Deck Safety and Environmental
Protection
|
Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________. |
reduce reserve buoyancy |
increase GM |
increase righting moments |
All of the above. |
|
Reserve buoyancy is the __________. |
volume of intact space above the waterline |
unoccupied space below the waterline |
difference in the buoyant force in salt and fresh waters |
excess of the buoyant force over the gravity force |
|
Reserve buoyancy is the __________. |
the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and
watertight |
also called GM |
the watertight portion of a vessel above the waterline |
affected by the number of transverse watertight bulkheads |
|
Reserve buoyancy is the __________. |
the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and
watertight |
a
measure of metacentric height |
transverse watertight bulkheads |
the watertight part of a vessel above the waterline |
|
Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving
__________. |
bilge pumping capacity |
reserve buoyancy |
instability |
level attitude |
|
Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you
encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating
of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________. |
take a course which most eases the vessel |
reduce speed |
pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel |
All of the above. |
|
You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is
most important concerning the stability of the vessel? |
Removing burned debris from the cargo hold |
Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard |
Shutting off electricity to damaged cables |
Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side |
|
Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when
the flooded space is __________. |
completely flooded |
on the centerline |
off-center |
open to the sea above and below the waterline |
|
Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________. |
length of space only |
length and width of space |
width of space only |
neither length nor width |
|
The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing
__________. |
in and out of a vessel that is holed in a peak tank |
in and out of a vessel that is holed in a wing tank |
from fore to aft in the tanks of a vessel |
from side to side in the tanks of the vessel |
|
The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids
__________. |
flowing in and out of a holed wing tank |
pocketing in a slack tank as a vessel heels |
flowing from side to side within the vessel |
flowing from fore to aft within a vessel |
|
Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank
located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you
could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________. |
reduce the free surface effect and raise the KG |
reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG |
not have any effect on free surface and lower the KG |
not have any effect on free surface and raise the KG |
|
The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded
compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage is known as
__________. |
permeability |
form gain |
one compartment standard |
center of flotation |
|
A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is
pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the
weight, in short tons, of the liquid? |
518.4 short tons |
11.3 short tons |
135.0 short tons |
259.2 short tons |
|
Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you
begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what? |
Remain stationary |
Rise |
Shift to the high side |
Fall |
|
How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the
ground when a vessel has run aground? |
This requires extensive calculation and is usually performed only by a
naval architect not by a ship's officer. |
Determine the point where aground and the draft at that point, then
calculate it using the grounding formula. |
Use the inclining experiment formula and substitute the change of trim
for the angle of list. |
Use the hydrostatic tables and enter with the mean draft before
grounding and the mean draft after grounding. |
|
If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any
weight removals be made from the __________. |
bow |
stern |
mid-section |
All of the above. |
|
Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is a short rolling
period around the angle of list. The port side freeboard is reduced to 1
foot. There is no trim and the weather is calm. You should FIRST
__________. |
press up a slack double bottom tank on the port side |
fill an empty centerline double bottom tank |
jettison the anchors and anchor cables |
pump out a slack marine portable tank located on the portside amidships |
|
A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________. |
decrease in KM is equal to the loss of draft |
virtual rise of G is directly proportional to the remaining draft |
displacement lost acts at the point where the ship is aground |
lost buoyancy method is used to calculate KM, and KB is reduced |
|
With damaged floating vessels, the most important consideration is the
preservation of __________. |
instability |
bilge pumping capacity |
reserve buoyancy |
level attitude |
|
Intact buoyancy is a term used to describe __________. |
the space at which all the vertical upward forces of buoyancy are
considered to be concentrated |
the volume of all intact spaces above the waterline |
an intact space which can be flooded without causing a ship to sink |
an intact space below the surface of a flooded area |
|
To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without
sinking, you could __________. |
lower the center of gravity |
increase reserve buoyancy |
raise the center of gravity |
ballast the vessel |
|
Your vessel has been holed in #1 hold and partially flooded. The hole is
plugged against further flooding. In calculating the effect of the
flooding on your transverse stability, you should use which method? |
Compartment standard method |
Factor of subdivision method |
Added weight method |
Lost buoyancy method |
|
A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________. |
has two compartments in addition to the engine room |
will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded |
has no more than two compartments |
will sink if any two compartments are flooded |
|
If the cause of a sudden severe list is negative initial stability,
counterflooding into empty tanks may __________. |
cause an increase in the righting arm |
increase the righting moment |
cause the vessel to flop to a greater angle |
bring the vessel to an upright equilibrium position |
|
Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is
progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the
effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is
submerged? |
KB increases, increasing BM and therefore GM |
KG increases due to the weight of the added water on deck |
There is no effect on transverse stability. |
BM decreases from loss of water plane and greater volume. |
|
A continual worsening of the list or trim indicates __________. |
structural failure |
an immediate need to ballast |
negative GM |
progressive flooding |
|
Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the
same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the
angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little
freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this
situation? |
Pump out the after peak and fill the forepeak to change the trim. |
Press up any slack double-bottom tanks forward of the tipping center,
then fill the forepeak if empty. |
Jettison any off-center topside weights to lower GM and correct the
list. |
Pump out any slack after double-bottom tanks to reduce free surface and
increase freeboard aft. |
|
During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an
off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list to the opposite side.
You should __________. |
continue counterflooding in the same direction |
continue counterflooding, but in the opposite direction |
immediately stop counterflooding |
deballast from the low side |
|
Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is
short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not
a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the
vessel's stability? |
Shift any off-center weights from port to starboard |
Press up any slack double-bottom tanks to eliminate free surface |
Jettison topside weights to reduce KG and KB |
Flood any empty double-bottom tanks to add weight low and down |
|
You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your
draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard
remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period.
The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which
of the following actions would you take First to correct the situation? |
Pump out flooding water in the cargo holds to reduce free surface. |
Pump out a slack double bottom tank to reduce free surface. |
Flood any empty double bottom tanks to decrease KG. |
Jettison topside weights to increase freeboard. |
|
Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There
is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the
head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take
FIRST? |
Jettison stores out of the paint locker in the fo'c'sle. |
Eliminate the water in the 'tween decks aft. |
Press up the slack NO.1 starboard double bottom tank. |
Pump out the forepeak tank. |
|
Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12° to port
and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll.
Which action should you take FIRST? |
Pump out the forepeak tank |
Press up an after, slack, centerline double bottom tank |
Jettison the anchors and anchor cables |
Jettison deck cargo from the port side |
|
Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim. The rolling period
is short. The freeboard before the damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is
now reduced to 3'00"(1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST? |
Pump out the marine potable tank located on the starboard side amidships |
Transfer ballast from the peak tanks to an amidships centerline tank |
Press up a slack centerline double bottom tank |
Pump out an amidships centerline ballast tank |
|
Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling period is long,
and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action
should you take FIRST? |
Transfer all possible movable weights from port to starboard |
Press up a slack centerline double bottom tank |
Fill an empty double bottom tank on the starboard side |
Pump out ballast from the port and starboard double bottom tanks |
|
Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The
freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very
long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action
would you take FIRST to improve stability? |
Pump out the peak tanks simultaneously. |
Press up a centerline double bottom that is now filled to 15% capacity. |
Rig the jumbo boom and use it to jettison heavy deck cargo. |
In calm seas lower the lifeboats to the water and keep them alongside. |
|
Damage stability is the stability __________. |
after flooding |
which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots |
at the maximum load |
before collision |
|
The stability which remains after a compartment is flooded is called
__________. |
damage stability |
initial stability |
intact stability |
immersion stability |
|
When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________. |
shifts to the low side |
remains the same |
increases |
decreases |
|
You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt
water. Stability may be reduced because of __________. |
increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height |
reduction of KG to the minimum allowable |
reduction of water in the storage tanks |
progressive downflooding |
|
Your vessel was damaged and initially assumed a significant list and
trim; however, further increase has been slow. Based on this data, what
should you expect? |
The vessel will suddenly flop to the same or greater angle of list on
the other side and may capsize. |
The vessel can probably be saved if further flooding can be stopped. |
The slowing is only temporary and the vessel will probably suddenly
capsize or plunge from loss of stability due to change in the waterplane
area. |
The vessel will continue to slowly list and/or trim due to the free
surface effect and free communication effect. |
|
To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should
__________. |
completely flood high center tanks |
ballast double bottom wing tanks |
close any opening to the sea in an off-center tank |
close the cross-connection valve between the off-center tanks |
|
Jettisoning weight from topside __________. |
lowers the center of gravity |
raises the center of buoyancy |
reduces free surface effect |
returns the vessel to an even keel |
|
The volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline is
its __________. |
free surface |
marginal stability |
reserve buoyancy |
freeboard |
|
Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy? |
Rolling period |
Metacentric height |
Righting moment |
Freeboard |
|
Your vessel has run aground and is touching bottom for the first
one-quarter of its length. What is the LEAST desirable method from the
standpoint of stability to decrease the bottom pressure? |
Discharge forward deck cargo. |
Flood an after double-bottom tank. |
Pump out the forepeak tank. |
Shift deck cargo aft. |
|
Your vessel has run hard aground in an area subject to heavy wave
action. Backing full astern failed to free her. Which action should be
taken next? |
Wait for high tide and then try backing. |
Shift weight aft to reduce the forward draft. |
Flood empty tanks to increase bottom pressure and prevent inshore creep. |
Continue backing to scour out the bottom. |
|
Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5
feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is
2500 tons. The virtual rise in the center of gravity is __________. |
1.26 feet |
3.80 feet |
4.80 feet |
5.66 feet |
|
What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's longitudinal strength? |
Damage to the side shell, midway between the bilge and the stringer
plate |
Extensive corrosion to the centerline deck plating |
Grounding damage to the bilge strake, just aft of midships |
Collision damage to the bow, forward of the collision bulkhead |
|
Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________. |
parceling |
parbuckling |
seizing |
caulking |
|
Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the
panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this, you should
__________. |
use jacks or chain falls to remove the set before installing shores |
install shoring so that it pushes on the damaged bulkhead while
supporting it |
place sandbags by the bulkhead without installing shores |
install shoring so the shoring supports the damaged bulkheads without
pushing on them |
|
You must shore up a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead
approximates a rectangle. The center of pressure of the shores on the
bulkhead should be located __________. |
approximately halfway up the bulkhead |
evenly over the surface of the bulkhead |
approximately one-third of the way up the bulkhead |
at the bottom of the bulkhead |
|
You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding forward.
