SeaSources.net, Training for Mariners. The First with Online Study for the Maritime Industry.

  Welcome to Seasources.net. Established in 1996, we are the ultimate source for online USCG exam preparation assistance. Seasources.net provides free online exam preparation along with downloadable studyguides and standalone software that allows you to continue your studies without an internet connection.

Prepare for or supplement your studies for your USCG license exam here.


                        Click here to register and begin your exam preparations with SeaSources.net

 

Hi! We have a new website! It's phone / tablet friendly and speedier. Please visit it today! 

All of the latest questions and illustrations on "Engineering Safety – Environmental Protection" are in the Online Study.

Home Page

 

Engineering Safety – Environmental Protection

 

A In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required to be reviewed __________. annually only biennially only quad-annually only only once every five years New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
D In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations? The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces. The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo. Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage. All of the above. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
C In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter W, the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall be __________. constructed so as to be completely spill proof emptied and gas freed when the ship is dry-docked emptied and the fuel changed at least once each year hydrostatically tested at each inspection for certification New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
D In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when off loading garbage to another ship, your records must identify that ship by name and which of the following? operator's name of record home port master's name official number New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
C In accordance with MARPOL (33 CFR Subchapter O), the definition of medical waste does NOT include which of the following? dialysis wastes pathological wastes expired pharmaceuticals sharps New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
C In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water? The vessel's Certificate of Inspection The vessel's International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate The vessel's Oil Transfer Procedures The vessel's Oil Record Book New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
D You are providing onboard training to your engineers on the factors affecting trim and stability. What instructions do you give your engineers to stabilize the ship should it experience an unstable rolling behavior? Discharge water from the forepeak tank. Discharge dirty ballast from a centerline double bottom tank. Add ballast to wing tank to the side of the ship with an angle of list. Add ballast to a centerline double bottom tank. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
B In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter W, life jackets must be stowed where? Each lifeboat. Each manned watch station. Each fire station. Mess room. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
B In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O, shipboard pollution prevention regulations are enforced by the __________. Corps of Engineers U.S. Coast Guard State Pollution Board Port Authority New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
B In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall be __________. opened up and internally examined at each Coast Guard biannual inspection for certification protected against freezing or be fitted with cutout valves and drain valves behind glass or a suitably marked enclosure All of the above. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
B In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? A list which specifies who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority in which they must be notified. A list of personnel duty assignments. A list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports. A list of agencies or officials of Coastal State administrations responsible for receiving and processing incident reports. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
A In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil Record Book is given to the_______. master cargo engineer chief engineer chief mate New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
A In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in the Oil Record Book shall be fully recorded __________. without delay within 12 hours of completion of the operation within 24 hours of completion of the project within 48 hours of completion of the operation New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
D Your vessel has just been struck by another vessel. After meeting with the captain and chief mate, you have immediately ordered the vessel specific damage control procedures in the vessel's approved stability booklet to be enacted. Which of the following statements is true? The Certificate of Documentation issued to the vessel will be the primary reference document in order to calculate free surface corrections. The universal station billet assigning crew member responsibilities will provide adequate reference information to determine the adequate damage control response. The Safety Management System will provide an IMO standard response for all collision response procedures, including damage control. The vessel general arrangement plan would be a critical reference document for your response providing accurate data showing watertight compartments, closures, vents and down flooding angles. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
C As an engineer, you are standing by a fuel oil storage tank as a crew member is working inside the tank. Before entering the tank, the atmosphere was checked and determined safe for men to work. While standing by you notice that the crew member is not moving. After attempts to communicate with the downed mariner you receive no response, what action would you take? Send another crew member, without a SCBA on, into the tank to retrieve the unconscious crew member. Send two additional crew members, without a SCBA on, into the tank to retrieve the unconscious crew member. Have additional crew members don a SCBA to enter the tank, to aid in the removal of the unconscious crew member. Call the captain and ask him how you should proceed. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
D As chief engineer of a vessel, you and the assistant engineer are planning a welding job in a tank. How would you ensure that all safety precautions are reviewed prior to starting this job? Have the engineer complete a hot-work permit after completing the job. Have the engineer review the SOLAS manual prior to starting the job. Have the engineer verbally review fire safety with crew working on the job. Have the engineer complete a hot-work permit prior to starting the job. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
C In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan? list of individuals required to respond plan exercises reporting requirements removal equipment list New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
A During fueling operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking fuel line. You should FIRST __________. stop the transfer of fuel prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam apply CO2 on the burning fuel at its source blanket the fuel spill with foam New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
B According to 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), an oceangoing ship of over 400 gross tons must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection. What size bolt circle diameter is required for this shore connection to transfer oily ballast to a shore side reception facility? 125 mm 183 mm 215 mm 250 mm New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
D Fire detecting systems on vessels may be arranged to sense __________. ionized particles smoke rate of temperature rise All of the above. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
B Your vessel is carrying a cargo of Ethane, which has caught fire. Which extinguishing agent(s) should be used? Alcohol foam, water fog Carbon dioxide, dry chemical Carbon dioxide, water fog Carbon dioxide, water foam New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
A In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the definition of gray water includes drainage from which of the following? dishwashers hospital sinks toilets cargo spaces New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2016
D In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), which of the listed fire extinguishers would be considered hand portable/semi-portable and capable of combating a class "B" fire? 2.5 gallons of foam 20 pounds of dry chemical 35 pounds of carbon dioxide All of the above. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2017
A In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter D, the device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces of tank vessels is referred to as what? Flame arrester Safety valve Flame relief valve Flame stopper New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2017
C In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter Q, which statement is true concerning the repair of life preservers? Large holes can be repaired. They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress. Tapes or straps may not be repaired, but may be replaced. They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2017
A According to 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas, __________. records must be provided and maintained for two years an entry into the official logbook must be made the U.S. Coast Guard must be notified for each occurrence no record is required if dumping is carried out more than 25 miles offshore and there is no included plastic material New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2017
B The potable water tanks on your vessel were drained for inspection and cleaning. What would you do before refilling with water? Disinfect the tank with an ammonia solution. Disinfect the tank with a chlorine solution. Nothing needs to be done before refilling the tanks. Use hull paint to touch up bulkheads in the water tanks. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2017
D Your passenger vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 78, what actions must be taken to verify that your vessel was in compliance with stability requirements? The master shall determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter an attestation statement of the verification in the ship's stability book. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. Ensure that the vessel owners has determined that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter an attestation statement of the verification in the log book. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. The master shall determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be and send a message verifying the condition of the vessel to the vessel's owners. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. The master shall determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter an attestation statement of the verification in the log book. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2017
C In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter H (Passenger Vessels), which of the following statements is true regarding sprinkler heads which are normally activated by the melting of a fusible link? Sprinkler heads installed in the galley and living spaces would have the same fusible link melting point. Sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed in the galley. Sprinkler heads installed in the galley would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed in the living spaces. None of the above; sprinkler heads with fusible links are prohibited aboard U.S. flag vessels. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2018
C In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard is required on which of the following vessels? foreign vessels not in U.S. navigable waters foreign vessels when engaged in noncommercial service U.S. vessels 26 feet or more in length U.S. vessels less than 26 feet in length New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2018
C In accordance with MARPOL (33 CFR Subchapter O), the definition of oil does NOT include which of the following? crude oil sludge cooking oil oil refuse New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2018
D Your ship has left shore on the east coast of the United States, how far must you be from shore to be able to discharge paper waste into the Atlantic Ocean? 12 nautical miles 3 nautical miles 25 nautical miles You may not discharge paper waste into the Atlantic Ocean. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2019
B You are in compartment "A" as shown in Figure 2 of the illustration, and suspect there is a fire in compartment "B". In order to check for and confirm the fire in compartment "B" you should __________. Illustration SF-0005 move a lighted candle along watertight door seal feel the bulkhead open the watertight door tap the bulkhead New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2019
B What would be the classification of the fire if the sources shown in illustration #4 were to catch fire? SF-0051 Class A Class B Class C Class D New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2019
D What would be the classification of the fire if the sources shown in illustration #3 were to catch fire? Illustration SF-0051 Class A Class B Class C Class D New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2019
C What would be the classification of the fire if the sources shown in illustration #1 were to catch fire? SF-0051 Class A Class B Class C Class D New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2019
A What term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to describe a chemical that can produce a life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazard? High toxicity Moderate toxicity Recommended toxicity Low toxicity New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2019
C In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________. the forepeaks the pumproom readily accessible spaces locked watertight containers New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2019
B In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter D (Tank Vessels), which of the following statements is true concerning the equipment required in a fireman's outfit? The flashlight must be of an approved three cell fireproof type. The assembled lifeline shall have a minimum breaking strength of 1,500 pounds (683.8 kg). The combustible gas indicator hose must be 100 feet (30.48 m) in length. All protective clothing must be electrically non-conductive. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2019
D In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin? The captain of the port The senior deck officer present Any local Coast Guard representative The designated person in charge New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2019
B In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78? The garbage to be discharged will sink. A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for flotation. The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage. Garbage accumulation onboard has exceeded storage space. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2019
B If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) identify? Paints or coatings that are safe to use with it. The name of each hazardous ingredient. Other similar mixtures of liquids, solids or gases. None of the above. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2019
A Cross flooding may __________. increase free surface effect increase GM decrease bending stress increase buoyancy New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2020
D Sea water may be used for drinking water __________. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain under no circumstance New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2020
C The physical data term on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heavier than air is called __________. vapor level vapor pressure vapor density vapor gravity New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2020
D Any tanks located below the vessel’s center of gravity should be __________. cross flooded for vessel buoyancy partially filled for vessel buoyancy emptied to maximize vessel free surface effect filled to maximize vessel stability New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2020
A The ability of a vessel to remain in a stable position is controlled by the interaction of two opposing forces, __________. gravity and buoyancy gravity and transverse metacenter stiff and tender metacentric radius and buoyancy New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2020
D What would be the classification of the fire if the sources shown in figure #3 were to catch fire? Illustration SF-0051 Class A Class B Class C Class D New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2020
B You are flooding the space when you are fighting the fire, adding weight to the ship. You can estimate how much weight using a formula listed below. Which is the correct formula? Every 1 ½ fire hose is assumed to be adding 125 gpm which equates to .60 long tons of water per minute. Every 1 ½ fire hose is assumed to be adding 125 gpm which equates to .46 long tons of water per minute. Every 1 ½ fire hose is assumed to be adding 125 gpm which equates to .32 long tons of water per minute. Every 1 ½ fire hose is assumed to be adding 125 gpm which equates to .24 long tons of water per minute. New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2020
A A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), which can cause genetic changes in sperm or egg cells is called a __________. mutagen cryogenic carcinogen teratogen New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2021
B As listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), what is a liquid called that is having a flash point below 199.4°F (93°C)? combustible liquid flammable liquid viscous liquid explosive liquid New Safety – Environmental Protection Questions 2021
A After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________. approximately 1/2 inch shorter than measured length to allow for the use of wedges to the same length as the measured length approximately 1/2 inch longer than measured length to allow for trimming approximately 1/2 inch shorter per foot of shoring to allow wet expansion Damage Control
B Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoring? Illustration SF-0016 B A D C Damage Control
B Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to __________. prevent fractures from spreading support a damaged bulkhead in position force a warped bulkhead back into its normal position force a sprung bulkhead back into place Damage Control
C The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following statements is correct for the this condition? Illustration SF-0018 Shore "A" will support the greatest load. Shore "A" will not slip under load. Shore "B" will support the load without it cracking. Shore "B" will crack at the pointed end. Damage Control
A After an emergency shoring installation has been completed, the __________. shoring should be frequently inspected for looseness damaged plating should be straightened by heating timbers are nailed in place to prevent looseness repair is completed and no further action is needed Damage Control
A Which of the following shoring materials is a portable beam designed to support a damaged structure? Shore Wedge Shole Strong back Damage Control
C Which of the following shoring materials is a short flat block that is placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure? Beam Strong back Shole Wedge Damage Control
B Which of the following shoring materials is a long bar or beam used to distribute the pressure of a shore? Wedge Strong back Shole Beam Damage Control
C Which of the following shoring materials is used to tightly make up the difference in length of a shore cut slightly shorter than the measured distance for required length and must be frequently checked for tightness? Shole Strong back Wedge Beam Damage Control
A Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________. tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges open the watertight door and take a quick look Damage Control
A Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________. pumping out flooded compartments transferring reserve feed water dumping fuel oil evacuating the engine room Damage Control
D In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted __________. at the vertical center of the bulkhead at a point that is one-third from the bottom of the bulkhead along the top of the bulkhead along the bottom of any bulkhead Damage Control
B In order for a compartment to completely fill up due to flooding, what condition must exist? The compartment must have an opening at the overhead allowing water to enter from the top. The compartment must have an opening at the overhead allowing air to escape in addition to having a source of flooding. The compartment must have an opening at the bottom deck allowing water to enter from the bottom. The compartment must have an opening at any of the vertical bulkheads allowing water to enter from one or more sides. Damage Control
D What is meant by the phrase "partial flooding with boundaries intact"? The compartment is partially filled, and the bulkheads remain watertight, but the decks have lost watertight integrity. The compartment is partially filled, and the decks remain watertight, but the bulkheads have lost watertight integrity. The compartment is partially filled, and both the decks and bulkheads have lost watertight integrity. The compartment is partially filled, and both the decks and bulkheads remain watertight. Damage Control
A What is meant by the term "counter-flooding"? Counter-flooding is the pumping of sea water into the high side or end of a ship to correct for off-center weight that had resulted in a list or adverse trim angle. Counter-flooding is pumping water out of a flooded compartment to counter the effects of flooding. Counter-flooding is the transfer of fluids from the low side or end of ship to the high side or end. Counter-flooding is any action taken to counter the effects of flooding. Damage Control
D Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________. waiting for the vessel to list examining tank boundaries checking fuel oil strainers sounding the tank Damage Control
D In the event of a grounding, which tanks should be sounded to determine any evidence of holing? Only slack tanks should be sounded. Full and empty tanks need not be sounded. Empty tanks should be sounded. Full and slack tanks need not be sounded. Full, slack, and empty tanks should all be sounded. Slack tanks and empty tanks should be sounded. Full tanks need not be sounded. Damage Control
B In an emergency, a hole in the hull below the waterline, not over three inches in diameter, can be temporarily sealed by __________. welding over a plate patch using a soft wooden plug stuffing a mattress in the hole rigging a collision mat Damage Control
C It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges __________. will work loose will splinter tend to open the crack will pull through the plating Damage Control
A The lengthening of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may be prevented by __________. drilling a hole at each end of the crack chipping out and slot welding the entire crack cutting a square notch at each end of the crack welding brackets across both ends of the crack Damage Control
D An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________. shore up the crack with welded braces drill holes at each end tack weld a doubler plate over the crack apply a patch of sheet packing backed by a strong back or shoring Damage Control
D A hole in the hull above the waterline may be temporarily patched with __________. blankets pillows mattresses All of the above. Damage Control
D In a compartment that has been completely flooded, the greatest pressure will be exerted __________. at the center of all bulkheads along the top of any bulkhead on the overhead of the compartment along the bottom of any bulkhead Damage Control
D In a compartment that has been completely flooded, the greatest pressure will be exerted __________. at the center of all bulkheads along the top of any bulkhead on the overhead of the compartment along the bottom of any bulkhead Damage Control
B A flat block placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure is referred to as a __________. strong back shole shore foot butt piece Damage Control
C Wooden shoring, with a cross-sectional dimension of 4" X 4" should not be longer than __________. 20 feet 16 feet 10 feet 8 feet Damage Control
B After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________. approximately 1/2 inch shorter per foot of shoring to allow wet expansion approximately 1/2 inch shorter than measured length to allow for the use of wedges approximately 1/2 inch longer than measured length to allow for trimming to the same length as the measured length Damage Control
C Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoring? Illustration SF-0016 C D A B Damage Control
B Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to __________. prevent fractures from spreading support a damaged bulkhead in position force a warped bulkhead back into its normal position force a sprung bulkhead back into place Damage Control
C The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following statements is correct for the this condition? Illustration SF-0018 Shore "A" will support the greatest load. Shore "A" will not slip under load. Shore "B" will support the load without it cracking. Shore "B" will crack at the pointed end. Damage Control
A After an emergency shoring installation has been completed, the __________. shoring should be frequently inspected for looseness repair is completed and no further action is needed timbers are nailed in place to prevent looseness damaged plating should be straightened by heating Damage Control
A Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________. sounding the tank waiting for the vessel to list examining tank boundaries checking fuel oil strainers Damage Control
C It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges __________. will pull through the plating will splinter tend to open the crack will work loose Damage Control
D An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________. drill holes at each end shore up the crack with welded braces tack weld a doubler plate over the crack apply a patch of sheet packing backed by a strong back or shoring Damage Control
D The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________. collapsing developing free surface moments developing free surfaces filling completely Damage Control
D Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel tank level has increased. You therefore should suspect __________. a load of bad fuel contamination from the saltwater flushing system condensation in the fuel tank a crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank Damage Control
D In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted __________. at a point that is one-third from the bottom of the bulkhead at the vertical center of the bulkhead along the top of the bulkhead along the bottom of any bulkhead Damage Control
C Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________. transferring reserve feed water evacuating the engine room pumping out flooded compartments dumping fuel oil Damage Control
A Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________. tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level open the watertight door and take a quick look feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges Damage Control
A What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds? Immediately evacuate the contaminated area. Open the bypass valve on the regulator and immediately evacuate the contaminated area. Move the tank selector lever to the full tank position and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again. Move the reserve lever to the 'reserve' position on the regulator and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again. Emergency Equipment
A Which unit will provide excellent mobility to the wearer in an unsafe atmosphere and provide oxygen to sustain life? A self-contained breathing apparatus An ammonia gas mask A fresh air breathing apparatus All of the above. Emergency Equipment
D Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering a closed compartment to fight a fire? The fire produces smoke, which contains toxic gases that cause breathing difficulties and irritation of the respiratory tract. The fire consumes oxygen which may lead to asphyxiation. The fire produces carbon monoxide which causes an oxygen deficiency in the brain and body,

