouple pyrometer Control Systems
D What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine exhaust and boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force? Thermistor probe Resistance temperature detector Radiation pyrometer Thermocouple pyrometer Control Systems
D What is another name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses two-point control? Integral control Derivative control Proportional control On-off control Control Systems
B In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to drive the actual result toward the desired result? Gain Feedback Instability Dead band Control Systems
C In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it relates to stability and the direction of error displacement? Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction as the error displacement.
 
o
Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction as the error displacement. Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite direction as the error displacement. Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite direction as the error displacement. Control Systems
C In a closed-loop process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function of the error detector within the controller? The error detector computes the sum of the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired value (set point).  The error detector computes the quotient of the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired value (set point). The error detector computes the difference between the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired value (set point). The error detector computes the product of the measured value of the controlled variable and the desired value (set point). Control Systems
B What type of primary element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for measuring oil-fired boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures? Bellows pressure sensor Diaphragm pressure sensor Bourdon tube pressure sensor Strain gage pressure sensor Control Systems
A Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal? Optical tachometer Brush-type DC tachometer Brushless DC tachometer AC tachometer Control Systems
B In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the progressive reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component? Saturation Damping Hysteresis Dead band Control Systems
C In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by error? The progressive reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component. The criterion of good control that permits no overshoot when the set point is changed. The signal in a controller that is obtained by subtracting the measured value of the controlled value from the set point. The ratio of the amplitude of the output signal of a component divided by the amplitude of the input signal. Control Systems
D When tuning a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) controller/loop, one should know/understand the influence of each action component on the loop. Which description of a component is correct? Integral -component in which the input is proportional to the output. Proportional -component in which there is a linear relationship between set point and input. Derivative -component in which the input is proportional to the rate of change of the output. Proportional -component in which there is a linear relationship between output and input. Control Systems
C Control system diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function required for the system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols are used to allow engineers to describe the logic and component functions. Define the function of symbol "I" as shown in the illustration __________. Illustration GS-0180 High Select Signal Processor. Integral Processor. Low Select Signal Processor. Difference Signal Processor. Control Systems
A As the engineer, it is necessary to tune a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) control loop. If the PID incorporates all three functions, which function(s) is/are dominant in the controllers performance? Proportional. Derivative and Proportional. Integral and Derivative. All are equally important. Control Systems
B While calibrating a 4-20 mA electronic, or a 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, with a process output of 50-250 PSI, what is the controller span/range you are dealing with? Output process range is 0-250 PSI. Output process span is 200 PSI. Controller input ranges are 0-40 mA and 0-15 PSI. Controller process output span is 0-250 PSI. Control Systems
D While calibrating an electronic 4 -20 mA or 3 -15 PSI pneumatic controller, what is the value of 'Live Zero'? 0' for input span and another value for output range. 4 mA or 3 PSI for process output range. 0' for span and range. 4 mA or 3 PSI. Control Systems
C A 'Proportional Only' controlled automatic process loop is oscillating continually, above and below the set point. To stabilize this controller and loop using the 'gain' adjustment, what controller/loop response would you expect upon process changes vs. set point? By decreasing reset, the system's oscillations should subside vs. set point after an upset.
 
By decreasing gain, the process should return to a straight line response vs. set point after an upset. By decreasing gain gradually, the process should stabilize in a 'quarter wave' response to system's upsets vs. the set point. By increasing gain, the system's oscillations should subside vs. set point after an upset. Control Systems
A On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for machinery space sea water cooling systems? A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water, and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily while underway. A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water, and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily while underway. A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway, and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water. A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway, and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water. Cooling Systems
A Referring to illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning main circulating to auxiliary circulating seawater system cross-connect capability? Illustration SP-SW-01 It is possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s), and it is possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating pump. In the event of multiple seawater service system pump failures, multiple main circulating pumps may be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. While it may be possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating pump, it is not possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s). While it may be possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s), it is not possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating pump. Cooling Systems
A Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning main circulating to auxiliary circulating sea water system cross-connect capability? Illustration SP-SW-01 It is possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s), and it is possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating pump. In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, multiple main circulating pumps may be used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. While it may be possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating pump, it is not possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s). While it may be possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s), it is not possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating pump. Cooling Systems
D Classification society requirements stipulate that main sea water cooling pumps be furnished with redundancy with either two dedicated pumps or with one dedicated pump and one standby pump available for other seawater services. Referring to the illustrated motor ship seawater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning meeting these classification society requirements? (MP-CW-01) The standby main seawater cooling pump may also function as a fire pump. Both main seawater cooling pumps are dedicated to main engine cooling only. The standby main seawater cooling pump may also function as a clean bilge pump. The standby main seawater cooling pump may also function as a ballast pump. Cooling Systems
B What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system? The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating from the top of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges. The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating from the top of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line. The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges. The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line. Cooling Systems
A What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea suction to a low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system? Underway operations or encountering rough seas. Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. Entering port or shallow water. Cooling Systems
D What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea suction to a high sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system? Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. Underway operations or encountering rough seas. Entering port or shallow water. Cooling Systems
B What provision is made for sea chests for removal of solid debris restricting the entry grating into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?
The debris is continuously removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed air or steam by cracking open the blow valve, as appropriate. The debris may be removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed air or steam, as appropriate. The debris may be removed by draining the sea chest clear by opening a drain valve located at the bottom of the sea chest. The debris is continuously removed by draining the sea chest clear by cracking open a drain valve located at the bottom of the sea chest. Cooling Systems
C What provision is made for sea chests for removal of ice from within the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system during operation in icy waters? The ice may be removed by using the chemical de-icing anti-freeze connection, if provided. The ice may be removed by using the fire main flushing connection, if provided. The ice may be removed by using the steaming out sea chest blow connection, if provided. The ice may be removed by using the compressed air sea chest blow connection, if provided. Cooling Systems
A Referring to the illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, which pump can be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergency? Illustration SP-SW-01 The two-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. The single-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. Any of the sea water service pumps can be used for this purpose. The auxiliary sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. Cooling Systems
D Referring to the illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, which pump is considered a high-head pump operating with the highest discharge pressure? Illustration SP-SW-01 The auxiliary sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump. The two-speed main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump. The single-speed main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump. Any of the sea water service pumps are considered high-head pumps. Cooling Systems
A Referring to illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning seawater service system to auxiliary circulating seawater system cross-connect capability? Illustration SP-SW-01 In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may be used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating seawater, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. In the event of multiple seawater service system pump failures, the auxiliary circulating pump may be used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. In the event of multiple seawater service system pump failures, multiple main circulating pumps may be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. Cooling Systems
A Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling temperature control system? Illustration MP-CW-06 The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature. The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is used to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature. The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature. The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is used to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature. Cooling Systems
B Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, which cooling system tanks are MOST likely to have oil separation capability? Illustration MP-CW-06 SSDG fresh water expansion tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank. Injector cooling water tank and piston cooling water drain tank. Piston cooling water drain tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank. Injector cooling water tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank. Cooling Systems
D Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling system heat recovery capability as associated with generating fresh water? Illustration MP-CW-06 The main engine jacket water heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating fresh water at the evaporator. The main engine jacket water cooler is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating fresh water at the evaporator. The evaporator standby heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating fresh water at the evaporator. The evaporator itself is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating fresh water at the evaporator. Cooling Systems
A Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the jacket water heater? Illustration MP-CW-06 The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm. The jacket water heater is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental heat for the evaporator. The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle for the sole purpose of generating fresh water at the evaporator. The jacket water heater is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine heat. Cooling Systems
C Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the standby heating coil? Illustration MP-CW-06 The standby heating coil is used under high engine load conditions to supplement the jacket water cooler.
 
The standby heating coil is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm. The standby heating coil is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental heat for the evaporator. The standby heating coil is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine heat. Cooling Systems
A For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be generally used to introduce water treatment chemicals? Jacket water expansion tank. Jacket water outlet header Jacket water inlet header. Jacket water pump vent. Cooling Systems
C Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the evaporator? Illustration MP-CW-06 The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and after the jacket water cooler.
 
o
The evaporator uses heat recovered from the jacket water cooler seawater as a heat source to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler. The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler. The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to generate fresh water and is piped in parallel with the jacket water cooler. Cooling Systems
C Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket water cooling system? Illustration MP-CW-06 The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling water flow so that the turbocharger receives a greater flow rate of cooling water as compared to the main engine cooling water jackets.
 
The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice works in conjunction with the deaerator to remove entrained air from the jacket water outlet. The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling water flow so that the turbocharger receives a lesser flow rate of cooling water as compared to the main engine cooling water jackets. The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling water flow so that the turbocharger receives the same flow rate of cooling water as does the main engine cooling water jackets. Cooling Systems
B Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, which set of cooling water pumps would MOST likely require a priming maintenance system or the use of deep well pumps? Illustration MP-CW-06 The main engine jacket cooling fresh water pumps. The main engine piston cooling fresh water pumps. The main engine injector cooling fresh water pumps. The ship's service diesel generator fresh water cooling pumps. Cooling Systems
A Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning sea water service system to auxiliary circulating sea water system cross-connect capability? Illustration SP-SW-01 In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple sea water service pumps may be used to supply both the sea water service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple sea water service pumps may be used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, the auxiliary circulating pump may be used to supply both the sea water service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. In the event of multiple sea water service system pump failures, multiple main circulating pumps may be used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. Cooling Systems
C Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, which cooling system has cooling water passing through passages within components that are continuously undergoing motion? Illustration MP-CW-06 The main engine jacket water cooling system. The SSDG cooling water systems The main engine piston cooling water system. The main engine injector cooling water system. Cooling Systems
B On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for machinery space sea water cooling systems? A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water, and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily while underway. A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water, and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily while underway. A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway, and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water. A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway, and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when operating in shallow water. Cooling Systems
D What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea suction to a high sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system? Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. Underway operations or encountering rough seas. Entering port or shallow water. Cooling Systems
D What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system? The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line. The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating from the top of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges. The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges. The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating from the top of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line. Cooling Systems
C Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump can be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergency? Illustration SP- SW-01 The single-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. The auxiliary sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. The two-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. Any of the sea water service pumps can be used for this purpose. Cooling Systems
B Referring to illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning seawater service system to auxiliary circulating seawater system cross-connect capability? Illustration SP-SW-01 In the event of multiple seawater service system pump failures, multiple main circulating pumps may be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may be used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating seawater, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. In the event of multiple seawater service system pump failures, the auxiliary circulating pump may be used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. Cooling Systems
D Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the jacket water heater? Illustration MP-CW-06 The jacket water heater is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental heat for the evaporator. The jacket water heater is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine heat. The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle for the sole purpose of generating

 fresh water at the evaporator.
The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm. Cooling Systems
C While riding at anchor, the anchor chain should be secured by the __________. riding spindle windlass brake only chain stopper or riding pawl anchor shackle Deck Machinery
D The part of the anchor windlass that engages the anchor chain for lifting is called the __________. capstan fairlead warping head wildcat Deck Machinery
B What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain? Yellow Red Blue White Deck Machinery
C A shot of anchor chain has a length of __________. 12 fathoms 6 fathoms 15 fathoms 45 fathoms Deck Machinery
D A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________. 90 fathoms one -15 foot segment one chain link one -90 foot segment Deck Machinery
D All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted __________. red orange white yellow Deck Machinery
D All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __________. white orange yellow red Deck Machinery
C In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main pressure piping is provided by __________. Illustration GS-0160 D E L M Deck Machinery
C A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________. half the breaking strength of the mooring line 50% over the working tension of the mooring line the full breaking strength of the mooring line the maximum expected tension of the mooring line Deck Machinery
C When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________. opened hydraulically and held open by spring action whenever the electrical supply is secured engaged by spring action plus hydraulic pressure engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating Deck Machinery
C The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when __________. automatic operation of the winch is desired minimum pull is being exerted by the winch excessive loads are placed on the winch wire is being retrieved at the maximum rate Deck Machinery
B The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is to __________. apply a light oil to the bearing housing replace the bearing with a new one allow the winch to run at slower speeds only add grease through the zerk fitting Deck Machinery
D If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch, and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________. add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute check the winch manufacturer's instruction book Deck Machinery
B Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________. wear on the braking system damage to the teeth over speeding of the motor overheating of the lube oil Deck Machinery
B The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may begin to cavitate if __________. Illustration GS-0118 "A" is allowed to remain open "D" is not kept clean "H" were to be removed and the system operated for thirty minutes without it being replaced "B" is over tightened Deck Machinery
A If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you should __________. adjust the centrifugal brake mechanism engage the motor friction clutch bands adjust the davit mounted limit switches remove unnecessary weight from the boat Deck Machinery
C Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn? The anchor will immediately drop. The clutch will overheat. The brake's effectiveness will be reduced. The driving engine will over speed. Deck Machinery
C The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate __________. the fluid level in the reservoir is too high clogged suction line fluid filters air trapped in the system abrasive matter circulating in the oil Deck Machinery
B Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result from a/an __________. low fluid viscosity around the shaft seal low fluid level in the reservoir high oil level in the sump overload on the pump motor Deck Machinery
B In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal pressure is indicated on the high side of the system, the probable cause is the __________. Illustration GS-0160 manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated relief valve "L" is not closing replenishing pump coupling is broken pressure from "E" has failed to bleed off when "J" is placed in the operating position Deck Machinery
C In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to half of the normal operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo control is placed, the probable cause is the __________. Illustration GS-0160 replenishing pump coupling is broken relief valve is not opening manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated spring set point for "I" is too high Deck Machinery
A In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve opens as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the __________. Illustration GS-0160 manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated replenishing pump discharge check valves are continuously open spring set point "I" is set too high for normal loads relief valve control shuttle has shifted to the wrong position during windlass operation Deck Machinery
B As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what statement is true? The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. Deck Machinery
B As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true? The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when power is removed from the electric drive motor. The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. Deck Machinery
A A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the windlass clutch control levers? The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only. They have no control over the warping heads. The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the warping heads only. They have no control over the wildcats. The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping heads and the wildcats. The clutch control levers are used to either engage and disengage the warping heads or the wildcats, depending upon the windlass design. Deck Machinery
B A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the pedestal-mounted controller? The pedestal-mounted controller allows the wildcats to rotate in either direction of rotation, but the warping heads in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum. The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in either direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum. The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum. The pedestal-mounted controller allows the warping heads to rotate in either direction of rotation, but the wildcats in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum. Deck Machinery
C A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the manual brake hand wheels? The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both the wildcats and the warping heads.
 
o
The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping

heads only.
The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only. The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the wildcats or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design. Deck Machinery
C A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the warping heads and wildcats? The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the wildcats will rotate.
 