The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. The center of pressure
of the shores on the bulkhead should be located __________. |
evenly over the surface of the bulkhead |
approximately halfway up the bulkhead |
approximately two-thirds of the way up the bulkhead |
at the bottom of the bulkhead |
|
The objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead is to __________. |
make a watertight seal at the damaged area |
withstand subsequent additional damage |
force the warped, bulged, or deformed sections back into place |
support and hold the area in the damaged position |
|
When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to spread the
pressure over the __________. |
nearest longitudinal girder |
nearest watertight door |
minimum possible area |
maximum possible area |
|
Strengthening damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel is called
__________. |
battening |
shoring |
bracing |
blocking |
|
Your vessel has been damaged and you must shore a bulkhead. You should
cut the shore __________. |
approximately 1/2 inch longer than the measured length to allow for
trimming |
to the same length as the measured length |
approximately 1/2 inch shorter than the measured length to allow for
wedges |
approximately 1/2 inch shorter per foot of shoring to allow for wet
expansion |
|
A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented
from increasing in length by __________. |
welding a doubler over the crack |
slot-welding the crack |
cutting a square notch at each end of the crack |
drilling a hole at each end of the crack |
|
Progressive flooding is controlled by securing watertight boundaries and
__________. |
abandoning ship |
jettisoning cargo |
pumping out flooded compartments |
transferring water ballast |
|
What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for
progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged? |
The integrity of the water tight boundaries |
The operation of the machinery space bilge level alarms |
The capacity of the water sprinkler systems |
All of the above. |
|
Which type of hull damage should be repaired FIRST? |
Damage to interior watertight boundaries |
Damage below the waterline |
Damage at or just above the waterline |
Damage in way of machinery rooms |
|
Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces the
threat of __________. |
continued progressive flooding |
wind heel |
capsizing |
free surface effects |
|
Control of flooding should be addressed __________. |
first |
following control of fire |
following restoration of vital services |
only if a threat exists |
|
Progressive flooding may be indicated by __________. |
a
continual worsening of list or trim |
ballast control alarms |
excessive draft |
excessive list or trim |
|
The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________. |
control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage |
control flooding, control fire, repair structural damage |
control fire, restore vital services, control flooding |
restore vital services, control fire, control flooding |
|
After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be
accomplished __________. |
after control of fire, flooding, and structural repairs |
immediately, before the emergency is under control |
after control of fire, but before control of flooding |
after stability is restored |
|
The BEST information on the nature and extent of damage to the vessel is
obtained from __________. |
the bridge watch |
the engine room watch |
alarms and monitoring devices |
personnel at the scene of the damage |
|
A wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent
the tank from __________. |
collapsing |
developing free surface |
developing free surface moment |
filling completely |
|
The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed
if you are going to __________. |
pump from the damaged tank |
fight a fire |
use the crossover system |
abandon ship |
|
The two factors which make underwater hull repair difficult are
accessibility and the __________. |
threat of progressive flooding |
availability of tools |
shape of the hull |
pressure exerted by the water |
|
When patching holes in the hull, pillows, bedding, and other soft
materials can be used as __________. |
strongbacks |
gaskets |
wedges |
shores |
|
When plugging holes below the waterline you should __________. |
eliminate all water entering the hole |
only plug holes in machinery or other vital spaces |
plug the largest holes first |
reduce the entry of water as much as possible |
|
In plugging submerged holes; rags, wedges, and other materials should be
used in conjunction with plugs to __________. |
reduce the water pressure on the hull |
reduce the possibility of stress fractures |
prevent progressive flooding |
reduce the water leaking around the plugs |
|
The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are
to plug the openings or to __________. |
secure power to the compartment |
establish and maintain flooding boundaries |
dewater the compartment |
ballast to maintain even keel |
|
Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do? |
Switch to the high suction for condenser circulating water, if it is
submerged. |
If you cannot get clear immediately, lighten the ship by pumping all
ballast overboard. |
Run the engine full astern to keep from being set further onto the bar. |
All of the above. |
|
Which statement about damage control is TRUE? |
Water flowing over the fo'c'sle bulwark is more dangerous than a hole in
the hull at the waterline. |
Water flowing into a lower compartment on a ship is more dangerous than
water on deck or flowing into an upper compartment. |
The amount of water entering a ship through a hole varies inversely to
the area of the hole. |
A
hole in the hull at the waterline is more dangerous than a hole below
the inner bottom. |
|
Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first step to
be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to __________. |
pump out the water inside the vessel |
establish flooding boundaries and prevent further spread of flood water |
plug the hole(s) in the outer shell |
calculate the free surface effect and lost buoyancy to determine the
vessel's stability |
|
The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent
the tank from __________. |
filling completely |
developing free surfaces |
developing free surface moments |
collapsing |
|
If a vessel takes a sudden, severe list or trim from an unknown cause,
you should FIRST __________. |
determine the cause before taking countermeasures |
assume the cause is environmental forces |
assume the shift is due to off-center loading |
counterflood |
|
Diesel engines are considered safer than gasoline engines because
__________. |
the fuel used is less volatile |
they operate at a lower speed |
they can be easily reversed |
they are more heavily built |
|
The quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or
governor has become stuck open is to __________. |
drain the fuel tank |
apply the shaft brake |
turn off the ignition switch |
close the fuel supply valve |
|
What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel
engine? |
Exhaust pyrometer |
Tachometer |
Jacket water temperature gauge |
Lube oil pressure gauge |
|
A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of __________. |
worn stern bearing or misalignment |
a
tight tail shaft gland |
an engine that is misfiring |
shallow water |
|
During fueling, all doors, hatches, and ports __________. |
should be closed |
to leeward should be opened and the ones to windward should be closed |
should be opened |
to windward should be opened and the ones to leeward should be closed |
|
After an engine is started you should __________. |
check operating pressures and temperatures, and check for leaks |
run the engine at idle until the temperature has increased |
increase engine speed to insure adequate flow of oil to all parts of the
engine |
pay no attention unless there are unusual noises from the engine |
|
Lubricating oil should be changed on a heavy duty diesel engine when
__________. |
it gets dark in color |
a
sample rubbed between fingers feels thin |
it has been in use for a specified interval |
it no longer supports combustion |
|
Generally speaking, the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine
combustion chamber is ignited by __________. |
heat of compression |
a
magneto |
glow plugs |
spark plugs |
|
How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some
time? |
Inject ether into the air intake to shorten warm up time. |
Bring it up to top speed immediately and run until warmed up. |
Idle for a brief period of time and then warm up at half speed. |
Run it at minimum speed until warmed to operating temperature. |
|
How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear? |
Light blue haze |
Perfectly clear |
Light brown haze |
Light gray haze |
|
Each cylinder in a two cycle engine experiences combustion __________. |
every fourth stroke |
once each crankshaft revolution |
every other crankshaft revolution |
twice each crankshaft revolution |
|
What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean? |
Excessive lube oil consumption |
Late fuel injection |
Excess combustion air |
High compression temperature |
|
How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine? |
Turbo chargers |
Cylinder head valves |
Ports |
Bleeder valves |
|
What are the three basic types of engine starters? |
Air, hydraulic, electric |
Air, emergency, hydraulic |
Metered, hydraulic, automatic |
Air, water, electric |
|
Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium? |
Electric starting motors |
Compressed air |
Hydraulics |
Ether |
|
What condition will result in the automatic shutdown of a diesel engine? |
Excessive turbo charger speed |
High lube oil pressure |
High jacket water pressure |
Low lube oil pressure |
|
The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube
oil pressure, and __________. |
high jacket water pressure |
high lube oil pressure |
high jacket water temperature |
low jacket water pressure |
|
If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what
action should be taken? |
Slowly add cool water to the expansion tank |
Back flush the cooling water system |
Allow engine to cool gradually |
Open crankcase explosion covers |
|
Diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or
__________. |
natural aspiration |
air starters |
air receivers |
carburetors |
|
What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine? |
They supply cooling water. |
They regulate the combustion cycle. |
They supply and regulate the lubricant flow. |
They synchronize the ignition spark. |
|
What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine? |
Oil temperature |
Fuel consumption |
Manifold pressure |
Exhaust gas temperature |
|
All marine low-speed diesels are of what design? |
Forced exhaust |
Four-stroke |
Electronic ignition |
Two-stroke |
|
All diesel engines are classified as __________. |
external combustion |
four cycle |
compression ignition |
vacuum ignition |
|
Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause
__________. |
low voltage trip |
excessive exhaust temperatures |
damage to windings |
reverse power trip |
|
Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause __________. |
increased exhaust temperature |
black smoke |
decreased fuel efficiency |
overspeed trip |
|
What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature? |
Foaming of the lubricating oil |
Buildup of sludge in the lubricating system |
Excessive fuel consumption |
Severe heat stresses on mechanical parts |
|
If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, you should
__________. |
secure the starting air supply valve |
pull off the distributor cap |
secure the jacket water |
discharge a CO2 extinguisher in the air inlet |
|
The most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine
jacket water cooling system is that it __________. |
causes corrosion |
can form pockets which block the flow of coolant through the system |
reduces the ability of the system to cool the engine |
accelerates formation of metal plating |
|
The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water
cooling system is that it __________. |
accelerates erosion |
reduces the effectiveness of chromate additives |
can form pockets of high chemical concentrates |
accelerates formation of sludge deposits |
|
The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket
water cooling system is that it __________. |
can form air pockets which exclude coolant contact with hot surfaces |
reduces the effectiveness of the coolant |
accelerates formation of hydrogen peroxide deposits |
causes corrosion |
|
What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled
engine? |
Jacket water treatment |
Low heat of combustion |
Cooling water pressure |
Air flow through the radiator |
|
What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion? |
Diesel fuel costs less than bunker C or its equivalent |
Less fuel consumption per SHP |
Less weight per SHP |
Less routine maintenance required |
|
What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine? |
Increases engine horsepower |
Reduces engine horsepower |
Increases efficiency |
Increases engine life |
|
What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine? |
Air box pressure |
Water temperature |
Water pressure |
Exhaust temperature |
|
A hydraulic accumulator is designed to __________. |
store fluid under pressure |
replenish fluid to a system |
act as a fluid reservoir |
provide overpressure relief |
|
What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system? |
Provides overpressure protection |
Condenses moisture |
Purifies the air |
Acts as an accumulator |
|
The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________. |
takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is attained |
returns the rudder to mid-position when the wheel is released |
synchronizes wheel position with the rudder position |
relieves excessive fluid pressure |
|
In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained
in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of
the __________. |
Rapson slide |
trick wheel |
six-way valve |
follow-up control |
|
All electrical appliances aboard a vessel should be grounded to
__________. |
increase their operating efficiency |
protect personnel from electrical shock |
prevent unauthorized personnel from operating them |
prevent them from falling when the vessel rolls |
|
If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the
vessel's steering can initially be maintained by activating which of the
following units? |
telemotor |
accumulator |
standby pump |
trick wheel |
|
What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the
valve is installed to be in a normally open position? |