 leading quickly to death.
All of the above. Emergency Equipment
D You are about to enter a compartment to investigate a suspected smoldering fire. If you're not wearing an self-contained breathing apparatus, you should test the compartment's atmosphere to determine if there is/are __________. a toxic atmosphere in the compartment an explosive mixture in the compartment sufficient oxygen to sustain human life All of the above. Emergency Equipment
A The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________. the regulator in an emergency oxygen to the atmosphere the regenerator in an emergency a breathing bag containing excessive pressure Emergency Equipment
D The safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by __________. the stowing of the face piece the donning of the face piece the maintenance of the face piece All of the above. Emergency Equipment
B Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen? Canister type mask. Self-contained breathing apparatus. Dust or gas mask. Wet handkerchief. Emergency Equipment
D Which of the following statements is true concerning canister-type gas masks? They are designed for use in a specific gas or atmosphere. There may be a time limit for use marked on the canister. They do not provide an independent oxygen supply. All of the above. Emergency Equipment
D What is the maximum reliable shelf life of a filter gas mask canister if the seal is unbroken? 1 year from the date of manufacture 3 years from the date of manufacture 7 years from the date of manufacture 5 years from the date of manufacture Emergency Equipment
A The equipment shown in the illustration is a __________. Illustration SF-0012 canister-type gas mask fresh-air hose mask demand-type breathing apparatus cylinder-type air mask Emergency Equipment
A Which of the following devices allows the user to remain in an oxygen deficient space for the longest period of time without interruption? Direct compressed air supply Demand-type oxygen breathing apparatus Pure oxygen breathing apparatus Canister-type gas mask Emergency Equipment
C Clean air standards, referred to as 'Grade D', apply to compressed air for use in __________. driving air powered plunger pumps high pressure fluid accumulators filling open circuit breathing systems bladder type accumulators Emergency Equipment
A Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________. reduce your drift rate keep the survival craft from turning over aid in recovering the survival craft increase your visibility Emergency Equipment
B The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________. before you enter the water after you enter the water after one hour in the water after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy Emergency Equipment
D If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________. separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel immediately head for the nearest land remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position Emergency Equipment
B Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets? Buoyant vests may be substituted for lifejackets. Lifejackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. Lifejackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly. Lightly stained or faded lifejackets will fail in the water and should not be used. Emergency Equipment
D Kapok lifejackets require proper care and should NOT be __________. stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted used as seats, pillows, or foot rests left on open decks All of the above. Emergency Equipment
A The sea painter on a rescue boat should be led __________. forward and outside of all obstructions forward and inside of all obstructions up and down from the main deck to the foremost point on the vessel Emergency Equipment
A Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets? Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels. At half-hour intervals. At one hour intervals. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel. Emergency Equipment
D Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets? Immediately upon abandoning the vessel. At half-hour intervals. At one hour intervals. Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels. Emergency Equipment
C If a life raft should capsize, __________. climb onto the bottom swim away from the raft right the raft using the righting straps inflate the righting bag Emergency Equipment
A When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________. fastened to some substantial part of the vessel not fastened to anything secured to the hydrostatic release fastened to the raft container Emergency Equipment
A Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________. sealing clamps repair tape a tube patch sail twine and vulcanizing kit Emergency Equipment
B When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be __________. passed around so all can drink poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy saved to be used at a later time used to boil food Emergency Equipment
A Most lifeboats are equipped with __________. unbalanced rudders balanced rudders contraguide rudders straight rudders Emergency Equipment
B You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours? 1 can 1 pint 1 quart 1 gallon Emergency Equipment
B The purpose of the four water pockets, located on the underside at each corner of the raft, is to __________. stow rainwater; these four spaces will not take up valuable space act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated and in an upright position hold the freshwater required by regulation to be provided in the raft when packed none of the above Emergency Equipment
A The canopy of your life raft should __________. go into place as the raft is inflated be put up after everyone is aboard be put up only in severe weather be used as a sail if the wind is blowing Emergency Equipment
A Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________. reduce the drift rate of the life raft keep the life raft from turning over aid in recovering the life raft increase your visibility Emergency Equipment
A Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________. survivors in the water food and water land bad weather Emergency Equipment
C The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________. assist in sleeping reduce appetite by decreasing nausea prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting prevent impaired judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness Emergency Equipment
D In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________. lifelines righting strap sea anchor towing bridle Emergency Equipment
C While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________. the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel the entrance curtains should never be opened Emergency Equipment
D The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable raft will provide protection against __________. warm water temperatures cold water temperatures tears in the outside skin of bottom of the raft All of the above. Emergency Equipment
C In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number___________. Illustration SF-0043 3 6 7 9 Emergency Equipment
B Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red? Hatches Releasing gear lever Boat hooks Compass Emergency Equipment
D Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames? The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links. The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew. A water spay system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual pump. A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air for the survivors and the diesel engine. Emergency Equipment
C When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________. plot course for nearest land go only with the direction of the sea stay in the immediate area go one direction until fuel runs out Emergency Equipment
C When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________. on only the forward falls on only the after falls fore and aft with a lead of about 45° to the boat from the falls to the tricing gear Emergency Equipment
A All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats __________. boarding and operating procedures maintenance schedule navigational systems fuel consumption rates Emergency Equipment
B The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________. manually disengaged when hoisting a boat applied by dropping the counterweighted lever controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive Emergency Equipment
A Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat? To prevent the davits from pulling up against the stops. To assist in cranking in the lifeboat. To keep the tricing lines from releasing or getting tangled. To stop the lifeboat from being lowered. Emergency Equipment
D The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________. keep the movement of the davits at the same speed keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed position prevent vibration during lowering of the boat support the manropes Emergency Equipment
D The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________. keep the movement of the davits at the same speed keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed position prevent vibration during lowering of the boat support the manropes Emergency Equipment
D When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat should __________. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability Emergency Equipment
B In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________. the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned counterclockwise Emergency Equipment
A In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________. into the seas broadside to the seas in the same direction as the seas in a series of figure-eights Emergency Equipment
C The survival craft's engine is fueled with __________. kerosene unleaded gasoline diesel oil liquefied gas Emergency Equipment
B With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from __________. a nuclear environment a fire and toxic environment a hurricane a drop greater than ten feet Emergency Equipment
D Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft? Roustabout First man aboard Last man aboard Helmsman Emergency Equipment
A When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________. a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collected it should be strained through a finely woven cloth chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable Emergency Equipment
B Provided every effort is used to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive in a survival craft without stored quantities of water? Up to 3 days Up to 14 days Up to 25 days Up to 35 days Emergency Equipment
A A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________. are seated with seatbelts on and doors shut are seated with seatbelts on and doors open are to shift to one side to right it escape from the craft Emergency Equipment
A When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________. personnel air supply additional flotation priming the sprinkler system filling the self-righting bags Emergency Equipment
D An 'on-load' release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________. only when the load is taken off the cable only there is a load on the cable only when activated by the controls at the lowering station at any time Emergency Equipment
C When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________. sea anchor is deployed hydraulic starting system has been drained hydraulic pressure is within the specified range steering controls are locked Emergency Equipment
B To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________. put it into an container of water tear off the tabs on the canister turn it upside down push 'on' button Emergency Equipment
C When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________. tie up to the rescue vessel transfer only those personnel who are not seasick wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel transfer all personnel immediately Emergency Equipment
A While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________. when the craft clears the water when the cable has been attached on approach to the platform at the embarkation Emergency Equipment
D Seawater may be used for drinking water __________. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water if gather during or immediately after a hard rain under no circumstance Emergency Equipment
A Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets? Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels. At half-hour intervals. At one hour intervals. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________. must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use is a device that transmits a radio signal All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________. is a device that transmits a radio signal must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following limitations is correct regarding gas or filter masks? A maximum of only 30 minutes of protection is afforded with a single canister when in atmospheres containing highly toxic gases. All canisters must be discarded within 24 hours when the seal becomes broken. A canister is reliable for up to 5 years from the date of manufacture, as long as the seal is unbroken. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________. a breathing bag containing excessive pressure the regulator in an emergency oxygen to the atmosphere the regenerator in an emergency Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the components listed are interchangeable between different backpack self-contained breathing apparatus produced by various manufacturers? The face piece The air cylinder The regulator All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health? The equipment is compact and the wearer can work in confined spaces without difficulty. The equipment used is lightweight and easy to wear by reducing physical strain on the wearer. The average operating time for most air cylinders is over an hour. The positive pressure in the face piece prevents contaminated air from entering the face piece. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for the repair/investigation personnel in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment? Emergency Escape Breathing Apparatus (EEBA) U.S. Navy Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA) Positive Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) Self-Contained Demand-Type Breathing Apparatus (SCDBA) Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen? Wet handkerchief. Self-contained breathing apparatus. Dust or gas mask. Canister type mask. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Manufacturers of self contained breathing apparatus use color coded face pieces to indicate different sizes. Which of the following statements is true concerning the colors of SCBA face pieces? Size "Large" (standard) is black. Size "Extra Large" is red. Size "Small" is green. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water is defined as a __________. life raft life cushion life preserver buoyant apparatus Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Lifejackets should be stowed in __________. the forepeaks the pump room readily accessible spaces locked watertight containers Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets? Buoyant vests may be substituted for lifejackets. Lifejackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. Lifejackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly. Lightly stained or faded lifejackets will fail in the water and should not be used. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Kapok lifejackets require proper care and should NOT be __________. stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted used as seats, pillows, or foot rests left on open decks All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________. stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted used as seats, pillows, or foot rests left on open decks All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________. upon entering the helicopter prior to reaching the water after reaching the water, but prior to exiting the helicopter after exiting clear of the helicopter Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________. air bottle for breathing whistle and handheld flare whistle, strobe light, and reflective tape whistle, handheld flare, and sea dye marker Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________. before you enter the water after you enter the water after one hour in the water after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the following statements is true concerning an immersion suit and its use? Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a lifejacket. They should be tight fitting. A tear in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit? Chemical protection face shield Approved work vest Self-contained breathing apparatus 5 cell approved flashlight Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number___________. Illustration SF-0043 6 3 7 9 Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________. on only the forward falls on only the after falls fore and aft with a lead of about 45° to the boat from the falls to the tricing gear Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________. manually disengaged when hoisting a boat applied by dropping the counterweighted lever controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________. keep the movement of the davits at the same speed keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed position prevent vibration during lowering of the boat support the manropes Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________. the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned counterclockwise Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames? The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links. The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew. A water spay system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual pump. A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air for the survivors and the diesel engine. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________. into the seas broadside to the seas in the same direction as the seas in a series of figure-eights Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________. personnel air supply additional flotation priming the sprinkler system filling the self-righting bags Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________. sea anchor is deployed hydraulic starting system has been drained hydraulic pressure is within the specified range steering controls are locked Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________. put it into an container of water tear off the tabs on the canister turn it upside down push 'on' button Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________. when the craft clears the water when the cable has been attached on approach to the platform at the embarkation Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The survival craft's engine is fueled with __________. kerosene unleaded gasoline diesel oil liquefied gas Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft? Roustabout First man aboard Last man aboard Helmsman Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________. a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collected it should be strained through a finely woven cloth chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C If a life raft should capsize, __________. climb onto the bottom swim away from the raft right the raft using the righting straps inflate the righting bag Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The canopy of your life raft should __________. go into place as the raft is inflated be put up after everyone is aboard be put up only in severe weather be used as a sail if the wind is blowing Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________. reduce the drift rate of the life raft keep the life raft from turning over aid in recovering the life raft increase your visibility Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________. assist in sleeping reduce appetite by decreasing nausea prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting prevent impaired judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________. the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel the entrance curtains should never be opened Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________. fastened to some substantial part of the vessel not fastened to anything secured to the hydrostatic release fastened to the raft container Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should __________. deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of capsizing inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability remove their lifejackets to prepare for the transfer take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The painter on a rigid life raft must have a length sufficient to reach the highest waterline plus an additional __________. 5 meters (16 feet) 10 meters (31 feet) 15 meters (50 feet) 20 meters (66 feet) Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is __________. collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed hypothermia caused by cold temperature starvation Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The sea painter on a rescue boat should be led __________. forward and outside of all obstructions forward and inside of all obstructions up and down from the main deck to the foremost point on the vessel Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true? The tank is safe to enter. The tank is especially dangerous to enter. Carbon monoxide is present. Water vapor present when the tank was sealed has oxidized. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air? 10 (%) 15.8 (%) 20.8 (%) 25.8 (%) Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________. exposure limits concentration limits threshold limit values substance limit values Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space, which of the following actions would be the most hazardous to perform? Opening switches in the space to de-energize circuits. Closing switches adjacent to the space to operate vent fans. Leaving electrical circuits energized in the space. Securing all power to the space from a remote location. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________. lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration concentration of flammable gas in a compartment concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a compartment Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Combustible gas indicators incorporate the use of a/an __________. Wheatstone bridge inflatable bag vapor-detecting carbon compound sensitive liquid chemical Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an __________. Halide torch flame safety lamp Orsat apparatus combustible gas indicator Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C An oxygen indicator will detect __________. the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide concentrations of explosive gas an oxygen deficiency in a space All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators? The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with no
delay.
Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator. A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument when exposed to strongly acidic gases. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D For hydrogen sulfide detection, sensitized tapes indicate the presence of this gas by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of the gas and __________. air temperature during exposure air pressure during exposure humidity during exposure duration of exposure Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use tools which are __________. approved by the Coast Guard high carbon steel fixed with a ferrous cover non-sparking Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________. throw a life ring overboard hail 'Man Overboard' pass the word to the bridge All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is __________. gusty winds with rain heavy rain full sun with high winds nearly calm, clear nights or early morning Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure of 8 1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80°F or below, is a grade __________. D E C A Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of __________. 20 percent methane by volume is too lean to burn 10 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn 5 percent methane by volume will give a reading of 100 percent L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator 3 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the __________. vapor pressure tolerance point threshold limit value odor threshold Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is __________. animal and vegetable oils caustic potash kerosene gasoline Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the upper explosive limit? The mixture is too rich to burn. Conditions are perfect for combustion. The vapor is about to explode. The mixture is too lean to burn. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________. lighter than air heavier than air nontoxic odorless Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash point below 150°F? Light fuel oils Lubricating oils Road oils Asphalt Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should __________. draw a small quantity of liquid to prime the pump check for gland leakage and any fire hazard have a standby pump running with the discharge valve closed lift the relief valve by hand to check its operation Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the following is classified as a grade "E" combustible liquid? Very light naphtha Bunker "C" Most commercial gasoline Benzene Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________. A liquid B liquid E liquid D liquid Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________. 1% to 6% by volume 12% to 20% by volume 0% to 1% by volume 6% to 12% by volume Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products? Asphyxiation Fire Explosion All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________. on the windward side of the opening on the leeward side of the opening at a right angle to the wind direction so that the obstruction of your body will protect you from the fumes Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector alarms sounds, this means __________. the detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the atmosphere is explosive a flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is too lean to burn an explosion is about to take place the detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor concentration is 30 percent by volume Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the __________. barrier spaces boiler burner supply piping cargo handling rooms All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________. odorize the cargo inert the barrier spaces calibrate the gas leak detectors detect leaks in cargo piping Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B A high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be found in which of the locations listed? Fire room bilges where hydrazine has accumulated. Sewage compartment bilges where leaked sewage has accumulated. Engine room bilges where chemical cleaners and solvents have accumulated. Emergency battery storage compartment where discharge gases have accumulated. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate __________. unusually large concentrations of H2S smaller than normal concentrations of H2S moderate concentrations of H2S without the usual reactions longer exposure to H2S concentrations Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C When pumping sour crude, which gas should be tested for prior to entering the cargo pump room to repair a leaking pump? Benzene Carbon monoxide Hydrogen sulfide Tetraethyl lead Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge? The number of fire extinguishers required onboard. The tanks which are safe to enter when the certificate was issued. The barge's stability information. The quality of the barge's cargo. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________. any combustible liquid all flammable liquids flammable or toxic gases residues from cargo oil Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C A compartment is tested and found to contain 20.8% oxygen by volume, permissible concentrations of toxic materials, and concentrations of flammable gas just below the lower flammable limit. If the residues are not capable of producing toxic materials or flammable concentrations, what would be the designation listed on the marine chemist's certificate? Safe for men -Safe for Fire Not safe for men -Not Safe for Fire Safe for men -Not Safe for Fire Not safe for men -Safe for Fire Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen content is not within permissible concentration, and dangerous gases are either present, or may be produced by residues, what would be the safety designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate? Safe for Men -Safe for Fire Safe for Men -Not Safe for Fire Not Safe for Men -Safe for Fire Not Safe for Men -Not Safe for Fire Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be __________. filled with water gas freed inerted All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" product. Which of the following procedures should be followed when a certified marine chemist is not available? It is solely the chief engineer's responsibility to ensure all safety precautions are observed, and all entries are to be made in the engine room log. Repairs should proceed as scheduled since a chemist's certificate is not required for that type of work. The repair work cannot be done at this time due to the lack of the chemist's certificate. Prior to any hot work, an inspection must be made by the senior officer present, and an entry made in the official logbook. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A A health hazard term listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is __________. sensitizer pyrophoric hazard oxidizer skin contact hazard Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C A liquid, as listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), having a flash point below 100°F (37.78°C) is called a/an __________. explosive liquid combustible liquid flammable liquid viscous liquid Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________. Physical/Chemical Characteristics Document Hazardous Chemical Information Sheet Material Safety Data Sheet Hazardous Chemical Loading Document Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identify? The name of each hazardous ingredient. Other similar mixtures of liquids, solids or gases. Paints or coatings that are safe to use with it. None of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heavier than air is called __________. vapor density vapor pressure vapor level vapor gravity Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you close FIRST? Sea suction valve Tank manifold filling valve Deck filling valve Pump discharge valve Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A In order to prevent the unnecessary release of hydrocarbons to atmosphere, when taking on departure ballast, one method used is to __________. allow entering ballast to displace the inert gas to a tank where cargo is currently being discharged manually open the pressure/vacuum device use blowers to purge the inert gas from tanks completely open the mast riser valve Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must __________. be terminated automatically be completely discharged in order to load be stopped until the oil can settle out, then resumed at a slower discharge rate be completed only after "load on top" has been completed Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________. open block valves, then start the cargo pump start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as __________. crude oil segregated ballast dirty ballast clean ballast Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D According to 33 CFR's, an oceangoing ship of over 400 gross tons must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection. What size bolt circle diameter is required for this shore connection to transfer oily ballast to a shore side reception facility? 250 mm 215 mm 125 mm 183 mm Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Victual waste is __________. the final waste product of a manufacturing process the resultant sludge that is collected after water washing a boiler the final discharge of sewage treatment plants any garbage that comes from food or food provisions Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea? The vessel may discharge disinfected and comminuted sewage into the sea, from an approved system, only if the vessel is more than three nautical miles from the nearest land. The vessel must have an approved sewage plant. The vessel may discharge sewage into the sea, from an approved system which is not

 comminuted or disinfected, only if the vessel is more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land.
All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas, __________. records must be provided and maintained for two years an entry into the official log book must be made the U.S. Coast Guard must be notified for each occurrence no record is required if dumping is carried out more than 25 miles offshore and there is no included plastic material Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________. barrels, measured in 55 gallon drums weight in either kilogram or pounds cubic yards convertible to long tons cubic meters Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________. decrease increase remain the same none of the above Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________. remove plugs from scuppers and wash fuel overboard with water remove plugs from scuppers to allow the spill to run overboard and wipe the area dry with rags remove plugs from scuppers and wash the fuel overboard with a solvent use absorbent material, such as sawdust, to clean up the spill Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore side facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST? Close the valve on the tank vent line. Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill. Signal the shore control point to shutdown. Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel? Secure all lighting to the main deck. Provide a portable fan to blow away fumes. Display a black triangle during daylight hours. Prohibit smoking in the area. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling hose? When static electricity is not expected to be a problem. When the terminal is equipped with a cathodic protection system. When transferring LNG. When a bonding cable is employed. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations just prior to bunkering from a shore side facility, __________. vessel and facility are independently inspected by their respective designated person-incharge vessel and facility must be inspected by a representative of the Coast Guard Captain of the Port vessel and facility are jointly and independently inspected by the designated persons-incharge facility is inspected by the designated person-in-charge of the vessel and vice versa for the vessel Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at which bunker fuel may be received is by the __________. number of tanks to be filled type of fuel transfer pump distance to the fuel storage tanks ashore size of the fuel storage tanks ashore Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Why is it important for double bottom fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading fuel at cold temperatures? Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading pressure, which increases the
chances of a spill.
A temperature rise of the fuel will cause an overflow from the tank vent. Fueling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil to spill before the valve can be opened. Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the __________. pumping operation is first started tanks are being topped off system is being lined up hose joints are made up Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A An ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the __________. top of the sounding tube down to the surface of the liquid top of the liquid down to the tank bottom top of the tank down to the bottom of the tank sounding tube to either side of the tank Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A A ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the __________. top of the sounding tube down to the surface of the liquid top of the liquid down to the tank bottom top of the tank down to the bottom of the tank sounding tube to either side of the tank Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A As a precaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should __________. notify the shore pumping station to reduce the pumping rate as tanks near full capacity close the deck filling valve to reduce the pumping rate fill the tank to the bottom of the expansion trunk close all tank vents to prevent overflow Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water? The vessel's Certificate of Inspection The vessel's International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate The vessel's Oil Transfer Procedures The vessel's Oil Record Book Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed? The designated person in charge The oiler The tankerman The senior able seaman Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________. plugging all scuppers and drains regularly emptying all drip pans thoroughly draining all bunkering hoses placing floating booms around the ship Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C A method NOT usually allowed for cleaning up oil spills would be the use of __________. skimmers sawdust dispersants straw Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal? Mechanical removal Chemical agent removal Absorbent removal None of the above Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan? list of individuals required to respond plan exercises reporting requirements removal equipment list Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
o
a list which specifies who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority in
which they must be notified.
a list of personnel duty assignments a list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports. a list of agencies or officials of Coastal State administrations responsible for receiving and processing incident reports Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________. six months prior to the end of the approval period one month prior to the anniversary date of the plan and can be implemented without immediate approval as long as final approval is received

 within six months of submittal
and cannot be implemented without approval Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed __________. quad-annually only annually only only one every five years biennially only Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed __________. annually only biennially only quad-annually only only once every five years Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped into operational sections. Each section is codified by a/an __________. letter abbreviation number All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record Book, you should __________. notify the ship's officer-in-charge draw a single line through the wrong entry and initial it erase the entry and rewrite it completely black it out and make the correct entry alongside Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C U.S. flag ships may obtain an Oil Record Book from the __________. Environmental Protection Agency U.S. Customs Agency Local MSO/COTPs/MIO's local courthouse Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations? The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces. The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo. Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil Record Book is given to __________. Master Cargo Engineer Chief Engineer Chief Mate Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships __________. is to be kept in the personal possession of the Master is required to have entries recorded within 48 hours of completion of the particular operation is the property of the U.S. government should not be used to record the accidental discharge of oily or oily mixtures Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in the OIL Record Book shall be fully recorded __________. within 24 hours of completion of the project within 48 hours of completion of the operation without delay within 12 hours of completion of the operation Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in the OIL Record Book shall be fully recorded __________. without delay within 12 hours of completion of the operation within 24 hours of completion of the project within 48 hours of completion of the operation Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B A gurgling noise is heard from within a cargo tank when discharging cargo, this would indicate that the __________. pump discharge pressure is excessive pump is sucking air tank foot valve is partially clogged tank liquid is too viscous Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The term "load on top" is the name of a method used on many crude oil carriers for the purpose of __________. calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank the loading of new cargo into a decanted slop tank as a procedure to minimize pollution loading ballast by gravity Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be kept in good working order to prevent __________. oil spillage on deck entry of burning substances escape of explosive vapors damage to tank boundaries Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following pressures represents the normal pressure setting of a pressure-vacuum relief valve as normally found on tank vessels? 20.7 psia -14.6 psia 22.7 psia -14.7 psia 16.7 psia -14.2 psia 18.7 psia -14.4 psia Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Pressure-vacuum relief valves, as used on tank vessels, are usually set to operate at two points, __________. 14.2 psia; 2 psig any two points below atmospheric pressure 26 inches of vacuum; 5 psig any two points above atmospheric pressure Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by using a __________. a multistage centrifugal pump a positive displacement pump the water displacement method the load on top system Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D A Crude Oil Wash (COW) system is considered as __________. a cleanup for pump room bilges a mechanism which filters and purifies crude oil a water operated Butterworth system a Butterworth system using crude oil instead of water as the cleaning medium Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be __________. opened to the atmosphere for ventilation gas free full of cargo inerted Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude oil washing process, due to the presence of water in the crude oil washing fluid, the contents of any tank to be used as a source of crude oil for washing must first reduce a portion of the tank contents by a vertical height equal to __________. one-half meter two meters one and one-half meters one meter Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________. a higher temperature a higher pressure jet the solvent effect of the crude oil none of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Bottom mounted crude oil washing machines are primarily used for __________. all vertical surfaces the majority of crude oil tank cleaning washing the entire bottom of the tank areas where direct impingement from deck mounted machines cannot be satisfactorily reached Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When tanks have been washed with crude oil, and ballasted without being water rinsed, the ballast is referred to as __________. clean ballast dirty ballast segregated ballast dedicated ballast Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Crude oil washing has which of the following disadvantages? It requires following additional work procedures and close attention by the crew during cargo operations. Allows buildup of cargo residue on tank walls. Its cleaning ability is very poor. When completed, more cargo is retained aboard the ship than with water washing. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________. scrubber purifier filter cooler Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if __________. normal water supply at the water seal is lost the temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks is more than 150°F the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? De-energizes the "charged mist" effect. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Each inert gas system must be equipped with the following instruments: oxygen concentration indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and recorder, and temperature indicator. The point of measurement for these instruments must be located __________. scrubber outlet after the gas regulating valve downstream of the blowers upstream of the liquid filled breaker Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure __________. oxygen water vapor nitrogen carbon dioxide Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure __________. oxygen water vapor nitrogen carbon dioxide Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Excessive recirculation of inert gas is __________. undesirable and it may lead to high oxygen content of the inert gas likely to over pressurize the cargo tanks likely to overheat the deck water seal highly recommended Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When the inert gas system is temporarily unable to maintain a positive pressure, or an oxygen content less than 8%, cargo operations should __________. continue only under "Emergency Procedures" be shut down immediately continue at a slower rate until these requirements are met monitored more frequently Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be __________. secure the inert gas blower secure the salt water supply to the scrubber close the deck isolating valve close the flue gas isolating valve Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B An electrically "charged mist" will be found in a __________. diesel engine cylinder cargo tank during Butterworthing fuel tank vent outlet flash evaporator flash chamber Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C "Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the __________. mucking supply system potable water supply fire main inert gas scrubber Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D When water washing epoxy-coated cargo tanks, the temperature and pressure of the wash water should generally not exceed __________. 160°F -180 psi 212°F -940 psi 180°F -180 psi 120°F -120 psi Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when __________. the machine is inside the tank the hose has been partially drained a sailor is standing by the machine the machine is not inside the tank Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces is called a __________. flame arrester safety valve flame relief valve flame stopper Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be __________. provided for each person onboard provided for all personnel on watch readily accessible to persons in the engine room All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B In addition to the lifejackets stowed in places that are readily accessible, lifejackets must also be stowed at __________. each fire station each manned watch station the mess room each lifeboat Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall be __________. constructed so as to be completely spill proof emptied and gas freed when the ship is dry-docked emptied and the fuel changed at least once each year hydrostatically tested at each inspection for certification Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged? They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress. They should be replaced. They can be used for children. They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A According to 46 CFR Part 76, which of the following statements is true regarding sprinkler heads which are normally activated by the melting of a fusible link? Sprinkler heads installed in the galley would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed in the living spaces. Sprinkler heads installed in the galley and living spaces would have the same fusible link melting point. None of the above; sprinkler heads with fusible links are prohibited aboard U.S. flag vessels. Sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed in the galley. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the following statements represents the Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) applicable to the equipment required in a fireman's outfit? The flashlight must be of an approved three cell fireproof type. The assembled lifeline shall have a minimum breaking strength of 1,500 pounds (683.8 kg). The combustible gas indicator hose must be 100 feet (30.48 m) in length. All protective clothing must be electrically non-conductive. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________. made of steel or bronze wire rope corrosion resistant not less than 50 feet in length All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The size of the fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1 1/2 inches or __________. 3 inches 2 1/2 inches 1 inch 3 1/2 inches Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall be __________. opened up and internally examined at each Coast Guard biannual inspection for certification protected against freezing or be fitted with cutout valves and drain valves behind glass or a suitably marked enclosure All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Where multiple fire pumps are installed, they may be used for other purposes, provided that one pump is __________. capable of being quickly connected to the fire main with a suitable pipe spool kept available for use on the fire main at all times rated at or above 125 psi on line and in operation at all times to the fire main Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be installed in the boiler room of an 8,000 horsepower steam propelled vessel? Eight Two Four Six Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be installed in the boiler room of an 8,000 horsepower steam propelled vessel? Two Four Six Eight Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D According to 46 CFR part 95, which of the listed fire extinguishers would be considered hand portable/semi portable and capable of combating a class "B" fire? 2.5 gallons of foam 35 pounds of carbon dioxide 20 pounds of dry chemical All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B If a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed on any vessel, it must be of a type approved by the __________. National Fire Protection Association U.S. Coast Guard Marine Fire Protection Guild American Bureau of Shipping Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D When fire detecting systems, fire extinguishing systems, and associated equipment are not required by the Coast Guard but are installed on a cargo vessel at the option of the vessel's owner, they __________. need only to be Coast Guard inspected and/or tested after their initial installation are exempt from all tests and/or inspections as normally required by a Coast Guard inspector if maintained in a suitable working condition and used only as a back up must be removed from the vessel as the only systems allowed and approved are those listed on the Coast Guard Certificate of Inspection must also be inspected and/or tested in accordance with Coast Guard Regulations at each Inspection for Certification Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The empty weight of a '100 pound' cylinder in a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system is 130 pounds. What is the minimum acceptable weight of the cylinder before recharging would be required? 210 lbs 230 lbs 200 lbs 220 lbs Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________. 600 pounds 500 pounds 300 pounds 400 pounds Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to 46 CFR Part 95, which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the regulations pertaining to the carbon dioxide cylinder room for a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system? The compartment shall be clearly identified and marked. The compartment must be properly ventilated. The door must be kept unlocked. The ambient temperature of the room should never be allowed to exceed 130 degrees Fahrenheit. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D In accordance with 46 CFR Part 95, in a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system, where provision is made for the release of CO2 by the operation of a remote control, provision is also to be made for releasing the CO2 from __________. the engineering control station the bridge inside the engine room the cylinder location Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent __________. rupture of cylinder due to temperature increase over pressurization of the CO2 discharge piping over pressurization of the space being flooded flooding of a space where personnel are present Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B How often must fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems be inspected to confirm the cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full charge weight? Biannually. Annually. Semiannually. Quarterly. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 34) state that any space containing charged CO2 cylinders, shall be properly ventilated to prevent a temperature higher than __________. 150°F (66.6°C) 160°F (71.1°C) 140°F (60.0°C) 130°F (54.5°C) Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following power sources would be acceptable for the carbon dioxide warning alarm? The ship's general distribution panel. The general alarm power supply storage battery with a nominal potential of not less than 6 volts. The emergency lighting and power system via storage batteries or emergency generator. The alarm shall depend on no source of power other than the carbon dioxide. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A According to 46 CFR Part 147, a cylinder used for storing CO2 in a fixed firefighting system must be hydrostatically retested and restamped every __________. 12 years 8 years once in every calendar year 5 years Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D According to 46 CFR Part 147, a cylinder used for storing CO2 in a fixed firefighting system must be hydrostatically retested and restamped every __________. calendar year 5 years 8 years 12 years Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo and miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the following requirements? The deck foam system must be completely independent of the fixed foam system. The foam producing chemicals must be discharged and recharged every 2 years at the annual inspection. The foam producing chemicals must be discharged and recharged every year at annual inspection. The supply of foam producing materials must be sufficient to operate the equipment for at least 3 minutes for spaces other than tanks. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When the machinery spaces on a tank vessel are protected by a fixed foam extinguishing system, what additional protection is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) outside of the machinery space entrance? One semi-portable CO2 extinguisher Two fire hydrants with hose, nozzle and applicator Ten cubic feet of sand of with scoop One portable foam extinguisher Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that where reasonable and practicable, the steam pressure in a steam smothering system should be at least __________. 100 psi 150 psi 125 psi equal to one-half boiler working pressure Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The Federal Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) that apply to ships are enforced by the __________. Corps of Engineers U.S. Coast Guard State Pollution Board Port Authority Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The Exclusive Economic Zone extends from the baseline of territorial sea of the United States seaward __________. 300 miles 100 miles 200 miles 53 miles Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by the __________. Chief Mate Chief Engineer Master engineer on watch Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard is required on all __________. U.S. vessels less than 26 feet in length U.S. Vessels 26 feet or more in length Foreign vessels when engaged in noncommercial service foreign vessels not in U.S. navigable waters Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Exemption or partial exemption from compliance with any requirement in the Oil or Hazardous Material Pollution Prevention Regulations prescribed in (33 CFR 155) may be granted by the __________. Captain of the Port OCMI in the vessel's home port Commandant of the Coast Guard vessel's Chief Engineer Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Some Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), only apply to "new ships." Under these regulations, a new ship is a ship __________. having undergone a major conversion and has been completed before December 31, 1979 the delivery of which is on or after June 10, 1975 for which the building contract has been placed after December 31, 1975 having undergone a major conversion for which the contract was placed between June 30, 1974 and December 31, 1975 Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D If a vessel moored at a U.S. terminal does not comply with Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), it may be detained by the __________. state pollution board Inspector General local port authority Captain of the Port Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Where are "prohibited oil spaces" specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 33 CFR Subchapter O? Part 155 Part 151 Part 154 Part 156 Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), means __________. crude oil only liquefied petroleum gas petroleum oil of any kind fuel oil only Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The term "oily mixture", as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) includes __________. oily ballast water bilge slops sludge All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations, means __________. spilling leaking dumping All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Ocean vessel Ballast Water Management Regulations can be found in __________. 33 CFR Part 110 46 CFR Part 35 33 CFR Part 151 46 CFR Part 56 Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an international voyage? Prior to discharging ballast water in U.S. waters, the vessel must perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 100 nautical miles from any shoreline. Ballast water may only be discharged overboard through an approved oily water separator. Ballast water may only be discharged overboard if the vessel is underway. Prior to entering U.S. waters, a vessel may use any Coast Guard approved alternative environmentally sound method of BWM. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an international voyage? Retain ballast water on board the vessel. Prior to discharging ballast water in U.S. waters, the vessel must perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any shoreline. Prior to entering U.S. waters, use any Coast Guard approved alternative environmentally