The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the wildcats will rotate. The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the warping heads will rotate. The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor, the warping heads will rotate. Deck Machinery
A In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting? Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control being in other than the neutral position. Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat clutches being disengaged. Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with hand wheel operated wildcat band brakes being set. Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control being in the neutral position. Deck Machinery
D As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true? The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged. The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged. The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged. The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged. Deck Machinery
C As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true? The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when power is removed from the electric drive motor.
 
The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. Deck Machinery
C What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship? Platform interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency when elevators are required to be used.
 
Platform interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when elevators are not to be used. Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is at other than a deck level and only allow door operation when the platform is proved at a deck level. Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is proved at a deck level and only allow door operation when the platform is at a position other than a deck level. Deck Machinery
C Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft? The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and capstan head are all located on the weather deck.
 
o
The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are hung from the underside of the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck. The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are mounted on the deck below the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck. A flexible coupling is required on all three drive arrangements listed above. Deck Machinery
A Concerning a conventional mooring winch, what statement is true? A high capacity brake is required to hold a load approaching the breaking strength of the mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage. A high capacity brake is required to hold a load equal to the breaking strength of the mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted. A high capacity brake is required to hold a load exceeding the breaking strength of the mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted. A low capacity brake is required to hold a load far below the breaking strength of the mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage. Deck Machinery
D As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true? A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies above a certain preset tension. A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically recover, but not render, mooring line using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies below a certain preset tension. A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line using the brake when the mooring line tension varies above certain preset tension. A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render and recover mooring line using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies outside of narrow preset adjustable tension limits. Deck Machinery
B As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true? The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. Deck Machinery
C As it pertains to the luffing motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true? When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to the boom, the luffing pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch brake released.
 
o
When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to the boom, the luffing pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake set. When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible height, the luffing pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake set. When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible height, the luffing pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch brake released. Deck Machinery
C As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, which statement is true? When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible height, the hoist pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake released.
 
When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake released. When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake set. When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible height, the hoist pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake set. Deck Machinery
C For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would result in an immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing? All motions are stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and minimum outreach limit switches. All motions are stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches. All motions are stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane. All motions are stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or the slack wire limit switch. Deck Machinery
A What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship? Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still open and only allow elevator operation if the doors are proved closed. Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still closed and only allow elevator operation if the doors are proved open. Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when elevators are not to be used. Door interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency when elevators are required to be used. Deck Machinery
D As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what statement is true? The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. Deck Machinery
B A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the windlass clutch control levers? The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping heads and the wildcats. The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only. They have no control over the warping heads.


D. The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage either the warping heads or the wildcats, depending upon the windlass design.
The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the warping heads only. They have no control over the wildcats. Deck Machinery
C A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the manual brake hand wheels? The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both the wildcats and the warping heads.
 
o
The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping

heads only.
The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only. The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the wildcats or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design. Deck Machinery
C In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting? Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with hand wheel operated wildcat band brakes being set.
 
o
Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control being in the neutral position. Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control being in other than the neutral position. Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat clutches being disengaged. Deck Machinery
D As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true? The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged. The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged. The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged. The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged. Deck Machinery
C As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true? The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when power is removed from the electric drive motor.
 
o
The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. Deck Machinery
A Concerning a conventional mooring winch, what statement is true? A high capacity brake is required to hold a load approaching the breaking strength of the mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage. A high capacity brake is required to hold a load equal to the breaking strength of the mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted. A high capacity brake is required to hold a load exceeding the breaking strength of the mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted. A low capacity brake is required to hold a load far below the breaking strength of the mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage. Deck Machinery
A As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true? The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. Deck Machinery
D As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, which statement is true? When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible height, the hoist pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake set. When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible height, the hoist pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake released. When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake released. When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake set. Deck Machinery
B For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would result in an immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing? All motions are stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches. All motions are stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane. All motions are stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or the slack wire limit switch. All motions are stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and minimum outreach limit switches. Deck Machinery
B What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship? Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when elevators are not to be used. Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still open and only allow elevator operation if the doors are proved closed. Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still closed and only allow elevator operation if the doors are proved open. Door interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency when elevators are required to be used. Deck Machinery
A Which of the following statements is correct relative to distillation plant operation? Distillation is the process of boiling seawater to produce vapor which is condensed into fresh water. Evaporation is the second part of the distillation process where brine is removed. Distillate is the product resulting from the evaporation of fresh water vapor. Brine is the result of condensed sea water vapor. Desalination
A The primary reason low pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high pressure evaporators is __________. evaporation is accomplished in a vacuum evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed due to the latent heat of evaporation principle Desalination
D The process of boiling seawater in order to separate it into freshwater vapor and brine is usually defined as __________. dehydration dissolution condensation evaporation Desalination
B In the production of freshwater from sea water through a process of heating and cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually called __________. dehydration condensation evaporation distillation Desalination
C When any low pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the designed vacuum, the __________. scale formation decreases heat level drops heat level rises capacity increases Desalination
B The efficiency of a flash type evaporator can be increased by __________. increasing the saltwater feed heater temperature decreasing the absolute pressure of each stage lowering brine discharge density increasing the pressure at the spray pipe Desalination
A Why would a flash type distilling unit be more efficient when operated in cooler seawater temperatures? Evaporator vacuum is increased. Steam carryover between stages is reduced. Feed water flow from the feed water heater is increased. The amount of available flash steam is decreased. Desalination
D In a two-stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is increased as it passes through the __________. first-stage distilling condenser second-stage distilling condenser salt water feed heater All of the above. Desalination
C Which of the following descriptions best identifies the operating principal of a flash-type evaporator? Sea water is heated to boiling temperature while under a vacuum. Sea water is passed over heated plates in a thin film. Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber. Sea water is forced through a heated eductor. Desalination
A In a flash evaporator, heated water under pressure is converted into vapor by suddenly __________. decreasing its pressure increasing its velocity decreasing its density increasing its temperature Desalination
B Diesel engine jacket water is used in the fresh water distillation process as the __________. primary means of producing a vacuum within the distiller means of heating the feed water coolant for the brine cooler coolant for the distillate Desalination
D What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 It aids in removing condenser tube bundles. It provides a conduit for incoming feed water. It is only used as a lifting beam during installation. It serves as a hinge for ease of opening the shell. Desalination
C Which of the following represents the motivating power fluid used in conjunction with the ejector pumps on plate type evaporators? The ejectors do not require a motive power. The motive power is the jacket water flowing through the ejectors. The motive power is the feed water supply. The motive power is the brine pump output, prior to being discharged overboard. Desalination
A The primary function of line 'J' shown in the illustration is to __________. Illustration MO-0110 remove air and non-condensable gases from the unit remove condensable gases from the unit allow for removal of produced distillate prevent backflow of eductor discharge Desalination
D The function of device "O" shown in the illustration is to __________. Illustration MO-0110 provide a positive suction head for the brine pump regulate the amount of brine entering the unit control the amount of brine exiting the evaporator control the amount of feed water entering the evaporator Desalination
A In which of the following fresh water generators would an air ejector be unnecessary? Reverse-osmosis unit Submerged tube unit Titanium plate unit Flash type unit Distilling Systems
B Which of the following fresh water generators has an operating principle that evaporates preheated sea water by causing it to undergo a pressure drop into a vacuum? Submerged tube unit Flash type unit Titanium plate unit Reverse osmosis unit Distilling Systems
C Which of the following freshwater generators has an operating principle that requires it to run under a substantially positive pressure? Submerged tube unit Titanium plate unit Reverse-osmosis unit Flash type unit Distilling Systems
C Which of the freshwater generators listed below is operated without a source of heat? Titanium plate type Flash type Reverse-osmosis type Submerged tube type Distilling Systems
D Which of the freshwater generators listed below requires a source of heat and evaporates sea water at a location other than a heat exchanger surface? Submerged tube type Reverse-osmosis type Titanium plate type Flash type Distilling Systems
B With regard to fresh water generators, what statement concerning brine is true? Brine is the cooling medium used for chill-shocking as a means for scale removal. Brine is the unevaporated sea water of a fresh water generator as the result of distillation. Brine is the cooling medium used for cooling the distillate before distribution. Brine is the incoming sea water feed to the fresh water generator and destined for distillation. Distilling Systems
D What is the function of device 'C' shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 The division plate creates a pressure drop between the two stages. It allows for access into section 'F'. It controls the amount of vapor produced in section 'F'. It removes moisture entrained in the vapors produced in section 'G'. Distilling Systems
C Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 It supplies feed water to evaporator. It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the brine. It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the distillate. It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of air and non-condensable gases. Distilling Systems
A The heat exchanger plates, used in the device shown in the illustration, are produced from which of the listed materials? Illustration MO-0110 Titanium Copper Anodized aluminum Phosphor bronze Distilling Systems
B What is the function of item 'D' shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 It condenses the distillate. It heats the entering feed water. It causes the jacket water to evaporate. It heats the jacket water entering the device. Distilling Systems
D Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 Non-condensable vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated. The sea water flowing through device "I" is cooled. The jacket water flowing through device "I" is heated. The vapors produced in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are removed. Distilling Systems
B What occurs in the space labeled "G" of the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 Jacket water is heated in the boiling chamber. The feed water enters the device and vaporizes under vacuum conditions. The feed water is cooled prior to being pumped into section "F". Scale accumulates at position "E". Distilling Systems
C What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 It provides a conduit for incoming feed water. It aids in removing condenser tube bundles. It serves as a hinge for ease of opening the shell. It is only used as a lifting beam during installation. Distilling Systems
C Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat exchangers used in the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 Torque wrench Pneumatic impact wrench Steel ruler or tape measure Cantilever wrench Distilling Systems
D Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea water leakage in the illustrated device. Illustration MO-0110 Improper venting during start-up. Improper venting during operation. Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the evaporator heat exchanger. Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the condenser heat exchanger. Distilling Systems
B Failure to establish sufficient vacuum when starting up the unit shown in the illustration may be the result of __________. Illustration MO-0110 improper operation of the brine pump neglecting to close the vent shell improper operation of the distillate pump neglecting to latch the dump valve Distilling Systems
A When tightening the plate type heat exchangers shown in the illustration, care must be taken to __________. Illustration MO-0110 use a specific opposing pattern while measuring the distance to which the plates have been compressed avoid fracturing the backing plate avoid using a torque wrench that has not been recently calibrated prevent damage to the aluminum plates Distilling Systems
D What is a function of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 It provides a low pressure point for combustion air filtration. It relieves the excessive pressure developed in the jacket water cooler. It aids in the removal of combustible gases formed in the crankcase. It provides a low pressure point for adding chemicals into the jacket water system. Distilling Systems
B What is the function of the device labeled "3" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 The heat exchanger serves to heat the jacket water during cold water operation. The cooler removes sensible heat from the jacket water. The jacket water cooler is used to raise the temperature of the sea water flowing through it. The device specifically serves to remove the latent heat of vaporization from the jacket water. Distilling Systems
A Item "10" shown in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration MO-0111 direct the flow from the distillate pump regulate flow from the drain pump prevent damage to device "9" by reducing turbulence cancel the effects of improper regulation developed by device "11" Distilling Systems
A The operation of the lube oil cooler, shown in the illustration as item #4, will be characterized by which of the following statements? Illustration MO-0111 The temperature of the sea water entering the cooler will be higher when operating with the distiller on line. The pressure of the lube oil to the cooler will increase whenever the distiller is on line. The pressure of the sea water to the lube oil cooler will increase with the distiller on line. The temperature of the lube oil entering the cooler will decrease whenever the distiller is on line. Distilling Systems
C Device '27' shown in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration MO-0111 relieve excess pressure add de-scaling chemicals as needed regulate maximum vacuum during normal operation purge the unit of non-condensable gases Distilling Systems
C What occurs within the tubes of the device labeled "23" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 The heat being transferred is subliminal; therefore expansion is taking place within the tubes.  The heat from the jacket water passing within the tubes is being transferred to the feed water on the outside of the tubes. The feed water flowing through the inside of the tubes is being heated by the jacket water on the outside of the tubes. The heat of combustion from the engine is being transferred azeotropically, adding latent heat to the entering jacket water. Distilling Systems
C When securing a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended period of time, you should __________. fill the unit with saltwater fill the unit with descaling compound completely drain the unit tightly seal the unit to exclude air Distilling Systems
B Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale removal from the heating surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator? Concentrated hydrochloric acid Citric or sulfuric acid Concentrated sulfuric acid Muriatic acid Distilling Systems
D What would be the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"? Illustration MO-0111 The level in area "3" would decrease. The level in area "3" would increase. The level in area "1" would increase. The level in area "1" would decrease. Distilling Systems
B If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the illustration, which of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111 The jacket water cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm. The amount of vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease. The output of pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure. The amount of vapor formed in the evaporator will increase. Distilling Systems
B A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by __________. the flashing of the feed water air ejectors, eductors, or a separate vacuum pump the condensation of the saltwater feed condensation of the distillate Distilling Systems
D In the unit illustrated, the feed water temperature is required to be increased to 165F or greater and must exist at this temperature when leaving __________. Illustration GS-0053 HX1 FC1 HX4 HX5 Distilling Systems
B Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a separate shell-and-tube heat exchanger as the air ejector condenser. More recent models use a combined air ejector condenser with the __________. flash chamber salt water feed heater distillate cooler distilling condenser Distilling Systems
B Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type evaporator are removed by the __________. condensers demisters splash baffles spray pipes Distilling Systems
A The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________. throughput of the brine overboard pump steam flow rate to the air ejectors float controlled level of the feed heater capacity of the distillate pump Distilling Systems
B The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed heater on most flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels is __________. slightly less than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing valve outlet slightly less than the absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction slightly lower than the first stage vacuum slightly higher than the second stage vacuum Distilling Systems
B When should mechanical cleaning of feed water heater tubes be accomplished? Any time when increased steam flow to the feed water heater shell is required to maintain

distillate production capacity.
Only when chemical cleaning fails to restore distillate production capacity to normal. During regularly scheduled maintenance. Any time there is a drop-off on distillate production capacity. Distilling Systems
D Other than taking a scale thickness through a zinc plug opening of the water box of a feed water heater of a flash evaporator, what would be the BEST indication for a need to remove scale build-up? A drop in the feed water heater shell temperature and a rise in the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum). A rise in the feed water heater shell temperature and a drop in the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum). A drop in the feed water heater shell temperature and a drop in the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum). A rise in the feed water heater shell temperature and a rise in the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum). Distilling Systems
C What procedure can be used to reduce the rate of scale formation on the heating surfaces of a flash evaporator while still maintaining the desired rate of distillate production? Decreasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum). Increasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum). Chemically treating the incoming feed water. Chemically treating the outgoing brine. Distilling Systems
B While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of successful removal of the scale? No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas. No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas. Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas. Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas. Distilling Systems
D While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of the continued presence of scale? Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas. No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas. No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide gas. Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide gas. Distilling Systems
C A high reading is only indicated at the salinity cells labeled "W" and "6" shown in the illustration. This would be the probable result of __________. Illustration GS-0053 a tube leak in item 'IV', which contributes to a surging absolute pressure in "III" carryover from "III" a faulty cell at location "6" and a tube leak in item "I" erosion of item "3" or the valve opened too wide if used Distilling Systems
C Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the __________. flash chamber walls tubes of the distiller condenser tubes of the salt water feed heater tubes of the air ejector condenser Distilling Systems
B If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to __________. priming in the second stage an air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages failure of the brine pump Distilling Systems
A On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more likely to find soft scale formation? Feed water heater internal tube surfaces. Internal distillate cooler tubes. Flash chamber vertical surfaces. Distilling condenser tubes. Distilling Systems
C Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type distilling plant will be a result of __________. carrying the brine level below normal reduced feed water heater temperatures leaks in the demister baffles operating at reduced vacuum conditions Distilling Systems
A Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true? The solute is salt and the solvent is fresh water. The solute is fresh water and the solvent is salt. The solute is saltwater and the solvent is salt. The solute is salt and the solvent is saltwater. Distilling Systems
C To ensure potable water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse-osmosis freshwater generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment? Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the sea water inlet to the unit to prevent fouling of the membrane modules.
 