Direction is unimportant |
From below the seat |
Depends on seat configuration |
From above the seat |
|
On what type of pump would you find an impeller? |
Piston |
Centrifugal |
Vane |
Gear |
|
What is the purpose of a check valve? |
Permits flow in one direction only |
Passes liquid but not air |
Regulates liquid flow |
Passes air but not liquid |
|
What is the purpose of a vent header? |
Prevents entry of water into vent systems |
Combines individual vent lines into a main |
Prevents passage of flame into fuel tanks |
Catches overflow |
|
Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause
__________. |
damage to windings |
low voltage trip |
excessive exhaust temperatures |
reverse power trip |
|
What causes cavitation in a centrifugal pump? |
Heavy fluid in the flow stream |
Rough impeller surfaces |
Worn wearing rings |
Vapor pockets in the flow stream |
|
What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator? |
Sea water is passed over heated plates in a thin film. |
Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber. |
Sea water is forced through a heated eductor. |
Sea water is heated to boiling temperature under a vacuum. |
|
What prevents water running along the shaft of a leaking centrifugal
pump from entering the shaft bearing? |
Shaft seal |
Drain hole |
Water flinger |
Lantern ring |
|
Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming? |
To overcome resistance of water in the discharge line |
To lubricate shaft seals |
Head pressure must equal discharge pressure |
Lack of ability to lift water level to impellers |
|
In an emergency, the electro-hydraulic steering units can be directly
controlled by the __________. |
rapson slide |
follow-up gear |
trick wheel |
receiver unit |
|
According to the Code of Federal Regulations, which of the following
statements is correct regarding the steering gear on a vessel contracted
for after June 9, 1995? |
On hydraulic type steering gears, a suitable arrangement of check valves
in the main piping system may be considered as a means of steadying the
rudder. |
A
separate auxiliary means of steering is not required where the main gear
is of the dual power hydraulic type, having two independent pumps and
connections. |
Hydraulic structural rudder stops are mandatory. |
All of the above. |
|
Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing
engine should __________. |
have a guard over the gearing |
be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order to call
attention to the gearing |
be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the
operator can immediately stop the machinery |
not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the machinery |
|
Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or boat hoists
should __________. |
have a guard over the gearing |
be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order to call
attention to the gearing |
not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the machinery |
be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the
operator can immediately stop the machinery |
|
Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil
pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________. |
regulating the oil flow with the six-way valve |
moving the automatic differential valve |
varying the angle of a tilting box or eccentricity of a floating ring |
moving the follow up indicator which regulates the six-way valve |
|
Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________. |
with the follow-up gear disconnected |
with both pumps on line at the same time |
with one pump on standby |
only when the rudder is moved amidships |
|
When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed
actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship
equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear? |
The six-way valve aligns itself with the running pump. |
The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion. |
The pumps go to full stroke. |
Both port and starboard cables are energized. |
|
Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked
unless __________. |
a
rudder order is given by the control system |
the manual trick wheel is engaged for steering |
an electric power system failure occurs at the steering gear |
the variable stroke pump is off stroke |
|
What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel? |
Hard rubber |
Bronze bushings |
Wooden (lignum vitae) strips |
Resin bonded composition |
|
What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction? |
Hard rubber |
Lignum vitae |
Oil-lubricated bearings |
Bronze bushings |
|
What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor
windlass? |
Electrical loading |
Compressibility of air |
Mechanical distribution |
Mechanical friction |
|
What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating
air compressor? |
Plugged air cooler |
Faulty unloader |
Leaking air valves |
Carbon on cylinder heads |
|
When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one
engine driving a generator shuts down? |
The running generator's circuit breaker will immediately trip on
overload. |
Both generators will immediately shut down. |
The stalled generator's circuit breaker will trip on reverse power. |
The generator that's still running will motorize. |
|
Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, water is prevented from
entering by means of a __________. |
stop-water |
propeller boss |
seacock |
stuffing box |
|
What power source actuates a solenoid valve? |
Hydraulic pressure |
Air pressure |
Electric current |
Mechanical force |
|
What is the purpose of a striker plate? |
Provides landing surface for the sounding bob |
Prevents valve stem over-travel |
Provides surface for applying force on machinery |
Absorbs machinery vibration |
|
What is the function of wearing rings found on some centrifugal pumps? |
Seal pump shaft against entry of air |
Dampen the turbulent discharge flow |
Absorb erosion of high velocity discharge stream |
Isolate the outlet side from the inlet side |
|
A thrust block is designed to __________. |
transmit the thrust of the engine to the propeller |
absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow |
be placed between the engines and the foundation to absorb the vibration |
transmit the thrust of the propeller to the vessel |
|
What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient
combustion? |
Viscosity |
Specific heat |
Flash point |
Volatility |
|
The brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler is known as
__________. |
the screen wall |
refractory |
fire plate |
the water wall |
|
What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler? |
Receives saturated steam from the generating tubes |
Serves as a reservoir of boiler feed water |
Holds internal fittings for separation of moisture from steam |
Collects steam exhausted from the turbines |
|
A spark arrestor __________. |
grounds static electricity |
secures covers on ullage openings |
keeps sparks from falling into an open tank |
prevents sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust system |
|
One major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam
main-propulsion system is __________. |
a
minimum speed for the engines that limits the minimum speed of the
vessel |
the low efficiency of the system when a controllable pitch propeller is
used |
the extra weight required for the diesel reduction gearing |
the higher fuel consumption per SHP |
|
In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from
the fires of combustion? |
Screen tubes |
Water-wall tubes |
Water drums |
Downcomers |
|
In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the
generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam
increased? |
Firebox |
Mud drum |
Superheater |
Economizer |
|
What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler? |
Collects steam exhausted from the turbines |
Receives saturated steam from the generating tubes |
Serves as a reservoir of boiler feed water |
Holds internal fittings for separation of moisture from steam |
|
What does blowing tubes accomplish? |
Flushes away mineral deposits inside the water tubes |
Eliminates unburned fuel oil residues from the firebox |
Increases boiler efficiency |
Cleans soot deposits from the inside of the stack |
|
What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main
propulsion? |
Cheaper initial installation cost |
Faster response from ahead to astern |
Less fuel consumption |
Less weight per unit of horsepower |
|
Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following
must be checked? |
Exhaust discharge |
Oil level |
Flow of cooling water |
All of the above. |
|
You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. You should FIRST
__________. |
make a temporary repair with canvas or tape |
activate the CO2 system |
start the bilge pump |
close the fuel valve at the tank |
|
Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary
diesel engines requires the use of __________. |
fuel filters |
day tanks |
an injector test stand |
fuel/water separators |
|
Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are __________. |
prohibited |
permitted for drawing fuel samples |
permitted for draining fuel from lines |
permitted for bleeding air from lines |
|
The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length
otherwise __________. |
carbon monoxide may enter the interior of the vessel |
entry of air may cause vapor lock |
the joint gaskets may be blown |
bilge water may enter the exhaust pipe |
|
If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is
generally __________. |
too heavy a load |
a
defective ignition system |
weak valve springs |
low lube oil level |
|
To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should
__________. |
disconnect the wires at the spark plugs and make the spark jump the gap |
break the joint in the fuel line at the engine and let the gas run in
the bilges |
ventilate the space, then check the battery, spark plugs, carburetor,
and fuel line |
prime the engine with ether through spark plug openings |
|
A safe fuel system must __________. |
supply sufficient air to the intake manifold |
have proper air/gasoline fuel mixture ratio |
prevent engine overheating |
be liquid- and vapor-tight |
|
Before any machinery is put in operation, you should __________. |
assume there are no volatile fumes in the engine space |
take for granted that there are no fuel leaks |
just turn the key and start up |
ventilate all compartments, see that the machinery is clean and there
are no obstructions |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel? |
Fuel vapors can only be ignited by an open flame. |
Fuel vapors gather in the lowest portions of the vessel. |
Vent outlets should be located above the level of the carburetor air
intake. |
None of the above |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel? |
They should be vented into the wheelhouse. |
They should be vented into the engine to improve combustion. |
They are lighter than air and will settle in the highest part of the
vessel. |
They are heavier than air and will settle in the lowest part of the
vessel. |
|
The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________. |
in contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark |
from making contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark |
in contact with the fill opening to allow proper venting |
None of the above |
|
Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to
__________. |
check the fuel tank |
check the flame arrester |
check the battery |
ventilate the bilges |
|
Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft
fueling operations? |
All engines, motors, fans, etc. should be shut down when fueling. |
Fuel tanks should be topped off with no room for expansion. |
A
fire extinguisher should be kept nearby. |
All windows, doors, hatches, etc. should be closed. |
|
The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________. |
assist in priming the cylinders |
mix the fuel and air |
properly lubricate the engine |
distribute the gasoline |
|
When fueling has been completed __________. |
the engine should be started immediately to prevent vapor lock in the
fuel line |
all hatches should be opened and all compartments should be ventilated |
the fuel tank fill pipe should be left open to allow vapors to vent from
the tank |
open the fuel line and drain a small amount of gasoline into the bilge
to clear the line of sediment |
|
Gasoline tanks should be filled __________. |
to the top to expel all vapors from the tanks |
with only sufficient fuel for the planned trip so excess gasoline is not
carried |
to near the top with some space allowed for gasoline expansion |
to the top so the operator is certain how much fuel he has aboard |
|
Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to
__________. |
ventilate before starting engine |
start engines immediately |
keep ports, doors, windows, and hatches closed |
None of the above |
|
What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled
engine? |
Low heat of combustion |
Cooling water pressure |
Air flow through the radiator |
Jacket water treatment |
|
Which of the following is one of the most important safety procedures
that should be adhered to prior to starting a gasoline engine on a
motorboat? |
the bilges, cabins, etc. are thoroughly ventilated |
the gasoline tank is full |
you have fresh water on board |
each of the above is followed |
|
A person who observes an individual fall overboard should do which of
the following? |
call for help and keep the individual in sight |
go to the control room for the distress flares |
run to the radio room to send an emergency message |
immediately jump into the water to assist the individual |
|
One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You
should IMMEDIATELY __________. |
apply left rudder |
position your vessel to windward and begin recovery |
throw the crew member a life preserver |
begin backing your engines |
|
On board a vessel, which of the following is the key to the most rapid
and effective response to a man overboard situation? |
good communication |
switching to hydraulic steering |
a
dedicated crew |
good equipment |
|
A person who sees someone fall overboard should __________. |
call for help and keep the individual in sight |
go to the bridge for the distress flares |
immediately jump in the water to assist the individual |
run to the radio room to send an emergency message |
|
If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________. |
throw him/her a life buoy |
pass the word to the bridge |
hail "man overboard" |
All of the above. |
|
A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. Which action
should you take? |
Immediately put the rudder over hard right. |
Immediately put the engines astern. |