 sound method of BWM.
All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an international voyage? Retain ballast water onboard the vessel. Prior to discharging ballast water in U.S. waters, the vessel must perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any shoreline. Prior to entering U.S. waters, use any Coast Guard approved alternative environmentally sound method of BWM. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 CFR 151), who is responsible for insuring that a ship is not operated unless a waste management plan is utilized? Vessel operating company Vessel's Master Vessel owner U.S. Coast Guard Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B According to Code of Federal Regulations 33, a vessel operating upon the Great Lakes shall __________. have its forward most frame members sufficiently stiffened to prevent ice damage not discharge any garbage into these waters be required to re-distill all water used for cooling or condensate systems be certified for inland use only Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D When off loading garbage to another ship, your records must identify that ship by name and __________. operator's name of record home port master's name official number Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which CFR regulation identifies the placard to be posted on the vessel describing the proper disposal of garbage? 33 CFR Part 157.37 33 CFR Part 159.51 33 CFR Part 151.59 33 CFR Part 157.100 Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D On U.S. inspected ships, oily water separating equipment, bilge alarms, and bilge monitors must be approved under __________. 18 CFR 201 33 CFR 151 46 CFR 41 46 CFR 162 Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by __________. pumping them into a settling tank for separation before pumping the oily water residue
overboard
holding its slops onboard until they can be discharged to a shore side reception facility circulating them through the lube oil purifier to remove water and debris holding its slops onboard until they can be pumped into the city sewer system Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Bilges may be pumped __________. on the outgoing tide overboard after dark overboard through an oily water separator anytime in an emergency, i.e. main engine lube oil failure Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A On a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons, equipped with an approved 100 ppm oily water separator, and bilge monitor, the bilge monitor continuous record must be __________. maintained onboard for not less than 3 years kept readily available for 1 year only detached monthly for enclosure in the Oil Record Book initialed after each engineering watch by the watch engineer Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations? The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces. The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo. Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) specify that the person-in-charge of bunkering is responsible for the __________. quality of fuel received quantity of fuel received communications with terminal operator vessel draft Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed the __________. valve inspection record certificate of inspection oil record book declaration of inspection Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin? The captain of the port The senior deck officer present The designated person-in-charge Any local Coast Guard representative Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require a meeting before starting any oil transfer operation. That meeting must be between the __________. person-in-charge of the oil transfer operations on the vessel and the person-in-charge of the oil transfer operations at the facility master of the vessel and the terminal superintendent terminal supervisor, Master of the vessel and the Coast Guard master and chief engineer of the vessel and the terminal supervisor Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who is to make the final decision of when oil transfer may begin? Captain of the Port officer The senior deck officer present Designated persons-in-charge of vessel and facility Any local Coast Guard representative Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C No person may serve as the person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________. unless the vessels are moored clear of all docks under any circumstances unless authorized by the Captain of the Port unless radio communication is set up between the vessels Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B According to 46 CFR, Part 30, a Grade "E" petroleum product is __________. kerosene a combustible liquid a flammable liquid light fuel oil Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), no vessel can come alongside or remain alongside a tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade cargo without having the permission of the __________. USCG captain of the port tank ship owner officer-in-charge of the vessel which is loading terminal manager Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78? A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for flotation. Garbage accumulation onboard has exceeded storage space. The garbage to be discharged will sink. The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A According to MARPOL, the definition of graywater includes drainage from __________. dishwashers hospital sinks toilets cargo spaces Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to MARPOL, the definition of medical waste does NOT include __________. dialysis wastes pathological wastes expired pharmaceuticals sharps Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following is NOT a MARPOL, Annex V, Special Area? Mediterranean Sea Black Sea Great Lakes Red Sea Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to MARPOL, the definition of oil does NOT include __________. oil refuse crude oil cooking oil sludge Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D When entering the pump room of a tank vessel to rescue an unconscious person, which items of the equipment listed are you required to be using? Protective clothing and explosion-proof flashlight Combustible gas indicator and canister gas mask Flame safety lamp and resuscitation equipment Self-contained breathing apparatus and lifelines Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________. cause involuntary skeletal muscle contractions paralyze your breathing system cause eye inflammation cause dizziness Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D What is a major advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus? Facial hair will not affect the mask performance. The equipment is lightweight and the wearer can work without difficulty in confined spaces. The average operating time is over an hour. The speed with which it can be put into operation is around 45 seconds. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D While donning the positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus, you discover that the air cylinder pressure gage and the regulator pressure gage differ from each other by 500 psi. Which of the listed action should you consider as appropriate? Replace the defective gages with a new pair from the spare parts inventory. Replace the air cylinder. Take the average of the two gages as the correct pressure. Assume that the lower gage reading is correct. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by __________. the maintenance of the face piece the stowing of the face piece the donning of the face piece All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Prior to entering a compartment containing an atmosphere potentially dangerous to life or health, you should don an approved breathing apparatus. Which of the listed devices would be suitable? An SCBA A canister-type gas mask. An emergency escape hood All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D You are instructing new crew members in engine room safety and first aid. You use an example of "One crew member, while working in the engine room, finds another crew member lying unconscious on the deck." What would you instruct the crew do first when faced with the rescue of this crew member? Roll the victim over carefully and check the extent of the injury. Make sure they have all the proper equipment ready. Determine the extent of danger and their ability to cope with it. Make sure they summon help immediately. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets? Buoyant vests may be substituted for lifejackets. Lifejackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. Lifejackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly. Lightly stained or faded lifejackets will fail in the water and should not be used. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Kapok lifejackets require proper care and should NOT be __________. stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted used as seats, pillows, or foot rests left on open decks All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________. upon entering the helicopter prior to reaching the water after reaching the water, but prior to exiting the helicopter after exiting clear of the helicopter Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water is defined as a __________. life raft life cushion life preserver buoyant apparatus Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit? Chemical protection face shield Approved work vest Self-contained breathing apparatus 5 cell approved flashlight Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Life jackets should be stowed in __________. the forepeaks the pump room readily accessible spaces locked watertight containers Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________. air bottle for breathing whistle and handheld flare whistle, strobe light, and reflective tape whistle, handheld flare, and sea dye marker Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is correct? Suits are not required to automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in the water. The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil. The suits provide for limited body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder, and picking up small objects like a pencil. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________. before you enter the water after you enter the water after one hour in the water after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________. separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel immediately head for the nearest land remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the following statements is true concerning an immersion suit and its use? Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a lifejacket. They should be tight fitting. A tear in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft is to __________. stow rainwater; these four spaces will not take up valuable space act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated and in an upright position hold the freshwater required by regulation to be provided in the raft when packed none of the above Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats __________. boarding and operating procedures maintenance schedule navigational systems fuel consumption rates Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat? To stop the lifeboat from being lowered. To prevent the davits from pulling up against the stops. To assist in cranking in the lifeboat. To keep the tricing lines from releasing or getting tangled. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red? Hatches Releasing gear lever Boat hooks Compass Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following must be carried out in order to manually launch an inflatable life raft not designed for float-free operation? Cutting the container securing straps. Attach the weak link to the vessel. Simply breaking the weak link. Depress the hydrostatic release button. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________. land survivors in the water bad weather food and water Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________. lifelines righting strap sea anchor towing bridle Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable raft will provide protection against __________. tears in the outside skin of bottom of the raft warm water temperatures cold water temperatures All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________. a tube patch sail twine and vulcanizing kit sealing clamps repair tape Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be __________. passed around so all can drink poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy saved to be used at a later time used to boil food Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Most lifeboats are equipped with __________. straight rudders contra-guide rudders unbalanced rudders balanced rudders Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________. go only with the direction of the sea stay in the immediate area go one direction until fuel runs out plot course for nearest land Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________. are seated with seatbelts on and doors shut are seated with seatbelts on and doors open are to shift to one side to right it escape from the craft Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D An 'on-load' release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________. only when the load is taken off the cable only there is a load on the cable only when activated by the controls at the lowering station at any time Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be __________. loaded more on port side to forward loaded equally on both sides with more forward loaded equally on both sides with more aft allowed to sit anywhere Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________. tie up to the rescue vessel transfer only those personnel who are not seasick wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel transfer all personnel immediately Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________. reduce your drift rate keep the survival craft from turning over aid in recovering the survival craft increase your visibility Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from __________. a nuclear environment a fire and toxic environment a hurricane a drop greater than ten feet Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Provided every effort is used to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive in a survival craft without stored quantities of water? Up to 3 days Up to 14 days Up to 25 days Up to 35 days Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets? Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels. At half-hour intervals. At one hour intervals. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________. must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use is a device that transmits a radio signal All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space, which of the following actions would be the most hazardous to perform? Opening switches in the space to de-energize circuits. Closing switches adjacent to the space to operate vent fans. Leaving electrical circuits energized in the space. Securing all power to the space from a remote location. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________. exposure limits concentration limits threshold limit values substance limit values Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR 30), a flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure of 8-1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80°F or below, is a grade __________. C E D A Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors and air lies between the lower and upper explosive limits. These limits are specified as a percentage of __________. the lower limit of explosibility of the mixture the temperature of the flash point oxygen present to support combustion flammable vapor by volume in air Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is __________. full sun with high winds heavy rain nearly calm, clear nights or early morning gusty winds with rain Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the upper explosive limit? The mixture is too lean to burn. The mixture is too rich to burn. The vapor is about to explode. Conditions are perfect for combustion. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A A liquid having a flash point above 80°F, but below 150°F, would be termed a grade __________. D-combustible liquid C-flammable liquid A-flammable liquid E-combustible liquid Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The volatility of a liquid is the tendency of a liquid to __________. explode ignite asphyxiate vaporize Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the __________. threshold limit value tolerance point odor threshold vapor pressure Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which __________. give off flammable vapors at or below 80°F have a flash point of 80°F or higher are highly volatile with a flash point of 0°F spontaneously ignite Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of __________. 20 percent methane by volume is too lean to burn 3 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn 5 percent methane by volume will give a reading of 100 percent L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator 10 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2.0% and an upper explosive limit of 100% by volume in air. This means __________. there is no possible ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too lean to burn there is no possible ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too rich to burn an ethylene oxide spill always results in an explosion a 2.0% concentration of ethylene oxide in air would give a reading of 2.0% on a combustible gas indicator Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________. E liquid A liquid D liquid B liquid Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which of the following is classified as a grade "E" combustible liquid? Bunker "C" Very light naphtha Benzene Most commercial gasoline Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash point below 150°F? Light fuel oils Road oils Asphalt Lubricating oils Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B If diesel fuel vapors in a compartment are considered to be within the flammable range __________. the vapor air mixture is too rich to burn an explosion may occur if a source of ignition is present the upper explosive limit has been exceeded the vapor air mixture is too lean to burn Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the listed pumping arrangements will be hazardous when two similar centrifugal pumps are used to discharge a cargo of flammable liquid? Both pumps operating at the same speed and taking suction from a common line. Each pump operating at a different pressure and discharging into a common line. Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a common line. Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a common line. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should __________. lift the relief valve by hand to check its operation have a standby pump running with the discharge valve closed check for gland leakage and any fire hazard draw a small quantity of liquid to prime the pump Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to hydrogen sulfide can tolerate __________. unusually large concentrations of hydrogen sulfide smaller than normal concentrations of hydrogen sulfide moderate concentrations of hydrogen sulfide without the usual reactions longer exposure to hydrogen sulfide concentrations Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following precautions are necessary when using any electrical equipment in a hazardous location, such as a cargo pump room? Each compartment where flammable gas is expected to accumulate is to be closed and secured. The adjacent compartments are to be gas free. The pump room is to be gas free. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C When pumping sour crude, which gas should be tested for prior to entering the cargo pump room to repair a leaking pump? Benzene Carbon monoxide Hydrogen sulfide Tetraethyl lead Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________. cause involuntary skeletal muscle contractions paralyze your breathing system cause eye inflammation cause dizziness Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Petroleum vapors are dangerous __________. at all times due to their toxicity only if the oxygen concentration is below 16 percent only if the vapor is between the upper and lower explosive limit only if the source of the vapor is above its flash point Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector alarms sounds, this means __________. a flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is too lean to burn an explosion is about to take place the detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor concentration is 30 percent by volume the detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the atmosphere is explosive Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the __________. cargo handling rooms barrier spaces boiler burner supply piping All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________. detect leaks in cargo piping calibrate the gas leak detectors odorize the cargo inert the barrier spaces Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free, __________. breathing apparatus should always be used a man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather, as vapors are less volatile breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as you would only be in the tank a short time entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank since petroleum vapors are heavier than air Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following conditions must be met before a marine chemist will issue a certificate for a compartment to be "safe for workers, safe for hot work"? The residues in the compartment must not be capable of producing any toxic gas under existing atmospheric conditions. The concentration of combustible gases in the compartment's atmosphere must be less than 10 percent of the lower flammable limit. The toxic gases in the compartment's atmosphere must be within permissible concentrations. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The atmosphere of an empty fuel tank is tested and designated "gas free". Which of the following statements is correct concerning this tank? The gas free status is good as long as the initial conditions remain unchanged. The concentration of flammable gas in the compartment is less than 10% of the lower flammable limit. The tank should be frequently retested. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being "Safe for Men" and "Safe for fire." This condition may change if___________. the ambient temperature changes a product leaks into the certified tank muck, sludge, or scale in the tank give off additional vapors All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is __________. inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours free of all dangerous concentrations of flammable or toxic gases thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours free of most flammable gas concentrations Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heavier than air is called __________. vapor density vapor pressure vapor gravity vapor level Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) describing whether a liquid is lighter or heavier than water is __________. solubility flotation point specific gravity viscosity Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identify? Paints or coatings that are safe to use with it. The name of each hazardous ingredient. Other similar mixtures of liquids, solids or gases. None of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________. Material Safety Data Sheet Physical/Chemical Characteristics Document Hazardous Chemical Information Sheet Hazardous Chemical Loading Document Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B What term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazard ? Recommended toxicity High toxicity Low toxicity Moderate toxicity Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), that can cause genetic changes in sperm or egg cells is called a __________. mutagen carcinogen teratogen cryogenic Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B A health hazard term listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is __________. skin contact hazard sensitizer pyrophoric hazard oxidizer Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which of the following machinery space operations is required to be logged in the Oil Record Book? Ballasting or cleaning of fuel oil tanks. Changing out sprayer plates to adjust for steam demand. Daily inspection of engine room bilges. Shifting suction of main fuel pump to reserve fuel oil tank. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard the vessel for __________. 6 months and then submitted to the nearest Marine Safety Office for review the duration of the ship's active employment an annual inspection not less than 3 years and be readily available for inspection Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The sections of an Oil Record Book preceding the log pages contain a __________. detailed listing of all organizations to call in the event of an accidental oil spill complete classification of hazardous materials damage control plan for isolating fire main valves list of machinery space operation items Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which ship must maintain Part II (Cargo/Ballast Operations) of the Oil Record Book? A non-tanker that carries more than 200 cubic meters of oil in bulk. A ship of 200 gross tons or above, other than an oil tanker. A ship of 150 gross tons or above, other than an oil tanker. An oil tanker of 100 gross tons or above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C With regards to a ship's Oil Record Book, an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above must maintain entries in __________. Part I only Part II only Both Part I and Part II Part III Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all quantities should be __________. verified by the Chief Engineer recorded as cubic meters with a conversion to barrels consistently recorded through the Oil Record Book in one specified unit (gallons, barrels, cubic meters) recorded directly from the oil discharge monitor Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B If the overflow tank high-level alarm sounds while the fuel oil tanks are being topped off, the engineer should __________. close the overflow tank filling valve stop the fuel oil pumping operation reduce the fuel oil pumping rate close the static leg filling valve Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed? The senior able seaman The tankerman The designated person in charge The oiler Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should __________. secure operations until the exact type of oil is determined make an entry in the oil record book to that effect notify the Coast Guard All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should __________. fill one tank at a time reduce the loading rate when topping off close the tank filling valves quickly top off all tanks at the same time Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and __________. drained into buckets or fuel tanks drained over the side and washed out draped over the fantail to dry out drained into the bilges and washed out Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark? Using a cargo hose with a built in electrical bonding wire. Placing an insulating flange or a section of nonconducting hose in the hose setup. Connecting a bonding wire between the shore side piping and the vessel. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A After fuel tanks have been filled and bunkers completed, which of the listed procedures should be followed next? The tanks should be sounded to verify levels. The pressure-vacuum relief valve should be reset. The tanks should be made seaworthy to prevent contamination. The tanks should be marked with a bull stamp on the manifold filling valve. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the __________. terminal operator person in charge chief engineer master Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When a fuel oil tank is being topped off during bunkering operations, the tank valve should be closed __________. rapidly to prevent overflow after the shore pumps are stopped to prevent gas from escaping through the pressure-vacuum relief valves slowly to prevent surge stresses Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed __________. quad-annually only annually only biennially only only one every five years Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan? list of individuals required to respond plan exercises reporting requirements removal equipment list Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________. six months prior to the end of the approval period and cannot be implemented without approval one month prior to the anniversary date of the plan and can be implemented without immediate approval as long as final approval is received within six months of submittal Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? a list of agencies or officials of Coastal State administrations responsible for receiving and processing incident reports a list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports a list of personnel duty assignments a list which specifies who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority in which they must be notified Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C In accordance with domestic regulations, which of the following statements is true regarding U.S. flag vessel response plans for the carriage of oil? All domestic regulations regarding emergency response contingency plans are superseded by MARPOL, the international pollution prevention standard. The owner of a U.S. Flag vessel engaged in the carriage of oil regardless of size and route does not need to prepare and submit a contingency plan for emergency response in the event of a spill. A shipboard oil pollution emergency response plan which includes, but is not limited to, shipboard spill mitigation procedures must be submitted to, and approved by, the United States Coast Guard by the vessel operating company prior to the vessel engaging in trade. Oil is considered regulated cargo and all vessels engaged in the domestic oil trade are issued a Certificate of Inspection by the USCG. The issuance of this document satisfies all USCG requirements for vessel emergency contingency response plans. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the following statements are true regarding U.S. flag vessel response plans for the carriage of oil? Oil is considered regulated cargo and all vessels engaged in the domestic oil trade are issued a Certificate of Inspection by the USCG. The issuance of this document satisfies all USCG requirements for vessel emergency contingency response plans. A shipboard oil pollution emergency response plan which includes, but is not limited to, shipboard spill mitigation procedures that must be submitted to the United States Coast Guard for approval. All domestic regulations regarding emergency response contingency plans are superseded by MARPOL, the international pollution prevention standard. The owner of a U.S. Flag vessel engaged in the carriage of oil regardless of size and route does not need to prepare and submit a contingency plan for emergency response in the event of a spill. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which of the following statements are true regarding U.S. flag vessel response plans for the carriage of oil? Oil is considered regulated cargo and all vessels engaged in the domestic oil trade are issued a Certificate of Inspection by the USCG. The issuance of this document satisfies all USCG requirements for vessel emergency contingency response plans. A shipboard oil pollution emergency response plan which includes, but is not limited to, shipboard spill mitigation procedures that must be submitted to the United States Coast Guard for approval. All domestic regulations regarding emergency response contingency plans are superseded by MARPOL, the international pollution prevention standard. The owner of a U.S. Flag vessel engaged in the carriage of oil regardless of size and route does not need to prepare and submit a contingency plan for emergency response in the event of a spill. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of __________. skimmers straw chemical dispersants booms Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of chemical agents would __________. remove the oil from the water disperse or dissolve the oil in the water not affect the oil absorb the oil for easy removal Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal? Chemical agent removal Mechanical removal Absorbent removal None of the above Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Victual waste is __________. the final waste product of a manufacturing process any garbage that comes from food or food provisions the final discharge of sewage treatment plants the resultant sludge that is collected after water washing a boiler Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas, __________. records must be provided and maintained for two years no record is required if dumping is carried out more than 25 miles offshore and there is no included plastic material an entry into the official log book must be made the U.S. Coast Guard must be notified for each occurrence Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________. cubic yards convertible to long tons cubic meters weight in either kilogram or pounds barrels, measured in 55 gallon drums Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea? The vessel may discharge disinfected and comminuted sewage into the sea, from an approved system, only if the vessel is more than three nautical miles from the nearest land. The vessel must have an approved sewage plant. The vessel may discharge sewage into the sea, from an approved system which is not