o
Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the freshwater leaving the unit prior to distribution to the various freshwater storage tanks. Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the sea water entering the unit to prevent bacteria from becoming resident in the reverse-osmosis unit filters and membrane modules. Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the freshwater leaving the unit prior to distribution to the various freshwater storage tanks. Distilling Systems
D Regarding the operating principle of a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator, what statement is true? External pressure is applied to the side of strong concentration forcing salt through the semipermeable membrane to the side of weak concentration. External pressure is applied to the side of weak concentration forcing salt through the semipermeable membrane to the side of strong concentration. External pressure is applied to the side of weak concentration forcing freshwater through the semi-permeable membrane to the side of strong concentration. External pressure is applied to the side of strong concentration forcing freshwater through the semi-permeable membrane to the side of weak concentration. Distilling Systems
B Regarding a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules, what statement is true? Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater throughput. Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater purity. Modules may be piped in parallel to increase the freshwater purity. Modules may be piped in series to decrease the likelihood of fouling. Distilling Systems
C For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure? To overcome the pore size of the semi-permeable membrane. To successfully force the salt water through the chemical pre-treatment device. To overcome the osmotic pressure generated by the difference in solution concentrations. To successfully force the salt water through the pre-filter (or pre-filters). Distilling Systems
B Reverse-osmosis freshwater generators usually feature multiple membrane modules, typically of the spiral-wound membrane type. How are these multiple membrane modules piped? The multiple membrane modules are always connected in parallel. The multiple membranes may be connected in series, parallel, or in some combination of series and parallel. The multiple membrane modules are always connected in series. The multiple membranes may be connected in series or parallel, but never in some combination of series and parallel. Distilling Systems
C Regarding the high-pressure pump of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, what statement is true? The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage centrifugal pump, but may be a two-stage rotary pump.
 
o
The high-pressure pump is typically a single-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a single-stage centrifugal pump. The high-pressure pump is typically a multiple-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a multi-stage centrifugal pump. The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage rotary pump, but may be a two-stage centrifugal pump. Distilling Systems
A When a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be accomplished? The unit must be flushed with freshwater and treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor. The unit must be flushed with freshwater if anti-bacterial growth inhibitor is unavailable. The unit is left filled with saltwater and treated with anti-bacterial growth inhibitor. The unit must be treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor if the unit is not flushed with freshwater. Distilling Systems
A For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, the setting of the brine back pressure regulator is critical. What statement regarding the set point of this regulator is true? If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low. If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low. If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low. If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low. Distilling Systems
C What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement? An insufficient freshwater production by the unit. An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules. An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter. An excessive salinity of the freshwater output. Distilling Systems
C What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator must be serviced by flushing or cleaning? A lower than normal feed pressure. An insufficient pressure drop across the membrane modules. An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules. An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter. Distilling Systems
D What is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through? Higher than normal brine overboard back pressure. Lower than normal freshwater production. Low freshwater outlet salinity. High freshwater outlet salinity. Distilling Systems
B Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally be avoided? Entering open seas. Entering harbors. Entering high temperature seas. Entering low temperature seas. Distilling Systems
D If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated with the freshwater outlet, what should be done? The pre-filters should be serviced by cleaning or replacement. The post-treatment sterilizer should be serviced. The pre-treatment chemical doser should be serviced. The membrane modules should be flushed and cleaned. Distilling Systems
B What component of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator could be isolated and replaced with the unit remaining in service? A series-connected membrane module. A parallel-connected membrane module. The secondary pre-treatment filter. The primary pre-treatment filter. Distilling Systems
D The primary reason low pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high pressure evaporators is __________. due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed due to the latent heat of evaporation principle evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate evaporation is accomplished in a vacuum Distilling Systems
B In the production of freshwater from sea water through a process of heating and cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually called __________. dehydration condensation distillation evaporation Distilling Systems
B The pipe identified by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is __________. Illustration MO-0110 directly connected to the jacket water supply line attached to the air ejector attached to the outlet of the brine ejector directly connected to the feed water supply line Distilling Systems
A For the operation of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the connection labeled "I"? Illustration MO-0110 The sea water used for condensing the water vapor. Main engine jacket water. The salt water feed. The distillate discharge. Distilling Systems
D If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which of the following will occur? Illustration MO-0110 The temperature of the device will decrease. Interstage leakage will cause a decrease in output. The vacuum of the device will increase. There will be an increase of chlorides measured at the distillate pump salinity cell. Distilling Systems
C Which device is used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distiller? Illustration MO-0111 "19" "12" "26" "13" Distilling Systems
D Where is the latent heat obtained to create vapor from the feed water in the illustrated distiller? Illustration MO-0111 While it is in contact with device "24". During its contact period with heat exchanger "3". Only as it passes through device "20". From having passed through "23". Distilling Systems
C Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during normal operation by __________. Illustration MO-0111 the hydrokineter labeled "21" opening the drain valve located to the left of orifice "19" the continuous action of ejector "22" orifice "19" regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing excess brine accumulation Distilling Systems
C Which of the following statements describes what will occur to the volume of water vapor as it is exposed to the lower temperatures existing in the device labeled "24" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 The volume is increased as condensation occurs at the tube surfaces. The volume will increase if the valve labeled "J" is opened excessively, resulting in an
 increase of the distiller absolute pressure.
The volume is greatly reduced, contributing to condensation within the condenser. The latent heat of condensation is removed causing the volume to increase. Distilling Systems
A Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the feed water entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration MO-0111 Seventy-five percent of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine. The brine will be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility of flooding. Twenty-five percent of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine. The amount of feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7", while the amount of brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21". Distilling Systems
D In a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator, what is the primary factor that determines the rate of scale build-up on the submerged tube bundle? The chemical composition of the jacket water coolant additive package. The sea water inlet temperature to the evaporator section. The salt content of the sea water inlet to the evaporator section. The jacket water inlet temperature to the submerged tube bundle. Distilling Systems
A What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in operation? Illustration MO-0111 The absolute pressure of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output. The unit would automatically shut down due to the closing of the low pressure contacts. Jacket water would be automatically by-passed around the distiller. The unit would continue to operate with no adverse effects. Distilling Systems
D In the unit illustrated, the feed water temperature is required to be increased to 165F or greater and must exist at this temperature when leaving __________. Illustration GS-0053 HX1 FC1 HX4 HX5 Distilling Systems
B In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is vented to the shell of the second stage in order to remove vapor from the pump suction? Feed water heater drain pump Distillate pump Air ejector condenser drain pump Condenser circulating water pump Distilling Systems
D In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur in the __________. second stage vapor separator distillate cooler second stage feed heater saltwater feed heater Distilling Systems
C When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should __________. fill the unit with saltwater fill the unit with descaling compound completely drain the unit tightly seal the unit to exclude air Distilling Systems
C Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type distilling plant will be a result of __________. carrying the brine level below normal reduced feed water heater temperatures leaks in the demister baffles operating at reduced vacuum conditions Distilling Systems
C If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect __________. a leak in the feed water heater a clogged desuperheater water strainer a malfunctioning brine pump improper vacuum Distilling Systems
D While standing watch in the engine room, you notice a high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator. This would indicate __________. chill shocking is necessary to remove scale leakage at the second- stage condenser faulty operation of the brine overboard pump carryover in the first- stage Distilling Systems
D In order for a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator to be able to overcome the osmotic pressure without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure must be controlled. What is the location of the pressure regulator? Suction side of the high-pressure pump. Discharge side of the high-pressure pump. Fresh water outlet from the membrane modules. Brine outlet from the membrane modules. Distilling Systems
B What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 It serves to boil off incoming feed water. It condenses the vapors formed in section "G". It removes sensible heat from the jacket water. It serves to cool incoming feed water. Distilling Systems
A The final heating of the feed water in a flash type distilling plant is carried out by __________. low pressure steam admitted to the feed water heater heat exchange in the first-stage feedbox heat exchange in each stage distiller condenser vaporization in the first-stage flash chamber Distilling Systems
D Under normal operating conditions, the highest temperature and pressure conditions existing for flash-type evaporators will occur in the __________. second stage first stage brine pump discharge salt water feed heater Distilling Systems
D Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the first-stage due to __________. temperature being higher than the evaporation temperature of the supplied feed water heat exchange surfaces being directly in the path of the entering feed water orifices finely atomizing the heated feed water entering the flash chamber flash chamber pressure being lower than the saturation pressure corresponding to the feed water temperature Distilling Systems
B The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________. steam flow rate to the air ejectors throughput of the brine overboard pump capacity of the distillate pump float controlled level of the feed heater Distilling Systems
C Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator, the first-stage air ejector takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator, and the second stage air ejector __________. takes suction from the first stage of the evaporator takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator as well takes suction from the first stage ejector discharge is normally idle and used mainly as a standby unit Distilling Systems
A Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators may be obtained directly from the __________. turbine extraction line turbo-generator steam supply line main steam line air ejector exhaust line Distilling Systems
C The temperature of the steam flow to the saltwater feed heater, in a flash type evaporator can be manipulated by a/an __________. sensor wired in with the three-way salinity dump valve pressure regulator within the supply orifice attemporator in the steam supply piping thermally actuated bypass valve Distilling Systems
B The second stage feed water temperature and shell absolute pressure in a multistage, flash type, distilling plant is __________. not related to the feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure lower than the first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure the same as the first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure higher than the first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure Distilling Systems
D Regarding the low pressure evaporator steam control orifice in the live steam supply line, the steam at the outlet of the orifice if not properly conditioned will be developed as __________. poor quality steam desuperheated steam saturated steam superheated steam Distilling Systems
D A fixed orifice plate is generally installed in the live steam supply to a flash evaporator. One of the functions of this orifice is to control the quantity of the supplied steam. A second function is to __________. produce a low salt water feed heater shell absolute pressure guarantee that the steam supply will remain saturated produce more useful desuperheated supply steam reduce pressure fluctuations of the steam supply in the salt water feed heater Distilling Systems
C The vacuum maintained in the salt water feed heater shell of a flash-type evaporator is generally accomplished by __________. the fixed orifice provided in the steam supply line a direct unimpeded connection between second stage and salt water feed heater by an external line from the first stage via a fixed orifice a separate air ejector unit Distilling Systems
B The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the __________. distillate cooler saltwater feed heater flash chamber first stage condenser Distilling Systems
A Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of heat exchangers to __________. reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces Distilling Systems
A The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to __________. prevent leakage past the floating end tube sheet modify to a mixer type cooler dissipate heat baffle cooling water so it can be directed on a multiple pass Distilling Systems
D In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of scale formation is greatly reduced by __________. maintaining a relatively high feed water temperature the fact that the first-stage regulator keeps the heater shell at a constant pressure operating the unit at its rated capacity the fact that no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces anywhere in the unit Distilling Systems
B When conducting a hydrostatic test on the distillate cooler shell of a flash type evaporator, liquid appears well inside one of the tubes. In order to correct this, you should __________. reroll the tube plug the tube seal weld the tube All of the above. Distilling Systems
B The purpose of chill shocking an evaporator is to __________. prepare for a hydrostatic test break loose scale deposits formed on the tubes stress relieve the tubes test for leaks in the tubes Distilling Systems
A When performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to determine the source of suspected air leaks you should use. fresh water at or above the ambient temperature air and a soap solution to test all joints phosphorescent hydrazine bisodium solution visible under a black light source circulated cold fresh water, while maintaining all normal unit operating pressures Distilling Systems
D Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces __________. increases brine density increases distillate salinity reduces metal corrosion reduces heat transfer Distilling Systems
D In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur in the __________. second stage vapor separator distillate cooler second stage feed heater saltwater feed heater Distilling Systems
C If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect __________. a leak in the feed water heater a clogged desuperheater water strainer a malfunctioning brine pump improper vacuum Distilling Systems
B While operating a two-stage flash-type evaporator, designed to operate in sea water of 70F, the current seawater temperature is 50F, while the salt water feed temperature is maintained at 170F. The three-way solenoid valve trips, directing the distillate pump discharge to the bilge. Which of the following conditions is the probable cause for this occurrence? Insufficient brine density being maintained in the second stage. Excessive and violent flashing in each stage. Insufficient vacuum developed as a result of the sea temperature. Excessive amount of feed water being supplied to the first stage. Distilling Systems
A The efficiency and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be reduced if the last effect shell __________. brine density is too low pressure does not fluctuate rapidly pressure remains steady and unchanged brine density does not exceed 1.5/32nd Distilling Systems
D Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through __________. valve stems gage glass packing gasketed joints All of the above. Distilling Systems
B Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash type evaporator? seawater feed temperature below 165ÂF a cracked distillate pump vent line production of high salinity distillate a leak in the first stage demister Distilling Systems
A The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the __________. saltwater feed heater distillate cooler first stage condenser flash chamber Distilling Systems
B Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of __________. low distillate conductivity faulty operation of the brine overboard pump high distillate conductivity a pressure drop through the loop seal Distilling Systems
D A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator would indicate __________. faulty operation of the brine overboard pump chill shocking is necessary to remove scale leakage at the second-stage condenser carryover in the first-stage Distilling Systems
A A high reading is indicated at the salinity cells labeled "Y", "Q", and "6" shown in the illustration. This would be the probable result of __________. Illustration GS-0053 carryover from "III" faulty cells at each location a leak in item"I" erosion of item "2" Distilling Systems
A The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of a flash type evaporator should be kept at a constant value so as to __________. ensure distillate quality and distilling plant efficiency maintain a constant distillate outlet temperature prevent scale accumulation in the first effect heat exchanger surfaces prevent any salinity in the distillate produced Distilling Systems
A While the illustrated system is operated using the steam supply through "F" the strainer in line "4" becomes fouled, this will result in __________. Illustration GS-0053 a reduction in distillate production the temperature regulated by "L" difficult to maintain nothing unusual for the type of operation indicated as this line was unnecessary in the installation pump "K" becoming vapor bound Distilling Systems
A While operating a two-stage flash-type evaporator, designed to operate in sea water of 70F, the current seawater temperature is 50F, while the salt water feed temperature is maintained at 170F. The three-way solenoid valve trips, directing the distillate pump discharge to the bilge. Which of the following conditions is the probable cause for this occurrence? Excessive and violent flashing in each stage. Excessive amount of feed water being supplied to the first stage. Insufficient vacuum developed as a result of the sea temperature. Insufficient brine density being maintained in the second stage. Distilling Systems
B The efficiency and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be reduced if the last effect shell __________. pressure remains steady and unchanged brine density is too low brine density does not exceed 1.5/32nd pressure does not fluctuate rapidly Distilling Systems
B While the illustrated system is operated using the steam supply through "F" the strainer in line "4" becomes fouled, this will result in __________. Illustration GS-0053 pump "K" becoming vapor bound a reduction in distillate production the temperature regulated by "L" difficult to maintain nothing unusual for the type of operation indicated as this line was unnecessary in the installation Distilling Systems
B In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent cocks to the __________. saltwater heater shell atmosphere second-stage condenser second-stage flash chamber Distilling Systems
A What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 It condenses the vapors formed in section "G". It serves to cool incoming feed water. It removes sensible heat from the jacket water. It serves to boil off incoming feed water. Distilling Systems
A Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 The vapors produced in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are removed. The jacket water flowing through device "I" is heated. The sea water flowing through device "I" is cooled. Non-condensable vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated. Distilling Systems
D What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 It aids in removing condenser tube bundles. It provides a conduit for incoming feed water. It is only used as a lifting beam during installation. It serves as a hinge for ease of opening the shell. Distilling Systems
A For the operation of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the connection labeled "I"? Illustration MO-0110 The sea water used for condensing the water vapor. Main engine jacket water. The salt water feed. The distillate discharge. Distilling Systems
D Item "M" shown in the illustration is the __________. Illustration MO-0110 salt water inlet brine water outlet feed water inlet jacket water inlet Distilling Systems
B Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 It supplies feed water to evaporator. It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the distillate. It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the brine. It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of air and non-condensable gases. Distilling Systems
B The pipe identified by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is __________. Illustration MO-0110 directly connected to the jacket water supply line attached to the air ejector attached to the outlet of the brine ejector directly connected to the feed water supply line Distilling Systems
D When tightening the plate type heat exchangers shown in the illustration, care must be taken to __________. Illustration MO-0110 avoid fracturing the backing plate avoid using a torque wrench that has not been recently calibrated prevent damage to the aluminum plates use a specific opposing pattern while measuring the distance to which the plates have been compressed Distilling Systems
A Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat exchangers used in the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 Steel ruler or tape measure Pneumatic impact wrench Cantilever wrench Torque wrench Distilling Systems
D If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which of the following will occur? Illustration MO-0110 The temperature of the device will decrease. Interstage leakage will cause a decrease in output. The vacuum of the device will increase. There will be an increase of chlorides measured at the distillate pump salinity cell. Distilling Systems
D Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea water leakage in the illustrated device. Illustration MO-0110 Improper venting during operation. Improper venting during start-up. Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the evaporator heat exchanger. Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the condenser heat exchanger. Distilling Systems
C Device '27' shown in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration MO-0111 add de-scaling chemicals as needed relieve excess pressure regulate maximum vacuum during normal operation purge the unit of non-condensable gases Distilling Systems
A During operation which device listed removes air and non-condensable gases from the unit shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 "21" "22" "25" "27" Distilling Systems
A Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the feed water entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration MO-0111 Seventy-five percent of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine. The amount of feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7", while the amount of brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21". Twenty-five percent of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine. The brine will be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility of flooding. Distilling Systems
A Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during normal operation by __________. Illustration MO-0111 the continuous action of ejector "22" orifice "19" regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing excess brine accumulation the hydrokineter labeled "21" opening the drain valve located to the left of orifice "19" Distilling Systems
B What is the function of the item "7" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 This jacket water pump circulates salt water through the jacket water cooling system to provide engine cooling. This jacket water pump circulates fresh water throughout the engine cooling and distiller heating systems. This jacket water pump supplies the distiller with sea water feed while also powering the eductors. This circulating salt water pump will supply feed water for the operation of the distiller. Distilling Systems
D Which of the following statements represents the two major functions provided by the item labeled "20" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 The pump supplies the motive force to the ejectors and removes the excess distillate. The pump is used to drain the shell when the unit is secured, in addition to powering the ejectors. The pump provides for venting of associated equipment while also powering the ejectors. The pump supplies the motive fluid to the ejectors in addition to supplying the feed water to the distiller. Distilling Systems
B Which of the following statements concerning the systems shown in the illustration is correct? Illustration MO-0111
The jacket water primarily loses its heat at the cooler and is further heated in the evaporator