Wait until the stern is well clear of the man and then put the rudder
over hard right. |
Immediately put the rudder over hard left. |
|
You are on watch and receive word that a person has fallen overboard
from the starboard side. What should your first action be? |
put the engines full astern |
notify the Master |
put the wheel hard right |
sound the man overboard alarm |
|
The key to rescuing a man overboard is __________. |
good equipment |
well-conducted drills |
good communication |
a
dedicated crew |
|
One major advantage of the round turn maneuver in a man overboard
situation is that it __________. |
is easy for a single-screw vessel to perform |
can be used in reduced visibility |
requires the least shiphandling skills to perform |
is the fastest method |
|
The maneuver which will return your vessel to a person who has fallen
overboard in the shortest time is __________. |
a
single turn with hard rudder |
two 180° turns |
a
Williamson Turn |
engine(s) crash astern, no turn |
|
The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used
ONLY if __________. |
the man is reported missing rather than immediately seen as he falls
overboard |
the conning officer is inexperienced |
a
boat will be used to recover the man |
the vessel is very maneuverable |
|
On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over
which side the person fell, you should __________. |
increase speed to full to get the vessel away from the person |
immediately reverse the engines |
stop the propellers from turning and throw a ring buoy over the side |
first put the rudder hard over in either direction |
|
In a racetrack turn, to recover a man overboard, the vessel is steadied
for the SECOND time after a turn of how many degrees from the original
heading? |
60° |
135° |
180° |
360° |
|
You are using a racetrack turn to recover a man overboard. The vessel is
first steadied when how many degrees away from the original heading? |
60° to 70° |
90° |
135° |
180° |
|
A racetrack turn would be better than a Williamson turn in recovering a
man overboard if __________. |
the man has been missing for a period of time |
the sea water is very cold and the man is visible |
there is thick fog |
the wind was from astern on the original course |
|
You are on watch and see a man fall overboard. Which man overboard turn
should NOT be used in this situation? |
Racetrack |
Scharnow |
Single turn |
Williamson |
|
The Scharnow turn should be used in a man overboard situation only when
__________. |
there has been sufficient time elapsed since the man went over to
complete the maneuver |
the turn is started immediately when the man goes over |
the vessel has twin screws to assist in making the turn |
the man can be kept in sight from the bridge while maneuvering |
|
While you are on watch, you learn that a crewman has not been seen on
board for the past three hours. Which type of turn is best in this
man-overboard situation? |
Scharnow |
Racetrack |
Single turn of 180° |
Round |
|
When making a Scharnow turn, the __________. |
man overboard must be not more than 300 feet astern when starting the
turn |
rudder must be put over towards the side the man went over |
rudder is put hard over and the initial turn is maintained until about
240° from the original course |
initial turn direction is away from the side the man went over |
|
Besides saving distance along the track line, another advantage of the
Scharnow Turn over the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation is
because __________. |
it is faster |
it returns the vessel to the original track line on a reciprocal course |
in fog, if the turn is started as soon as the man goes over, the vessel
will be at the point where he went over when the turn is completed |
it can be used in both the immediate action and the delayed action
situations |
|
In a Williamson turn, the rudder is put over full until the __________. |
emergency turn signal sounds |
vessel has turned 60°From her original course |
vessel has turned 90°From her original course |
vessel is on a reciprocal course |
|
You are doing a Williamson turn. Your vessel has swung about 60° from
the original course heading. You should __________. |
put the rudder amidships and check the swing |
increase to maximum speed |
shift your rudder |
stop the engines and prepare to maneuver to pick up the man in the water |
|
Which statement about the Williamson turn is FALSE? |
It requires the highest degree of shiphandling skills to accomplish. |
It is the slowest of the methods used in turning the vessel. |
It is the best turn to use when the victim is not in sight due to
reduced visibility. |
It returns the vessel to the original track-line on a reciprocal course. |
|
You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and
immediately execute a Williamson turn. What is the primary advantage of
this maneuver under these circumstances? |
The turn enables you to reverse course in the shortest possible time. |
The turn provides the maximum coverage of the area to be searched. |
You will be on a reciprocal course and nearly on the track-line run
during the night. |
You have extra time to maneuver in attempting to close in on the man for
rescue. |
|
Which statement is FALSE, concerning the Williamson turn? |
The initial actions are taken at well defined points and reduce the need
for individual judgment. |
When the turn is completed, the vessel will be on a reciprocal course
and nearly on the original track line. |
In a large vessel (VLCC) much of the headway will be lost thereby
requiring little astern maneuvering. |
The turn will return the vessel to the man's location in the shortest
possible time. |
|
You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your
starboard side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which action is
NOT a part of a Williamson Turn? |
Shift the helm to left full rudder. |
Stop the engines until clear of the man. |
Come right full rudder until the vessel heads 150°T. |
Continue with left rudder until on course 270°T. |
|
While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man
overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make? |
figure eight turn |
Racetrack turn |
Williamson turn |
Round turn |
|
A seaman is reported missing in the morning and was last seen after
coming off the mid-watch. Which type of turn would you use to return to
the track-line steamed during the night? |
Williamson |
Racetrack |
180° turn |
Anderson |
|
You are at sea and have received a General Emergency message announcing
the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the
instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter Eight. Which statement is
TRUE? |
If on a coastwise voyage along the east coast of the U.S., you should
put into the nearest port. |
You should only enter a port in the danger zone during hours of
darkness. |
You should attempt to submit an AMVER report to NSA. |
When over 200 hundred miles from a port in the danger zone, you should
not darken ship. |
|
You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from
it. If your vessel drifts faster than the disabled vessel, how should
you make your approach? |
To windward of the disabled vessel |
To leeward of the disabled vessel |
At three times the drifting speed of the disabled vessel |
Directly astern of the disabled vessel |
|
Your vessel has gone aground in waters where the tide is falling. The
BEST action you can take is to __________. |
shift the vessel's load forward and wait until the next high tide |
shift the vessel's load aft and repeatedly surge the engine(s) astern |
set out a kedge anchor |
slowly bring the engine(s) to full speed astern |
|
When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE? |
Evacuation should be from an area forward of the bridge. |
The vessel should be slowed to bare steerageway. |
The litter should not be touched until it has been grounded. |
If the hoist is at the stern, booms extending aft at the stern should be
cradled with the topping lifts hove taut. |
|
When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be
__________. |
underway with the wind 30° on the bow |
stopped with the wind on the beam |
underway on a course to provide no apparent wind |
stopped with the wind dead ahead |
|
When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the
ship take? |
A
course that will have the hoist area in the lee of the superstructure. |
A
course that will keep a free flow of air, clear of smoke, over the hoist
area. |
Downwind so that the apparent wind is close to nil. |
With the wind dead ahead because the helicopter is more maneuverable
when going into the wind. |
|
When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE? |
The vessel should be stopped with the wind dead ahead during the
hoisting operation. |
Flags should be flown to provide a visual reference as to the direction
of the apparent wind. |
The drop line should be grounded first then secured as close to the
hoist point as possible. |
The hoist area should be located as far aft as possible so the pilot
will have a visual reference while approaching. |
|
You must evacuate a seaman by helicopter lift. Which statement is TRUE? |
The tending line of the litter basket should be secured to the ship
beyond the radius of the helicopter blades. |
The basket or stretcher must not be allowed to touch the deck. |
The ship should be stopped with the wind off the beam while the
helicopter is hovering overhead. |
The hoist line should be slack before the basket or stretcher is hooked
on. |
|
You must medevac a critically injured seaman by helicopter hoist. Which
statement is TRUE? |
The helicopter's drop line should be secured to the ship not more than
15 feet from the hoist position. |
When using a "horse collar", the bight of the loop should be around the
chest of the injured seaman. |
The deck crew at the hoist point should not wear baseball hats. |
The ship's relative wind should be from dead ahead at 10 to 30 knots. |
|
A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least
__________. |
50 feet of clear deck |
6
feet of clear deck |
10 feet of clear deck |
25 feet of clear deck |
|
You are on a 165 foot (50.3 meters) long vessel with a draft of 9 feet
(2.7 meters) and twin screws. Which statement about rescuing a survivor
in the water with ship pickup is TRUE? |
A
pickup off the weather bow gives maximum maneuverability with the least
possibility of injury to the man. |
Ship pick up should never be used with a shallow draft vessel. |
You should stop with the man on your weather beam and twist the ship up
to him. |
You should stop to windward of the man and drift down on him. |
|
You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. You
should approach __________. |
at a speed of at most one-half that of the wrecked vessel |
at a speed of at least that of the wrecked vessel |
to windward of the wrecked vessel |
to leeward of the wrecked vessel |
|
You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a
fresh breeze. For safety reasons a small craft should approach with the
__________. |
victim to leeward |
victim to windward |
wind on your starboard side |
wind on your port side |
|
When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft,
the personnel on the raft should __________. |
inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability |
deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of capsizing |
remove their lifejackets to prepare for the transfer |
take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling |
|
A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a lifeboat. If
the person appears in danger of drowning, the lifeboat should make
__________. |
an approach from leeward |
an approach from windward |
the most direct approach |
an approach across the wind |
|
When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a rescue boat, the other
individuals in the boat should __________. |
remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter |
remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability |
stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted |
enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling |
|
You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an
aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You
should __________. |
turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB |
use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB |
switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode |
use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft
to your raft |
|
When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft,
the personnel on the raft should __________. |
inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability |
deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of the raft
overturning |
take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling |
remove their life preservers to prepare for the transfer |
|
When a man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a
lifeboat, the boat should approach with the wind __________. |
astern and the victim just off the bow |
just off the bow and the victim to windward |
ahead and the victim just off the bow |
just off the bow and the victim to leeward |
|
When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the
other individuals in the boat should __________. |
stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted |
remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability |
enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling |
remove their life preservers to prepare for their transfer to the
helicopter |
|
When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue
vessel, personnel on board the boat should __________. |
climb on top of the boat while waiting for their turn to transfer to the
rescue vessel |
remove their life preservers to make it easier to climb on board the
rescue vessel |
remain seated inside and make the transfer one person at a time |
enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel |
|
When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel,
personnel on board the craft should __________. |
remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one person
at a time |
remove their lifejackets to make it easier to climb on board the rescue
vessel |
enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel |
climb on top of the survival craft while waiting their turn to transfer
to the rescue vessel |
|
When a man who has fallen overboard is being picked up by a rescue boat,
the boat should normally approach with the wind __________. |
astern and the victim just off the bow |
ahead and the victim just off the bow |
just off the bow and the victim to windward |
just off the bow and the victim to leeward |
|
You are picking up a conscious person that has fallen overboard.