 comminuted or disinfected, only if the vessel is more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land.
All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B You are the Chief Engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage. While bunkering lube oil in port, the hose fails and oil is spilled into the harbor. After securing the transfer, how would you proceed? Perform post incident drug and alcohol testing on engine crew members not involved in the
transfer operation.
Set out a boom around the ship to control the spread of the oil. Call the local news outlets and report the oil spill. Fill out a Declaration of Inspection for the transfer operation. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The term "arrival ballast" refers to __________. brackish water ballast dirty ballast any form of sea water ballast clean ballast Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C In order to prevent the unnecessary release of hydrocarbons to atmosphere, when taking on departure ballast, one method used is to __________. use blowers to purge the inert gas from tanks completely open the mast riser valve allow entering ballast to displace the inert gas to a tank where cargo is currently being discharged manually open the pressure/vacuum device Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must __________. be stopped until the oil can settle out, then resumed at a slower discharge rate be completely discharged in order to load be terminated automatically be completed only after "load on top" has been completed Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A A segregated ballast system is a system where __________. all ballast lines, tanks, and pumps are independent of those used for oil ballast is taken on and discharged through a separate main deck riser all ballast is processed through the oily water separator ballast and cargo tanks are separated by cofferdams Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A What would be the minimum distance from any shoreline that a vessel must be located before it is permitted to perform a complete ballast water exchange to be in compliance with
 U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management Regulations?
200 nautical miles 50 nautical miles 12 nautical miles 100 nautical miles Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C A gurgling noise is heard from within a cargo tank when discharging cargo, this would indicate that the __________. tank foot valve is partially clogged tank liquid is too viscous pump is sucking air pump discharge pressure is excessive Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The term "load on top" is used on many crude oil carriers, is to provide a method for __________. loading ballast by gravity calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks the loading of new cargo into a decanted slop tank as a procedure to minimize pollution calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Pressure-vacuum relief valves, as used on tank vessels, are usually set to operate at two points, __________. 14.2 psia; 2 psig 26 inches of vacuum; 5 psig any two points above atmospheric pressure any two points below atmospheric pressure Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be kept in good working order to prevent __________. entry of burning substances escape of explosive vapors damage to tank boundaries oil spillage on deck Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which of the following pressures represents the normal pressure setting of a pressure-vacuum relief valve as normally found on tank vessels? 16.7 psia -14.2 psia 20.7 psia -14.6 psia 18.7 psia -14.4 psia 22.7 psia -14.7 psia Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by using a __________. a positive displacement pump a multistage centrifugal pump the load on top system the water displacement method Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be __________. full of cargo inerted opened to the atmosphere for ventilation gas free Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________. a higher pressure jet the solvent effect of the crude oil a higher temperature none of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Bottom mounted crude oil washing machines are primarily used for __________. washing the entire bottom of the tank the majority of crude oil tank cleaning areas where direct impingement from deck mounted machines cannot be satisfactorily reached all vertical surfaces Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D When tanks have been washed with crude oil, and ballasted without being water rinsed, the ballast is referred to as __________. clean ballast dedicated ballast segregated ballast dirty ballast Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Crude oil washing has which of the following disadvantages? Allows buildup of cargo residue on tank walls. When completed, more cargo is retained aboard the ship than with water washing. Its cleaning ability is very poor. It requires following additional work procedures and close attention by the crew during cargo operations. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C On a tanker vessel, what is the required combined capacity of the inert gas generating system as compared to the total capacity of all the cargo pumps which can be operated simultaneously? 75 (%) 100 (%) 125 (%) 50 (%) Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Inert gas systems fitted on tank vessels must be fitted with an alarm to give an audible and visual warning when the oxygen content of the inert gas exceeds __________. 16% by volume 4% by volume 8% by volume 12% by volume Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks? Inert gas compressor Exhaust gas pressure Natural aspiration High capacity fan Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing? 12 (%) 6 (%) 8 (%) 10 (%) Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to __________. produce 100% oxygen free gas produce a gas of 100% pure nitrogen generate a high oxygen content gas supply conditioned gas with reduced oxygen content Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following conditions will result in an automatic shut down of the flue gas inert gas system? High temperature gas entering the scrubber. Low temperature water leaving the scrubber seal. High temperature gas discharge from inert gas blowers. Oxygen content of the gas falls below 5%. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be __________. close the flue gas isolating valve secure the salt water supply to the scrubber close the deck isolating valve secure the inert gas blower Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require electric hand lamps, approved for use in fuel tanks, to be battery powered and __________. moisture proof flame resistant corrosion resistant explosion proof Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall be __________. constructed so as to be completely spill proof emptied and the fuel changed at least once each year emptied and gas freed when the ship is dry-docked hydrostatically tested at each inspection for certification Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be __________. readily accessible to persons in the engine room provided for each person onboard provided for all personnel on watch All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last? 30 minutes 45 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces is called a __________. flame relief valve flame stopper safety valve flame arrester Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D According to 46 CFR part 95, which of the listed fire extinguishers would be considered hand portable/semi portable and capable of combating a class "B" fire? 35 pounds of carbon dioxide 20 pounds of dry chemical 2.5 gallons of foam All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C A fire main system must have enough fire hydrants for each accessible space to be reached with __________. a water spray or solid stream at least 25 psi delivered pressure at least two spray patterns of water a low velocity spray applicator Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The size of the fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1 1/2 inches or __________. 1 inch 2 1/2 inches 3 inches 3 1/2 inches Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the firefighting devices listed is not permitted for use in the engine room? Semi-portable CO2 fire extinguishers All high velocity fog applicators All smooth bore firefighting nozzles Any rubber lined hose Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Fire doors are released by a/an __________. method that automatically releases the door in the event of a disruption of control system power spring-loaded catch that automatically lifts to release the door in the event of the presence of a fire pneumatic heat sensor hydraulic directional valve that automatically releases the door in the event of a disruption to the control power system Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Before making any welded repairs to the internals of a vessel's fuel tank in a U.S. port, the tank must be examined by __________. the insurance underwriter the master of the vessel the chief engineer a certified marine chemist Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C A fireman's outfit carried onboard cargo vessels, must have a __________. canister-type gas mask fresh-air breathing apparatus self-contained breathing apparatus combustible gas indicator Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B What Coast Guard Regulations apply to the equipment of a fireman's outfit? The assembled lifeline shall have a breaking strength of at least 2,500 pounds. The helmet shall provide effective protection against impact. The boots and gloves shall be fire retardant and water resistant. All protective clothing must be electrically nonconducting. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a 10 pound dry chemical extinguisher is equivalent to a __________. 1 3/4 gallon foam 12 gallon foam 15 pound CO2 fire extinguisher 35 pound CO2 fire extinguisher Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), portable and semi-portable fire extinguishers are classified by a letter and numeric designator. The letter designation indicates __________. the type of fire the unit could be expected to extinguish the type of extinguishing agent the size of the extinguisher whether this type of extinguisher is to be used on deck or in machinery spaces Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be installed in the boiler room of an 8,000 horsepower steam propelled vessel? Two Four Six Eight Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C If the empty weight of a B-III semi-portable CO2 fire extinguisher is 35 lbs (15.9 kg), what is its full charged weight? 55 lbs (24.9 kg) 47 lbs (21.3 kg) 70 lbs (31.7 kg) 50 lbs (22.7 kg) Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The relief valve on a fire pump is set at 25 psi above the pressure necessary to maintain the required fire hose streams, or. 50 psi 75 psi 125 psi 150 psi Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________. strainer pressure gage check valve gate valve Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Fire main shore connections on a 1,000 gross ton cargo vessel are required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be provided with __________. suitable adapters to mate shore fire line couplings connections for 2 inch fire hose only at least two shore connections on each side of the vessel exterior "Y" connections for 1 1/2 inch fire hose only Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A When a cylinder is used to store CO2 in a fixed firefighting system and is retested in accordance with regulations, all flexible connections between cylinders and distribution piping must be renewed or tested at __________. 1000 psi 1500 psi 2750 psi 300 psi Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following statements is true concerning fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems? The cylinders which are fitted with flexible or bent siphon tubes may be inclined not more than 30° from the vertical. All cylinders used for storing carbon dioxide shall be fabricated, tested, and marked in accordance with the applicable section of the American Welding Society code. The space containing the cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to preclude an ambient temperature in excess of 100°F (37.78°C) The cylinders may be located within the space protected provided the system consists of not more than 300 pounds (136.1 kg) of carbon dioxide. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Carbon dioxide cylinders must be recharged when the cylinder charge weight is less than what percent of the stamped full weight charge? 85 (%) 95 (%) 80 (%) 90 (%) Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B During the annual servicing of your ship's fixed CO2 system, you receive the report shown in the illustration. Which CO2 cylinders require recharging? Illustration SF-0014 109 103 and 108 105 All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B According to 46 CFR Part 95, which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the regulations pertaining to the carbon dioxide cylinder room for a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system? The ambient temperature of the room should never be allowed to exceed 130 degrees
Fahrenheit.
The door must be kept unlocked. The compartment must be properly ventilated. The compartment shall be clearly identified and marked. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________. 400 pounds 600 pounds 300 pounds 500 pounds Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A When the machinery spaces on a tank vessel are protected by a fixed foam extinguishing system, what additional protection is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) outside of the machinery space entrance? Two fire hydrants with hose, nozzle and applicator Ten cubic feet of sand of with scoop One semi-portable CO2 extinguisher One portable foam extinguisher Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to 46 CFR's, a fixed foam system aboard a tank vessel constructed in 1968, must be designed to supply foam for a minimum of __________. 15 minutes 7 minutes 3 minutes 12 minutes Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo and miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the following requirements? The deck foam system must be completely independent of the fixed foam system. The foam producing chemicals must be discharged and recharged every year at annual inspection. The supply of foam producing materials must be sufficient to operate the equipment for at least 3 minutes for spaces other than tanks. The foam producing chemicals must be discharged and recharged every 2 years at the annual inspection. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C When fire detecting systems, fire extinguishing systems, and associated equipment are not required by the Coast Guard but are installed on a cargo vessel at the option of the vessel's owner, they __________. need only to be Coast Guard inspected and/or tested after their initial installation must be removed from the vessel as the only systems allowed and approved are those listed on the Coast Guard Certificate of Inspection must also be inspected and/or tested in accordance with Coast Guard Regulations at each Inspection for Certification are exempt from all tests and/or inspections as normally required by a Coast Guard inspector if maintained in a suitable working condition and used only as a back up Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C If a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed on any vessel, it must be of a type approved by the __________. American Bureau of Shipping Marine Fire Protection Guild U.S. Coast Guard National Fire Protection Association Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that where reasonable and practicable, the steam pressure in a steam smothering system should be at least __________. 100 psi 150 psi 125 psi equal to one-half boiler working pressure Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard is required on all __________. U.S. Vessels 26 feet or more in length U.S. vessels less than 26 feet in length foreign vessels not in U.S. navigable waters Foreign vessels when engaged in noncommercial service Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The Federal Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) that apply to ships are enforced by the __________. U.S. Coast Guard Port Authority Corps of Engineers State Pollution Board Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The Exclusive Economic Zone extends from the baseline of territorial sea of the United States seaward __________. 100 miles 53 miles 300 miles 200 miles Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations, means __________. spilling leaking dumping All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The term "oily mixture", as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) includes __________. oily ballast water bilge slops sludge All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), means __________. crude oil only fuel oil only liquefied petroleum gas petroleum oil of any kind Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Where are "prohibited oil spaces" specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 33 CFR Subchapter O? Part 155 Part 151 Part 156 Part 154 Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D If a vessel moored at a U.S. terminal does not comply with Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), it may be detained by the __________. state pollution board Inspector General local port authority Captain of the Port Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Exemption or partial exemption from compliance with any requirement in the Oil or Hazardous Material Pollution Prevention Regulations prescribed in (33 CFR 155) may be granted by the __________. Commandant of the Coast Guard Captain of the Port vessel's Chief Engineer OCMI in the vessel's home port Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D According to 33 CFR's, the approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires after __________. two years one year four years five years Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), all ships are required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(an) __________. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan synthetic plastic discharge plan vapor recovery procedures plan oil discharge plan Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C On a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons, equipped with an approved 100 ppm oily water separator, and bilge monitor, the bilge monitor continuous record must be __________. initialed after each engineering watch by the watch engineer detached monthly for enclosure in the Oil Record Book maintained onboard for not less than 3 years kept readily available for 1 year only Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Bilges may be pumped __________. on the outgoing tide overboard after dark overboard through an oily water separator anytime in an emergency, i.e. main engine lube oil failure Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by __________. holding its slops onboard until they can be discharged to a shore side reception facility holding its slops onboard until they can be pumped into the city sewer system circulating them through the lube oil purifier to remove water and debris pumping them into a settling tank for separation before pumping the oily water residue overboard Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B On U.S. inspected ships, oily water separating equipment, bilge alarms, and bilge monitors must be approved under __________. 33 CFR 151 46 CFR 162 18 CFR 201 46 CFR 41 Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations? The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces. Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage. The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following statements concerning oil transfer, related equipment, tests and inspections is true? A 6" inside diameter nonmetallic oil transfer hose having a small slash penetrating the hose reinforcement may remain in service if there is no visible internal deterioration. Each pressure gauge in the system must indicate a reading that is within 5% of the actual system pressure. Each nonmetallic oil transfer hose, larger than a 3" inside diameter must be inspected, and tested annually. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), each pressure gage used in fuel transfer operations must be calibrated to indicate pressure within what percent of the actual pressure? 3 (%) 10 (%) 7 (%) 5 (%) Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Which of the following statements is true concerning oil transfer connections? Any permanently connected flange coupling must have a bolt in each hole. Approved quick-connect couplings may be used. When a temporary connection utilizes an American National Standard Institute (ANSI) standard flange, a bolt in every other hole is acceptable if at least four bolts are used. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the minimum number of bolts permitted in an ANSI standard flange on an oil hose is __________. three four six nine Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), you are required to test cargo discharge piping every __________. 24 months 6 months 12 months 18 months Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 156), state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless __________. an oil containment boom is available for immediate use all parts of the transfer system have been properly lined up oil residue has been drained from all hoses a representative sample has been taken from the oil being received Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless. an oil containment boom is ready for immediate use flange couplings are properly bolted scuppers and drains are unplugged bonding cables are installed on all tanks Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless __________. the discharge containment is in place each part of the transfer system not necessary for the transfer operation is securely blanked or shut off each scupper or drain in a discharge containment system is closed All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A A tank vessel with an oil cargo capacity of 5000 barrels is required by regulations to have a fixed container, or enclosed deck area under or around each oil loading manifold and each oil transfer connection point. The capacity of these containment areas is based upon __________. inside transfer hose diameter or loading arm nominal pipe size diameter number of cargo oil tank vents, overflows and fill pipe connections cargo oil service pressure All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), which of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment under the oil filling connection section? Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank. All containment drains must lead to a common, fixed drain tank. The containment drains must have quick-closing valves to be closed in the event of leakage or failure of any part of the transfer connection. The containment may be fixed or portable depending upon the age of the vessel. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The tanks used for oily waste on a new ocean going cargo ship of 6000 gross tons must meet certain requirements for isolation between oil and bilge systems. These requirements are set forth in. 33 CFR 151.23(a)2 33 CFR 155.370(b)2 46 CFR 56.50-50(h) 46 CFR 74.15-10(b) Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state that a ship's oily bilge slops may be pumped in port only if the __________. local port authority gives permission engineer on watch has signed the declaration of inspection discharge is led to a reception facility local port authority has completed the required pollution inspection Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C An oceangoing ship of 6000 gross tons or above must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection with dimensions outlined in Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) or be substituted with a __________. clip-on flange suitable for service pressure of 4 kg/cm2 portable connection using a four bolt pattern portable adapter that meets the same specification outlined in 33 CFR, Subchapter "O" suitable discharge shore connection Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D No person may serve as the person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________. under any circumstances unless radio communication is set up between the vessels unless the vessels are moored clear of all docks unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who is to make the final decision of when oil transfer may begin? Any local Coast Guard representative Captain of the Port officer The senior deck officer present Designated persons-in-charge of vessel and facility Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C The Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require a meeting before starting any oil transfer operation. That meeting must be between the __________. master of the vessel and the terminal superintendent terminal supervisor, Master of the vessel and the Coast Guard person-in-charge of the oil transfer operations on the vessel and the person-in-charge of the oil transfer operations at the facility master and chief engineer of the vessel and the terminal supervisor Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin? The designated person-in-charge The senior deck officer present The captain of the  Any local Coast Guard representative Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed the __________. valve inspection record declaration of inspection oil record book certificate of inspection Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) specify that the person-in-charge of bunkering is responsible for the __________. quality of fuel received vessel draft communications with terminal operator quantity of fuel received Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an international voyage? Ballast water may only be discharged overboard through an approved oily water separator. Prior to entering U.S. waters, a vessel may use any Coast Guard approved alternative environmentally sound method of BWM. Prior to discharging ballast water in U.S. waters, the vessel must perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 100 nautical miles from any shoreline. Ballast water may only be discharged overboard if the vessel is underway. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Ocean vessel Ballast Water Management Regulations can be found in __________. 46 CFR Part 35 33 CFR Part 110 33 CFR Part 151 46 CFR Part 56 Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Which CFR regulation identifies the placard to be posted on the vessel describing the proper disposal of garbage? 33 CFR Part 157.37 33 CFR Part 151.59 33 CFR Part 159.51 33 CFR Part 157.100 Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B A vessel sailing through the specific special areas may discharge or dispose of fairly dense material that will sink, i.e. metal cans or glass bottles at anytime victual waste when at least 12 nautical miles from shore incinerated ash at anytime absolutely no garbage at anytime Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A When off loading garbage to another ship, your records must identify that ship by name and __________. official number home port master's name operator's name of record Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A According to 33 CFR, records of garbage disposal are required to be maintained __________. for a minimum of two years until the end of each voyage for a minimum of one year until each quadrennial Coast Guard inspection Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 Part 151), which of the following statements is accurate concerning the discharge of garbage? The discharge of dunnage, lining, and packing materials that do not float is prohibited within 25 nautical miles of the nearest land. The discharge of plastic or garbage mixed with plastic into any waters is permitted. The discharge of all garbage is prohibited in the navigable waters of the United States and in all other waters within three nautical miles of the nearest land. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 CFR 151), who is responsible for insuring that a ship is not operated unless a waste management plan is utilized? U.S. Coast Guard Vessel's Master Vessel owner Vessel operating company Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C According to Coast Guard regulations (33 CFR), which of the following describes items pertinent to waste management plans? If the vessel is over forty feet in length, the plan shall be submitted in writing to the Officer In Charge of Marine Inspection. The plan will include the responsibilities of all personnel required to assist in the collection of garbage onboard the vessel. A description of the vessel's procedure for collecting, processing, storing and discharging garbage shall be provided. No official plan in writing is required; however, all established routines shall continue to be adhered to and followed. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Among other restrictions, an oil tanker may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless the vessel is __________. discharging at an instantaneous rate of oil content not exceeding 30 liters per nautical mile is within "Special Areas" defined in Regulation 1 (10) of Annex I to MARPOL 73/78 at anchor or stopped more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with a means in which the vessel's designated person-in-charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. This means of control may be activated __________. pneumatically or mechanically electrically via a communications device used for no other purpose All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A The emergency shutdown requirements of Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 155) apply to __________. cargo transfer systems condensate pumps induced draft fans air compressors Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown on a tank vessel, it must stop the flow of oil through __________. the main deck manifold the pump the facility a means that is not dependant on electrical power Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B Where in the Code of Federal Regulations will you find information about the compatibility of cargoes? Title 33 Subchapter O Title 46 Subchapter O Title 46 Subchapter N Title 46 Subchapter D Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A According to 46 CFR, Part 30, a Grade "E" petroleum product is __________. a combustible liquid light fuel oil a flammable liquid kerosene Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), no vessel can come alongside or remain alongside a tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade cargo without having the permission of the __________. USCG captain of the port tank ship owner terminal manager officer-in-charge of the vessel which is loading Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Your passenger vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage. What should be your ship's standard operating procedures regarding watertight hatches and doors? All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept closed during navigation except when necessarily opened for working of the vessel, and in such cases they shall always be ready to be immediately closed. All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept open during navigation to facilitate crew movement and in all cases they shall always be ready to be immediately closed. All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept closed when the vessel is anchored except when necessarily opened for working of the vessel, and in such cases they shall always be ready to be immediately closed. All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept open during normal operation, except during adverse weather when they shall be closed. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Your passenger vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage. What should be your ship's standard operating procedures regarding the inspection of watertight hatches and doors? All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads that may be opened at sea shall be periodically inspected at least once in each day while the vessel is navigated to be assured that they are in proper operating condition. When the voyage exceeds one week in duration, these doors shall be operated before the vessel leaves port. All such doors shall be operated daily. All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads that may be opened at sea shall be periodically inspected at least once in each month while the vessel is navigated to be assured that they are in proper operating condition. When the voyage exceeds two week in duration, these doors shall be operated before the vessel leaves port. All such doors shall be operated weekly. All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads that may be opened at sea shall be overhauled at least once in each month to be assured that they are in proper operating condition. When the voyage exceeds one week in duration, these doors shall be operated before the vessel leaves port. All such doors shall be operated daily. All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads that may be opened at sea shall be periodically inspected at least once in each week while the vessel is navigated to be assured that they are in proper operating condition. When the voyage exceeds one week in duration, these doors shall be operated before the vessel leaves port. All such doors shall be operated daily. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Your passenger vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage. What actions must be taken to verify that your vessel was in compliance with stability requirements? The master shall determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter an attestation statement of the verification in the ship's stability book. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. Ensure that the vessel owners has determined that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter an attestation statement of the verification in the log book. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. The master shall determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be and send a message verifying the condition of the vessel to the vessel's owners. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. The master shall determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter an attestation statement of the verification in the log book. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D As Chief Engineer on a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage, you and the First Engineer are planning a welding job in the cargo hold. How would you ensure that all safety precautions are reviewed prior to starting this job? Have the First Engineer complete a Hot Work permit after completing the job. Have the First Engineer review the SOLAS manual prior to starting the job. Have the First Engineer verbally review fire safety with crew working on the job. Have the First Engineer complete a Hot Work permit prior to starting the job. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Your vessel, of more than 1000 gross tons on an international voyage is crossing the Atlantic Ocean. The second engineer injures his hand while working on a pump. The injury requires more than basic first aid. As the senior officer onboard how would you proceed? Read an outdated copy of the Ships Medicine Chest reference book found onboard to help treat the injury. Seek help from fellow crew members who have no medical training. Contact the medical advisory service contracted by your company to speak with a shore side doctor and address the injury as directed by the doctor. Call your company port engineer and ask for help. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B An oxygen indicator will detect __________. the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide an oxygen deficiency in a space concentrations of explosive gas All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators? The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with no delay. A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument when
 exposed to strongly acidic gases.
Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator. All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which of the following statement is true concerning the meter shown in the illustration? Illustration SF-0003 As gas samples are drawn into the instrument they are burned within the case. If there is any liquid in the tank being tested, the sampling tube should be submerged in it to obtain the most accurate reading. If the meter moves to the extreme right side of the scale and stays there, the atmosphere is safe. Meter readings are obtained instantaneously upon release of the squeeze bulb. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which of the following statements is true concerning the meter shown in the illustration? Illustration SF-0003 As gas samples are drawn into the instrument they are burned within the case. If there is any liquid in the tank being tested, the sampling tube should be submerged in it to obtain the most accurate reading. If the meter moves to the extreme right side of the scale and stays there, the atmosphere is safe. Meter readings are obtained instantaneously upon release of the squeeze bulb. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
B When taking samples of a tank atmosphere with an explosimeter, you should __________. avoid sampling in the vicinity of deep webs to prevent false readings sample as much of the tank as possible, especially at the bottom only sample around the deck longitudinals as gases are lighter than air sample only near the ullage openings as all vapors accumulate there Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D The instrument shown in the illustration has not been used for several weeks. Prior to its use for testing a compartment, you should __________. Illustration SF-0003 check or renew the batteries purge the meter adjust the meter pointer to zero All of the above. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
C As First Engineer, you are standing by the #3 deep fuel oil storage tank as a crew member is working inside the tank. Before entering the tank, the atmosphere was checked and determined safe for men to work. While standing by you notice that the crew member is not moving. After attempts to communicate with the downed mariner receive no response, what action would you take? Send another another crew member, without a SCBA on, into the tank to retrieve the unconscious crew member. Send two additional crew members, without a SCBA on, into the tank to retrieve the unconscious crew member. Have additional crew members don a SCBA to enter the tank, to aid in the removal of the unconscious crew member. Call the Captain and ask him how you should proceed. Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
D Seawater may be used for drinking water __________. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water if gather during or immediately after a hard rain under no circumstance Emergency Equipment & Lifesaving Appliances
A Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures? Foam Carbon dioxide Halon 1211 Dry chemical Fire Fighting Practices
B A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________. if applied in connection with foam if applied promptly to prevent rekindling if attempts to extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed Fire Fighting Practices
A The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by __________. visual inspection of the pressure gage removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical weighing the cylinder weighing the CO2 cartridge Fire Fighting Practices
A In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________. with the squeeze-grip on/off nozzle at the end of the hose by turning the activating handle on the bottom of the container by squeezing the control valve carrying handle with the squeeze-grip trigger on top of the container Fire Fighting Practices
B You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire at the seat of the fire, starting near the edge at the main body of the fire over the top of the fire Fire Fighting Practices
A When fighting an oil or gasoline fire, which of the listed fire extinguishing agents should NEVER be sprayed directly into the fire? Dry chemical Steam smothering Low velocity fog High velocity fog Fire Fighting Practices
D When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher you should always __________. bounce the chemical onto the fire from adjacent structural members attack the fire from the leeward side spray the chemical across the tops of the flames direct the stream of chemical toward the base of the fire Fire Fighting Practices
D Which of the listed methods is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher? Move the discharge stream back and forth in a rapid sweeping motion. Approach the fire from the windward side. Direct the extinguisher discharge at the base of the fire. All of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
D To operate a portable foam fire extinguisher, you should __________. open the hand wheel puncture the CO2 cartridge pull the pin and squeeze the trigger turn it upside down and bump the deck Fire Fighting Practices
C The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its over pressurization is called a __________. safety valve control head rupture disc relief valve Fire Fighting Practices
C Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B" fire should be directed __________. in short, quick bursts at the top of the flames at the base of the fire near the edge toward the upwind side of the fire Fire Fighting Practices
B To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would __________. Illustration SF-0008 pull pin, open valve, and pull up on release lever pull pin and open valve open valve, pull pin, and pull up on release lever open valve and pull pin Fire Fighting Practices
B Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes __________. hydrostatic testing of the cylinder weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the charge inspecting the pressure gauge to ensure the needle is within operating range discharging, cleaning inside, and recharging Fire Fighting Practices
B A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25% labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible replaced in its proper location regardless of weight replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15% Fire Fighting Practices
A If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers? CO2 Soda acid Foam Dry chemical Fire Fighting Practices
A You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the engine room with a 15 pound CO2 extinguisher. Which of the listed dangers should you now be preparing to handle? Reflashing of the fire. Sudden stoppage of the main engine. Complete lack of oxygen in the engine room. Chemical reaction of the CO2 and oil forming carbonic acid. Fire Fighting Practices
B The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________. Illustration SF-0009 CO2 hose reel system dry chemical hose reel system Halon 1301 hose reel system light water hose reel system Fire Fighting Practices
B The fire extinguishing agent dispensed by the unit shown in the illustration is produced by __________. Illustration SF-0020 educting air through "D" and mixing it with water in chamber "E" educting mechanical foam through "D" and mixing it with water and air in chamber "E" educting chemical foam through "D" and mixing it with water in chamber "E" educting air through "C", mechanical foam through "D", and mixing them with water in chamber "E" Fire Fighting Practices
D Properly stowed fire hose is either faked or rolled into a rack with the __________. male end attached to the adjacent fire hydrant male and female ends connected together to prevent damage female end available to be quickly connected to the hydrant nozzle end arranged to be easily run out to the fire Fire Fighting Practices
A If the threads and gasket of a fire hose coupling are in good condition, the minimum mechanical advantage necessary for making a watertight connection to another hose coupling, can be developed with __________. your hands a hose wrench a coupling wrench a monkey wrench Fire Fighting Practices
C Fire hoses located at protected fire stations, must always be __________. capped on the ends for protection supplied with a smooth bore nozzle connected to the fire hydrant open to the air to prevent rot Fire Fighting Practices
D To properly maintain fire hoses, you should __________. keep exterior linings damp by periodic wash downs keep them partially filled with fresh water keep them rolled tightly in the rack with female coupling protected thoroughly drain them after each use Fire Fighting Practices
C If a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle shut off, the fire hose will __________. become elongated by 125% burst under pressure remain motionless lash about violently Fire Fighting Practices
B When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and __________. paint thinner a soft-bristled brush a wire brush cornstarch Fire Fighting Practices
D Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose? Backup hose man should be positioned wherever the hose makes a significant turn. A 2-1/2 inch hose should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzle man and two hosemen. Hose nozzle thrust increases with an increase in hose pressure. The fire hose should be partially charged before deploying the hose from the hydrant. Fire Fighting Practices
A There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure? Friction in the piping and valves Leaky pump suction valve Wear in the hydrant Leaky pilot valve Fire Fighting Practices
A A low velocity fog applicator is held in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________. a spring-loaded catch a locknut a keeper screw water pressure Fire Fighting Practices
D The all-purpose, or combination nozzle is capable by itself of producing a solid stream of water __________. only and low velocity water fog and high and low velocity water fog and high velocity water fog Fire Fighting Practices
D A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all-purpose nozzle attached, should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the handle position is changed from __________. low velocity to high velocity fog solid stream to fog fog to shut shut to solid stream Fire Fighting Practices
C The physical difference of the water spray patterns developed by the high velocity tip and low velocity applicator is due to __________. the type of fire being fought a difference in water pressure the method of breaking up the water stream the capacity of the fire pump Fire Fighting Practices
A Which of the following statements is correct regarding the fog applicators used in conjunction with the combination nozzle? On container ships, an applicator termed a bayonet or piercing type utilizes a sharp tip for cutting and penetrating the metal skin of a container. In machinery spaces, the applicators should be 10 to 12 feet in length to insure all portions of the bilge can be effectively reached. All cargo and miscellaneous vessels must be equipped with high velocity fog applicators for use with the required combination nozzle at each station. All of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
D Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a __________. smothering agent barrier against radiant heat cooling agent All of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
D Water applied as a 'fog' can be more effective than water applied as a 'solid stream', because __________. a given amount of water can absorb more heat when it is in the form of fog it reduces the total amount of water that must be pumped into the ship to fight a given fire it does not have to hit the seat of fire to be effective of all of the above Fire Fighting Practices
B An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________. dry chemical water fog carbon dioxide Halon 1301 Fire Fighting Practices
B The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm siren is obtained from __________. the emergency power and lighting bus the flow of CO2 under pressure the general alarm 24 volt DC bus All of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
B After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next immediate action is for the space to be __________. opened and burned material removed left closed with ventilation off until all boundaries are cool checked for the proper oxygen level opened and doused with water to prevent reflash Fire Fighting Practices
B When fighting a machinery space fire, you should operate a fixed CO2 system by opening the control valve to the space protected and __________. visually checking to see that CO2 is discharging through the piping operating a separate control to release CO2 modulating the proper amount of CO2 from individual bottles listening for the sound of the warning siren Fire Fighting Practices
C What would be the most probable cause for a high pressure alarm to be activated in a Low Pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system? An excessive amount of insulation has been installed on the tank and piping. An air leak has developed in the tank. The tank cooling system has malfunctioned. The pilot cylinder discharge valve is leaking. Fire Fighting Practices
C When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 that will be released into the selected compartment? The discharge of CO2 will continue until the temperature of the space returns to ambient conditions. The number of discharge nozzles in the space will determine the quantity released. A timer mechanism controls the discharge valve and is preset for the space being activated. The CO2 tank is divided into separate sections designated for each protected space. Fire Fighting Practices
B If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine room, you should __________. immediately assist the fixed system by discharging all portable units as well leave the space immediately start the fire pump make certain that the CO2 starts flowing into the space Fire Fighting Practices
D Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible? The fire may warp the CO2 piping. To keep the fire from spreading through the bulkheads. Carbon dioxide takes a long time to disperse to all portions of a space. Updraft from the fire tends to carry the CO2 away. Fire Fighting Practices
D When re-entering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, the investigating team should initially __________. attempt to operate propulsion machinery enter from the lowest possible level leave the access door partially open enter from the highest level with breathing apparatus Fire Fighting Practices
B The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________. instantaneously extinguish the fire which triggered it limit the spread of the fire and control the amount of heat produced protect people in the areas which have had sprinkler heads installed alert the crew to the fire Fire Fighting Practices
D In the fire main system, quick cleaning strainers are located at the __________. pump discharge pump suctions hose nozzle fire hydrants Fire Fighting Practices
D The fire main system should be flushed with fresh water whenever possible to __________. prevent corrosion of valve stems identify loose pipe joints eliminate cracking of fire hose linings help destroy marine growth Fire Fighting Practices
C While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single 'wye' gate attached to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle __________. at the base of the "Y" counterclockwise 180° at the base of the "Y" in either direction on each leg of the "Y" 90° on each leg of the "Y" 180° Fire Fighting Practices
A Which of the following components provides a direct source of sea water for the fire main system? Sea chest suction Fire pump stuffing box Rosebox suction Cofferdam sluice valve Fire Fighting Practices
D The principle personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is __________. skin irritation eye irritation produced immediately after discharge from cylinder displacement of oxygen inhaling toxic vapors produced when exposed directly to a flame for extended periods Fire Fighting Practices
A Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature? CO2 Water stream Water fog Foam Fire Fighting Practices
D As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain conditions as it can cause __________. hallucinations carbon monoxide poisoning undulation freeze burns and blistering Fire Fighting Practices
B One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is __________. the CO2 gas is lighter than air and a large amount is required to extinguish a fire near the
deck
prolonged exposure to high concentrations of CO2 gas causes suffocation the 'snow' which is sometimes discharged along with the gas is toxic rapid dissipation of the CO2 vapor Fire Fighting Practices
A The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________. its good stability and non-toxicity permanent extinguishment regardless of the reignition sources its excellent cooling ability All of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
A Dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a fire by __________. breaking up the molecular chain reaction cooling the fuel below ignition temperature removing the fuel by absorbing the heated vapors smothering and removing the oxygen from the fuel Fire Fighting Practices
B The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is __________. carbon dioxide water flue gas steam smothering Fire Fighting Practices
D Mechanical foam used for firefighting is produced by __________. a chemical reaction of foam components and air chemical reaction of foam components and water gas bubbles liberated when the foam chemical contacts fire mechanically mixing and agitating foam chemical, water, and air Fire Fighting Practices
B Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly known as 'light water', is especially suitable for fighting __________. any class D fire oil fires in the engine room bilges class C fires in paint lockers All of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
B One of the limitations of foam as a fire extinguishing agent is that foam __________. cannot be made with salt water conducts electricity is heavier than oil and sinks below it surface is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters Fire Fighting Practices
C When an oil fire has been extinguished, the surface of the oil should be kept covered with foam to prevent __________. boiling of the heated oil toxic fumes from escaping to the surface air from contacting the oil vapors permitting reignition spontaneous combustion below the oil surface Fire Fighting Practices
B A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________. high velocity fog foam soda acid dry chemical Fire Fighting Practices
D Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent? The agent is less effective than carbon dioxide. The agent is highly toxic as stored in pressurized cylinders. The agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue. Halon extinguishes the fire by a chain breaking reaction. Fire Fighting Practices
D It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________. cool the metal below its ignition temperature form a dense coating of smothering steam prevent oxygen from reaching the flames prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat Fire Fighting Practices
D In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________. conduction radiation ventilation convection Fire Fighting Practices
B You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority? Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. Break out the nearest fire hose. Close the door to the room. Secure power to the washers and dryers. Fire Fighting Practices
C Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent? Its total cooling effect is far greater than water. Carbon dioxide is corrosive when exposed to fire. Its smothering effect is excellent for class B fires. Carbon dioxide should be applied slowly to a large engine room fire. Fire Fighting Practices
B All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________. heat electricity oxygen fuel Fire Fighting Practices
B The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________. that concentration above which there is just enough flammable vapor to produce an explosion that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an explosion the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion Fire Fighting Practices
D In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by __________. Illustration SF-0013 radiation impingement convection conduction Fire Fighting Practices
D The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________. conduction radiation windage convection Fire Fighting Practices
B To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________. cool the bulkhead around the fire close all openings to the area shut off electrical power remove combustibles from direct exposure Fire Fighting Practices
B Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________. burning liquids flowing into another space the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space heated gases flowing through ventilation systems transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal Fire Fighting Practices
B A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire? Class "C" Class "A" Class "B" Class "D" Fire Fighting Practices
A A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire? Class "A" Class "B" Class "C" Class "D" Fire Fighting Practices
C A fire in a pile of canvas would be classified as a __________. class C class B class A class D Fire Fighting Practices
C A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________. class B class C class A class D Fire Fighting Practices
D If the items shown in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class __________. Illustration SF-0001 "D" "C" "B" "A" Fire Fighting Practices
C A fire involving trash and paper waste would be classified as a __________. class B class D class A class C Fire Fighting Practices
A Burning wood is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire? Class A Class B Class C Class D Fire Fighting Practices
C A fire that has developed in a pile of rubber gasket material would be classified as a __________. class B class C class A class D Fire Fighting Practices
D A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the __________. leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying a solid stream of water to wash residual fuel over the side away from the pier windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to the fire leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to protect the monitor operator windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if needed Fire Fighting Practices
D A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the __________. leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying a solid stream of water to wash residual fuel over the side away from the pier windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to the fire leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to protect the monitor operator windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if needed Fire Fighting Practices
B A fire in the paint locker would probably be __________. Class A Class B Class D Class C Fire Fighting Practices
B Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B" fire? CO2 All of the above Dry chemical Foam Fire Fighting Practices
D Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B" fire? CO2 Foam Dry chemical All of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
C A galley grease fire would be classified as __________. Class A Class C Class B Class D Fire Fighting Practices
C The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________. class A class D class B class C Fire Fighting Practices
D Which of the listed burning materials would be described as a class "B" fire? Lube oil Acetylene Grease All of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
D Burning diesel oil should be treated as which class of fire? Class "D" Class "A" Class "C" Class "B" Fire Fighting Practices
B Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel? Classes C and D Classes B and C Classes A and D Classes A and B Fire Fighting Practices
A To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or __________. dry chemical chemical foam chemically treated saw dust mechanical foam Fire Fighting Practices
C A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, is considered a __________. class "B" fire class "A" fire class "C" fire class "D" fire Fire Fighting Practices
A When combating a class "C" fire, which of the following dangers may be present? Toxic fumes from burning insulation or electric shock Increased surface area of the burning fluid Water damage to machinery not involved in the fire Flooding of the vessel Fire Fighting Practices
D Class C fires may be combated using a __________. carbon dioxide extinguisher Halon extinguisher dry chemical extinguisher All of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
C Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire? Susceptible to reflash Explosion Electrocution or shock Deep seated fire Fire Fighting Practices
A A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________. magnesium diesel oil electrical insulation dunnage Fire Fighting Practices
A A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________. magnesium diesel oil electrical insulation dunnage Fire Fighting Practices
B A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class __________. "A" fire "D" fire "B" fire "C" fire Fire Fighting Practices
B A magnesium fire would be classified as a __________. class B class D class A class C Fire Fighting Practices
C "Dry Powder" fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire? Class C Class B Class D All of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
D Fires are grouped into which of the listed categories? Flammable solids, liquids, and gases Combustible solids, liquids, and gases Type 1, 2, 3, and 4 Class A, B, C, and D Fire Fighting Practices
D Which of the listed sources of ignition may cause fuel vapors to ignite? An open and running motor Loose wiring Static electricity All of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
D A fire can be extinguished by removing __________. the oxygen the fuel the heat Any of the above. Fire Fighting Practices
D Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by __________. improving personnel qualifications allowing better access in an emergency eliminating trip hazards eliminating potential fuel sources Fire Fighting Practices
D Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition? Anaerobic decomposition Aeration Putrefaction Oxidation Fire Fighting Practices
C The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________. chemical ignition chemical combustion spontaneous combustion radiation ignition Fire Fighting Practices
B Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________. all of the above oil soaked rags are stowed in the machine shop dry metal turnings accumulate powdered aluminum is stowed dry Fire Fighting Practices
D To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________. kept in nonmetal containers kept in the paint locker cleaned thoroughly for reuse discarded as soon as possible Fire Fighting Practices
D A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________. store paint cans on metal shelves only place a portable fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker label the fixed firefighting system not allow oily rags to accumulate in the space Fire Fighting Practices
A When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________. nonferrous high carbon steel fixed with a ferrous cover approved by the Coast Guard Fire Prevention Principles
B Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________. stowed safely at the work site until work is completed returned to the paint locker after each use drained into a common container after each use covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources Fire Prevention Principles
D Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading? Keeping the duct exterior clean. Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening. Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening. Keeping the duct interior clean. Fire Prevention Principles
D Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading? Keeping the duct exterior clean. Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening. Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening. Keeping the duct interior clean. Fire Prevention Principles
D When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you must be certain that the space __________. contains no explosive fumes has no oil or flammable material in the area is properly vented All of the above. Fire Prevention Principles
C A fire is considered 'under control' when __________. the fixed systems are activated all firefighting equipment is at the scene the fire is contained and no longer spreading all hands are at their fire stations Fire Prevention Principles
C The Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________. work schedule the time each weekly drill will be held all emergency signals instructions for lowering the survival capsule Fire Prevention Principles
A The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systems? Illustration SF-0004 Fixed temperature Line type pneumatic Combined fixed temperature and rate-of-rise Rate-of-rise Fire Prevention Principles
D In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions will cause an indication of a fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet? The fire alarm test push-button is operated. A rise in temperature activating a heat detector. A manual fire alarm box is activated. All of the above. Fire Prevention Principles
D Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________. ionized particles smoke rate of temperature rise All of the above. Fire Prevention Principles
C An oxygen indicator will detect __________. the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide concentrations of explosive gas an oxygen deficiency in a space All of the above. Fire Theory
B Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators? The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with no
delay.
Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator. A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument when exposed to strongly acidic gases. All of the above. Fire Theory
B The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________. upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration concentration of flammable gas in a compartment concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a compartment Fire Theory
C To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should use a __________. flame scanner halide torch combustible gas indicator detector filament Fire Theory
D If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________. hail 'Man Overboard' throw a life ring overboard pass the word to the bridge All of the above. Fire Theory
C Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire? Nitrogen Hydrogen Carbon monoxide Carbon dioxide Fire Theory
A A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true? The tank is especially dangerous to enter. Carbon monoxide is present. Water vapor present when the tank was sealed has oxidized. The tank is safe to enter. Fire Theory
D A good approach to personnel safety is to assume that all tanks and pump rooms are potentially dangerous. You should immediately leave an area whenever __________. you experience an abnormal bodily sensation you have irritation of the eyes, nose, or throat you smell an unusual odor Any of the above conditions occur. Fire Theory
C High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________. cause eye inflammation cause involuntary skeletal muscle contractions paralyze your breathing system cause dizziness Fire Theory
B When administering chest compression during CPR, at what part of the victim's body should the pressure be applied? Top half of the sternum Lower half of the sternum Left chest over the heart Right chest over the heart First Aid
B Before CPR is started on the victim, you should __________. make the victim comfortable establish an open airway treat any bleeding wounds insure the victim is conscious First Aid
B You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take? Raise the victim's head higher than his feet. Re-tip the head and try again. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue. First Aid
B In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim, __________. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations drain water from the lungs before ventilating do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting First Aid
B The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________. having the proper equipment for the process starting the treatment quickly administering of oxygen treating for shock First Aid
B You are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a victim of electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a recommended procedure? Placing the victim on his or her back and exposing the chest. Giving cardiac massage without artificial respiration. Rocking so that a controlled amount of body weight goes through your arms and hand to their breastbone. Placing one hand across victim's breastbone so that the heel of the hand covers the lower part. First Aid
D For a victim who is coughing and gagging, as a result of a partial obstruction of the airway by a foreign body, a potential rescuer should __________. bend the victim over and give back blows encourage the victim to continue coughing. If the victim is unable to expel the object, arrange for prompt transport to an appropriate medical facility wait for the victim to become unconscious then give four back blows followed by four