section.
The feed water gains heat in section "23", while the vapor gives up heat in section "24". The jacket water absorbs heat in the evaporator section, while giving up its heat in the distiller section. The feed water acquires heat passing through devices "2"and "23". Distilling Systems
C When securing a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended period of time, you should __________. fill the unit with descaling compound tightly seal the unit to exclude air completely drain the unit fill the unit with saltwater Distilling Systems
D Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale removal from the heating surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator? Concentrated sulfuric acid Concentrated hydrochloric acid Muriatic acid Citric or sulfuric acid Distilling Systems
B In a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator, what is the primary factor that determines the rate of scale build-up on the submerged tube bundle? The chemical composition of the jacket water coolant additive package. The jacket water inlet temperature to the submerged tube bundle. The sea water inlet temperature to the evaporator section. The salt content of the sea water inlet to the evaporator section. Distilling Systems
B What would be the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"? Illustration MO-0111 The level in area "3" would decrease. The level in area "1" would decrease. The level in area "3" would increase. The level in area "1" would increase. Distilling Systems
B Which of the conditions listed would indicate a large condenser tube leak within the distiller shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 A slow continuous rise in the lube oil cooler outlet temperature indicated at device "4". The activation of the salinity monitoring equipment's annunciator circuit. A decrease in the level of the main engine expansion tank as indicated by a low level alarm. An increase in distiller output resulting from the combination of jacket water and the distillate produced. Distilling Systems
D If valve "H" shown in the illustration is opened wide while the distiller is in operation, __________. Illustration MO-0111 the absolute pressure of the unit will increase with an associated decrease in shell temperature. the absolute pressure of the unit will increase due to the increased affect of the air ejector. the absolute pressure of the unit will not be affected, but the rate of condensation will be decreased. the absolute pressure of the unit will increase with an associated increase in shell temperature. Distilling Systems
A If the wearing rings of device "7" shown in the illustration become worn, how will the evaporation rate in "23" be affected? Illustration MO-0111 The rate of evaporation will decrease. Device "7" does not use wearing rings, as these are normally positive displacement pumps. The rate of evaporation is dependent on the level of vacuum maintained within the unit, and not the flow of water to the unit. The rate of evaporation will not be affected as the standby pump, labeled "8" will be used instead. Distilling Systems
A What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in operation? Illustration MO-0111 The absolute pressure of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output. The unit would automatically shut down due to the closing of the low pressure contacts. Jacket water would be automatically by-passed around the distiller. The unit would continue to operate with no adverse effects. Distilling Systems
C If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the illustration, which of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111 The jacket water cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm. The amount of vapor formed in the evaporator will increase. The amount of vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease. The output of pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure. Distilling Systems
B Regarding a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules, what statement is true? Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater throughput. Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater purity. Modules may be piped in parallel to increase the freshwater purity. Modules may be piped in series to decrease the likelihood of fouling. Distilling Systems
D For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure? To successfully force the salt water through the pre-filter (or pre-filters). To successfully force the salt water through the chemical pre-treatment device. To overcome the pore size of the semi-permeable membrane. To overcome the osmotic pressure generated by the difference in solution concentrations. Distilling Systems
A Regarding the high-pressure pump of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, what statement is true? The high-pressure pump is typically a multiple-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a multi-stage centrifugal pump. The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage rotary pump, but may be a two-stage centrifugal pump. The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage centrifugal pump, but may be a two-stage rotary pump. The high-pressure pump is typically a single-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a single-stage centrifugal pump. Distilling Systems
B In order for a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator to be able to overcome the osmotic pressure without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure must be controlled. What is the location of the pressure regulator? Freshwater outlet from the membrane modules. Brine outlet from the membrane modules. Discharge side of the high-pressure pump. Suction side of the high-pressure pump. Distilling Systems
A Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true? The solute is salt and the solvent is fresh water. The solute is fresh water and the solvent is salt. The solute is salt and the solvent is saltwater. The solute is saltwater and the solvent is salt. Distilling Systems
B When a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be accomplished? The unit is left filled with saltwater and treated with anti-bacterial growth inhibitor. The unit must be flushed with freshwater and treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor. The unit must be flushed with freshwater if anti-bacterial growth inhibitor is unavailable. The unit must be treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor if the unit is not flushed with freshwater. Distilling Systems
B What component of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator could be isolated and replaced with the unit remaining in service? The primary pre-treatment filter. A parallel-connected membrane module. The secondary pre-treatment filter. A series-connected membrane module. Distilling Systems
A For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, the setting of the brine back pressure regulator is critical. What statement regarding the set point of this regulator is true? If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low. If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low. If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low. If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low. Distilling Systems
A What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement? An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter. An excessive salinity of the freshwater output. An insufficient freshwater production by the unit. An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules. Distilling Systems
C If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator has fouled membrane modules, what statement is true? The freshwater production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure would be higher than normal.
 
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The freshwater production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure would be lower than normal. The freshwater production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would be higher than normal. The freshwater production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would be lower than normal. Distilling Systems
C What is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through? Lower than normal freshwater production. Higher than normal brine overboard back pressure. High freshwater outlet salinity. Low freshwater outlet salinity. Distilling Systems
B Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally be avoided? Entering low temperature seas. Entering harbors. Entering high temperature seas. Entering open seas. Distilling Systems
B If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated with the freshwater outlet, what should be done? The pre-filters should be serviced by cleaning or replacement. The membrane modules should be flushed and cleaned. The pre-treatment chemical doser should be serviced. The post-treatment sterilizer should be serviced. Distilling Systems
D A salinity indicator is used to determine the __________. level of alkalinity in condensate chemical makeup of feed water cause of salt contamination location of salt water contamination Distilling Systems
D A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring the __________. hydrogen ion concentration of water specific gravity of water electrical inductance of water electrical conductivity of water Distilling Systems
A The instrument always used in conjunction with a salinometer is a __________. thermometer pyrometer hygrometer hydrometer Distilling Systems
D In a flash-type evaporator, an electrical salinity cell would be installed in the __________. distillate outlet from the distillate cooler distillate inlet to the distillate cooler condensate drains from the distiller feed water heater All of the above. Distilling Systems
C Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of operation of an electrical salinity indicator? Measures the hydrogen ion concentration. Measures the voltage of the chloride ions. Measures the electrical resistance of the water. Determines the conductivity of the dissolved oxygen. Distilling Systems
A A solenoid-operated distillate three-way valve is installed in the discharge line between the distilling plant and the potable water tanks. This valve will trip and dump the distillate discharge if the __________. distillate salinity is excessive potable water tank has become contaminated potable water tank has been filled with raw water distillate temperature is excessive Distilling Systems
D Distilled water from an evaporator may be discharged into a potable water tank __________. after chemical analysis shows it is fit for consumption after passing through an activated charcoal filter through a detachable hose connection through a solenoid operated three-way valve Distilling Systems
A An automatic solenoid dump valve should be set to trip if the evaporator produces distillate with salt content exceeding __________. .25 gpg .05 gpg .15 gpg .20 gpg Distilling Systems
A Which of the following statements describes the proper operation of a three-way solenoid trip/dump valve on a two stage flash-type evaporator? The valve normally requires a manual reset. The valve will trip if the distillate is too warm. The valve is interlocked to trip only on de-energization of the solenoid. The valve will trip if the sea water feed temperature drops below 175F. Distilling Systems
B What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains? Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink. Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink. A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink. Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink. Freshwater systems
A Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting for the "lag" potable water pump? 40 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop. 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop. 50 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop. Freshwater systems
C What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide residual disinfectant in the potable water? A chlorinator located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line. A brominator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank. An ultraviolet irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank. A chlorinator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank. Freshwater systems
C Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water to a potable water system? Submerged tube type unit Titanium plate type unit Reverse-osmosis type unit Multi-stage flash type unit Freshwater systems
C Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water system is true? Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located above the potable water storage tanks.  Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located below the potable water storage tanks. Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located above the potable water storage tanks. Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located below the potable water storage tanks. Freshwater systems
D On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained? Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level switches in response to system demand changes. Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero demand for potable water. Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of zero demand for potable water. Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro pneumatic tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes. Freshwater systems 
B What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains? Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink. Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink. A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink. Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink. Freshwater systems 
A Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting for the "lag" potable water pump? 40 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop. 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop. 50 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop. Freshwater systems 
C What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide residual disinfectant in the potable water? A chlorinator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank. A chlorinator located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line. An ultraviolet irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank. A brominator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank. Freshwater systems 
D Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water to a potable water system? Titanium plate type unit Multi-stage flash type unit Submerged tube type unit Reverse-osmosis type unit Freshwater systems 
A Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water system is true? Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located above the potable water storage tanks. Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located above the potable water storage tanks. Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located below the potable water storage tanks. Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if located below the potable water storage tanks. Freshwater systems 
A What is the primary purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water pumps supporting a typical potable water system? Enabling the lead pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the lag pump to assist the lead pump only when the demand is high. Enabling the lead pump to pump against a shut-off head during periods of relatively low demand and the lag pump to recirculate when the demand is high. Enabling the lag pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the lead pump to assist the lag pump only when the demand is high. Enabling both potable water pumps to cycle on and off together in response to system demand changes. Freshwater systems 
A What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution piping for a potable water system? Use of hot water recirculation loops. Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only. Use of storage type hot water heaters only. Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources. Freshwater systems 
D Hot water heaters used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such as an electric heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is the primary purpose of such an arrangement? Allow the designated backup heat source to be used in the event of failure of the designated primary heat source, whether in port or underway. Allow jacket water to be used in port and electricity to be used while underway. Allow both the heat sources to be used when the demand for hot water is high, whether in port