Recovery is easier if you approach with the __________. |
wind on your starboard side |
victim to leeward |
wind on your port side |
victim to windward |
|
A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat.
If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be
maneuvered to make_______. |
the most direct approach |
an approach from windward |
an approach across the wind |
an approach from leeward |
|
When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel,
personnel on board the craft should __________. |
climb on top of the survival craft while waiting for their turn to
transfer to the rescue vessel |
enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel |
remove their life preservers to make it easier to climb on board the
rescue vessel |
remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one person
at a time |
|
You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water.
You should inflate your life jacket __________. |
upon entering the helicopter |
after exiting clear of the helicopter |
prior to reaching the water |
after reaching the water, but prior to exiting the helicopter |
|
You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people
in the water. Which statement is TRUE? |
You should stop to windward of the survivors in the water and only use
the ship's boats to recover the survivors. |
If the survivors are in inflatable rafts you should approach from
windward to create a lee for the survivors. |
An inflatable liferaft secured alongside can be an effective boarding
station for transfer of survivors from the boats. |
Survivors in the water should never be permitted alongside due to the
possibility of injury from the vessel. |
|
The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to __________. |
smother fire with foam |
cool fuel below ignition temperature |
remove oxygen from the area |
smother with CO2 |
|
The main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire is
that it __________. |
washes the fire away |
breaks up and cools the fire |
protects the firefighting crew |
removes the oxygen |
|
A fire in a pile of canvas is classified as class __________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as class __________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class __________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
Burning wood is which class of fire? |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
A fire in a pile of linen is a class __________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in
drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel? |
Steam |
Water fog |
Foam |
Carbon dioxide |
|
Which extinguishing agent is suitable to combat a class B fire in an
engine compartment? |
Dry chemical |
Foam |
Carbon dioxide |
All of the above. |
|
When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use
__________. |
dry chemical |
foam (stored-pressure type) |
water (cartridge-operated) |
carbon dioxide |
|
A large oil fire on the deck of a ship can be fought most effectively
with __________. |
Water (cartridge-operated) |
high-velocity fog |
dry chemical |
foam |
|
On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST
desirable? |
Carbon dioxide |
Dry chemical |
Water (stored pressure) |
Foam |
|
A class B fire is most successfully fought by __________. |
using the extinguishing agent to absorb the heat |
preventing oxygen from reaching the burning material |
cooling the burning material below its ignition temperature |
using the extinguishing agent to make the burning material
fire-resistant |
|
The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential is class
__________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
An oil fire is classified as class __________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire? |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
If ignited, which material would be a class B fire? |
Diesel Oil |
Wood |
Paper |
Magnesium |
|
Which of the following classifications does an oil fire belong to? |
D |
C |
B |
A |
|
Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire? |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using
__________. |
CO2 |
low-velocity fog |
salt water |
foam |
|
Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on
electrical fires? |
Dry chemical and soda-acid |
Dry chemical and carbon dioxide |
Carbon dioxide and foam (stored pressure) |
Foam (stored pressure) and soda-acid |
|
Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be __________. |
nonconducting |
nontoxic |
water based |
able to absorb heat |
|
What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in
fighting a class "C" fire? |
Weight |
Cost |
Electrical nonconductivity |
Temperature |
|
Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires? |
Dry chemical |
Water fog |
CO2 |
Foam |
|
Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out
electrical fires? |
Foam and water (stored pressure) |
Dry chemical and carbon dioxide |
Foam and carbon dioxide |
Foam and dry chemical |
|
Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which
important property? |
Cooling ability |
Penetrating power |
Nonconductivity |
Leaves no residue |
|
Fires of which class would most likely occur in the engine room of a
vessel? |
Classes A and D |
Classes C and D |
Classes B and C |
Classes A and B |
|
A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which
class of fire? |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class
__________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard
insulation, are class __________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
A fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class? |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
A class C fire would be burning __________. |
fuel oil |
wood |
celluloid |
electrical insulation |
|
What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a
class C fire? |
Flashover |
Explosion |
Possibility of reflash |
Electrocution or shock |
|
Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out
a Class D fire? |
CO2 |
Foam |
Dry powder |
Dry chemical |
|
Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire? |
Water |
Sand |
Dry chemical |
CO2 |
|
If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing
agent would be __________. |
steam |
CO2 |
water fog |
dry powder |
|
An aluminum powder fire is classified as class __________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
A magnesium fire is classified as class __________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
Fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium, are classified
as class __________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
Fires are grouped into what categories? |
Type 1, 2, 3, and 4 |
Combustible solids, liquids, and gases |
Flammable solids, liquids, and gases |
Class A, B, C, and D |
|
Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a
compartment? |
Automatic fire detection system |
Watchman's supervisory system |
Smoke detection system |
Manual fire detection system |
|
Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________. |
pressure loss due to air being heated |
an electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with the beam |
smoke sensors |
the difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals |
|
You are part of a search team and have been told that the wiper was last
sighted next to the fire pump (s) in the lower engine room. Utilizing
illustration D038SA below, what is the exact location of the fire
pump(s)? |
Auxiliary machinery space, starboard side, frame 104 |
Machinery space, starboard side, frame 123 |
Machinery space, port side, frame 127 |
Machinery space, port side, frame 131 |
|
Your vessel has suffered a casualty and is in danger of sinking. The
Master orders abandon ship but a crew member is missing. You have
located the crew member but she is trapped in the Steward's Office.
Using the Fire Control Plans in illustration D036SA below, where is the
nearest fire axe to gain entry? |
Halon Room |
CO2 Room |
Portside, Frame 132 |
Starboard side, frame 132 |
|
In what location MUST a duplicate fire control plan be located? |
Crew Mess |
Engine Room |
Chief Mate's Office |
Gangway |
|
You are on the second deck in the main machinery space. Utilizing
illustration D037SA below what emergency equipment, if any, is located
at frame 107? |
Smoke detector and bell alarm |
Fire main valve and 1 1/2" fire hose |
CO2 fire extinguisher and 1 1/2" fire hose |
None of the above |
|
In the view of the bridge deck on the fire control plan shown in
illustration D035SA below, what is represented by the symbol on the aft
bulkhead, port side of the wheelhouse? |
Water Tight Door(s) Switch |
Fire Alarm Panel |
Copy of Fire Control Plan |
Emergency Lighting Board |
|
You are being directed to a fire in the lower engine room, portside,
frame 127. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what machinery is found
in that exact location? |
Bilge pump(s) |
Emergency fire pumps |
Generator |
Lube Oil Purifier |
|
In illustration D036SA below, what does the solid arrow in the Crew Mess
represent on the Fire Control Plans? |
primary means of escape |
path of forced ventilation |
search and rescue route |
nearest door |
|
In illustration D035SA below, viewing the bridge level of your vessel's
fire control plan, what do the two symbols within the machinery casing
represent? |
CO2 and Halon remote pull stations |
CO2 and Halon bottle room |
CO2 and Halon protected spaces |
CO2 and Halon bell alarms |
|
You are on the second deck of the engine room between frames 92 thru105
and the space is filling up with smoke. Utilizing illustration D037SA
below, where is the primary means of escape from that area is via a
ladder well? |
portside ladderwell, frame 106 |
starboard side ladderwell, frame 119 |
portside ladderwell, frame 93 |
Either A or B |
|
As seen in illustration D035SA below, when the remote push button
located in the wheelhouse, starboard side, frame 122, is actuated, what
is the result? |
Ventilation ducts are secured |
Engine room water tight doors are secured |
CO2 or Halon extinguishing systems will be energized |
The general alarm will sound the fire and emergency signal |
|
A vessel's fire control plan shall do which of the following? |
be written in Spanish and English. |
be posted in every space crewmembers eat and socialize. |
provide a snapshot of the area of every crew member's stateroom in their
stateroom. |
have a duplicate set of plans permanently stored outside the deck house. |
|
There is an out of control fire on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat.