 abdominal thrusts
immediately give four abdominal thrusts First Aid
C When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct primary and secondary surveys in addition to __________. how to diagnose an illness from symptoms how to set broken bones the limits of your capabilities which medications to prescribe First Aid
D You are making a round of the engine room and approaching the motor driven cargo pumps and discover a person laying at the foot of the ladder. What action should be taken? Immediately enter the area to see if the person is conscious. Leave the scene and continue on your watch rounds. Send the QMED to the area and have him determine if the person appears conscious. Promptly notify the deck watch officer. First Aid
A When administering first aid you should avoid __________. unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty instructing bystanders touching the patient any conversation with the patient First Aid
A The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called __________. triage evaluation surveying prioritizing First Aid
D In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to __________. accurately diagnose the ailment or injury provide the necessary medication prescribe treatment for the victim rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries First Aid
D After an injury, which of the following can be determined by examining the condition of a victim's pupils? The degree of vision impairment. Whether or not the victim's blood pressure is normal. The degree of pain being suffered. Whether or not the brain is functioning properly. First Aid
A If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________. avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance during movement pull the victim by the feet place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal not move the victim to another location until all injuries have been assessed First Aid
A Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim? Compare the corresponding parts of the body. Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body. Look for discoloration of the patient's skin. Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body. First Aid
A While you are fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment one of your shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and ceases breathing. Your FIRST response should be to __________. remove him from the compartment begin artificial respiration control the bleeding treat for shock First Aid
D You have found a person laying prone and not breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim. Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do? Leave the accident scene and summon medical assistance. Immediately begin artificial respiration. Immediately begin cardiac massage. Shut off power or remove the wire from the victim. First Aid
D Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of __________. drowning poisoning electrocution All of the above. First Aid
D If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is __________. ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation switch to mouth-to-mouth ventilation pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume mouth-to-mouth