 or underway.
Allow electricity to be used in port and jacket water to be used while underway. Freshwater systems 
C What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air? Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system. Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump. Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump. Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system. Freshwater systems 
D What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains? Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink. Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink. A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink. Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink. Freshwater systems 
A Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water to a potable water system? Reverse-osmosis type unit Titanium plate type unit Submerged tube type unit Multi-stage flash type unit Freshwater systems 
A On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained? Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro pneumatic tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes. Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of zero demand for potable water. Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero demand for potable water. Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level switches in response to system demand changes. Freshwater systems 
B What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution piping for a potable water system? Use of storage type hot water heaters only. Use of hot water recirculation loops. Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources. Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only. Freshwater systems 
C What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air? Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system. Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump. Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump. Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system. Freshwater systems 
B Which of the listed pumps, shown in the illustration, discharges directly to the fuel oil settling tanks of a diesel engine main propulsion plant? Illustration MO-0058 Booster pump Transfer pump Auxiliary bilge pump Centrifuge transfer and discharge pumps Fuel Oil Storage / Transfer
D Fuel oil is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to __________. make fuel available for immediate use allow for decanting of water allow impurities to settle out of the fuel All of the above. Fuel Oil Storage / Transfer
D Fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned at regular intervals in order to remove __________. sludge water micro-organism growth All of the above. Fuel Oil Storage / Transfer
D The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the __________. vent line overflow line feed line sounding tube Fuel Oil Storage / Transfer
C Standby or emergency diesel generator day tanks should always be kept full to reduce the possibility of __________. sediment contamination fuel filter clogging moisture formation from condensation inadequate transfer pump suction head Fuel Oil Storage / Transfer
A Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging? Sludge Gasoline Fuel oil Lube oil Fuel Systems
B Whether using a centrifuge or a simple filter, oil cleaning and filtration will be the most effective when the oil is at a __________. high temperature and a high viscosity high temperature and a low viscosity low temperature and a high viscosity low temperature and a low viscosity Fuel Systems
A For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable __________. throughput additive percent cetane number TBN number Fuel Systems
C Which factor determines the size of the ring dam for a fuel oil centrifugal purifier? The viscosity of the fuel. The quantity of water to be removed from the fuel. The specific gravity of the fuel. The quantity of dirt to be removed from the fuel. Fuel Systems
C In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is necessary for __________. vanadium to be present low temperatures to exist moisture or water to be present electrolysis to be occurring Fuel Treatment
D Why are heavy fuels not usually prone to the problems of microbiological infection? Heavy fuels are subjected to better refining processes which prevent the formation of these growths. Most heavy fuels contain chemicals which prevent the growth of fungi and other bacteria. Microbiological infection does not affect marine fuel but rather the personnel who are involved with the handling, storage and purification of the fuel. The necessary nutrients that the organisms feed on are in a more complex form and not available for microbial degradation. Fuel Treatment
D Fuels as produced in a refinery are generally sterile; however, contamination can occur as fuels are __________. stored at the refinery stored on the vessel transported to the distribution sites All of the above. Fuel Treatment
D Most type(s) of microbiological growths in fuel are __________. bacteria fungi yeasts All of the above. Fuel Treatment
B The microbiological growths that affect fuel supplies can easily be transported from one location to another by __________. roaches and other insects air, solids, or liquids other non-hydrocarbon fuels All of the above. Fuel Treatment
C Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover? Over speed governor Speed-limiting governor Over speed trip Under speed trip Governors
C What is statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors? Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing temporary speed droop.
 
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Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing permanent speed droop. Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing temporary speed droop. Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing permanent speed droop. Governors
B Suppose a prime mover rotates at a steady speed of 900 rpm at rated full load and rotates at a steady speed of 1000 rpm at no load. Assuming that no adjustments have been made to the governor speed control setting, what is the speed regulation of the prime mover expressed in percent? 10 (%) 11.1 (%) 88.9 (%) 90 (%) Governors
D Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor? An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving through a fixed pitch propeller. An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a constant pump discharge pressure. An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct-reversible propulsion drive driving through a fixed pitch propeller. An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with maintaining a constant system frequency. Governors
B Concerning governor speed-droop, what statement is true? If speed droop is temporary, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of loading. If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of loading. If speed droop is temporary, there will be no transient speed changes associated with load changes. If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is constant regardless of the load. Governors
B Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without hunting? Dead band Stability Promptness Sensitivity Governors
D Which term represents the change in speed required before a speed control governor will initiate corrective action as the load changes? Promptness Power Sensitivity Dead band Governors
C Which term represents how rapidly a speed control governor will complete a corrective action as the result of a load change? Sensitivity Power Promptness Dead band Governors
A What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors? Hunting is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over control by the governor. Hunting is the result of the transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor responds to load changes. Hunting is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as the result of a load change. Hunting is the repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack of governor power. Governors
B What is meant by the term "deadband" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors? Dead band is the repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack of governor power. Dead band is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as the result of a load change. Dead band is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed to over control by the governor. Dead band is the result of transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor responds to load changes. Governors
A Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover? Over speed trip Speed-limiting governor Under speed trip Over speed governor Governors
D Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor? An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving through a fixed pitch propeller. An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a constant pump discharge pressure. An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct-reversible propulsion drive driving through a fixed pitch propeller. An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with maintaining a constant system frequency. Governors
B Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without hunting? Sensitivity Stability Dead band Promptness Governors
C What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors? Hunting is the repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack of governor power.  Hunting is the result of the transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor responds to load changes. Hunting is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over control by the governor. Hunting is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as the result of a load change. Governors
C What is statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors? Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing permanent speed droop.
 
Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing permanent speed droop. Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing temporary speed droop. Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing temporary speed droop. Governors
D If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true? Seawater flows through the shells of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers. Seawater flows through the tubes of the lube-oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket-water cooler. Seawater flows through the tubes of the jacket-water cooler and through the shell of the lube-

 oil cooler.
Seawater flows through the tubes of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers. Heat exchangers
C The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________. maintain steady pressure in a system eliminate hot air from the condenser heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates Heat exchangers
C If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true? The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat. The refrigerant vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent heat. The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat. The refrigerant vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible heat. Heat exchangers
D What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler? Counter flow Series flow Parallel flow Cross flow Heat exchangers
C If a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the seawater inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true? The number of fluid passes cannot be determined. The tube-side fluid flow pattern is four-pass. The tube-side fluid flow pattern is single-pass. The tube-side fluid flow pattern is two-pass. Heat exchangers
B The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________. reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid maintain steady pressure in a system eliminate hot air from the condenser Heat exchangers
C If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true? Seawater flows through the shells of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers.  Seawater flows through the tubes of the lube-oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket-

water cooler.
Seawater flows through the tubes of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers. Seawater flows through the tubes of the jacket-water cooler and through the shell of the lube-oil cooler. Heat exchangers
A With regard to the relative flow patterns through the tubes and the shell of shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what statement is true? In a counter-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are in opposite directions. In a counter-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are in the same direction. In a parallel-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are in opposite directions. In a cross-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are in opposite directions. Heat exchangers
D With regard to the number of passes through the tubes of shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what statement is true? In two-pass and four-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections are at opposite ends. In single-pass and two-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections are at opposite ends. In single-pass and two-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections are at the same end. In two-pass and four-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections are at the same end. Heat exchangers
B If a heat exchanger is designed to cool lubricating oil using sea water as a cooling medium, what statement is true? The lubricating oil loses sensible heat, and the sea water loses sensible heat. The lubricating oil loses sensible heat, and the sea water gains sensible heat. The lubricating oil loses latent heat, and the sea water gains latent heat. The lubricating oil gains sensible heat, and the sea water loses sensible heat. Heat exchangers
A If a heat exchanger is designed to heat heavy fuel oil using steam as a heating medium, what statement is true? The heavy fuel oil gains sensible heat, and the steam loses latent heat. The heavy fuel oil loses sensible heat, and the steam gains latent heat. The heavy fuel oil gains latent heat, and the steam loses sensible heat. The heavy fuel oil gains sensible heat, and the steam loses sensible heat. Heat exchangers
D If a heat exchanger is designed to evaporate sea water using diesel engine jacket water as an evaporating medium, what statement is true? The sea water gains latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses latent heat. The sea water loses latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water gains sensible heat. The sea water gains sensible heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses latent heat. The sea water gains latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses sensible heat. Heat exchangers
B If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true? The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat. The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat. The refrigerant vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent heat. The refrigerant vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible heat. Heat exchangers
D What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler? Parallel flow Series flow Counter flow Cross flow Heat exchangers
B If a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the seawater inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true? The number of fluid passes cannot be determined. The tube-side fluid flow pattern is single-pass. The tube-side fluid flow pattern is four-pass. The tube-side fluid flow pattern is two-pass. Heat exchangers
B Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat exchangers only requires a single tube sheet located at one end? A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring a floating tube sheet. A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring U-tube type tubes. A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring a packed tube sheet. A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring bayonet type tubes. Heat exchangers
B What is the most common arrangement for a compact heat exchanger such as that used on an air conditioning cooling coil located in a ventilation supply duct? Plate-fin set up as a serpentine plate. Finned-tube set up as a serpentine coil. Finned-tube set up as a spiral coil. Finned-tube set up as a helical coil. Heat exchangers
C Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat exchangers has a tube arrangement featuring a "tube-within-a-tube"? A shell-and tube heat exchanger featuring a packed tube sheet. A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring a floating tube sheet. A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring bayonet type tubes. A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring U-tube type tubes. Heat exchangers
C In a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which of the following tube types would be LEAST susceptible to tube-side fouling? Coated-surface tubes Corrugated tubes Plain tubes Finned tubes Heat exchangers
C For a given shell diameter and tube sizes for a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which tube pitch pattern would be the most compact design allowing for the most tubes? Rotated triangular tube pitch Rotated square tube pitch Triangular tube pitch Square tube pitch Heat exchangers
B For a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which tube pitch pattern would feature "see-through" lanes and would most easily allow external mechanical cleaning of the tubes? Rotated triangular tube pitch Square tube pitch Triangular tube pitch Rotated square tube pitch Heat exchangers
C Concerning the baffles of a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, what statement is true? The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and decrease the velocity of the fluid flowing through the shell.
 
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The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and increase the velocity of the fluid flowing through the tubes. The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and increase the velocity of the fluid flowing through the shell. The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and decrease the velocity of the fluid flowing through the tubes. Heat exchangers
A For marine-type shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what is the most common arrangement for baffles? Segmental Disc Doughnut Solid Heat exchangers
D What prevents the two fluids in a plate type heat exchanger from coming into direct contact with each other and mixing? The chevrons and corrugations between the individual heat transfer plates. The metal-to-metal seal between the individual heat transfer plates. The metal-to-metal seal between the covers (pressure plates). The gasket to groove seals between the individual heat transfer plates. Heat exchangers
C With regard to the flow patterns associated with plate type heat exchangers, which flow pattern is able to achieve counter-flow on opposite sides of each heat exchange plate? The flow pattern where one fluid makes a single pass and the other makes multiple passes through the heat exchanger. The flow pattern where each fluid makes multiple passes through the heat exchanger. The flow pattern where each fluid makes a single pass through the heat exchanger. It is not possible for each heat exchanger plate to achieve counter flow on opposite sides. Heat exchangers
D When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement represents the correct operating procedure? Introduce the heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously establishing full flow of both fluids immediately to avoid thermal shock. Introduce both the heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal shock. Introduce the steam first, then gradually introduce the heavy fuel oil until full flow is established to avoid thermal shock. Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then gradually introduce the steam until full flow is established to avoid thermal shock. Heat exchangers
D What is the primary indication of fouling of a heat exchanger? A decreased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and a decreased temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat. A decreased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and an increased temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat. An increased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and a decreased temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat. An increased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and an increased temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat. Heat exchangers
D When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to prevent water hammer what statement represents the correct operating procedure? Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate and issuing dry steam. Finally, introduce the heavy fuel oil. Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam and draining condensate. Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam and draining condensate. Finally, introduce the heavy fuel oil. Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate and issuing dry steam. Heat exchangers
D When taking a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube type heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to avoid thermal shock what statement represents the correct operating procedure? Secure both the steam and heavy fuel oil simultaneously and immediately to avoid thermal shock. Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then gradually secure the steam to avoid thermal shock. Secure the steam and heavy fuel oil simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal shock. Gradually secure the steam first, then secure the heavy fuel oil to avoid thermal shock. Heat exchangers
C When taking a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to prevent water hammer what statement represents the correct operating procedure? Open wide the condensate drains first. Gradually close down and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam. Finally, secure the heavy fuel oil.
 
o
Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually close down and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam. Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually close down and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate. Finally, secure the heavy fuel oil. Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually close down and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate. Heat exchangers
C When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a non-removable tube bundle such as a lube oil cooler with fixed tube sheets into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement represents the correct operating procedure? Introduce the cooling water first, then gradually introduce the lube oil until full flow is established to avoid thermal shock.
 
o
Introduce the lubricating oil first, then gradually introduce the cooling water until full flow is established to avoid thermal shock. Introduce both the cooling water and the lubricating oil simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal shock. Introduce both the cooling water and the lubricating oil simultaneously establishing full flow of both fluids immediately to avoid thermal shock. Heat exchangers
A When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger such as a jacket water cooler into service, to insure optimal heat transfer what statement represents the correct operating procedure? Both the water box and shell vent valves should be opened to expel any entrapped air and then reclosed. Both the water box and shell drain valves should be opened to expel any entrapped air and then reclosed. Both the water box and shell vent valves should be opened to expel any entrapped sediment and then reclosed. Both the water box and shell drain valves should be opened to expel any entrapped sediment and then reclosed. Heat exchangers
D When securing a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube heat exchanger for an extended period of time, what statement represents the recommended operating procedure? The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained, then flushed with freshwater and left completely filled with freshwater. The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained by opening the drain valves, while insuring that the vent valves remain closed while draining. The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be left completely filled with seawater. The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained by opening the drain valves, while insuring that the vent valves remain open while draining. Heat exchangers
C When shifting heat exchangers such as main engine lube-oil coolers, what statement represents the recommended operating procedure if the shift is to occur during engine operation? First, secure cooling water to the off-going cooler, then secure lube oil to the off-going cooler. Next, introduce lube oil to the on-coming cooler, then introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler.
 