Utilizing illustration D037SA below, what fixed extinguishing system in
that space would be the best means to extinguish the fire? |
H2O |
Halon |
CO2 |
Drenching |
|
Utilizing illustration D038SA below of the fire control plan of the
lower engine room, what does the arrow between frames 135 and 140
represent? |
Secondary means of escape |
Missing person search pattern |
Primary means of escape |
Direction of fire main |
|
Utilizing illustration D038SA below a view of a vessel fire control
plan, how many spaces are protected by a fixed CO2 extinguishing system? |
4 |
3 |
2 |
1 |
|
Utilizing illustration D035SA below, the Master has ordered you to pull
the remote ventilation shut down, where is it found? |
Port side fan room, frame 138 |
Starboard side exterior, frame 132 |
Port side of the wheelhouse, frame 122 |
Starboard side of the wheelhouse, frame 122 |
|
A vessel's fire control plan shall be __________. |
given to each crewmember in booklet form. |
permanently posted for the guidance of ship's officers. |
posted every 150 feet along the most continuous deck on the vessel. |
translated into three languages: English, French and Spanish. |
|
Using the vessel fire control plan in illustration D036SA below, what
emergency equipment is located in the scullery? |
Gaylord system release valve |
Heat Detector |
Fire alarm pull box |
Fixed water extinguishing system |
|
In addition to the official language of the flag state, the Fire Control
Plan must also be translated into English or __________. |
German |
Japanese |
French |
Spanish |
|
You are part of a team to overhaul a fire that was just extinguished in
the crew lounge. Using the fire control plan in illustration D036SA
below, where is the nearest fire axe to break apart the furniture? |
Midships, frame 123 |
Starboard side, frame 123 |
Starboard side, frame 132 |
Port side, frame 132 |
|
The vessel's fire control plan is laid out on which of the following
type of plan? |
General arrangement |
Lines |
Midship section |
Subdivision |
|
Which type of plan is used to outline the vessel's fire fighting
arrangement within the fire control plan? |
Inboard profile |
General arrangement |
Subdivision and stability |
Partial |
|
Besides general arrangement plans, what other mediums may be utilized to
provide fire control details to officers during fire and emergencies? |
Blueprint |
Microfilm |
Booklet Form |
None of the above |
|
Which organization reviews and approves a vessel's fire control plan? |
Maritime Administration |
U.S. Coast Guard |
International Maritime Organization |
Vessel's classification society |
|
The symbols for fire control plans are approved by which organization? |
National Fire Protection Agency |
U.S. Coast Guard |
International Maritime Organization |
International Association of Classification Societies |
|
Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control
plan? |
Fire control plan |
Dry chemical monitor |
Fire and emergency signals |
Gas detector |
|
Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control
plan? |
Secondary means of escape |
Bilge pumps |
Fire main system |
Muster lists |
|
Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel's Fire
Control Plan? |
Ventilation fan capacity |
Ventilation fan control |
Ventilation dampers |
Ventilation fan location |
|
On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of the fire main are listed
EXCEPT? |
Fire pump capacity |
Fire pump(s) location |
Fire station locations |
Diameter of fire main |
|
The Fire Control Plan must contain detailed information on which of the
following systems? |
Ship construction |
Ventilation |
Fixed fire suppression |
All of the above. |
|
On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression
system are listed EXCEPT? |
Extinguishing agent cylinder location |
Instructions for activation of system |
Spaces protected by the system |
Remote cylinder release(s) |
|
Which of the following is not required to be included on Fire Control
Plans? |
Communication plan |
Secondary means of escape |
Smoke detectors |
All watertight doors |
|
What is the purpose of a fire control plan aboard passenger ships? |
show passengers where to evacuate in event of fire |
guidance for the officer-in-charge in the event of fire |
facilitate shore-side fire fighters in fighting fire aboard the vessel |
All of the above. |
|
In illustration D039SA below, what two fire control plan symbols
designate the directional means of escape? |
61 and 62 |
61and 19 |
62 and 63 |
63 and 69 |
|
Which fire control plan symbol in illustration D039SA below represents
the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "A" fire? |
36 |
56 |
26 |
47 |
|
You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. In
illustration D039SA below what fire control plan symbol designates the
primary means of escape? |
61 |
62 |
63 |
69 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol(s)
represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "B"
fire? |
47 |
16 and 36 |
16 and 47 |
26 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol represents
the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "C" fire? |
56 |
36 |
47 |
26 |
|
In illustration D039SA below the location of a spare set of fire control
plans on board the vessel is designated by what approved symbol? |
1 |
30 |
37 |
69 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol(s)
represent part of the vessel's ventilation system? |
18 |
69 |
34 |
All of the above. |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol designates
a space or compartment protected by Halon 1301? |
10 |
11 |
12 |
44 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, the halon room with the main battery of
Halon 1301 bottles is designated by which symbol on the fire control
plans? |
44 |
43 |
11 |
10 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol
represented by number (7)? |
CO2 horn |
space protected by CO2 |
release station for CO2 |
CO2 alarm |
|
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol
represented by number (16)? |
foam monitor (gun) |
space protected by foam |
foam nozzle |
foam station |
|
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol
represented by number (56)? |
water monitor (gun) |
space protected by water |
sprinkler head |
water fog applicator |
|
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol
represented by number (39)? |
water |
sprinkler |
foam |
none of the above |
|
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol
represented by number (64)? |
infrared gas detector |
dry chemical installation |
inert gas installation |
inertial gauge |
|
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol
represented by number (30)? |
fire station |
foam station |
fuel shutoff |
none of the above |
|
You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. The
primary means of escape is blocked by the fire. What fire control plan
symbol, in illustration D039SA below, designates the secondary means of
escape? |
19 |
62 |
61 |
63 |
|
On the fire control plans, in illustration D039SA below, the CO2 bottle
room is designated by which symbol? |
42 |
9 |
8 |
7 |
|
On fire control plans, in illustration D039SA, the dry chemical
releasing station is designated by which symbol? |
42 |
47 |
48 |
50 |
|
On international voyages, tank ships of 500 gross tons or more, are
required to have facilities to enable a connection on each side of the
ship for which piece of equipment represented in illustration D039SA
below? |
51 |
19 |
54 |
53 |
|
Symbol number (51) in illustration D039SA below is found all throughout
the ship. What fire control equipment does this symbol represent? |
Sprinkler valves |
Foam valves |
Bilge pump valves |
Fire main with fire valves |
|
In illustration D039SA below, a complete recharge for a self-contained
breathing apparatus can be found in what location designated by this
symbol on the ship's fire control plan? |
30 |
59 |
60 |
58 |
|
As seen in illustration D039SA below, a locker with additional breathing
apparatuses can be found in what location designated by this symbol on
the ship's fire control plan? |
30 |
58 |
59 |
60 |
|
As seen in illustration D039SA below a locker with additional protective
clothing can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the
ship's fire control plan? |
30 |
58 |
59 |
60 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol
represented by number (67)? |
inert gas installation |
gas detector |
emergency switchboard |
emergency generator |
|
In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol
represented by number (37)? |
high expansion foam supply trunk |
a
fire station |
a
fire alarm panel |
diving operations |
|
On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below,
which symbol helps to control the spread of fire? |
33 |
34 |
32 |
68 |
|
On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below,
which symbol represents a fire damper? |
32 |
33 |
34 |
53 |
|
Which fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, represents
a dry chemical delivery method for small scale fires? |
48 |
47 |
16 |
26 |
|
As seen in illustration D039SA below a complete set of spare batteries
for a fireman's outfit can be found in what location designated by this
symbol on the ship's fire control plan? |
30 |
58 |
59 |
68 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
an international shore connection? |
54 |
53 |
49 |
51 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
a push button for a fire alarm? |
2 |
5 |
6 |
24 |
|
Which piece(s) of equipment represented by the Fire Control Plan symbols
in illustration D039SA below, can be found on the exterior of the
vessel? |
55 |
53 |
1 |
All of the above. |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
a fire alarm panel? |
37 |
58 |
30 |
68 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
a space protected by foam? |
13 |
15 |
17 |
16 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
a fire pump? |
19 |
21 |
22 |
54 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
a heat detector? |
18 |
31 |
49 |
63 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
an emergency fire pump? |
19 |
21 |
22 |
54 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
a fire station? |
1 |
30 |
51 |
58 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
the direction of primary means of escape? |
58 |
61 |
62 |
63 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
an emergency generator? |
20 |
32 |
67 |
68 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol does NOT
contain personal protective equipment? |
58 |
59 |
60 |
30 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
a bilge pump? |
22 |
21 |
19 |
54 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
the best means to extinguish a Class Alpha fire? |
23 |
16 |
12 |
7 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
the best means to extinguish a LARGE Class Bravo fire? |
44 |
39 |
36 |
14 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
a fire main with fire valves? |
17 |
34 |
51 |
56 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
equipment NOT to be found immediately outside the engine room? |
12 |
24 |
43 |
57 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
equipment that is MOST likely to be found in the ship's galley? |
31 |
49 |
55 |
68 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents
a NON-portable extinguisher? |
14 |
25 |
57 |
36 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol is not part
of the ship's foam system? |
50 |
3 |
65 |
16 |
|
In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol signifies
equipment you would use if your fire pump(s) failed? |
54 |
22 |
19 |
21 |
|
Which of the following when removed will extinguish a fire? |
sodium |
carbon dioxide |
oxygen |
nitrogen |
|
What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire
triangle to have a fire? |
Pressure |
Electricity |
Smoke |
Chain reaction |
|
All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________. |
oxygen |
electricity |
fuel |
heat |
|
Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by
__________. |
removing the fuel |
removing the heat |
interrupting the chain reaction |
removing the oxygen |
|
Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________. |
16 (%) |
18 (%) |
21 (%) |
25 (%) |
|
The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a
substance independent of any outside source of ignition is called
__________. |
explosive range |
ignition temperature |
combustion temperature |
flash point |
|
Which condition is necessary for a substance to burn? |
The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range." |
The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire
point. |
The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity. |
All of the above. |
|
The vapor pressure of a substance __________. |
is not affected by temperature |
decreases as temperature increases |
increases with the temperature |
may increase or decrease as the temperature rises |
|
You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out
in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon
tetrachloride? |
You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the
carbon tetrachloride. |
It will explode if exposed to a flame. |
Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal. |
It will burn rapidly once ignited. |
|
Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and
auto-ignition temperature? |
Both are higher than normal burning temperatures. |
The ignition temperature is always higher. |
They are not necessarily related. |
The flash point is always higher. |
|
The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the __________. |
two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition
source is present |
upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burn |
two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self ignite |
upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere
which will burn if an ignition source is present |
|
The explosive range of Bunker C mixed with air is __________. |
0% to 1% by volume |
1% to 5% by volume |
5% to 10% by volume |
10% to 20% by volume |
|
The explosive range of Diesel Oil mixed with air is __________. |
0% to 1% by volume |
0.8% to 5.3% by volume |
1.3% to 6.0% by volume |
6.3% to 12.1% by volume |
|
The flammable limit of methyl ethyl ketone is from __________. |
1.8% to 11.5% |
6.6% to 12.1% |
9.6% to 15.1% |
12.2% to 18.1% |
|
The flash point of a liquid means the temperature __________. |
at which a liquid will burn steadily |
at which a liquid will give off flammable vapors |
that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily |
at which a liquid will explode |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance? |
It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the
explosive range. |
It is lower than the ignition temperature. |
It is the temperature at which a substance, when ignited, will continue
to burn. |
It is the temperature at which a substance will spontaneously ignite. |
|
You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel
tanks __________. |
when underway as the fuel is moved by wave action |
during fueling when the fuel strikes fuel already in the tank |
shortly after fueling when fuel vapors gather |
during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom |
|
The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________. |
ignition temperature |
flammable range |
conversion index |
flash point |
|
Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in __________. |
overloaded electrical circuits |
rags soaked in linseed oil |
dirty swabs and cleaning gear |