 ventilation
turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume CPR First Aid
D The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________. holding the jaw down firmly keeping the head elevated cupping a hand around the patient's mouth applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth First Aid
D When administering mouth to mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute? 8 4 20 12 First Aid
C In any major personal injury, first aid is to include the treatment of the injury and what additional treatment? Removal of any foreign objects Application of CPR Treatment for traumatic shock Administration of oxygen First Aid
D Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock? Have the injured person lie down. Keep the patient warm, but not hot. Relieve the pain of the injury. Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation. First Aid
A Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a person in shock? Cold and damp Warm and dry Cold and dry Warm and damp First Aid
A When treating a person for shock, you should wrap the victim in warm coverings to __________. preserve present body heat protect the person from injury during transportation avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic movement decrease body heat First Aid
C If there is no head injury, extreme physical discomfort or difficulty in breathing, a patient in shock should be placed in which of the positions listed? Arms above the head Head up and feet down Flat on back with feet raised 12 to 18 inches Flat on back with head and feet at the same level First Aid
B Which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock? weak pulse at wrist or neck respiration is weak or has stopped flushed face All of the above. First Aid
D A person reports to you with a fishhook in their thumb. The accepted procedure for removing it should be to __________. cut the skin from around the hook pull it out with pliers have a surgeon remove it push the barb through, cut it off, and then remove the hook First Aid
A First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________. stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops First Aid
B A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________. pull it out with pliers push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook have a surgeon remove it cut the skin from around the hook First Aid
B A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________. pull it out with pliers push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook have a surgeon remove it cut the skin from around the hook First Aid
B What type of wound is generally associated with a scraping away of the skin and may be very painful? Incision Abrasion Contusion Laceration First Aid
D What type of wound is most susceptible to a tetanus (lockjaw) infection? Abrasion Incision Laceration Puncture First Aid
C A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding only __________. with puncture wounds to prevent bleeding from minor wounds when all other means have failed when the victim is unconscious First Aid
C What method of controlling severe bleeding is preferred and normally attempted first? Use of a tourniquet Direct pressure applied to wound with elevation Direct pressure applied to wound Pressure applied to pressure points First Aid
B A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. Which of the following actions should be taken next? Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting. First Aid
C In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by __________. applying a tourniquet cooling the wound with ice applying direct pressure submerging the wound in lukewarm water First Aid
C Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________. heavy application of a disinfectant pinching the wound closed applying direct pressure to the wound pouring ice water directly into the wound First Aid
A In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by __________. applying direct pressure to the wound applying a tourniquet submerging the wound in lukewarm water cooling the wound with ice First Aid
C Antiseptics are used principally to __________. reduce inflammation increase blood circulation prevent infection promote healing First Aid
D What is the characteristic of the blood flow associated with arterial bleeding? Dark red blood flowing from the wound with a steady flow. Bright red blood flowing from the wound with a steady flow. Dark red blood flowing from the wound in spurts. Bright red blood flowing from the wound in spurts. First Aid
A A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn? Third degree burn Lethal burn Second degree burn Dermal burn First Aid
D In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal burns it is important to prevent or reduce __________. asphyxia infection disfigurement pain First Aid
B A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by __________. laying the person flat on his back gently flooding with water warming the eye with moist warm packs mineral oil drops directly on the eye First Aid
C Severe airway burns will cause __________. nausea reddening of cheeks complete obstruction of respiratory passages nosebleed First Aid
C The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________. apply an ice pack to the burned area wrap the burn with sterile dressing flood the affected area with water apply ointment to burned area First Aid
D Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to __________. brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area flood the burn with water for two minutes apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility First Aid
D If a patient has an electrical burn, you would check for breathing, pulse, and __________. remove any dirt or charred skin from the burned area apply alcohol to the burn area and wrap with clean cloth locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for five minutes look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current leaving the body First Aid
B If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased breathing, you should __________. administer oxygen immediately start CPR make the victim comfortable in a bunk immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary First Aid
C If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling a battery, they should FIRST wash the eye with __________. boric acid solution baking soda solution water ammonia First Aid
C If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not embedded, you can __________. remove it with a piece of dry sterilized cotton rag get him to rub his eye until the object is gone remove it with a moist cotton-tipped applicator remove it with a match or toothpick First Aid
D A crew member has suffered possible frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________. warm the feet at room temperature rub the feet to restore circulation warm the feet with a heat lamp immerse the feet in warm water First Aid
D A crew member has suffered possible frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________. warm the feet at room temperature rub the feet to restore circulation warm the feet with a heat lamp immerse the feet in warm water First Aid
C Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred temperature of rewarming when using the wet rapid rewarming method? Immersing the feet in an adequate amount of water maintained between 34oF to 37.6oF. Immersing the feet in an adequate amount of water maintained between 94oF to 97.6oF. Immersing the feet in an adequate amount of water maintained between 104oF to 107.6oF. Immersing the feet in an adequate amount of water maintained between 144oF to 147.6oF. First Aid
B Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred method of rewarming? Rubbing and massaging the feet. Immersion of the feet in water between 104oF to 107.6oF. Exposure of the feet to an open flame or fire. Having the patient walk. First Aid
B Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________. placing patient in a tub of cold water moving to a shaded area and laying down bathing with rubbing alcohol All of the above. First Aid
B What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion? Flushed, dry, hot skin Pale, clammy skin with profuse sweating Flushed, clammy skin with minimal sweating Pale, dry, hot skin First Aid
A In addition to moving the victim to a shaded area, placing the victim in a prone position and loosening any tight clothing, what treatment should be administered? The patient should be given sips of cool water salted with one teaspoon per glass at a rate of 1/2 glass every 15 minutes for one hour. The patient should be given sips of unsalted cool water at a rate of 1/2 glass every 15 minutes for one hour. The patient should be forced to drink large amounts of cool water salted with one teaspoon per glass within 5 minutes. The patient should be forced to drink large amounts of unsalted cool water within 5 minutes. First Aid
A While working in a hot engine room, what is the cause of heat exhaustion? Loss of water and salt due to excessive sweating and inadequate water and salt intake. Loss of water only due to excessive sweating despite adequate water intake. Loss of water and salt due to excessive sweating despite adequate water and salt intake. Loss of water only due to excessive sweating and inadequate water intake. First Aid
C While working in a hot engine room, what is your best protection against heat exhaustion? Drinking plenty of pure water with no additives. Taking supplemental salt tablets with minimal water intake. Drinking plenty of a commercial beverage consisting of water, salt, and carbohydrates. Drinking plenty of caffeinated beverages such as iced tea. First Aid
D Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke? cold and moist skin, high body temperature cold and dry skin, low body temperature hot and moist skin, high body temperature hot and dry skin, high body temperature First Aid
B Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke? Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, and skin is clammy. Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, and skin is hot and dry. Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, and skin is cold and clammy. Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, and skin is clammy. First Aid
D Which of the following heat related illnesses would be considered the most life threatening? Heat cramps Heat prostration Heat exhaustion Heat stroke First Aid
B In which of the following heat related illnesses has the body lost its ability to regulate the body core temperature? Heat prostration Heat stroke Heat exhaustion Heat cramps First Aid
C In which of the following heat related illnesses has the individual lost the ability to lose heat through the mechanism of sweating? Heat cramps Heat exhaustion Heat stroke Heat prostration First Aid
B What strategy for avoiding heat exhaustion is most likely to result in more severe pain as associated with heat cramps? Drinking insufficient water and taking in insufficient salt to replace that lost during profuse sweating. Drinking excessive water lost during profuse sweating without replacing the salt lost. Taking in excessive salt lost during profuse sweating without replacing the water lost. Drinking excessive water and taking in excessive salt to replace that lost during profuse sweating. First Aid
B Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water can __________. be the best thing to try if there was no rescue in sight increase the rate of heat loss from the body not affect the heat loss from the body increase survival time in the water First Aid
D The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________. running or jumping to create heat lying in the sun mouth-to-mouth resuscitation a warm water bath First Aid
D Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm, soapy water or warm salt water to __________. neutralize the poison in the blood increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison absorb the poison from the blood induce vomiting First Aid
A What is the alarm signal for a fire emergency or fire drill onboard a merchant ship? Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds. Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 3 seconds. General alarm sounded 3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle. A succession of more than 6 short blasts followed by 1 long blast of the whistle supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm. General Safety
B If you hear a CO2 activated alarm warning you to evacuate the engine room, how much time do you have to evacuate before the CO2 gas is released into the engine room? 10 seconds 20 seconds 60 seconds 90 seconds General Safety
C What is the alarm signal for dismissal from a fire emergency or fire drill onboard a merchant ship? Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds. Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 3 seconds. General alarm sounded 3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle. A succession of more than 6 short blasts followed by 1 long blast of the whistle supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm. General Safety
C What is the alarm signal for dismissal from a boat station or boat drill onboard a merchant ship? Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds. Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 3 seconds. 3 short blasts of the whistle. A succession of more than 6 short blasts followed by 1 long blast of the whistle supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm. General Safety
A What is the whistle signal for lowering boats? 1 short blast of the whistle. 2 short blasts of the whistle. 3 short blasts of the whistle. Continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds. General Safety
A What is the purpose of depressing the button on the handle of a sound-powered telephone handset? The button must be depressed to speak and to listen. The button is depressed to ring the remote station. The button must be depressed to listen, but not to speak. The button must be depressed in order to speak, but not to listen. General Safety
B When conversing over a sound-powered telephone circuit, the words "yes" and "no" should be avoided. What are appropriate substitutes? "Yes" should be substituted by "OK" or suitable equivalent. "No" should be substituted by "nope" or equivalent. "Yes" should be substituted by "affirmative" or suitable equivalent. "No" should be substituted by "negative" or equivalent. "Yes" should be substituted by "yessiree" or suitable equivalent. "No" should be substituted by "nosiree" or equivalent. "Yes" should be substituted by "yeah" or suitable equivalent. "No" should be substituted by "nah" or equivalent. General Safety
B If you wish to initiate a station-to-station call over a sound-powered telephone circuit, what is the correct procedure? Select the station you wish to call with the rotary selector switch, depress the button on the handset, and listen for your party to answer the call. Select the station you wish to call with the rotary selector switch, turn the hand-crank a few revolutions, depress the button on the handset, and listen for your party to answer the call. Select the station you are calling from with the rotary selector switch, turn the hand-crank a few revolutions, depress the button on the handset, and listen for your party to answer the call. Select the station you wish to call with the rotary selector switch, turn the hand-crank a few revolutions, and listen for your party to answer the call. General Safety
A By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which __________. have a flash point of 80°F or higher are highly volatile with a flash point of 0°F give off flammable vapors at or below 80°F spontaneously ignite Hazardous Materials
A By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is __________. gasoline caustic potash kerosene animal and vegetable oils Hazardous Materials
D An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the __________. cargo handling rooms barrier spaces boiler burner supply piping All of the above. Hazardous Materials
B Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________. inert the barrier spaces calibrate the gas leak detectors odorize the cargo detect leaks in cargo piping Hazardous Materials
B Petroleum vapors are dangerous __________. only if the oxygen concentration is below 16 percent at all times due to their toxicity only if the source of the vapor is above its flash point only if the vapor is between the upper and lower explosive limit Hazardous Materials
D Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products? Fire Explosion Asphyxiation All of the above. Hazardous Materials
D Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark? Placing an insulating flange or a section of nonconducting hose in the hose setup. Using a cargo hose with a built in electrical bonding wire. Connecting a bonding wire between the shore side piping and the vessel. All of the above. Hazardous Materials
D Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark? Placing an insulating flange or a section of non-conducting hose in the hose setup. Using a cargo hose with a built in electrical bonding wire. Connecting a bonding wire between the shore side piping and the vessel. All of the above. Hazardous Materials
C When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________. on the windward side of the opening on the leeward side of the opening at a right angle to the wind direction so that the obstruction of your body will protect you from the fumes Hazardous Materials
B The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________. odorless heavier than air lighter than air nontoxic Hazardous Materials
D Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________. D liquid A liquid B liquid E liquid Hazardous Materials
B What term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazard? Moderate toxicity High toxicity Recommended toxicity Low toxicity Hazardous Materials
A A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________. Material Safety Data Sheet Hazardous Chemical Information Sheet Hazardous Chemical Loading Document Physical/Chemical Characteristics Document Hazardous Materials
A Which health hazard term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body tissue on contact? Cryogenic Freeze hazard Cyanosis Freon hazard Hazardous Materials
A A Crude Oil Wash (COW) system is considered as __________. a Butterworth system using crude oil instead of water as the cleaning medium a mechanism which filters and purifies crude oil a water operated Butterworth system a cleanup for pump room bilges Hazardous Materials
A A Crude Oil Wash (COW) system is considered as __________. a Butterworth system using crude oil instead of water as the cleaning medium a mechanism which filters and purifies crude oil a water operated Butterworth system a cleanup for pump room bilges Hazardous Materials
D In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be __________. gas free full of cargo opened to the atmosphere for ventilation inerted Hazardous Materials
C Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________. a higher temperature a higher pressure jet the solvent effect of the crude oil none of the above. Hazardous Materials
A The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________. scrubber cooler filter purifier Hazardous Materials
D How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces. De-energizes the "charged mist" effect. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit. Hazardous Materials
A The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to __________. supply conditioned gas with reduced oxygen content produce 100% oxygen free gas generate a high oxygen content gas produce a gas of 100% pure nitrogen Hazardous Materials
C When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be __________. close the deck isolating valve close the flue gas isolating valve secure the salt water supply to the scrubber secure the inert gas blower Hazardous Materials
A What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge? The tanks which are safe to enter when the certificate was issued. The quality of the barge's cargo. The barge's stability information. The number of fire extinguishers required onboard. Hazardous Materials
D If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free, __________. breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as you would only be in the tank a short time a man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather, as vapors are less volatile entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank since petroleum

 vapors are heavier than air
breathing apparatus should always be used Hazardous Materials
B A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________. all flammable liquids flammable or toxic gases residues from cargo oil any combustible liquid Hazardous Materials
D If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be __________. inerted filled with water gas freed All of the above. Hazardous Materials
D A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is __________. free of most flammable gas concentrations thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours free of all dangerous concentrations of flammable or toxic gases Hazardous Materials
B An electrically "charged mist" will be found in a __________. flash evaporator flash chamber cargo tank during Butterworthing diesel engine cylinder fuel tank vent outlet Hazardous Materials
B "Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the __________. inert gas scrubber fire main potable water supply mucking supply system Hazardous Materials
C When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when __________. the hose has been partially drained a sailor is standing by the machine the machine is not inside the tank the machine is inside the tank Hazardous Materials
B As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________. decrease increase remain the same none of the above Pollution Control and Prevention
B A ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the __________. sounding tube to either side of the tank top of the sounding tube down to the surface of the liquid top of the tank down to the bottom of the tank top of the liquid down to the tank bottom Pollution Control and Prevention
A During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the __________. person in charge master chief engineer terminal operator Pollution Control and Prevention
B When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________. remove plugs from scuppers and wash fuel overboard with water use absorbent material, such as sawdust, to clean up the spill remove plugs from scuppers and wash the fuel overboard with a solvent remove plugs from scuppers to allow the spill to run overboard and wipe the area dry with rags Pollution Control and Prevention
D Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel? Display a black triangle during daylight hours. Secure all lighting to the main deck. Provide a portable fan to blow away fumes. Prohibit smoking in the area. Pollution Control and Prevention
A When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be __________. drained into drip pans or tanks stowed with their ends open for venting steam cleaned and flushed with hot water blown down with inert gas Pollution Control and Prevention
A To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should __________. reduce the loading rate when topping off fill one tank at a time close the tank filling valves quickly top off all tanks at the same time Pollution Control and Prevention
C During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should __________. secure operations until the exact type of oil is determined make an entry in the oil record book to that effect notify the Coast Guard All of the above. Pollution Control and Prevention
A The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the __________. tanks are being topped off pumping operation is first started system is being lined up hose joints are made up Pollution Control and Prevention
B Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________. regularly emptying all drip pans plugging all scuppers and drains placing floating booms around the ship thoroughly draining all bunkering hoses Pollution Control and Prevention
C The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of __________. chemical dispersants straw booms skimmers Pollution Control and Prevention
C In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal? Mechanical removal Chemical agent removal Absorbent removal None of the above Pollution Control and Prevention
B While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST? Notify the Coast Guard Stop loading Notify terminal superintendent Search the vessel for leaks Pollution Control and Prevention
B Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water? The vessel's Certificate of Inspection The vessel's Oil Transfer Procedures The vessel's Oil Record Book The vessel's International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate Pollution Control and Prevention
A During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed? The designated person in charge The senior able seaman The oiler The tankerman Pollution Control and Prevention
D Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea? The vessel may discharge sewage into the sea, from an approved system which is not comminuted or disinfected, only if the vessel is more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land. The vessel must have an approved sewage plant. The vessel may discharge disinfected and comminuted sewage into the sea, from an