o
First, introduce lube oil to the on-coming cooler, then introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler. Next, secure cooling water to the off-going cooler, then secure lube oil to the off-going cooler. First, introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler, then introduce lube oil to the on-coming cooler. Next, secure lube oil to the off-going cooler, then secure cooling water to the off-going cooler. First, secure lube oil to the off-going cooler, then secure cooling water to the off-going cooler. Next, introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler, then introduce lube oil to the on-coming cooler. Heat exchangers
D Suppose a diesel engine is fitted with seawater-cooled lube oil and jacket water coolers. What statement is true concerning the system operating pressures? The jacket water pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the jacket water cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the lube oil cooler. The jacket water pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the jacket water cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the lube oil cooler. The jacket water pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the jacket water cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the lube oil cooler. The jacket water pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the jacket water cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the lube oil cooler. Heat exchangers
B For soft scale deposits on the inside of the tubes of a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube heat exchanger, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning? Blowing out with compressed air or a steam lance. Mechanical cleaning with specially designed brushes and/or flushing with hot freshwater. Chemical cleaning with descaling compounds Mechanical cleaning with specially designed reamers or cutting tools. Heat exchangers
A If a fluorescent dye penetrant and ultra-violet light are used for leak detection on a heat exchanger, what would be the indication of a confirmed leak? A bright green glow at the site of leakage. A bright orange glow at the site of leakage. A bright purple glow at the site of leakage. A bright red glow at the site of leakage. Heat exchangers
D For stubborn, hard scale deposits on the inside of the tubes of a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube heat exchanger, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning? Mechanical cleaning with specially designed brushes. Flushing with hot fresh-water. Mechanical cleaning with specially designed reamers. Chemically cleaning with descaling compounds. Heat exchangers
A For removal of sludge from in the inside of the shell of a fuel oil heater or lube oil cooler, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning? Circulating hot distillate oil. Blowing out with compressed air or a steam lance. Chemical cleaning with descaling compounds. Mechanical cleaning with specially designed brushes. Heat exchangers
D What would be the most likely indication that a plate type jacket water cooler had an internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids? Rising level and overflowing of the jacket water expansion tank. Drop in concentration of corrosion inhibitor package of jacket water. Excessive scale build-up on the various cylinder jacket surfaces. Dropping level and frequent need to top off jacket water expansion tank. Heat exchangers
B Which saltwater-cooled heat exchanger arrangement and location would be MOST problematic in terms of keeping the seawater side filled? Vertically arranged cooler located below the water line. Horizontally arranged cooler located above the water line. Horizontally arranged cooler located below the water line. Vertically arranged cooler located above the water line. Heat exchangers
A Which saltwater-cooled heat exchanger arrangement and location would be the LEAST likely to become air-bound on the seawater side? Vertically arranged cooler located below the water line. Horizontally arranged cooler located above the water line. Vertically arranged cooler located above the water line. Horizontally arranged cooler located below the water line. Heat exchangers
A How may a suspected tube leak on a shell-and-tube jacket water cooler most easily be located? Isolate, drain, and dry the salt water side of the heat exchanger. Remove the water box inspection plates. Visually inspect the tube sheets for signs of seepage at each of the tube ends. Isolate, drain, and dry the salt water side of the heat exchanger. Pressurize the seawater side with compressed air. Visually inspect the jacket water expansion tank for bubbles. Isolate, drain, and dry both the salt water and jacket water sides of the heat exchanger. Remove the water box inspection plates. Visually inspect the tube sheets for signs of seepage at each of the tube ends. Isolate, drain, and dry the jacket water side of the heat exchanger. Remove the shell inspection plates. Visually inspect the tubes along the tube lengths for seepage. Heat exchangers
A What would be the most likely indication that a shell-and-tube lube oil cooler had in internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids? Dropping level and frequent need to add make-up oil to engine sump. Corrosion of engine internal parts in contact with lube oil. Rising level in engine lube oil sump. Drop in viscosity of engine lube oil. Heat exchangers
C Besides a visual inspection upon disassembly, what method can be used to check for suspected leakage through a heat transfer plate of a plate type heat exchanger? One side of the plate is cleaned and coated with a water-seeking paste, and the other side is sprayed with water.  One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other side is viewed with an infra-red heat source. One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other side is viewed with an ultra-violet light. One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other side is viewed with an ordinary flashlight. Heat exchangers
D Expansion tanks when used in a ships hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature range of the water? 260F to 280F 320F to 360F 180F to 212F 220F to 240F Heating & Ventilation Systems
A Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for shipboard steam heating systems? Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater return. Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping. Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a check valve on the return. Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves. Heating & Ventilation Systems
B Water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by __________. filling the auxiliary boiler with cold water steam admitted to a cold pipe filling the auxiliary boiler with hot water draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve Heating & Ventilation Systems
B Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________. solely by the charge applied by the accumulators by resistance to the fluid flow through the system only by the pump as its primary function by the thermal input to the system's fluid Hydraulic Principles
B In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq. cm)? Illustration GS-0062 80 psi (5.63 kg/cm2) 800 psi (56.31 kg/cm2) 8,000 psi (563.1 kg/cm2) 80,000 psi (5631 kg/cm2) Hydraulic Principles
A Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity? Pressure Pour point Cloud point Vacuum Hydraulic Principles
C The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally __________. harmless and have no effect on system components always neutralized by oil additives gums, varnishes, and acids removed by cellulose type filters Hydraulic Principles
C Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________. reservoir expansion chamber hydraulic piping flexibility atmosphere as heat fluid as friction Hydraulic Principles
D The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________. Illustration GS-0097 combined pump unit series-flow pump unit two-stage pump unit double pump unit Hydraulic Principles
B The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________. Illustration GS-0098 two-stage, pump unit combined, pump unit duplex, pump unit parallel, pump unit Hydraulic Principles
C An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________. Illustration GS-0068 is pilot controlled allows flow in one direction only can be adjusted or varied is pressure compensated Hydraulic Principles
A Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________. Illustration GS-0103 shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has closed act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F" act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E" shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed Hydraulic Principles
D Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________. Illustration GS-0103 motor operated with one pump located in the engine room at the shaft alley door and the other in a common passage way manually operated with one pump located at the shaft alley door and the other in a common passage way motor operated with one pump located on the engine room side and the other on the shaft alley side of the water tight door manually operated with one located in the engine room and the other in the shaft alley of the water tight door Hydraulic Principles
D Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the __________. ram actuator reservoir accumulator Hydraulic Principles
C Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to __________. prevent moisture accumulation prevent vacuum formation prevent foaming accommodate thermal expansion Hydraulic Principles
B In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high pressure return is provided by __________. Illustration GS-0118 C A B D Hydraulic Principles
D The component which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________. accumulator separator strainer filter Hydraulic Principles
A Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high pressure use is represented by figure __________. Illustration GS-0100 A or B A or C B or C C or D Hydraulic Principles
D The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the __________. inner tube outer cover outer armor braided inner layer(s) Hydraulic Principles
B The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is __________. Illustration GS-0058 increased by adding a shorter cylinder block fixed by the pump housing angle decreased by adding a longer cylinder block increased by adding a longer cylinder block Hydraulic Principles
B To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done? Provide one additional slot and vane. Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots. Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor. Double the casing thickness. Hydraulic Principles
C The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the __________. ram pump accumulator piping Hydraulics
A Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable the pump to be temporarily shutdown, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force? Accumulator Modulator Pressure compensator valve Sump actuator Hydraulics
D Which of the following statements describes the functions of a reservoir used in a hydraulic system? Separate air from the oil Trap foreign matter Dissipate heat All of the above. Hydraulics
D The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to __________. minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines entering the system reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line All of the above. Hydraulics
D A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to store hydraulic oil. Another function is to __________. eliminate pressure surges in the system maintain the stored oil under pressure act as a shock absorber act as a base or foundation for the power unit Hydraulics
D In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high pressure return is provided by __________. Illustration GS-0118 C D B A Hydraulics
D A precharged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system, can be potentially dangerous if __________. the bladder contacts the top of the poppet the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil it is precharged with dry nitrogen the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure Hydraulics
D The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a pressure gauge, is a result of the fluid flow overcoming __________. the load applied to the system resistance of the internal components internal resistance to flow All of the above. Hydraulics
D In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon __________. the temperature of the hydraulic fluid the flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid the temperature of the cooling water All of the above. Hydraulics
A If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled heat exchanger, the fan should __________. be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at less than 190F (87.8C) never be needed, except when the ambient temperature exceeds 90F (32.2C) Hydraulics
D In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be necessary? Hatch cover system Watertight door system Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system Constant tension mooring winch system Hydraulics
A With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid __________. increases contracts remains constant if pressure decreases remains the same Hydraulics
C If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will __________. dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system cause the system to vibrate find that the pressure will prevent the components from being tightened be successful every time Hydraulics
C To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator __________. remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system's design pressure
 
o
increase the pneumatic pressure until the hydraulic system reaches its design pressure remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator preload pressure allow the accumulator to completely fill with gas charge at atmospheric pressure, shut off the air chamber, and add hydraulic fluid until proper pressure is reached Hydraulics
C How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working on hydraulic systems? Place drip pans under leaky fittings. Coat all threads with graphite oil. Clean the fittings before they are disconnected. Seal any cracks in lines with Permatex. Hydraulics
A When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the oil __________. viscosity will increase viscosity will decrease volume will increase floc point will increase Hydraulics
D Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________. the system has been idle for a long period of time adding small amounts of oil to the system the system has been overheated the system has been drained and then filled with new oil Hydraulics
D New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by using __________. alcohol carbon tetrachloride a water-based detergent a special petroleum solvent Hydraulics
D When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the nominal pipe size of the piping always indicates the __________. actual inside diameter actual outside diameter wall thickness size for threaded connections Hydraulics
B Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity? Vacuum Pressure Cloud point Pour point Hydraulics
A If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be __________. an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid an oil leak across the pump shaft packing Hydraulics
A You press start button on the hydraulic power unit shown in the illustration, and the motor does not start. The first thing you should check is the __________. Illustration GS-0161 controller circuit breaker controller contactor operating coil pump discharge relief valve setting is too low suction strainer condition Hydraulics
B Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________. reservoir expansion chamber atmosphere as heat hydraulic piping flexibility fluid as friction Hydraulics
C The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________. Illustration GS-0097 combined pump unit series-flow pump unit double pump unit two-stage pump unit Hydraulics
D An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________. Illustration GS-0068 is pilot controlled allows flow in one direction only is pressure compensated can be adjusted or varied Hydraulics
D Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________. Illustration GS-0103 act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E" shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F" shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has closed Hydraulics
B Item "E" shown in the illustration is used in the hydraulic circuit as __________. Illustration GS-0103 one of two motor driven remotely operated pumps to open and close the water tight door the manually operated pump located in a common passage way to close the water tight door in an emergency the manually operated pump used to open or close the water tight door from the engine room side motor driven pump used to close the water tight door from the navigation bridge in an emergency Hydraulics
B Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high pressure use is represented by figure __________. Illustration GS-0100 A or C A or B B or C C or D Hydraulics
C For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside diameter less __________. the wall thickness 1.5 times the wall thickness 2 times the wall thickness 2.5 times the wall thickness Hydraulics
B The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the __________. Teflon sleeve braided layer synthetic rubber inner tube external cover Hydraulics
C The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure "D" is INCORRECT and will probably leak when in operation because the tubing __________. Illustration GS-0065 will contract in diameter and expand in length under pressure will stretch and overstress the male threads on the fitting and its fittings cannot be properly installed and tightened cannot flex at right angles to the pressure applied by the fluid because it is not properly twisted Hydraulics
A A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch cover system and has developed a slight leak. To stop the leak you should __________. shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when tightening replace both the tubing sections and the fitting keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut Hydraulics
C An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainers to help reduce the possibility of __________. spongy actuator movements aeration of the oil pump cavitation contamination of the oil Hydraulics
B An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can __________. rupture the pump discharge piping reduce or stop the output action of the actuator cause leaking of the flexible line connections All of the above. Hydraulics
D Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to __________. prevent solid particles from entering the filter protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants protect the directional control valves prevent solid particles from entering the pump Hydraulics
C The device shown in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________. Illustration GS-0071 soft-packing seal quad seal mechanical seal spring seal Hydraulics
C In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring? V-ring U-ring Quad ring Cup seal Hydraulics
A Which of the following components listed is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0041 Filter Variable displacement pump Heat exchanger All of the above. Hydraulics
C A two stage hydraulic pump unit is used to __________. produce twice the flow rate than if only one element were to be used  supply two individual flows to the same segments of the system if one of the pump elements were to fail develop the same flow rate across both pump elements with the discharge pressure of the second pump element being substantially higher than that of the first stage establish two individual flows to segregated segments of one system Hydraulics
D The device illustrated would be best used as a __________. Illustration GS-0058 power take-off driven lube oil pump variable capacity pump hydraulic hatch supply pump variable or constant speed motor Hydraulics
A To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done? Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots. Provide one additional slot and vane. Double the casing thickness. Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor. Hydraulics
B If the flow rate and pressurized oil from a variable capacity pump were supplied to the device illustrated, the __________. Illustration GS-0058 speed would decrease, horsepower and torque would increase horsepower, torque, and speed would increase proportionally horsepower, torque, and speed would decrease proportionally speed would increase, horsepower and torque would decrease Hydraulics
B Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston pump are determined by the relative positions of the __________. pump shaft and central valve floating ring and cylinder body floating ring and pump shaft pump shaft and horizontal ports Hydraulics
B A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________. metered-out circuit metered-in circuit bleed-in circuit bleed-off circuit Hydraulics
B A hydraulic system flow-control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________. Illustration GS-0105 bleed-off circuit metered-in circuit bleed-in circuit metered-out circuit Hydraulics
D A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________. bleed-off circuit metered-in circuit bleed-in circuit metered-out circuit Hydraulics
B If the device shown in the illustration is being used to control the output of an axial piston pump, when part "A" is moved to the right, then part "B" __________. Illustration GS-0039 will move to the right, and "C" will move to the left, but lagging behind "B" will move to the left, and "C" will move to the right, but will lag behind the movement of "A" will move to the right, as will "C" will move to the left, as will "C" Hydraulics
A Which of the following statements will be true if the position of the manual control lever, shown in the illustration, remains unchanged after the pump is placed on stroke. Illustration GS-0039 Although oil will leak past part 'B,' the amount of pump stroke will be maintained until the control handle position is changed. Although the control handle position was set, the pump displacement will fluctuate from zero to maximum flow rate until the handle is placed in its neutral position. Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually move to full stroke. Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually return to neutral stroke. Hydraulics
B A variable displacement pump is fitted with the illustrated device, the discharge flow rate will be reduced as described by which of the following statements? Illustration GS-0040 When part "D" rotates counterclockwise, part "E" will rotate clockwise allowing part "G" to slide towards the set point spring 'F.' Part "H" will move to block the replenishing pump oil flow across part "G" as flow across hydraulic motor decreases. The increase in high side pressure will gradually increase the tilting box angle of the variable displacement pump. As high side pressure increases part "A", "B", and "C" will work together to reestablish the original tilting box angle. Hydraulics
B One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure-closed hydraulic systems, is to supply fluid flow to __________. the main system accumulators under all operating conditions a servo control circuit position a manually controlled valve the reservoir Hydraulics
A Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as __________. two position flow control valves main supply line throttle valves variable flow control valves check and choke valves Hydraulics
D The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system, is to __________. prevent oil backflow to the actuators prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing Hydraulics
B Compensated flow control, or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to __________. assure constant fluid temperature allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system compensate for major leaks in the system maintain the original fluid viscosity Hydraulics
A Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve? Counterbalance valve Two-position valve Three-position valve Detented-position valve Hydraulics
B Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of one action of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted? Unloading valve Sequence valve Counterbalance valve Pressure-reducing valve Hydraulics
B Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required? compound, pressure-relief valve unloading valve counterbalance valve sequence valve Hydraulics
D Which of the statements is true concerning the illustrated hydraulic circuit when the directional control valve is centered? Illustration GS-0105 Oil pressure to both sides of the actuator will be equal as the pump discharge flow is directed across the relief valve. A pressure differential will exist between the two ends of the actuator, with pump discharge lower than normal due to flow across the unloading valve. The oil pressure will equalize at both ends of the actuator and the pump will discharge through the reducing valve to the sump. The load on the actuator may cause a difference in pressure to exist between the rod and cap end, and oil discharging to the sump across the relief valve with the pump operating. Hydraulics
C The counterbalance valve (5) in the winch circuit shown in the illustration __________. Illustration GS-0161 regulates the amount of oil to the brake release cylinder aligns the pump's discharge to the winch's hydraulic motor helps prevent slung loads from dropping prematurely prevents over-travel of the winch when retrieving Hydraulics
C If solenoid "A" illustrated is energized, the __________. Illustration GS-0041 cylinder should retract pump should discharge directly to the reservoir cylinder should extend pump should reverse the direction of flow Hydraulics
B For which of the following reasons is a linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device? To allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting

without lifting the relief valve.
To slow the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects. To regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length. All of the above. Hydraulics
B Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single-acting hydraulic ram is correct? Hydraulic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram by directional ports. The single-acting ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force. The single-acting ram is both extended and retracted by means of hydraulic force. Hydraulic force applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling motion. Hydraulics
C Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of __________. changing pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations a high oil level incorrect fluid viscosity continued slow recirculation of the oil Hydraulics
A Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by __________. continuous leakage through the pressure relief valve an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers insufficient external pump slippage fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations Hydraulics
A While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that hydraulic pressure does not develop in spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST to restore pressure? Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level. Inspect the disc brake on the electric motor for proper operation. Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact. Check for full voltage supply to the electric motor. Hydraulics
C In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain adequate flow, the pump suction should __________. be taken directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or strainers be provided with three to five 1/2 inch holes in the vertical, suction line to prevent pump starvation should the strainer become fouled be arranged to develop a maximum vacuum of approximately 10" of mercury be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable vacuum Hydraulics
C A hydraulic flow control circuit is shown in the illustration, and is known as a __________. Illustration GS-0107 bleed-in circuit metered-in circuit bleed-off circuit metered-out circuit Hydraulics
A A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed, with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is known as the __________. bleed-off circuit bleed-in circuit metered-out circuit metered-in circuit Hydraulics
D A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________. metered-out circuit bleed-in circuit bleed-off circuit metered-in circuit Hydraulics
B A hydraulic system flow-control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________. Illustration GS-0105 metered-out circuit metered-in circuit bleed-off circuit bleed-in circuit Hydraulics
B When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system, prior to installation the piping should be __________. cleaned using a water-based detergent descaled by using a pickling solution hydrostatically tested to 100% of maximum working pressure All of the above. Hydraulics
D New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by using __________. alcohol a water-based detergent carbon tetrachloride a special petroleum solvent Hydraulics
B Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with accumulators, you should __________. completely charge the accumulators to prevent system energy loss bleed off all stored energy from the accumulators drain the accumulators and purge with oxygen pump the hydraulic fluid into the accumulators to prevent fluid loss Hydraulics
C How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working on hydraulic systems? Seal any cracks in lines with Permatex. Place drip pans under leaky fittings. Clean the fittings before they are disconnected. Coat all threads with graphite oil. Hydraulics
B Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________. the system has been idle for a long period of time the system has been drained and then filled with new oil the system has been overheated adding small amounts of oil to the system Hydraulics
B Increased internal leakage, in addition to poor hydraulic system response, and inadequate lubrication, is the result of __________. excessively worn actuator-piston packing low hydraulic oil viscosity pump bearings in poor condition broken directional control valve centering springs Hydraulics
D If the pump in a hydraulic system produces a low rumbling noise while in operation, this is a probable indication of __________. strained hydraulic fluid internal system fluid leakage excess internal slippage air passing through the pump Hydraulics
C If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be __________. an oil leak across the pump shaft packing due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid Hydraulics
D If the operating pressure is determined to be normal in the system shown in the illustration, yet the crane does not swing (slew) in either direction when the directional control valve is operated, the problem could be __________. Illustration GS-0161 double check valve (14) ball jammed to the left relief valve (12) set to open at too high a pressure oil cooler partially obstructed an obstruction in the brake release cylinder line (2) Hydraulics
B Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation and can be caused by a/an __________. hydraulic fluid low floc point clogged suction strainer in the reservoir excessive discharge pressure from the pump high fluid level in the reservoir Hydraulics
A If a hydraulic pump sounds like it is pumping rocks when in operation, the problem is most likely______. cavitation slippage galvanic action None of the above Hydraulics
D If a hydraulic pump is overheating, the cause may be __________. operation of the pump at 100% efficiency excessive fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir low discharge pressure and fluid flow excessive internal slippage in the pump Hydraulics
D Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by misalignment of the system components and by __________. turbulent fluid flow excessive fluid friction fluid pressure surges hydraulic fluid contamination Hydraulics
D A solenoid direct-acting three-position spring-centered directional control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. When the remote push button is depressed to extend the actuator it fails to move, even though the pump is in operation. Which of the following statements represents the cause? The pump coupling is damaged and pump is unable to turn at its required speed. A spring at one spool end has broken and jammed, preventing the spool from shifting. The 'extend' solenoid coil has developed an open. Any one of the above will cause the actuator to not move. Hydraulics
B In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for vessels of 400 gross tons and above which are all required to carry an oily-water separator to process bilge slops, what is the design criteria in terms of maximum oil content of the overboard discharge? 3 parts per million 15 parts per million 100 parts per million 150 parts per million International Rules And Regulations
A In accordance with the federal regulation in 33 CFR Subchapter O, which discharge of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible? When the discharge is necessary to for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving life at sea. When the oil content of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per million. When the oil or oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges. When the oil or oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues. International Rules And Regulations
A In accordance with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for U.S non-oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops? The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility. The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility. The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. International Rules And Regulations
C In accordance with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of less than 400 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops? The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
 
o
The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is EITHER required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oily-water separator. The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility. International Rules And Regulations
D In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops? The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility. The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is EITHER required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oily-water separator. The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. International Rules And Regulations
D In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 10,000 gross tons and above, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops? The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility. The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is EITHER required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oily-water separator. The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. International Rules And Regulations
B In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record Book? 33CFR Part 151.15 33CFR Part 151.25 33CFR Part 151.55 33CFR Part 151.2070 International Rules And Regulations
B In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. This includes disposal of oil residues and overboard discharge of bilge water that has accumulated in machinery spaces, as well as other operations. Who is responsible for signing the Oil Record Book entry for the specific operation? The Master of the vessel The officer in charge of the operation The Chief Engineer The First Assistant Engineer International Rules And Regulations
D In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil Record Book? Discharge overboard of bilge water that has accumulated in the dry cargo holds. Taking on ballast water into double-bottom sea water ballast tanks. Discharge of ballast from double-bottom sea water ballast tanks. Discharge of waste oil or sludge to a reception facility. International Rules And Regulations
D In accordance with the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, continuing violations of The Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international MARPOL regulations may constitute separate violations subject to civil penalties. Which of the following statements is true? Each week of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. Each month of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. Each hour of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. Each day of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. International Rules And Regulations
C Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of the term "sewage"? Victual or food wastes collected from galley sinks.
 
Various deck drains situated within the vessel's superstructure. Human body wastes and the wastes from toilets and other receptacles intended to receive or retain body waste. Drains collected from sinks and showers from the various heads onboard ship. International Rules And Regulations
C Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type I Marine Sanitation Device"? A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
 
o
A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage or any waste derived from sewage. A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. International Rules And Regulations
D Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type II Marine Sanitation Device"? A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage or any waste derived from sewage. A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter. International Rules And Regulations
B Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type III Marine Sanitation Device"?

A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage or any waste derived from sewage. A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter. A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids. International Rules And Regulations
C Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is UNACCEPTABLE? Using a non-releasable wire-tire to hold each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed position. Closing each valve leading to an overboard discharge and removing the handle. Closing and tagging each valve leading to an overboard discharge. Padlocking each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed position. International Rules And Regulations
C Under the federal regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening? Making an announcement over the public address system advising all concerned that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".  Placing a warning sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising all concerned that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone". Locking the door to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door handle key lock to prevent entry when the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone". Placing of tape forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all concerned that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone". International Rules And Regulations
D Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true? The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is permitted. The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted. The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is

 permitted.
The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited. International Rules And Regulations
A Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more than 3, but less than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true? The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted. The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is permitted. The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is permitted. The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited. International Rules And Regulations
B Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true? The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is prohibited. The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is permitted. The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is permitted. The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is permitted. International Rules And Regulations
D In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited in any waters? Ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery. Unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery. Floating dunnage, lining, or packing material. Plastic or garbage mixed with plastic. International Rules And Regulations
A In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of all garbage applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land? 3 nautical miles 12 nautical miles 25 nautical miles 200 nautical miles International Rules And Regulations
C In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of dunnage, lining, and packing materials that float applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land? 3 nautical miles 12 nautical miles 25 nautical miles 200 nautical miles International Rules And Regulations
B In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land? 3 nautical miles 12 nautical miles 25 nautical miles 200 nautical miles International Rules And Regulations
A In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land? 3 nautical miles 12 nautical miles 25 nautical miles 200 nautical miles International Rules And Regulations
D In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of plastics into the sea or the navigable waters of the United States is strictly prohibited. Which of following statements is true concerning the legal disposal of plastics? The garbage containing plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved reception facility. Incineration onboard the ship is not permitted. The garbage containing plastics must be incinerated onboard ship. Discharge ashore to an approved reception facility is not permitted. The garbage containing plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved plastics recycling facility. The garbage containing plastics must be either discharged ashore to an approved reception facility or incinerated onboard the ship. International Rules And Regulations
B In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge or disposal of garbage on vessels of 400 gross tons and above engaged in commerce requires recordkeeping. Which of the following discharge or disposal operations requires a detailed description of the contents of the garbage? Incineration on the ship. Discharge overboard to sea. Discharge to a reception facility. Discharge to another ship. International Rules And Regulations
B Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result? CO2 Halon 1301 Cartridge-operated dry chemical Cartridge-operated dry powder International Rules And Regulations
A Which of the following refrigerants which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result? R-12 R-134a R-404A R-410A International Rules And Regulations
A In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations apply? Diesel engines with a power output of more than 130kW. Diesel engines with a power output not greater than 130kW. Diesel engines powering emergency diesel-generator sets. Diesel engines powering lifeboats. International Rules And Regulations
C In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulfur content of any fuel oil used onboard ships shall not exceed what percentage by weight? 1.5 (%) 3.0 (%) 4.5 (%) 6.0 (%) International Rules And Regulations
C In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulphur content of any fuel oil used on board ships shall not exceed what percentage by weight? 1.5 (%) 3 (%) 4.5 (%) 6 (%) International Rules And Regulations
A In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable sulphur content for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control area? 1.5 (%) 3 (%) 4.5 (%) 6 (%) International Rules And Regulations
A In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator? Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) Oil residue sludges Unground garbage Sewage waste sludges International Rules And Regulations
D In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator? Refined petroleum products containing detergent additives. Garbage containing trace amounts of heavy metals. Oil residue and sewage waste sludges. Refined petroleum products containing halogen compounds. International Rules And Regulations
C In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is the minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in operation? 450C 650F 850F 1050F International Rules And Regulations
A In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is a
permissible alternative to burning oil residue sludge in an appropriate incinerator?
The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned only in unrestricted waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries). The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned without restriction in terms of vessel location. The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned only in unrestricted waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries). The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned without restriction in terms of vessel location. International Rules And Regulations
A In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is a permissible alternative to burning oil residue sludge in an appropriate incinerator? The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, and it AND may be burned only in unrestricted waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries). The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned without restriction in terms of vessel location. The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned only in unrestricted waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries). The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned without restriction in terms of vessel location. International Rules And Regulations
C In accordance with the international MARPOL AnnexVI regulations, what is the minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in operation? 450⁰C 650⁰F 850⁰F 1050⁰F International Rules And Regulations
B Where would you find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel? Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection Official logbook In the captain's desk International Rules And Regulations
A The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the department include __________. determining if any vital engine room equipment is inoperative preparing a list of engine department personnel for the Master's signature taking a complete personal inventory of all engine room spare parts obtaining a valid Certification of Inspection from the Coast Guard International Rules And Regulations
B A Coast Guard engineer's license can be suspended or revoked for __________. having your wages garnished being responsible for an oil spill ashore failure to attend safety meetings conviction of any misdemeanor ashore International Rules And Regulations
C Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an emergency? Coast Guard Chief Engineer Master of the vessel Chief Mate International Rules And Regulations
C Oil sprays on to a hot piece of machinery, catches fire and causes $35,000 damage to your vessel. By law this must be reported to the __________. U.S. Salvage Association Survey at the next U.S. port principal surveyor of the American Bureau of Shipping at the next U.S. port Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection at the first port of arrival nearest Coast Guard unit International Rules And Regulations
A In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), it is the duty of the Chief Engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until __________. that particular supply of oil is exhausted return to the first U.S. port where upon it must be sent ashore for chemical analysis and the findings submitted to the nearest Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection it can be sent ashore to the proper oil company personnel for testing and the results entered in the Oil Record Book, CG-480 the voyage is completed International Rules And Regulations
C Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an emergency? Coast Guard Chief Mate Master of the vessel Chief Engineer International Rules And Regulations
C An international and coastwise load line assignment and certificate has been issued to a vessel by the American Bureau of Shipping, under the authority of Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), for a period of __________. 4 years 1 year 5 years 2 years International Rules And Regulations
D The unlicensed crew requirements listed on the Certificate of Inspection reads as follows: 3 firemen/watertenders; 3 oilers. The vessel is about to depart on a foreign voyage, and has in the crew: 3 firemen/watertenders, 2 oilers, and one man, whose merchant mariner's document is endorsed QMED, any rating. you should __________. call the port captain and request another oiler request a waiver from the Coast Guard check if any of the firemen have enough time for an oiler's endorsement sail because your crew requirements are filled International Rules And Regulations
D The minimum number of crew members permitted by law to operate your vessel can be determined by checking the __________. Master's crew list Muster List ("Station Bill") A. B. S. Certificate Certificate of Inspection International Rules And Regulations
B The Certificate of Inspection for your vessel was issued in January. In March of the same year you need to replace a cooling water pump for the refrigeration system. What action would be appropriate? Defer informing the Coast Guard of the pump's replacement until the mid-period inspection. Replace the pump, as the Coast Guard need not be informed of the pump replacement. Inform the Coast Guard if the replacement will involve welding or burning. Inform the nearest Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection of the pump replacement. International Rules And Regulations
D The minimum firefighting equipment to be maintained onboard a tank vessel, can be determined from the __________. U.S.C.G. Firefighting Manual for Tank Vessels U.S.C.G. Equipment List vessel's current articles vessel's Certificate of Inspection International Rules And Regulations
A The assessment of a trainee's practical demonstration of skills should be conducted __________. within the normal routine of vessel's operation at any time of the day, particularly outside normal operations within the last six hours that the trainee will be on board the vessel only when the trainee first arrives on board, and preferably within the first few days International Rules And Regulations
D A water line ruptures under pressure and floods the engine room causing $(USA)30,000 damage to the machinery. By law, this must be reported to the __________. insurance underwriter engine manufacturer owner or his agent U.S. Coast Guard International Rules And Regulations
A A trainee is on board your vessel and will need to be assessed in the demonstration of practical skills. Ideally you should assess their skill __________. after they have received training and personally practiced the skill immediately after they have received training after they have observed the skill demonstrated once before they have received training International Rules And Regulations
C One important objective of a practical skill demonstration for mariner certification is to __________. institute busy work for both the trainee and assessor establish if the trainee can perform certain tasks at a later time determine the degree of competence of the trainee during the assessment subjectively prevent trainee's from being licensed or certified International Rules And Regulations
D In order to assess each trainee in the performance of a practical demonstration, the assessor should __________. sign off the remaining half of all skills to be demonstrated based upon the success of the first half of the skill demonstration create a unique set of subjective questions for each trainee evaluate according to their discretion, simply by their ability to "tell" when a candidate is