partially loaded fuel tanks |
|
Spontaneous combustion is caused by __________. |
chemical action within a substance |
conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance |
an outside heat source heating a substance until it ignites |
All of the above. |
|
Which substance might be subject to spontaneous combustion? |
Scrap rubber |
Coal |
Leather |
All of the above. |
|
What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will
no longer occur? |
1
(%) |
10 (%) |
15 (%) |
21 (%) |
|
A spanner is a __________. |
cross connection line between two main fire lines |
special wrench for the couplings in a fire hose line |
tackle rigged to support a fire hose |
None of the above |
|
The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you __________. |
pull the nozzle handle all the way back toward the operator |
push the nozzle handle forward as far as it will go |
pull the nozzle handle back to a position where the handle is
perpendicular to the plane of the nozzle |
insert a fog applicator between the fire hose and nozzle |
|
When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the forward position, the
nozzle will __________. |
produce high-velocity fog |
shut off the water |
produce a straight stream |
produce low-velocity fog |
|
When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and
without an applicator, the all-purpose nozzle will __________. |
produce high-velocity fog |
shut off the water |
produce low-velocity fog |
produce a straight stream |
|
When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it
will __________. |
produce low-velocity fog |
produce a straight stream |
produce high-velocity fog |
shut off the water |
|
As seen in illustration D004SA below, what action must be taken before
inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle? |
move the handle to position 2 |
install the high-velocity nozzle tip |
move the handle to position 1 |
remove the high-velocity nozzle tip |
|
Fire hose should be washed with __________. |
mild soap and fresh water |
caustic soap |
salt water and a wire brush |
a
holystone |
|
To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling,
you should use __________. |
fresh water and soap |
glycerine |
kerosene |
graphite |
|
What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female
coupling of a fire hose? |
Talc and fine sandpaper |
Bearing grease and a wire brush |
Fish oil and a soft brush |
Fresh water, soap, and a stiff brush |
|
A double male coupling is one that __________. |
has outside threads on both ends |
takes two men to operate |
has left hand twist |
has inside threads on both ends |
|
Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE? |
Fold the hose into lengths about 6 feet long and then lash the folds
together. |
Roll the hose starting at the male end. |
Fold the hose so that the male coupling is about 4 feet from the female
coupling, then roll it up. |
Roll the hose starting at the female end. |
|
Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage? |
Rolling provides maximum protection to the outer covering of the hose. |
Rolling provides maximum protection against entry of foreign objects
into the couplings. |
The threads on the male end are protected by the hose. |
Water in the hose is forced out the end in the rolling process. |
|
The canvas covering of fire hose is called the __________. |
line cover |
outer hose |
jacket |
casing |
|
When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of
the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________. |
threads are lubricated |
hose is led out |
nozzle is attached to the hose |
female coupling has a gasket |
|
To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the
valve and __________. |
replace the gasket in the female coupling |
replace the gasket in the male coupling |
rethread the male coupling |
reduce fire pump pressure |
|
No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to
__________. |
prevent spray on electrical equipment |
make connecting easier |
avoid kinking the hose |
avoid personal injury during connection |
|
The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal
to pointing __________. |
45° upward |
vertically upward |
vertically downward |
All of the above. |
|
Fire hose couplings __________. |
should be greased frequently |
should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths |
are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals |
are specially hardened to prevent crushing |
|
What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2
inch fire hose? |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper
procedure in handling a fire hose? |
The fire hose should be partially charged before deploying it from the
fire station. |
Back-up hosemen should be positioned wherever the hose makes a
significant turn. |
A
1½ inch hose should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzleman and
hoseman. |
The nozzleman should always hold the nozzle with one hand on top, to
prevent kickback. |
|
Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper
procedure in handling a fire hose? |
Use of a spanner wrench when attaching nozzles or additional lengths of
hose is always critical. |
A
1½ inch hose should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzleman and
hoseman. |
Back-up hosemen should be placed wherever the hose makes a significant
turn. |
The nozzleman should always hold the nozzle with one hand on top, to
prevent kickback. |
|
What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 2-1/2
inch fire hose? |
4 |
2 |
3 |
1 |
|
A fire hose has a __________. |
male coupling at both ends |
female coupling at both ends |
male coupling at the nozzle end and a female coupling at the hydrant end |
female coupling at the nozzle end and a male coupling at the hydrant end |
|
A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant
except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________. |
fire pumps are used for purposes other than supplying water to the fire
main |
fire-main system is not charged |
fire hose might be damaged by cargo operations |
vessel is in port |
|
The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle
open is __________. |
the hose could burst |
the nozzle end will whip about causing damage or injury |
personnel might trip over the hose |
water damage to vessel's cargo or structure |
|
What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system? |
Exposed hard piping |
The hydrant valve |
The fire pump |
The fire hose |
|
What does the term "head" mean when applied to a fire pump? |
Height of the discharge pipe |
Length of the discharge pipe |
Difference between the discharge and suction pressures |
Sum of discharge and suction pressures |
|
Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a
straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI? |
50 feet |
100 feet |
150 feet |
200 feet |
|
Approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach if the fire
hose pressure is reduced to 60 PSI? |
100 feet |
50 feet |
200 feet |
150 feet |
|
The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and
low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to
__________. |
the length of the applicator |
the method of breaking up the water stream |
a
difference in water pressure |
All of the above. |
|
High-velocity fog __________. |
is a finer, more diffuse water spray than low-velocity fog |
extinguishes a fire by absorbing heat and reducing the supply of oxygen |
produces an effective fog pattern no more than 6 feet beyond the nozzle |
requires that the water pressure be no greater than 60 psi |
|
The spray of water in low-velocity fog will have __________. |
lesser range than high-velocity fog |
greater range than high-velocity fog |
greater range than a solid stream |
about the same range as high-velocity fog |
|
You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put
the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________. |
produce a straight stream |
produce high-velocity fog |
shut off the water |
produce low-velocity fog |
|
If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would
__________. |
put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way back |
order the engine room to reduce pressure on the fire pump |
put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way forward |
attach a low-velocity fog applicator with the nozzle shut down |
|
The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator __________. |
has a screw thread end which connects to the all-purpose nozzle |
can be used in conjunction with both 1-1/2 inch and 2-1/2 inch
all-purpose nozzles |
has a 90° bend at its discharge end |
has a spray pattern 12 feet in diameter |
|
To get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle, you would
__________. |
attach an applicator to the solid stream outlet on the nozzle |
simply move the handle to the vertical position on the nozzle |
attach an applicator to the nozzle in place of the bronze nozzle tip |
attach the bronze nozzle tip to the fog outlet of the nozzle |
|
With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by
__________. |
putting the handle of the nozzle in the forward position |
inserting an applicator in the nozzle |
directing a straight stream of water against the ship's structure |
the combination nozzle only when the water pressure exceeds 125 psi |
|
One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it __________. |
converts a stream of water into a fog |
increases the amount of water reaching the fire |
can fit any size hose |
can spray two streams of water at the same time |
|
On the all-purpose nozzle, the position of the valve when the handle is
all the way forward is __________. |
shut |
solid stream |
spray |
fog |
|
A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces __________. |
a
solid stream only |
low-velocity fog only |
a
solid stream and foam |
a
solid stream and fog |
|
The high-velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose fire fighting nozzle
should always be __________. |
attached by a chain |
stored in the clip at each fire station |
painted red for identity as emergency equipment |
coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion |
|
The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on
an all-purpose nozzle will have __________. |
about the same range as low-velocity fog |
greater range than a solid stream |
greater range than low-velocity fog |
lesser range than low-velocity fog |
|
The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in
fighting a class A fire to __________. |
drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters |
break up burning material |
get the most water possible on the fire |
shield fire fighters from radiant heat |
|
The international shore connection __________. |
allows hook up of fire fighting water from shore facilities |
allows emergency use of the fire main for deballasting |
permits discharge of waste oil to shore facilities |
satisfies pollution prevention requirements |
|
The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an
interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what
circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept
open when underway? |
They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the
bridge. |
They are to be kept closed at all times. |
They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel
designated to close them in case of fire. |
They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is
shut down. |
|
Storage batteries should be charged in a well ventilated area because
__________. |
they recharge faster in a well ventilated space |
they generate heat |
of the toxic fumes they emit |
they emit hydrogen |
|
What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors? |
Loose wiring |
Explosion proof lights |
Static electricity |
An open running electric motor |
|
Which may ignite fuel vapors? |
Static electricity |
An open and running motor |
Loose wiring |
All of the above. |
|
Spontaneous ignition can result from __________. |
careless disposal or storage of material |
an unprotected drop-light bulb |
worn electrical wires on power tools |
smoking in bed |
|
A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's
galley. In combating this fire, you should __________. |
cool adjoining horizontal and vertical surfaces before opening the
galley door |
advance the hose team into the galley without any preparatory action |
keep the galley door closed until all the class "A" material has been
consumed by the fire |
have a hose team cool the galley door, then open the door and extinguish
the fire using a type B-II extinguisher |
|
A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses the additional threat of __________. |
a
grease fire in the ventilation system |
spreading through the engineering space |
causing loss of stability |
contaminating food with extinguishing agent |
|
Fires are grouped into what categories? |
Flammable solids, liquids, and gases |
Class A, B, C, and D |
Type 1, 2, 3, and 4 |
Combustible solids, liquids, and gases |
|
In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to
prevent the spread of fire by __________. |
convection |
conduction |
ventilation |
radiation |
|
Fire may be spread by which means? |
Convection |
Direct radiation |
Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces |
All of the above. |
|
Convection spreads a fire by __________. |
heated gases flowing through ventilation systems |
the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space |
transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal |
burning liquids flowing into another space |
|
Radiation spreads a fire by __________. |
transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal |
burning liquids flowing into another space |
heated gases flowing through ventilation systems |
transferring heat across an unobstructed space |
|
The spread of fire is prevented by __________. |
shutting off the oxygen supply |
removing combustibles from the endangered area |
cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire |
All of the above. |
|
To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________. |
shut off all electrical power |
close all openings to the area |
remove combustibles from direct exposure |
cool the bulkhead around the fire |
|
To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________. |
shut off all electric power |
remove combustibles from direct exposure |
cool the bulkheads around the fire |
close all openings to the area |
|
If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting
response should be to __________. |
secure the ventilation |
enter and use a portable extinguisher |
release the CO2 flooding system |
open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire |
|
Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________. |
stored in a suitable gear locker |
covered at all times to protect from ignition sources |
returned to the paint locker after each use |
stored safely at the work site until work is completed |
|
The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard? |
They concentrate the heat of cooking and may raise surrounding flammable
material to the ignition point. |
They inhibit the effective operation of fire fighting systems in
combating deep fat fryer or range fires. |
In order to effectively draw off cooking heat they present a head-injury
hazard to a person of average or more height. |
Grease collects in the duct and filter and if it catches fire is
difficult to extinguish. |
|
You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds.