 approved system, only if the vessel is more than three nautical miles from the nearest land.
All of the above. Pollution Control and Prevention
B The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________. barrels, measured in 55 gallon drums cubic meters weight in either kilogram or pounds cubic yards convertible to long tons Pollution Control and Prevention
B To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________. open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves open block valves, then start the cargo pump open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump Pollution Control and Prevention
B Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as __________. segregated ballast dirty ballast crude oil clean ballast Pollution Control and Prevention
D A fire can be extinguished by removing __________. the fuel the heat the oxygen Any of the above. Safety
A Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________. removing the fuel removing the heat interrupting the chain reaction removing the oxygen Safety
D All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________. fuel oxygen heat electricity Safety
C The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________. the accumulation of explosive gases faster cooling of the fire the fire spreading by way of the ventilation system fixed foam systems to be ineffective Safety
D Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire? Nitrogen Hydrogen Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Safety
B The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________. that concentration above which there is just enough flammable vapor to produce an explosion that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an explosion the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion Safety
D It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________. cool the metal below its ignition temperature form a dense coating of smothering steam prevent oxygen from reaching the flames prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat Safety
C In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by __________. Illustration SF-0013 convection radiation conduction impingement Safety
B The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________. conduction convection radiation windage Safety
A In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________. convection conduction radiation ventilation Safety
C To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________. cool the bulkhead around the fire shut off electrical power close all openings to the area remove combustibles from direct exposure Safety
A The air flow depicted in figure 1 of the illustration is an example of which type of ventilation? Illustration SF-0013 Combination. Vertical. Horizontal. Parallel. Safety
D Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal burning liquids flowing into another space heated gases flowing through ventilation systems the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space Safety
D Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition? Aeration Anaerobic decomposition Putrefaction Oxidation Safety
B Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________. powdered aluminum is stowed dry oil soaked rags are stowed in the machine shop dry metal turnings accumulate All of the above. Safety
D To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________. kept in the paint locker kept in nonmetal containers cleaned thoroughly for reuse discarded as soon as possible Safety
B A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire? Class "C" Class "A" Class "B" Class "D" Safety
B A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________. class C class A class D class B Safety
C A fire involving trash and paper waste would be classified as a __________. class C class B class A class D Safety
B A fire that has developed in a pile of rubber gasket material would be classified as a __________. class B class A class C class D Safety
B A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the __________. windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to the fire windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if needed leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying a solid stream of water to wash residual fuel over the side away from the pier leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to protect the monitor operator Safety
D Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B" fire? Dry chemical Foam CO2 All of the above. Safety
A The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________. class B class C class D class A Safety
A Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel? Classes B and C Classes A and B Classes C and D Classes A and D Safety
A To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or __________. dry chemical chemical foam chemically treated saw dust mechanical foam Safety
C When combating a class "C" fire, which of the following dangers may be present? Flooding of the vessel Water damage to machinery not involved in the fire Toxic fumes from burning insulation or electric shock Increased surface area of the burning fluid Safety
B Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire? Susceptible to reflash Electrocution or shock Explosion Deep seated fire Safety
D A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________. diesel oil dunnage electrical insulation magnesium Safety
A A magnesium fire would be classified as a __________. class D class B class A class C Safety
D The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________. in the midships house at the main deck manifold at the vent header in the pump room Safety
D When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________. high carbon steel approved by the Coast Guard fixed with a ferrous cover non-ferrous Safety
B Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by __________. allowing better access in an emergency eliminating potential fuel sources eliminating trip hazards improving personnel qualifications Safety
B Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by __________. allowing better access in an emergency eliminating potential fuel sources eliminating trip hazards improving personnel qualifications Safety
B Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________. drained into a common container after each use returned to the paint locker after each use stowed safely at the work site until work is completed covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources Safety
C A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________. label the fixed firefighting system store paint cans on metal shelves only not allow oily rags to accumulate in the space place a portable fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker Safety
D Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading? Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening. Keeping the duct exterior clean. Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening. Keeping the duct interior clean. Safety
C In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________. work schedule instructions for lowering the survival capsule all emergency signals the time each weekly drill will be held Safety
B The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systems? Illustration SF-0004 Line type pneumatic Fixed temperature Rate-of-rise Combined fixed temperature and rate-of-rise Safety
A In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected __________. to the detecting cabinet to the trouble alarm supervising resistor in parallel in series Safety
D Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________. ionized particles smoke rate of temperature rise All of the above. Safety
D Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________. ionized particles smoke rate of temperature rise All of the above. Safety
D What safety information can be found in the fire control plan that is posted or available in booklet form on your ship? Particulars of the fire detecting system Location of the remote means of stopping fans Location of fire doors All of the above. Safety
C If there was a fire out of control on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat, what fixed extinguishing system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fire? Illustration SF-0044 Drenching Carbon Dioxide Halon Water Safety
B On the illustrated fire control plan of the lower engine room, the arrow between frames 135 and 140 represents what? Illustration SF-0046 Direction of fire main Primary means of escape Secondary means of escape Missing person search pattern Safety
A You are part of a search team and have been told that the last sighting of the wiper was next to the fire pump(s). What is the location of the fire pump(s)? Illustration SF-0046 Machinery space, port side, frame 131 Auxiliary machinery space, starboard side, frame 104 Machinery space, starboard side, frame 123 Machinery space, port side, frame 127 Safety
B When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog __________. has the greatest ability to produce foam has the greatest cooling ability will completely remove toxic fumes from the air will completely remove combustible vapors from the air Safety
C When using foam, a "Class B" fire is extinguished by __________. replacing the fuel cooling the surface smothering the fire All of the above. Safety
B Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent? The agent is less effective than carbon dioxide. Halon extinguishes the fire by a chain breaking reaction. The agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue. The agent is highly toxic as stored in pressurized cylinders. Safety
C Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent? Carbon dioxide should be applied slowly to a large engine room fire. Its total cooling effect is far greater than water. Its smothering effect is excellent for class B fires. Carbon dioxide is corrosive when exposed to fire. Safety
A The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________. its good stability and non-toxicity its excellent cooling ability permanent extinguishment regardless of the reignition sources All of the above. Safety
B Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures? Halon 1211 Foam Carbon dioxide Dry chemical Safety
D Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing equipment? Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering action. The agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue. The agent is highly toxic at normal room temperature. For portable extinguishers, the agent is only available in a 2 pound unit. Safety
B To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would __________. Illustration SF-0008 open valve and pull pin pull pin and open valve pull pin, open valve, and pull up on release lever open valve, pull pin, and pull up on release lever Safety
C Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes __________. inspecting the pressure gauge to ensure the needle is within operating range hydrostatic testing of the cylinder weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the charge discharging, cleaning inside, and recharging Safety
C A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________. if applied in connection with foam to prevent rekindling if applied promptly if attempts to extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed Safety
A In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________. with the squeeze-grip on/off nozzle at the end of the hose with the squeeze grip trigger on top of the container by squeezing the control valve carrying handle by turning the activating handle on the bottom of the container Safety
A Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by __________. replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with powder authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder puncturing the cartridge seal after installation Safety
A Which of the following statements is true concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the illustration? Illustration SF-0006 The agent may be applied in short bursts by opening and closing the squeeze nozzle piece #1. The illustrated extinguisher must never be used in conjunction with water. The initial discharge of the extinguisher should be at close range to scatter the burning material. There is no danger of reflash in using the illustrated extinguisher on a class B fire. Safety
B Which of the listed characteristics applies to a semi-portable CO2 system? Each cylinder must weigh less than 50 pounds. It has a portable hose and nozzle. The cylinders are mounted horizontally. It has distribution piping installed permanently. Safety
D The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________. Illustration SF-0009 Halon 1301 hose reel system CO2 hose reel system light water hose reel system dry chemical hose reel system Safety
A A high velocity fog nozzle will produce the most effective spray pattern when the water pressure is not less than __________. 100 psi (689.4 kPa) 75 psi (517.0 kPa) 35 psi (241.3 kPa) 60 psi (413.6 kPa) Safety
C The all-purpose, or combination nozzle is capable by itself of producing a solid stream of water __________. and low velocity water fog only and high velocity water fog and high and low velocity water fog Safety
C A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________. a locknut a keeper screw a spring-loaded catch water pressure Safety
D Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a __________. barrier against radiant heat smothering agent cooling agent All of the above. Safety
D An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________. dry chemical carbon dioxide Halon 1301 water fog Safety
D Fire hoses located at protected fire stations, must always be __________. open to the air to prevent rot supplied with a smooth bore nozzle capped on the ends for protection connected to the fire hydrant Safety
A When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and __________. a soft-bristled brush paint thinner a wire brush cornstarch Safety
C Which of the following statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members discover a fire? One man report the fire, one man fight the fire, and one man act as a safety observer. One man reports the fire, and the other two men fight the fire. One man reports the fire, one man fights the fire, and one man evacuates and secures the area. All three men fight the fire and report it immediately after it is extinguished. Safety
B If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it __________. will cover less than 25 percent of deck space does not block access to the fire station hydrant will be easily visible from the bridge is not higher than 12 inches above the deck Safety
A You are in compartment "A", shown in the illustration, and suspect a fire in compartment "B". In order to check for and confirm the fire in compartment "B" you should_________. Illustration SF-0005 feel the bulkhead tap the bulkhead open the watertight door move a lighted candle along watertight door seal Safety
D If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of __________. excess hydrogen unburned carbon particles excess nitrogen a lack of oxygen Safety
A The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by __________. quenching and cooling using nonconducting extinguishers blanketing and smothering using a sodium based dry chemical Safety
C What is the purpose of opening the doors and portholes in figure 2 of the illustration? Illustration SF-0013 To keep the hose teams cool. To allow water used to fight the fire to flow out of the superstructure. To allow venting of combustion products from the fire to the atmosphere. To provide airflow around the compartment in the order to contain the fire. Safety
C When fighting a shipboard fire, crew members securing doorways, hatches, and applying cooling water to adjacent decks and bulkheads, while monitoring the spread of heat and smoke, are setting a __________. safety perimeter cooling zone fire boundary buffer zone Safety
B When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________. foam spray low-velocity fog a straight stream of water high-velocity fog Safety
A During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST __________. stop the transfer of cargo prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam apply CO2 on the burning fuel at its source blanket the cargo spill with foam Safety
D In firefighting, the term "protecting exposures" means __________. protecting exposed areas of the superstructure from flames keeping flames from burning at the tank vents protecting fire fighters from direct exposure to the heat of the fire taking measures to prevent the spread of fire from the involved compartment to an adjacent compartment Safety
D Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires? Water fog Dry Chemical Foam CO2 Safety
D You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority? Close the door to the room. Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. Secure power to the washers and dryers. Break out the nearest fire hose. Safety
B When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is __________. preventing saltwater damage to electrical equipment reducing the possibility of electrical shock to personnel preventing a total loss of electrical power eliminating the toxic fumes from burning insulation Safety
D If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should __________. secure power to the cable cut the cable with an insulated cable cutter separate the two ends All of the above. Safety
D The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is for the agent to be __________. easily removable wet flame resistant nonconducting Safety
C A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire you should __________. Illustration SF-0013 only need to set up a hose team to cool the door, then open the door and extinguish the fire using a type B-II extinguisher advance the hose team into the room without any additional preparatory action cool adjoining horizontal and vertical surfaces before opening the door to extinguish the fire keep the door tightly closed until all the oil has been consumed by the fire Safety
A The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use __________. foam directed against the vessel's side dry chemical around the fire water fog over the fire solid water streams directly into the fire Safety
D If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST __________. secure the ventilation secure the generator find a soda acid extinguisher shut off the fuel oil supply Safety
C The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________. easier it is to extinguish less chance there is of reignition harder it is to extinguish easier it is to control Safety
A In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________. secure all sources of fresh air to the tank begin transferring the fuel to other tanks station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls top off the tank to force out all vapors Safety
A In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________. secure all sources of fresh air to the tank begin transferring the fuel to other tanks station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls top off the tank to force out all vapors Safety
A When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should __________. secure the source of gas, then extinguish the fire extinguish the fire, then secure the source of gas use only carbon dioxide use only dry chemical Safety
A In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon dioxide galley range fixed extinguishing systems are automatically activated through the action of a stainless steel cable, spring and a __________. fusible link stack switch thermostat pyrostat Safety
C One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is __________. the loss of stability contamination food with extinguishing agent the igniting of a grease fire in the range hood ventilation system spreading of fire through the engineering space Safety
D While reviewing emergency response plans onboard your vessel, you have questions regarding the response for damage control conditions and the ship's construction, related to mitigating risks from structural damage. Which of the following sources of information would contain what you are looking for? The Safety Of Life At Sea Certificate (SOLAS). The Cargo Ship Safety Certificate. The Hull and Machinery Certificate. The Vessel Stability Booklet. Safety
D Your vessel has just been struck by another vessel. As Chief Engineer, after meeting with the Captain and Chief Mate, you have immediately ordered the vessel specific damage control procedures in the vessel's approved stability booklet to be enacted. Which of the following statements is true? The Certificate of Documentation issued to the vessel will be the primary reference document in order to calculate free surface corrections. The universal station billet assigning crew member responsibilities will provide adequate reference information to determine the adequate damage control response. The Safety Management System will provide an IMO standard response for all collision response procedures, including damage control. The vessel general arrangement plan would be a critical reference document for your response providing accurate data showing watertight compartments, closures, vents and down flooding angles. Safety
A Wooden shoring, with a cross-sectional dimension of 4" X 4" should not be longer than __________. 10 feet 20 feet 8 feet 16 feet Safety
A Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoring? Illustration SF-0016 A B C D Safety
C The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following statements is correct for the this condition? Illustration SF-0018 Shore "A" will not slip under load. Shore "A" will support the greatest load. Shore "B" will support the load without it cracking. Shore "B" will crack at the pointed end. Safety
A While maneuvering up the East River your vessel runs aground. As the Chief Engineer of the vessel how would you proceed? Sound all fuel oil tanks and inspect the engine room bilges and void spaces. Switch the salt water cooling suction to the low sea suction. Wait until the vessel docks to sound the fuel oil tanks. Call your Port Engineer. Safety
D Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________. waiting for the vessel to list checking fuel oil strainers examining tank boundaries sounding the tank Safety
D Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel tank level has increased. You therefore should suspect __________. condensation in the fuel tank contamination from the saltwater flushing system a load of bad fuel a crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank Safety
D You are on a vessel with a 30' mean draft. While maneuvering away from the dock at slow-speed the vessel grounds near the bow area on hard sand. In order to achieve an additional three foot of trim by the stern, you need to shift ballast from the forepeak, which is full, to the after peak, which is empty. Your ballast pump for this operation has a capacity of 85 tons per hour. How much tonnage needs to be shifted and how long should it take? 9 tons shifted from the forepeak to the after peak in 0h 7m. 143 tons shifted from the forepeak to the after peak in 1h 41m. 1333 tons shifted from the forepeak to the after peak in 15h 41m. The tons to shift for a 36" trim exceeds the tank capacity. Safety
B It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges __________. will work loose tend to open the crack will splinter will pull through the plating Safety
C An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________. drill holes at each end shore up the crack with welded braces apply a patch of sheet packing backed by a strong back or shoring tack weld a doubler plate over the crack Safety
D The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________. collapsing developing free surface moments developing free surfaces filling completely Safety
D In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted __________. at the vertical center of the bulkhead at a point that is one-third from the bottom of the bulkhead along the top of the bulkhead along the bottom of any bulkhead Safety
C Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________. evacuating the engine room transferring reserve feed water pumping out flooded compartments dumping fuel oil Safety
C Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________. open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level open the watertight door and take a quick look Safety
D In a compartment that has been completely flooded, the greatest pressure will be exerted __________. along the top of any bulkhead on the overhead of the compartment at the center of all bulkheads along the bottom of any bulkhead Safety
C Your vessel has been damaged in a grounding and one compartment has partially flooded. As a result, you have lost buoyancy. If transverse stability in the flooded condition is poor or negative, every effort should be made to reduce the free surface and to lower the center of gravity. Which of the following should you ensure is maintained? Ballast is maintained in the pre-grounding state. A GM that is at least neutral -G moved down to be at M. As much reserve buoyancy as possible. A no list condition. Safety
D A fire can be extinguished by removing __________. the heat the fuel the oxygen Any of the above. Safety
B The air flow depicted in figure 1 of the illustration is an example of which type of ventilation? Illustration SF-0013 Vertical. Combination. Horizontal. Parallel. Safety
A Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________. removing the fuel removing the heat interrupting the chain reaction removing the oxygen Safety
D All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________. fuel oxygen heat electricity Safety
C The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________. the accumulation of explosive gases faster cooling of the fire the fire spreading by way of the ventilation system fixed foam systems to be ineffective Safety
D Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire? Nitrogen Hydrogen Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Safety
B A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true? The tank is safe to enter. The tank is especially dangerous to enter. Carbon monoxide is present. Water vapor present when the tank was sealed has oxidized. Safety
C Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air? 10 (%) 15.8 (%) 20.8 (%) 25.8 (%) Safety
B The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________. that concentration above which there is just enough flammable vapor to produce an explosion that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an explosion the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion Safety
D It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________. cool the metal below its ignition temperature form a dense coating of smothering steam prevent oxygen from reaching the flames prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat Safety
D In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by __________. Illustration SF-0013 impingement radiation convection conduction Safety
B The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________. conduction convection radiation windage Safety
A In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________. convection conduction radiation ventilation Safety
C To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________. cool the bulkhead around the fire shut off electrical power close all openings to the area remove combustibles from direct exposure Safety
D Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal burning liquids flowing into another space heated gases flowing through ventilation systems the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space Safety
D Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition? Aeration Anaerobic decomposition Putrefaction Oxidation Safety
A The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________. spontaneous combustion radiation ignition chemical ignition chemical combustion Safety
B Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________. dry metal turnings accumulate oil soaked rags are stowed in the machine shop powdered aluminum is stowed dry All of the above. Safety
A To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________. discarded as soon as possible cleaned thoroughly for reuse kept in the paint locker kept in nonmetal containers Safety
B A fire in a pile of canvas would be classified as a __________. class C class A class B class D Safety
A If the items shown in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class __________. Illustration SF-0001 "A" "D" "B" "C" Safety
D Burning wood is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire? Class B Class C Class D Class A Safety
A You are conducting training on fire fighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized by the burning of ordinary combustible materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water, or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance? Type A Type C Type B Type D Safety
B A Type A fire has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your fire teams expect to find at the scene? Electrical equipment where the use of nonconducting extinguishing agent is of first importance Ordinary combustible materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water, or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance Metals Flammable liquids, greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential Safety
B A fire in the paint locker would probably be __________. Class D Class B Class A Class C Safety
D A galley grease fire would be classified as __________. Class A Class C Class D Class B Safety
B Burning diesel oil should be treated as which class of fire? Class "D" Class "B" Class "A" Class "C" Safety
D You are conducting training on firefighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized by the burning of flammable liquids, greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential? Type A Type C Type D Type B Safety
A A Type B fire has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your fire teams expect to find at the scene? Flammable liquids, greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential Electrical equipment where the use of nonconducting extinguishing agent is of first importance Metals Ordinary combustible materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water, or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance Safety
C A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, is considered a __________. class "B" fire class "A" fire class "C" fire class "D" fire Safety
D Class C fires may be combated using a __________. Halon extinguisher carbon dioxide extinguisher dry chemical extinguisher All of the above. Safety
C Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire? Deep seated fire Explosion Electrocution or shock Susceptible to reflash Safety
A You are conducting training on firefighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized by the burning of electrical equipment where the use of nonconducting extinguishing agent is of first importance? Type C Type B Type D Type A Safety
A A Type C fire has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your fire teams expect to find at the scene? Electrical equipment where the use of nonconducting extinguishing agent is of first importance Flammable liquids, greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential Metals Ordinary combustible materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water, or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance Safety
C A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________. electrical insulation dunnage magnesium diesel oil Safety
B A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class __________. "C" fire "D" fire "B" fire "A" fire Safety
D A magnesium fire would be classified as a __________. class A class C class B class D Safety
C "Dry Powder" fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire? Class B Class C Class D All of the above. Safety
D The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________. in the midships house at the main deck manifold at the vent header in the pump room Safety
B When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________. approved by the Coast Guard non-ferrous high carbon steel fixed with a ferrous cover Safety
B Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by __________. allowing better access in an emergency eliminating potential fuel sources eliminating trip hazards improving personnel qualifications Safety
B Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________. covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources returned to the paint locker after each use stowed safely at the work site until work is completed drained into a common container after each use Safety
C A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________. label the fixed firefighting system store paint cans on metal shelves only not allow oily rags to accumulate in the space place a portable fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker Safety
B Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading? Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening. Keeping the duct interior clean. Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening. Keeping the duct exterior clean. Safety
B In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________. instructions for lowering the survival capsule all emergency signals work schedule the time each weekly drill will be held Safety
C You are reviewing emergency procedures with new crew members. How would you direct them to proceed if they hear the fire and emergency signal on the ship's general alarm or whistle? Report to the Bridge and wait further instructions. Report to their state room and wait further instructions. Report to their assigned duty station as posted on the Station Bill, so an accurate muster can be taken. Report directly to the scene of the emergency to help. Safety
D As Chief Engineer, you are discussing with a new Third Engineer the methods of fighting an engine room fire. You ask the junior engineer to explain how to proceed in the event of an engine room fire when you cannot gain entry to the control room. Which of the following should be included in the junior engineer's response? Open the steam smothering to the main engine. Secure the ventilation and allow the fire to burn itself out. Immediately dump the fixed CO2 system without securing the ventilation. Secure the fuel pumps and ventilation from the emergency station outside the engine room. Safety
B As Chief Engineer, you are discussing fire safety with a new unlicensed crew member. What would you expect the crew member to know having been onboard the vessel for two days? The starting procedures for the ship's fire pump. Ship's signals for fire and emergency and abandon ship. The procedures to secure the fire detection system. The release procedures for the low pressure CO2 system. Safety
B As Chief Engineer, you are discussing fire safety with a new unlicensed crew member. What would you expect the crew member to know having been onboard the vessel for two days? The starting procedures for the ship's fire pump. Ship's signals for fire and emergency and abandon ship. The procedures to secure the fire detection system. The release procedures for the low-pressure CO2 system. Safety
C Your ship is leaving port after almost a complete crew change out. The captain has ordered a fire drill simulating a fire in the engine room with full emergency gear and all hoses run out. What is the reason for drilling with this kind of simulation? It provides a quick method to inventory all of the fire fighting gear. The World Health Organization requires crews to get regular exercise in the form of fire drills. This ensures that your crew is prepared to combat a ship board fire using ship's equipment. Regulations require a full fire drill when more than half the crew changes out. Safety
C How would you ensure that your crew is prepared to combat a shipboard fire using ship's equipment? Have them read a fire fighting text book. Check training records, to see if crew members have attended a fire fighting training course. Conduct required drills, simulating fire conditions and training with ship's equipment. Show crew generic fire training videos. Safety
A The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systems? Illustration SF-0004 Fixed temperature Line type pneumatic Combined fixed temperature and rate-of-rise Rate-of-rise Safety
D In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected __________. in parallel to the trouble alarm supervising resistor in series to the detecting cabinet Safety
D Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________. ionized particles smoke rate of temperature rise All of the above. Safety
D In preparation for an extended yard period, you are reviewing your ship's plans. You notice several bulkheads are labeled A60. What is indicated by the label A60? Materials meeting construction yard specification A60. Damage stability bulkhead, A Class, with bulkhead strength that will limit flooding for 60 minutes. Fire division boundary, A Class, with insulation that will limit temperature rise below the allowable level for 60 seconds. Fire division boundary, A Class, with insulation that will limit temperature rise below the allowable level for 60 minutes. Safety
D On the illustrated fire control plan, what emergency equipment is located in the scullery? Illustration SF-0045 Fixed water extinguishing system Fire alarm pull-box Gaylord system release valve Heat detector Safety
A You are part of a team to overhaul a fire that was just extinguished in the crew lounge. Where is the nearest fire axe to break apart the furniture? Illustration SF-0045 Starboard side, frame 132 Starboard side, frame 123 Midships, frame 123 Port side, frame 132 Safety
C You are being directed to a fire in the lower engine room, portside, frame 127. What machinery is found in that exact location? Illustration D038SA Lube oil purifier Generator Bilge pumps Emergency fire pumps Safety
C In reviewing ship drawings with a new junior office you note that some divisional bulkheads are labeled A60. In the discussion with the junior officer, what should be noted is indicated by the label A60? Fire division boundary, A Class, with insulation that will limit temperature rise below the allowable level for 60 seconds. Damage stability bulkhead, A Class, with bulkhead strength that will limit flooding for 60 minutes. Fire division boundary, A Class, with insulation that will limit temperature rise below the allowable level for 60 minutes. Materials meeting construction yard specification A60. Safety
D During repairs it is necessary to replace existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate the bulkhead is A60. "A" indicates which of the following? "A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 30 minutes when subjected to a fire test "A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 15 minutes when subjected to a fire test "A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 120 minutes when subjected to a fire test "A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 60 minutes when subjected to a fire test Safety
B During repairs it is necessary to replace an existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate it is a "B" class bulkhead. This indicates which of the following? "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 60 minutes when subjected to a fire test. "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 30 minutes when subjected to a fire test. "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 120 minutes when subjected to a fire test. "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 15 minutes when subjected to a fire test. Safety
B Drawings of your deck plans show the use of A60 bulkheads. "A" indicates which of the following? "A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 15 minutes when subjected to a fire test "A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 60 minutes when subjected to a fire test "A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 120 minutes when subjected to a fire test "A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 30 minutes when subjected to a fire test Safety
D Drawings of your ship indicate the use of "B" class bulkheads. The "B" indicates which of the following? "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 60 minutes when subjected to a fire test. "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 15 minutes when subjected to a fire test. "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 120 minutes when subjected to a fire test. "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 30 minutes when subjected to a fire test. Safety
C The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is __________. steam smothering flue gas water carbon dioxide Safety
B When an oil fire has been extinguished, the surface of the oil should be kept covered with foam to prevent __________. spontaneous combustion below the oil surface air from contacting the oil vapors permitting reignition toxic fumes from escaping to the surface boiling of the heated oil Safety
D The principle personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is __________. skin irritation displacement of oxygen eye irritation produced immediately after discharge from cylinder inhaling toxic vapors produced when exposed directly to a flame for extended periods Safety
D One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is __________. the CO2 gas is lighter than air and a large amount is required to extinguish a fire near the deck rapid dissipation of the CO2 vapor the 'snow' which is sometimes discharged along with the gas is toxic prolonged exposure to high concentrations of CO2 gas causes suffocation Safety
B Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires? Water fog CO2 Dry Chemical Foam Safety
A During onboard training with your engineers you review the various firefighting agents available for use onboard a ship. Which of the following statements describes carbon dioxide as an extinguishing agent? Carbon dioxide may be applied through a fixed or semi-fixed system, or from a portable extinguisher. It is useful for inserting a compartment or for putting out small local fires. Carbon dioxide is produced by a special foam nozzle or by a fixed system. It is used to form a blanket over the surface of burning liquids. It is effective only with liquids which are not appreciably soluble in water. Carbon dioxide is a sodium or potassium bicarbonate or monosodium phosphate solution, usually applied from a semi-fixed or portable extinguisher. Carbon dioxide is a finely divided mist produced by either a high or low velocity fog nozzle. It is used for knocking down flames and cooling hot surfaces. Safety