 performing well
refer to a checklist that represents the skill process as required on board the vessel International Rules And Regulations
A When a ships officer signs off a trainee's successful completion of one or more practical demonstrations, they are attesting to the trainee's____________. ability to perform the practical demonstration only at the time the skill was assessed overall competency knowledge of how to perform the task and nothing more ability to perform the specific task not only at the time of demonstration, but also for the future International Rules And Regulations
C A licensed officer designated to certify a trainee's performance of a practical demonstration should sign off when __________. another license officer has witnessed the performance of the demonstration
 
the pre-brief with the trainee has been completed the entire practical demonstration has been successfully completed and personally observed by the licensed officer the majority of any portion of the skill has been demonstrated International Rules And Regulations
B In which lubrication application is a detergent type oil most likely to be used? Air compressor lubricating oil. Trunk type diesel engine lubricating oil. Steam turbine lubricating oil. Crosshead diesel engine bearing lubricating oil. Lubricants
A What is the operating principle of detergent type lubricating oil that provides the oil with its unique properties? Detergent and dispersant additives are able to hold solids in suspension. Detergent and dispersant additives chemically dissolve the solids. Detergent and dispersant additives convert the solids into a soap-like substance. Detergent and dispersant additives cause the solids to settle out. Lubricants
A With respect to lubricating oils, what statement is true concerning viscosity and viscosity index? Viscosity is a measure of an oil's internal resistance to flow and viscosity index is a measure of an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes. Viscosity is a measure of an oil's resistance to emulsification and viscosity is a measure of an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes. Viscosity is a measure of an oil's lubricity and viscosity index is a measure of an oil's ability to resist change in lubricity as the pressure changes. Viscosity is a measure of an oil's ability to resist oxidation and viscosity index is a measure of an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes. Lubricants
D Which statement is true concerning alkaline reserve as it applies to a lubricating oil? Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to maintain the oil in an alkaline condition. Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to neutralize bases as they are formed. Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to maintain the oil in an acidic condition. Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to neutralize acids as they are formed. Lubricants
A In which lubrication application is a lubricating oil with an alkaline reserve most likely to be used? Trunk type diesel engine lubricating oil. Stern tube bearing lubricating oil. Steam turbine lubricating oil. Crosshead diesel engine bearing lubricating oil. Lubricants
C With respect to a lubricating oil's viscosity and the bearing loading characteristics at the points of lubrication, what statement is true? The viscosity should be low enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque load and low enough to minimize power losses.  The viscosity should be high enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque load and high enough to minimize power losses. The viscosity should be high enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque load, but the viscosity should be low enough to minimize power losses. The viscosity should be low enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque load, but the viscosity should be high enough to minimize power losses. Lubrication
B Which statement concerning a lubricating oils viscosity and bearing loading characteristics is true? Shaft bearings associated with relatively low torque loads and high rotational speeds require a lubricating oil with a relatively high viscosity. Shaft bearings associated with relatively high torque loads and low rotational speeds require a lubricating oil with a relatively high viscosity. The viscosity requirements of a lubricating oil are not dependent on the relative torque load or rotational speed of a shaft bearing. Shaft bearings associated with relatively high torque loads and low rotational speeds require a lubricating oil with a relatively low viscosity. Lubrication
B Greases used for most marine applications would have what National Lubricating Grease Institute (NLGI) grade? 0 2 4 6 Lubrication
D A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished? Changing the filter element. Rotating the handle of the lube oil strainer. Draining the bottom of the strainer housing. Draining the bottom of the bearing lube oil sump. Lubrication
D On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum? Weekly Quarterly Monthly Annually Lubrication
D For any piece of equipment requiring lubrication, what is the single most important lubricating oil property in meeting the operating conditions? Total base number Flash point Pour point Viscosity Lubrication principles
D For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature? As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil may increase or decrease, depending upon the lubricant. As the temperature of a lubricating oil varies in either direction, the viscosity of the lubricating oil remains constant. As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil also

 increases.
As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil decreases. Lubrication principles
B What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?

An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the pressure changes. An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the temperature changes. An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the pressure changes. An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the temperature changes. Lubrication principles
B What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship? Lime-based grease Lithium-based grease Calcium-based grease Aluminum-based grease Lubrication principles
A If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean? The oil is formulated to meet the low temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the 100⁰C (high) temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil. The oil is formulated to meet the 100⁰C (high) temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the low temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil. The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil. The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50W oil and as such is a year-round oil. Lubrication principles
A A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished? Draining the bottom of the bearing lube oil sump. Rotating the handle of the lube oil strainer. Draining the bottom of the strainer housing. Changing the filter element. Lubrication Systems
B In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump residence time? The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be delivered by the pump. The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump. The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump. The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered by the pump. Lubrication Systems
D On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, at what oil level is the bearing maintained? The bearing is maintained at a level where the shaft is half-submerged in oil. The bearing is maintained at any level that guarantees that the shaft is partially submerged in oil. The bearing is maintained in a flooded state where the shaft is completely submerged in oil. The bearing is maintained at a level below the shaft, but high enough so that the ring dips into the oil. Lubrication Systems
D On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities? Annually Every round Daily Bimonthly Lubrication Systems
D If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil system, what statement is true? The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank. The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank which overflows to the lube oil reservoir/sump. The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump. The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return oil drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump. Lubrication Systems
C If the bearings of a piece of machinery are force-fed by a pressure feed lubricating oil system, which statement is true? The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank which overflows to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
 
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The lube oil sump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return oil drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump. The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump. The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank. Lubrication Systems
C If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil system, what statement is true concerning the vertical arrangement of the lube oil tanks? The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both below the points of lubrication.
 
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The lube oil gravity tank is below the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump is above the points of lubrication. The lube oil gravity tank is above the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump is below the points of lubrication. The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both above the points of lubrication. Lubrication Systems
C On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum? Weekly Monthly Annually Quarterly Lubrication Systems
C Which type of lubricating oil method is LEAST likely to have a lube oil strainer or filter? Gravity-feed Pressure-feed Static-feed Force-feed Lubrication Systems
B In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump residence time? The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump. The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered by the pump. The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered by the pump. The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump. Lubrication Systems
B Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine lubricating systems because they __________. are only effective at temperatures below 100ÂF remove additives from the lube oil can adsorb no more than five times their weight in water utilize exotic and expensive filtering media making them too costly for use. Lubrication Systems
C What is the BEST indication that a diesel engine full-flow lubricating oil filter must be serviced? Abnormally high lubricating oil pump discharge pressure. Insufficient pressure drop across the filter. Excessive pressure drop across the filter. Abnormally low lubricating oil supply manifold pressure. Lubrication Systems
A The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that absorbent filters __________. soak up liquid contaminants directly into the filter media will remove additives from the lube oil do not create pressure drops in the lube oil system attract or have liquid contaminants stick to the surface of the filter media Lubrication Systems
B Which of the following statements best describes the straining ability of a fine mesh metal lube oil strainer? A 100 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than 200 wire mesh screen. A 200 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 wire mesh screen. A 200 wire mesh screen and a 100 wire mesh screen both prevent passage of the same size particles, but each allows a different number of particles to pass through. A 200 mesh screen has larger wires than a 100 mesh screen. Lubrication Systems
A Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with today's high detergent additive type oils? Cotton waste packed in perforated metal containers or cylindrical cartridges. Foamed polyurethane of the impingement type supported on perforated metal rings. Cylindrical elements containing fuller's earth combined with cellulose. Chemically treated paper and waste in cartridges. Lubrication Systems
D Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to replace or clean the element while leaving the system on the line? Simplex Bypass Canister Duplex Lubrication Systems
C Which of the following types of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration schemes must be equipped with a bypass relief valve to insure that the engine bearings are not starved of oil if the filter element should become severely restricted or blocked? Batch filter Shunt filter Full-flow filter Bypass filter Lubrication Systems
B Which of the following types of lubricating oil filters is not fitted with a replaceable filter element and is serviced by cleaning? Cartridge filter Centrifugal filter Spin-on filter Canister filter Lubrication Systems
B What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters the entire output of the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery to the lubricating oil supply manifold of the engine? Bypass filter Full-flow filter Shunt filter Batch filter Lubrication Systems
A What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters a small portion of the output of the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery back to the sump via a fine filter? Bypass filter Batch filter Full-flow filter Shunt filter Lubrication Systems
D A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished? Draining the bottom of the strainer housing. Rotating the handle of the lube oil strainer. Changing the filter element. Draining the bottom of the bearing lube oil sump. Lubrication Systems
C On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities? Every round Annually Bimonthly Daily Lubrication Systems
D On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum? Monthly Quarterly Weekly Annually Lubrication Systems
C In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump residence time? The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered by the pump.
 
The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump. The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered by the pump. The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump. Lubrication Systems
A Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine lubricating systems because they __________. remove additives from the lube oil are only effective at temperatures below 100ÂF utilize exotic and expensive filtering media making them too costly for use. can absorb no more than five times their weight in water Lubrication Systems
B The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that absorbent filters __________. will remove additives from the lube oil soak up liquid contaminants directly into the filter media do not create pressure drops in the lube oil system attract or have liquid contaminants stick to the surface of the filter media Lubrication Systems
D Which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability of a fine mesh metal lube oil strainer? A 200 wire mesh screen and a 100 wire mesh screen both prevent passage of the same size particles, but each allows a different number of particles to pass through. A 100 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than 200 wire mesh screen. A 200 mesh screen has larger wires than a 100 mesh screen. A 200 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 wire mesh screen. Lubrication Systems
D Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with today's high detergent additive type oils? Chemically treated paper and waste in cartridges. Cylindrical elements containing fuller's earth combined with cellulose. Foamed polyurethane of the impingement type supported on perforated metal rings. Cotton waste packed in perforated metal containers or cylindrical cartridges. Lubrication Systems
C Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line? Bypass Canister Duplex Simplex Lubrication Systems
D When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________. control penetration reduce metal fatigue and warpage increase heat transfer reduce oxidation Machine Shop
C In certain circumstances, weldments are preheated before each pass to __________. increase the temperature gradient in the weld area allow the use of smaller welding rods reduce internal stresses eliminate the need for post heating Machine Shop
D A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles to each other, and is called a __________. seam weld tack weld plug weld fillet weld Machine Shop
D The root opening dimension shown in the illustration is used to indicate the __________. Illustration GS-0076 width across the bottom of the weldment penetration depth of the desired weld maximum thickness of the completed weld distance across the bottom of the "V" groove Machine Shop
D In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a __________.
Illustration GS-0078
double fillet weld only U-weld over a backing ring  plug and slot weld V-weld over a backing ring Machine Shop
C Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is the negative pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________. inert-arc welding circuit reverse polarity welding circuit straight polarity welding circuit shielded-arc welding circuit Machine Shop
B The welding process using an electric arc developed between a flux covered electrode and the metal being welded is known as __________. flux cored arc welding shielded metal arc welding submerged arc welding resistance spot welding Machine Shop
D The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V", indicates __________. Illustration GS-0076 the first pass of the weld is to be back gouged the arrow side of the weld is to be surface finished the opposite side of the weld is to be surface finished a "V" groove weld is to be made Machine Shop
D The designation E7028-A1 is typically located on an arc welding electrode. Which of the listed letters and/or digits correctly identifies the welding position for which the electrode is recommended? E 70 A1 2 Machine Shop
B Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weld? Illustration GS-0077 4A 3B 4B 6B Machine Shop
C With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an __________. nitriding fusion neutral flame carburizing flame oxidizing flame Machine Shop
D Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxyacetylene regulators and torches? The torch oxygen inlet hose thread connection is "left handed". The acetylene regulator hose outlet thread connection is "right handed". The oxygen regulator hose outlet thread connection is "left handed". The torch acetylene inlet hose thread connection is "left handed". Machine Shop
A Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an oxyacetylene torch? Open the acetylene valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the oxygen valve. Open the oxygen valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the acetylene valve. Open the acetylene valve very slightly and the oxygen valve the same amount to light-off. Open the oxygen valve wide open and the acetylene valve slightly to light-off. Machine Shop
A When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should close the __________. cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and regulators is zero cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hoses cylinder valves only hand valves on the torch only Machine Shop
D When welding with an oxy-acetylene outfit, __________. open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG a flashback of flame into the hose is normal a leaking hose must be repaired by binding with tape open the acetylene cylinder valve only 1/4 to 1/2 turn and leave the wrench on the valve stem Machine Shop
C Which of the following practices is considered to be safe for the handling and use of compressed gas cylinders? Using oxygen as a substitute for compressed air for pneumatic tools. Cracking the valve on a hydrogen cylinder to clear dust and dirt. The storage of the cylinders in a well ventilated compartment. Routinely greasing or lubricating the valves on oxygen cylinders. Machine Shop
A Protective equipment to be used while carrying out oxy-acetylene welding should always include __________. goggles ear plugs steel toe safety shoes non-sparking tools Machine Shop
A Solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a __________. melting point lower than that of the metals being joined coating of Borax flux to raise the melting point composition of lead and tin if the solder is the 'hard' type fusing point much higher than that of the metals being joined Machine Shop
C Tinning a soldering iron will __________. add extra weight to the tip prevent the tip from overheating prevent tip oxidation when heated