A A three inch overboard discharge line, located six feet below the waterline, has ruptured and separated from the hull. What would be the minimum number of strokes per minute required from a 10" x 8" x 12" duplex double acting reciprocating bilge pump, operating at 96% efficiency, to keep the bilge water level from continuing to rise? Illustration SF-0034 87 strokes per minute 56 strokes per minute 98 strokes per minute 45 strokes per minute Safety
A Your chemical tanker was built to the IBC Code and has foam as the main firefighting medium. During one of your safety meetings you review the properties of foam as an extinguishing agent. Which of the following is a correct statement that would be appropriate to share during the meeting? Foam will blanket the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen but it does not provide the best cooling protection for the firefighters. Foam will blanket the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen and it also provides excellent cooling protection for the firefighters. Foam will blanket the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen and is therefore perfectly suited to A, B and C class fires. Foam will blanket the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen but it does generate toxic vapors that may harm the firefighters. Safety
A To activate a foam type portable fire extinguisher, you must __________. turn the extinguisher upside down pull the pin and squeeze the grips pump the hand lever for pressure strike the bottom of the extinguisher against the deck Safety
B The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its over pressurization is called a __________. relief valve rupture disc control head safety valve Safety
C Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility? Water (cartridge-operated) Dry chemical (cartridge-operated) Carbon dioxide Water (pump tank) Safety
A If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers? CO2 Foam Dry chemical Soda acid Safety
A The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by __________. visual inspection of the pressure gage removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical weighing the CO2 cartridge weighing the cylinder Safety
D Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher aboard ship would include ensuring that the __________. pressure gage is within the operating range recharge of weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of charge cartridge weight is not less than 1/4 ounce of weight stamped on cartridge powder is not caked and there is a full charge Safety
A During an inspection of a ships storeroom, you find sealed containers of chemicals labeled "potassium bicarbonate" and "potassium chloride". These chemicals are most commonly used aboard ship for __________. recharging dry chemical fire extinguishers degreasing machinery parts engine jacket water treatment descalling evaporator tubes Safety
D Which of the listed methods is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher? Approach the fire from the windward side. Direct the extinguisher discharge at the base of the fire. Move the discharge stream back and forth in a rapid sweeping motion. All of the above. Safety
A Which of the listed characteristics applies to a semi-portable CO2 system? It has a portable hose and nozzle. The cylinders are mounted horizontally. It has distribution piping installed permanently. Each cylinder must weigh less than 50 pounds. Safety
D The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________. Illustration SF-0009 Halon 1301 hose reel system CO2 hose reel system light water hose reel system dry chemical hose reel system Safety
D A low velocity fog applicator is held in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________. a keeper screw water pressure a locknut a spring-loaded catch Safety
B As a general rule of thumb, with no adverse wind conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach from a fire hose having a nozzle pressure of 100 psi? 50 feet 100 feet 150 feet 200 feet Safety
A The physical difference of the water spray patterns developed by the high velocity tip and low velocity applicator is due to __________. the method of breaking up the water stream the type of fire being fought the capacity of the fire pump a difference in water pressure Safety
D Water applied as a 'fog' can be more effective than water applied as a 'solid stream', because __________. it reduces the total amount of water that must be pumped into the ship to fight a given fire a given amount of water can absorb more heat when it is in the form of fog it does not have to hit the seat of fire to be effective of all of the above Safety
D Properly stowed fire hose is either faked or rolled into a rack with the __________. male and female ends connected together to prevent damage female end available to be quickly connected to the hydrant male end attached to the adjacent fire hydrant nozzle end arranged to be easily run out to the fire Safety
C If a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle shut off, the fire hose will __________. lash about violently become elongated by 125% remain motionless burst under pressure Safety
A There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure? Friction in the piping and valves Wear in the hydrant Leaky pilot valve Leaky pump suction valve Safety
C While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single 'wye' gate attached to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle __________. at the base of the "Y" in either direction at the base of the "Y" counter-clockwise 180° on each leg of the "Y" 90° on each leg of the "Y" 180° Safety
C The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________. instantaneously extinguish the fire which triggered it protect people in the areas which have had sprinkler heads installed limit the spread of the fire and control the amount of heat produced alert the crew to the fire Safety
D Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the __________. fuel supply only exhaust ventilation only mechanical and natural ventilation supply and exhaust ventilation Safety
D What would be a major consequence of allowing the refrigeration system of a low pressure fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system to remain inoperable? The warmed charge of CO2 would not be effective in extinguishing a fire. Excessive condensation inside the tank would freeze causing a restriction in the discharge piping. Liquid CO2 would overflow from the tank through the drain line as the temperature increased. The entire charge may eventually be lost due to CO2 boil-off venting through the relief valve. Safety
B Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible? To keep the fire from spreading through the bulkheads. Updraft from the fire tends to carry the CO2 away. Carbon dioxide takes a long time to disperse to all portions of a space. The fire may warp the CO2 piping. Safety
A During vessel familiarization, you find the vessel you are newly assigned to as Chief Engineer has a high pressure CO2 system for the engine room. In what way are the high pressure CO2 bottle released in the event of an engine room fire? The master cylinder sends gas to the actuators on all bottles in the affected banks. The bottles are released individually. The pull wire releases all bottles in the banks. The smoke detection system automatically releases CO2 to the engine room. Safety
B In discussing with a new junior officer the provisions aboard the vessel for shore side firefighters to connect into the vessel's fire main, what item should be included in the discussion? The vessel's skin valve connection. The vessel's international shore connection. The vessel's bunker port connection. The vessel's fire pump discharge flange. Safety
D You are the engineer on a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons with a periodically unattended machinery space. A fire has been reported in the engine room and you cannot make entry into the space. How would you direct the Emergency Squad Team Leader to charge the fire main? Start the Engine Room Fire Pump from the Bridge. Start the Emergency Fire Pump remotely from the Chief Mate's office. Start the Engine Room Fire Pump from the Chief Engineer's office. Start the Emergency Fire Pump remotely from the Bridge or Emergency Gear Locker. Safety
D Your ship has a low pressure carbon dioxide system that covers the engine room. Fire has been reported in the engine room and the decision has been made to dump the carbon dioxide system into the engine room. While following the procedures to release carbon dioxide you find one engine room supply fan damper that will not close. How should you proceed? Continue the release procedures and dump the carbon dioxide, after the release then try to seal the fan damper opening. Continue the release procedures and dump the carbon dioxide with the damper still open. Cover the fan damper opening with burlap bags to slow the flow of air into the engine room and then continue with the release procedures. Cover the fan damper opening with a plastic tarp to stop the flow of air into the engine room and then continue with the release procedures. Safety
B As Chief Engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage, you have just activated the CO2 release handle for the engine room to extinguish a fire. How would you direct the emergency team to reenter the engine room? Have the team wait two hours, then, with the team dressed in fire fighting gear and SCBA, approach the engine room door. Crack the door open and advance, if no fire is detected. Wait until there are no signs of smoke or heat, then, with the team dressed in fire fighting gear and SCBA, approach the engine room door. Crack the door open with a charged fire hose at the ready and advance, if no fire is detected. Wait until there are no signs of smoke or heat have the team dressed in fire fighting gear and approach the engine room door. Crack the door open and advance, if no fire is detected. Have the team wait two hours and crack the door open with a charged fire hose at the ready and advance, if no fire is detected. Safety
B As the senior engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage, you have just activated the CO2 release handle for the engine room to extinguish a fire. How would you direct the emergency team to re-enter the engine room? Have the team wait two hours, then, with the team dressed in firefighting gear and SCBA, approach the engine room door. Crack the door open and advance, if no fire is detected. Wait until there are no signs of smoke or heat, then, with the team dressed in firefighting gear and SCBA, approach the engine room door. Crack the door open with a charged fire hose at the ready and advance, if no fire is detected. Wait until there are no signs of smoke or heat have the team dressed in firefighting gear and approach the engine room door. Crack the door open and advance, if no fire is detected. Have the team wait two hours and crack the door open with a charged fire hose at the ready and advance, if no fire is detected. Safety
B While in the engine control room you smell smoke and see it coming from the vent in the main switchboard panel. Which of the many different types of extinguishers, if any, are required to be in that space and why would it be best suited to extinguish this class of fire? A fixed CO2 system as it will smother the fire while limiting the clean up and damage to the area around the fire. A portable CO2 extinguisher as it will smother the fire while limiting the clean up and damage to the area around the fire. A portable dry chemical extinguisher, as it the most common type of portable extinguisher found onboard ships. No portable extinguisher is required in the engine control room. Safety
A An oil fire is reported in the purifier room bilge. How would you combat this fire? Direct aqueous film forming foam off the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down or bounce off method to extinguish the fire. With water using a low velocity fog applicator to extinguish the fire. Direct a dry powder extinguisher at the base of the fire and discharge the powder in a sweeping motion to extinguish the fire. Direct aqueous film forming foam in a straight stream into the fuel to extinguish the fire. Safety
D When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is __________. preventing a total loss of electrical power eliminating the toxic fumes from burning insulation preventing saltwater damage to electrical equipment reducing the possibility of electrical shock to personnel Safety
A The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is for the agent to be __________. nonconducting wet flame resistant easily removable Safety
D If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should __________. separate the two ends secure power to the cable cut the cable with an insulated cable cutter All of the above. Safety
C The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________. easier it is to control less chance there is of reignition harder it is to extinguish easier it is to extinguish Safety
D As an engineer on a tanker of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage, how would you direct the fire team to combat a large cargo space fire? Use the fixed carbon dioxide system to extinguish the fire. Open the ullage caps and lower the level in tanks adjacent to the tank on fire. Use the inert gas system to extinguish the fire. Use fixed water and foam systems to extinguish the fire. Safety
B As Chief Engineer, how would you instruct a new Third Assistant Engineer to use the fire fighting apparatus illustrated to fight an oil fire at the bunker station? Illustration SF-0020 This piece of firefighting equipment cannot be use to extinguish an oil fire. Direct aqueous film forming foam off the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down or bounce off method to extinguish the fire. Direct water off the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down or bounce off method to extinguish the fire. Direct aqueous film forming foam in a straight stream into the fuel to extinguish the fire. Safety
B As the senior engineer onboard a vessel, how would you instruct a new engineer to use the firefighting apparatus illustrated to fight an oil fire at the bunker station? Illustration SF-0020 This piece of firefighting equipment cannot be used to extinguish an oil fire. Direct aqueous film forming foam off the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down or bounce off method to extinguish the fire. Direct water off the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down or bounce off method to extinguish the fire. Direct aqueous film forming foam in a straight stream into the fuel to extinguish the fire. Safety
A In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________. secure all sources of fresh air to the tank station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls top off the tank to force out all vapors begin transferring the fuel to other tanks Safety
D When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should __________. use only carbon dioxide extinguish the fire, then secure the source of gas use only dry chemical secure the source of gas, then extinguish the fire Safety
A As Chief Engineer sailing aboard chemical tankers you frequently review the best practices regarding fire fighting during safety meetings. Which of the following would align with industry best practice regarding the use of water in extinguishing chemical fires? Water is best used for cooling of the chemical itself as well as surrounding areas. Water is best applied from opposing directions to ensure maximum effectiveness. Water is best applied to the chemical fire in a solid stream in order to maximize effectiveness. Water is best applied in spray form to smother the chemical fire. Safety
C Your vessel is carrying a cargo of Methyl Ethyl Ketone (MEK), which has caught fire. Which extinguishing agents should be used? Carbon dioxide, dry chemical, or water foam. Carbon dioxide, dry chemical, or water fog. Carbon dioxide, dry chemical, or alcohol foam. Water fog, dry chemical, or alcohol foam. Safety
B Your vessel is carrying a cargo of Propionitrile, which has caught fire. Which extinguishing agents should be used? Alcohol foam, water fog, or dry chemical. Alcohol foam, carbon dioxide or dry chemical. Water fog, carbon dioxide or dry chemical. Alcohol foam, carbon dioxide, or water fog. Safety
B Your vessel is carrying a cargo of Ethyl methacrylate, which has caught fire. Which extinguishing agents should be used? Water, dry chemical or chemical foam. Carbon dioxide, dry chemical or chemical foam. Carbon dioxide, dry chemical, or alcohol foam. Water fog, dry chemical or chemical foam. Safety
C One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is __________. the loss of stability spreading of fire through the engineering space the igniting of a grease fire in the range hood ventilation system contamination food with extinguishing agent Safety
A In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon dioxide galley range fixed extinguishing systems are automatically activated through the action of a stainless steel cable, spring and a __________. fusible link stack switch thermostat pyrostat Safety
A A fire has been reported in the ship's galley, as Chief Engineer you direct the team leader of the #2 emergency squad to secure ventilation to the space. What would your next command be to the emergency team leader, before they can actually start extinguishing the fire? Have electrical power secured to the galley. Prepare the lifeboat to abandon ship. Start the emergency generator. Prepare extra portable fire extinguishers. Safety
A As team leader of the ship's No.2 emergency squad, you have just informed the bridge that the fire in the galley has been extinguished. What would you instruct your squad to do next? Set a reflash watch in the Galley. Send them to coffee. Refill any SCBA bottles used during the fire. Restock the emergency locker; replacing any equipment used during the fire. Safety
C As First Engineer you are the senior engineering officer in Emergency Squad #1. The fire alarm sounds and you report to the muster station where the Bridge informs you smoke has been reported coming from the ship's laundry room. What should your first action be? Charge the ship's fire main Start boundary cooling the area. Secure power and ventilation to the laundry room and inform the Bridge once this is done. Help dress out other crew members in fireman's outfit. Safety
A As team leader of the #2 emergency squad you arrive at the scene of a fire in the Bosun's store room on the weather deck. How would you proceed to fight this fire? First, size up the fire situation before committing crew members and equipment and then relay accurate information to the Bridge. Open the store room door before any boundary cooling is done to determine what is burning. Pull the fixed fire suppressant system that covers the Bosun Store room to extinguish the fire. Immediately start boundary cooling the adjacent compartment. Safety
B A fire has been reported in the ship's laundry room. As Chief Engineer you direct the team leader of the #1 emergency squad to secure ventilation to the space. What would your next command be to the emergency team leader, before they can actually start extinguishing the fire?
o
Prepare extra fire hoses. Have electrical power secured to the laundry room. A lock-out tag should be placed on the breaker or switch stating the circuit has been de-energized, to protect crew members from electrical shock. Prepare extra portable fire extinguishers. Prepare the lifeboats to abandon ship. Safety
D You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority? Close the door to the room. Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. Secure power to the washers and dryers. Break out the nearest fire hose. Safety
A While in port working cargo a fire is reported on the forward car deck. The Captain sounds the general alarm, the crew musters and starts fighting the fire. As Chief Engineer you inform the Captain that shore side fire fighting assistance needs to be called, how would you proceed? Continue fighting the fire and use the ship's Fire Control Plan and coordinate with shore side fire fighters upon their arrival to extinguish the fire. Stop firefighting efforts and wait until the shore side fire fighters arrive. Continue fighting the fire and use the ship's SOLAS manual and coordinate with shore side fire fighters to extinguish the fire. Continue fighting the fire and use the ship's SOPEP plan and coordinate with shore side fire fighters to extinguish the fire. Safety
D You are the Chief Engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage. While in port working cargo a fire is reported in the engine room. Shore side fire fighting assistance has been requested. How would you proceed? Evacuate the ship and leave the fighting of the fire to the shore side fire fighters. Use the ship's SOPEP plan and coordinate with shore side fire fighters to extinguish the fire. Use the ship's SOLAS manual and coordinate with shore side fire fighters to extinguish the fire. Use the ship's Fire Control Plan and coordinate with shore side fire fighters to extinguish the fire. Safety
D The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use __________. dry chemical around the fire water fog over the fire solid water streams directly into the fire foam directed against the vessel's side Safety
C In the event of a vessel fire in port, shore side firefighters can find details on vessel's fire control plans in which of the following locations? A watertight enclosure located on the bridge wing. A watertight enclosure located at the lifeboats. A watertight enclosure located outside the accommodations. With the vessel agent. Safety
A Your vessel is traveling on an international voyage. Regarding the assistance of shore side fire fighters to combat a vessel fire while in port, what document, if any, is required, and where would it be located? Fire Control Plan; permanently stored in a prominently marked weather tight enclosure outside the deck house. International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate located in the Captain's office. Minimum Safe Manning Certificate located on the Bridge. No document required. Safety
A Your vessel has two fire pumps and a low pressure CO2 system, which protect the cargo holds and the engine room. A fire is reported on the #3 car deck aft hold. The emergency teams are on air. The first team reports from the forward end of the #3 car deck that there is heavy black smoke coming from the aft end of the hold and there is very limited visibility. They also report they cannot see any flames from their location. The second emergency team reports paint burning and blistering on the hull in the area of #3 car deck aft, as seen from the weather deck. How would you combat this fire? Pull all crew members out of the cargo holds and start boundary cooling from the weather deck with fire hoses. Simultaneously start the procedure to release CO2 into the zone that is on fire. Recommend to the Captain to abandon ship. Boundary cool from the weather deck with fire hoses and use cargo fans to exhaust the smoke. Have the fire team's advance into the aft end of #3 hold with fire hoses to locate and extinguish the fire. Safety
A Your vessel has two fire pumps and a low pressure CO2 system, which protect the cargo, holds and the engine room. A fire is reported on the #3 car deck aft hold. The emergency teams are on air. The first team reports from the forward end of the #3 car deck that there is heavy black smoke coming from the aft end of the hold and there is very limited visibility. They also report they cannot see any flames from their location. The second emergency team reports paint burning and blistering on the hull in the area of #3 car deck aft, as seen from the weather deck. How would you combat this fire? Pull all crew members out of the cargo holds and start boundary cooling from the weather deck with fire hoses. Simultaneously start the procedure to release CO2 into the zone that is on fire. Recommend to the Captain to abandon ship. Boundary cool from the weather deck with fire hoses and use cargo fans to exhaust the smoke. Have the fire teams advance into the aft end of #3 hold with fire hoses to locate and extinguish the fire. Safety
A As Chief Engineer or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "transverse" stability? Roll Pitch Sway Surge Safety
B Your vessel was damaged in a collision and one compartment has partially flooded. The vessel has free communication with the sea with water flowing in and out as the vessel rolls. Which of the following is the most important factor contributing to free communication loss of stability? Depth from the bottom of the damaged compartment to the waterline. Distance from the vessel centerline to the centerline of the damaged compartment. Breadth of the damaged compartment affected. Whether or not the damaged compartment on the opposite side of the vessel is full or empty. Safety
B As Chief Engineer or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "positional motion" stability? Surge Heave Sway Pitch Safety
C As Chief Engineer or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "longitudinal" stability? Surge Heave Pitch Yaw Safety
D As Chief Engineer or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "lateral motion" stability? Surge Heave Yaw Sway Safety
A As Chief Engineer or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "motion ahead and astern" stability? Surge Heave Yaw Pitch Safety
C By what method is the final light ship weight, longitudinal and vertical centers of gravity of a vessel, and final assignment of the load lines determined? By relying on calculations based on ballasting a light vessel to full load displacement. By relying on naval architectural design calculations. By relying on resultant calculations from an inclining experiment. By actually shifting ballast horizontally and longitudinally and relying on resultant calculations. Safety
A As Chief Engineer of an oceangoing passenger vessel, it is important to know the effect of trim and stability of your ship in the event of damage to a compartment. To minimize the impact of flooding in the event of a grounding, what should be your ship's safe practice regarding watertight doors and hatches? All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept closed during navigation except when necessarily opened for working of the vessel, and in such cases they shall always be ready to be immediately closed. All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept open during normal operation, except during adverse weather when they shall be closed. All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept open during navigation to facilitate crew movement and in all cases they shall always be ready to be immediately closed. All watertight doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept closed when the vessel is anchored except when necessarily opened for working of the vessel, and in such cases they shall always be ready to be immediately closed. Safety
D As Chief Engineer you should understand the fundamental principles of ship construction and theory and factors affecting trim and stability, including the concept of loll and its cause. An angle of loll is commonly caused by which of the following conditions? An off-center weight. Free surface with G remaining below M. High external force such as wind and current. A negative GM. Safety
D As Chief Engineer you should understand the concept of loll and its cause. An angle of loll is commonly caused by which of the following conditions? An off-center weight. Free surface with G remaining below M. High external force such as wind and current. A negative GM. Safety
B Your ship is working cargo in port when a hydraulic hose ruptures on the weather deck and oil spills into the harbor. Once the source of the oil spill has been secured, how would you proceed? Refer to Oil Record Book for directions. Follow the procedures outlined in the vessel's Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan (SOPEP) manual. Follow the procedures outlined in the vessel's SOLAS manual. Refer to the ship's Fuel Oil T ransfer Procedures for directions. Safety
C IMO Resolution A167, 1968, Res. No. 749(18) 3.1 (1995, amended 1999), and section 2.2 in the 2008 IS Code, sets the general criterion for vessels of more than 100 meters in length. Your vessel is covered by this regulation. In review of your vessels stability data, after refueling you notice that the GM of the vessel is less than the required 0.15 meters. What should you instruct the 2nd engineer to do with the fuel just received? Transfer the fuel to raise the ship's KG and ignore the free surface effect. Transfer the fuel to increase the free surface effect and raise the ship's KG. Transfer the fuel to lower the ship's KG and minimize the free surface effect. Do nothing because the minimum GM required in 0.1meters. Safety
A After refueling your vessel you notice that the GM of the vessel is less than the required 0.15 meters. What do you do? Transfer the fuel to lower the ship's KG and minimize the free surface effect. Transfer the fuel to increase the free surface effect and raise the ship's KG. Transfer the fuel to raise the ship's KG and ignore the free surface effect. Do nothing because the minimum GM required in 0.1meters. Safety
D Many uninspected motor vessels require load lines. For the purpose of the Load Line Regulations, the term 'surveyor' means __________. any person from the Coast Guard who performs duties with respect to the inspection, enforcement, and administration of Title 52 of the revised statute an officer of the Coast Guard designated by the Commandant to command all Coast Guard activities within his district any person from the Coast Guard who is in charge of a marine inspection zone any person designated by the American Bureau of Shipping who actually examines the vessel Safety
C After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________. decrease increase remain the constant change, depending on the location of the LCG Safety
D The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________. tonnage freeboard reserve buoyancy draft Safety
B The symbol shown in the illustration and used as a reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured, is item number_______. Illustration SF-0022 5 2 4 3 Safety
D The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________. metacentric height height of the metacenter above the keel height of the center of buoyancy above the keel height of the center of gravity above the keel Safety
C A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the __________. reserve buoyancy increases freeboard is increased tanks are ballasted trim is increased Safety
A With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________. original vertical centerline center of flotation longitudinal centerline metacenter Safety
D As chief engineer you should understand the concept of corrective measures and their purpose. The following four actions will have which affect on the vessel?
{{{
1) Add weight low and symmetrically about the centerline.
2) Remove high weight symmetrically.
3) Move weight down symmetrically.
4) Eliminate any free surface present.}}}
To correct for the trim of a vessel to achieve parallel sinkage. To correct for the trim of a vessel to achieve a desired trim by the head. To minimize the righting moment a vessel has thereby increasing her stability. To move the center of gravity down to a position below the metacenter and remove an angle of loll. Safety
A As Chief Engineer your vessel has been damaged and one compartment has partially flooded. The vessel has free communication with the sea with water flowing in and out as the vessel rolls. The most important factor contributing to free communication loss of stability is which of the following? Distance from the vessel centerline to the centerline of the wing tank. Whether or not the wing tank on the other side of the vessel is full or empty. Breadth of the wing tank affected. Depth from the bottom of the tank to the waterline. Safety
A Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy? KB CB BM BK Safety
B The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________. effort buoyancy gravity flotation Safety
D The center of volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the __________. center of gravity metacentric height center of flotation center of buoyancy Safety
C When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the __________. increased free surface in the buoyant wedge upward movement of the center of flotation movement of the center of buoyancy toward the low side of the vessel movement of the center of gravity Safety
B As Chief Engineer your vessel has been damaged and one compartment has partially flooded. You understand that you have lost buoyancy and have added weights. If transverse stability in the flooded condition is poor or negative, every effort should be made to reduce the free surface and to lower the center of gravity. Of main importance is for you to assure which of the following is maintained? A no list condition. As much reserve buoyancy as possible. A GM that is at least neutral -G moved down to be at M. Transfer water from ballast tanks to the opposite side of the damage. Safety
D The difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by a transverse shift in weight is called __________. trim squat flotation list Safety
B Your vessel is loading cargo and you are monitoring the stability and trim. Currently, the Longitudinal Center of Buoyancy (LCB) is vertically aligned and below the Longitudinal Center of Gravity (LCG). The Longitudinal Center of Flotation (LCF) is aft of both of these. How is the vessel trimming? Trim by the bow about the LCF. Vessel trims level. Trim by the bow about the LCB. Trim by the stern about the LCF. Safety
D For a vessel with a block coefficient of 1, the addition of weight at the center of flotation will __________. increase the forward draft and decrease the after draft decrease the forward draft and increase the after draft have no effect on the stability have no effect on the trim Safety
A The difference between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called __________. heel trim list flotation Safety
B The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after a change in load has occurred is known as __________. change of draft change of trim trim final trim Safety
D If a vessel initially has no list and no significant trim, which of the developments shown in the illustration will result in the greatest list? Illustration SF-0025 B C A D Safety
C If your vessel has a starboard list after taking on fuel, you would transfer fuel __________. aft to starboard to port forward Safety
B As an engineer, you should be familiar with the conditions that will cause a vessel to transversely incline, list, or trim. Which of the following conditions causes a vessel to trim? Off center weight. Fore and aft shift of G. Combination of off center weight and a negative GM. Negative GM. Safety
B While serving as Chief Engineer on a partially loaded container ship the vessel is involved in a collision. An empty starboard side wing tank becomes open to the sea and the ship takes a starboard list. After investigating the damage it is found that no other adjoining tanks are open to the sea. What action should be recommended to ensure the ship maintains an even keel position? Ballast a starboard wing while checking the free surface effect. Ballast a port wing and check the free surface effect for both damaged and intact tanks. Discharge ballast from a port wing while checking the free surface effect. Discharge ballast from a center line double bottom tank to increase the vessels GM and give her more stability. Safety
C Adverse effects due to free surface will result when __________. the vessel's draft is decreased exposing more surface area to the wind and current the vessel's draft is increased, thus increasing the vessel's wetted surface area a portion of liquid is removed from a full tank the vessel is trimmed by the stern Safety
C A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Which of the listed conditions would develop the greatest adverse effect? Tanks which have been pressed up to full capacity. Tanks which are 95% full. Tanks which are 40% full. Tanks which have been completely emptied. Safety
C Reducing the free surfaces within a vessel, reduces the __________. waterplane area uncorrected height of the center of gravity natural roll period metacentric height Safety
D The factor contributing to the greatest effect on the ship's period of roll is the __________. moment to trim 1 inch (MT1) virtual rise in the center of gravity Vertical position of KB vertical weight distribution Safety
C You can generally improve the vessel's stability in a hazardous situation by __________. pumping double bottoms to the forepeak transferring ballast athwartships ballasting appropriate port or starboard deep tanks deballasting double bottoms Safety
D A ballast tank is one-third full when additional ballast is added until it is two-thirds full. The increased amount of liquid in the tank will have the greatest influence on the __________. free surface effect virtual rise in the center of gravity value of the moment to trim 1 inch (MT1) transverse stability Safety
C A vessel which is subjected to 'sagging' __________. is said to be under a form of transverse bending is supported on a wave whose crest is amidships has its bottom plating under tensile stress has its main deck under tensile stress Safety
A The 2nd assistant engineer has just finished fueling operations. After entering the fuel data into the loading computer you notice a greater than allowable at-sea bending stress. After the chief mate checks the voyage cargo data the vessel still has an excessive at-sea hogging bending stress. As Chief Engineer and after consulting with the Chief Mate, what should your instructions be to reduce the bending moment when ballasting the vessel? Add ballast to a mid ships tank. Add ballast to the fore peak tank. Add ballast to the aft peak tank. Remove ballast from a mid ships tank. Safety
C Following cargo loading operations, your vessel is experiencing an excessive at-sea hogging bending stress as shown in the illustration. What should you do to reduce the bending moment? Illustration SF-0047 Remove ballast from a mid ships tank. Add ballast to the fore peak tank. Add ballast to a mid ships tank. Add ballast to the aft peak tank. Safety
B Following cargo loading operations, your vessel is experiencing an excessive at-sea sagging bending stress as shown in the illustration. What should you do to reduce the bending moment? Illustration SF-0047 Remove ballast from a mid ships tank. Add ballast to the fore peak and aft peak tanks. Remove ballast to the aft peak tank. Add ballast to a mid ships tank. Safety
D Pitching is the rising and falling motion of the bow of a ship oscillating about which axis? Longitudinal Centerline Vertical Transverse Safety
D The motion of a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration affects the governing "transverse" stability? Illustration SF-0048 Sway Surge Pitch Roll Safety
A Yawing is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis? Vertical Longitudinal Centerline Transverse Safety
B The horizontal port or starboard movement of a vessel is called __________. heave sway surge yaw Safety
A The 3rd engineer on watch reports than the ship has an erratic rolling behavior and it does not appear to stabilize at an even keel position. As Chief Engineer, after consultation with the Chief Mate, what instruction would you give him? Add ballast to a center line double bottom tank. Discharge dirty ballast from a center line double bottom tank. Discharge water from the fore peak tank. Add ballast to wing tank to the side of the ship with an angle of list. Safety
D The motion of a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration affects the governing "motion ahead and astern" stability? Illustration SF-0048 Heave Pitch Yaw Surge Safety
D The motion of a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration affects the governing "positional motion" stability? Illustration SF-0048 Surge Sway Pitch Heave Safety
B The motion of a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration affects the governing "longitudinal" stability? Illustration SF-0048 Yaw Pitch Heave Surge Safety
C The motion of a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration affects the governing "directional" stability? Illustration SF-0048 Pitch Sway Yaw Surge Safety
B Reserve buoyancy is the __________. unoccupied space below the waterline volume of intact space above the waterline difference between buoyancy in salt and fresh waters excess of the buoyant force over gravitational force Stability And Trim
C If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________. cause an increase in the righting arm bring the unit to an upright equilibrium position cause the unit to flop to a greater angle increase the righting moment Stability And Trim
C In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________. center of flotation amidships geometric center of the displaced volume metacenter Stability And Trim
B Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________. keel center of buoyancy center of flotation aft perpendicular Stability And Trim
C If additional weight is placed on the main deck of the vessel shown in the illustration __________. Illustration SF-0023 KB will go down GM will increase G will rise K will rise Stability And Trim
B Clogged limber holes can endanger a ship's stability by __________. increasing water area on the keelson preventing water from draining to the bilge well decreasing off center weight preventing the free surface effect Stability And Trim
D Static water pressure on the hull of a ship is greatest at the __________. bow stern boot topping keel Stability And Trim
B What standard mathematical formula is commonly used to calculate a vessels waterplane area for stability purposes? Reynolds Number Rule Simpsons Rule Pythagorean Rule Standard Logarithmic Rule Stability And Trim
C The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water is equal to the __________. displaced submerged volume weight required to sink the vessel total weight of the vessel reserve buoyancy Stability And Trim
D If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter flooding into empty tanks will __________. increase list or trim increase the righting arm increase the righting moment decrease list or trim Stability And Trim
A The symbol shown in the illustration used to represent displacement is __________. Illustration SF-0022 1 2 3 4 Stability And Trim
A Symbol #3, shown in the illustration, represents __________. Illustration SF-0022 amidships baseline forward perpendicular displacement Stability And Trim
A Symbol number "3" shown in the illustration represents which of the following? Illustration SF-0022 amidships baseline forward perpendicular displacement Stability And Trim
B The symbol shown in the illustration and is used as the reference from which transverse measurements are made is __________. Illustration SF-0022 4 5 3 1 Stability And Trim