Traditionally, this is the signal for __________. |
dismissal from fire and emergency stations |
fire and emergency |
abandon ship |
man overboard |
|
Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________. |
alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle |
continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at
least 10 seconds |
1
short blast on the whistle |
more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same
signal on the general alarm |
|
In the event of fire in a machinery space, __________. |
the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used only when all other means
of extinguishment have failed |
the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used immediately, as it is the
most efficient means of extinguishment |
water in any form should not be used as it will spread the fire |
the space should be opened 5 minutes after flooding CO2 to prevent
injury to personnel |
|
A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches
fire. Your FIRST action should be to __________. |
start the fire pump |
batten down the engine room |
shut off the fuel supply |
apply carbon dioxide to the fire |
|
When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the
following should NOT be used? |
All-purpose nozzle |
Solid stream water nozzle |
Carbon dioxide |
Foam |
|
If you have a fire in the engine room, your FIRST act should be to
__________. |
secure the fuel supply and ventilation to the engine room |
discharge the fixed CO2 system into the engine room |
have all of your crew get into the liferaft |
maneuver your vessel into the wind |
|
When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump
fire which results from a broken fuel line? |
Close the fuel line valve. |
Cast the barge off the wharf. |
Secure all engine room doors, hatches, and vents. |
Check the spread of the fire with foam. |
|
An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to __________. |
stop ventilation |
stop the vessel |
apply water to extinguish the fire |
de-energize the circuit |
|
There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. You should
__________. |
ventilate the quarters as much as possible |
prepare to abandon ship |
attempt to put the fire out yourself before sounding the alarm |
close all ventilation to the quarters if possible |
|
You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine
room. You should secure the power, then __________. |
use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose |
use a portable CO2 extinguisher |
determine the cause of the fire |
use a portable foam extinguisher |
|
A fire must be ventilated __________. |
if compressed gas cylinders are stowed in the compartment on fire |
to minimize heat buildup in adjacent compartments |
to prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the firefighters |
when using an indirect attack on the fire such as flooding with water |
|
What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight
an electrical fire? |
The amount of toxic fumes created by the extinguisher |
Danger of shock to personnel |
Whether the fire is in machinery or passenger spaces |
Maintaining electrical power |
|
Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide
gas (CO2) and by __________. |
completely closing the compartment |
leaving the compartment open to the air |
increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers |
closing the compartment except for the ventilators |
|
You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to
extinguish a fire. The CO2 will be most effective if the __________. |
compartment is left open to the air |
compartment is closed and ventilators are opened |
compartment is closed and airtight |
air flow to the compartment is increased with blowers |
|
When should a fire be ventilated? |
When using the fixed CO2 system |
When attacking the fire directly |
When using a steam smothering system |
All of the above. |
|
A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. You should FIRST
__________. |
determine the source of the fire |
stop the ventilation |
sound the general alarm |
attempt to extinguish the fire |
|
A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to
drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This
technique should only be used when __________. |
there is an outlet for the smoke and heat |
at least two fog streams can be used |
the fire is totally contained by the ship's structure |
using a 2-1/2 inch hose |
|
When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE
the space on fire, it is important to __________. |
stay low by crouching or kneeling on deck |
station personnel on the hot deck immediately above the fire |
rotate personnel, due to heat stress |
All of the above. |
|
Control of fire should be addressed __________. |
immediately after restoring vital services |
immediately |
following establishment of fire boundaries |
following control of flooding |
|
When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE
the space on fire, it is important to __________. |
station personnel on the hot deck, immediately above the fire, to
observe for its potential spread |
not rotate personnel, as the consistent attack can extinguish the fire
quickly. |
stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck |
All of the above. |
|
When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters
from the fire by using __________. |
foam spray |
a
straight stream of water |
low-velocity fog |
high-velocity fog |
|
When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield firefighters from
the fire by using __________. |
a
straight stream of water |
low-velocity fog |
high-velocity fog |
foam spray |
|
What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting? |
Break up solid objects to ensure that any deep seated fires are
extinguished |
Slow down the spread of fire by cooling adjacent structures |
Cover the fire with foam |
Smother the fire with a blanket or similar object |
|
When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied
petroleum gas), you should __________. |
attempt to isolate the fire from the LPG |
cool the bottles or remove them from the fire area |
place insulating material over the bottles |
see that the valves on all LPG bottles are closed |
|
Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include
__________. |
evacuation of the vessel |
opening dead spaces to check for heat or fire |
sounding the "all clear" signal |
operation of the emergency generator |
|
When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous
cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________. |
use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system |
use high-expansion foam |
activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system |
shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire |
|
A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by
__________. |
interrupting the chain reaction |
cooling the gas below the ignition point |
cutting off the supply of oxygen |
stopping the flow of gas |
|
Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a
large fire in the ship's galley? |
A
storeroom directly above, containing combustible fluids |
An adjacent storeroom, containing mattresses and linen |
An adjacent storeroom, marked "Stewards Stores" |
An adjacent storeroom, containing spare parts |
|
When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the
weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will
increase the weight displacement by one ton? |
100 gallons |
500 liters |
64 cubic feet |
35 cubic feet |
|
If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which
action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel? |
Removing burned debris from the cargo hold |
Pumping fire-fighting water overboard |
Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side |
Shutting off electricity to damaged cables |
|
A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using_______. |
the range hood extinguishing system |
foam |
water |
fire dampers |
|
When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method
of applying water is best? |
Solid stream directed toward the overhead |
Straight stream directed into the center of the fire |
High-velocity fog stream directed toward the overhead |
Sweeping the compartment with a fog stream |
|
The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is
__________. |
CO2 |
foam |
water |
dry chemical |
|
The primary danger in helicopter fires is __________. |
loss of stability |
heat damage to helicopter structure |
rotating and flying debris |
burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas |
|
After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the
next action is to have the space __________. |
doused with water to prevent reflash |
remain closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool |
checked for oxygen content |
opened and burned material removed |
|
When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch
as low as possible to __________. |
obtain the best available air for breathing |
maneuver with the hose more easily |
allow the heat and steam to pass overhead |
None of the above |
|
Oil fires are best extinguished by __________. |
removing the fuel |
spraying with water |
cooling below the ignition temperature |
cutting off the supply of oxygen |
|
You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After
activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST? |
Acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus. |
Break out the nearest fire hose. |
Attempt to determine what is burning. |
Wait for the fire team to arrive and assist as directed. |
|
You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice
smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the
fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next
actions? |
Close the door to the room. |
Secure power to the washers and dryers. |
Break out the nearest fire hose. |
Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. |
|
You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming
from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire
alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________. |
secure ventilation to the room |
acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus |
close the door to the room |
begin breaking out the nearest fire hose |
|
A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is
discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water.
You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What
action should you take? |
Connect a portable line from the ship's fixed system and discharge CO2
into the container. |
Flood the container with water and disregard any cargo damage as the
fire threatens the entire vessel. |
Cool the exterior of the container with water and close all vents; then
keep it cooled until it can be off-loaded. |
Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2's then add
more CO2 hourly. |
|
Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire? |
Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread of the fire
by conduction |
Bouncing a straight stream of water off the overhead to create spray
effect |
Flooding a paint locker with CO2 and sealing the compartment |
Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and over a pool of
burning oil |
|
The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________. |
cooling ability of the firefighting agent |
class of the fire |
complete containment of the fire |
size of the fire when initially observed |
|
Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often
present when a fire burns in a closed compartment? |
Carbon monoxide |
Nitric oxide |
Hydrogen sulfide |
Carbon dioxide |
|
A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which
condition? |
Paints, varnish, or other liquid flammables are stowed in a dry stores
locker. |
Inert cargoes such as pig iron are loaded in a wet condition. |
Clean mattresses are stored in contact with an electric light bulb. |
Oily rags are stowed in a metal pail. |
|
Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard
because they may __________. |
deteriorate and give off noxious gasses |
attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding ground |
spontaneously heat and catch fire |
None of the above |
|
The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive
mixture is called the __________. |
auto-ignition point |
lower explosive limit (LEL) |
flash point |
threshold limit value (TLV) |
|
Accumulations of oily rags should be __________. |
kept in the paint locker |
discarded as soon as possible |
kept in nonmetal containers |
cleaned thoroughly for reuse |
|
A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________. |
cool to burn |
rich to burn |
dense to burn |
lean to burn |
|
The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________. |
removing combustibles from the endangered area |
removing smoke and toxic gases by ensuring adequate ventilation |
shutting off the oxygen supply |
cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire |
|
Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is
burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by
__________. |
radiation |
conduction |
spontaneous combustion |
convection |
|
The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________. |
incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content
makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower Flammable Level) |
capable of supporting combustion |
incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content
makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit) |
in a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur naturally on a
regular basis |
|
The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________. |
incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is
below the LFL (Lower Flammable Limit) |
capable of supporting a fire once started |
not safe for ballasting |
capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is
above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit) |
|
What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the
atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to
support combustion? |
Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the
tank. |
Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis. |
Use an explosimeter. |
Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer. |
|
The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________. |
0% to 1% |
1% to 10% |
10% to 15% |
12% to 20% |
|
Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be
__________. |
in a metal container with a tight cap |
used only under the supervision and direction of a ship's officer |
used only when a pressurized fire hose is laid out ready for immediate
use |
tightly capped and stowed with other tools near the job site when
securing at the end of the day |
|
You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible
gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move
rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration
of flammable gas? |
Within the flammable range |
The explosimeter is defective and giving a false reading. |
Less than the flammable range |
Over the flammable range |
|
A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage
of __________. |
vapor to oxygen |
the autoignition concentration |
the flammable limit concentration |
the lower explosive limit concentration |
|
Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a
percentage of the __________. |
flash point |
fire point |
upper explosive limit |
lower explosive limit |
|
When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering
the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains
vapors of __________. |
chlorine |
CO2 |
leaded gasoline |
sour crude |
|
A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation
machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be
placed when testing the pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases? |
In the lower level of the pumproom |
On the deck outside the pumproom |
In the middle level of the pumproom |
In the upper level of the pumproom |
|
Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive
concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks? |
A
liquid cargo meter |
A
combustible gas indicator |
A
flame safety lamp |
All of the above. |
|
What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before
welding in a confined space? |
A
combination combustible gas and oxygen indicator |
A
combustible gas indicator |
A
flame safety lamp |
An oxygen indicator |
|
An oxygen indicator can be used to determine if there is __________. |
combustible gases present |
sufficient oxygen in a compartment to support life |
hydrogen gas present |
All of the above. |
|
The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________. |
concentration of CO2 as a percentage of oxygen in a confined space |
amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space |
amount of combustible gas as a percentage of the lower explosive limit
in a confined space |
None of the above |
|
What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the
oxygen indicator? |
Exposure to carbon dioxide for no more than 1 minute |
Exposure to carbon dioxide for more than 10 minutes |
Exposure to a very low concentration of sulfur dioxide for no more than
2 minutes |
None of the above |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator? |
The instrument can detect hydrogen gas. |
Only one level of the tested space need be sampled by the instrument. |
Exposure to flue gas has no effect on the instrument. |
Prolonged exposure to CO2 can result in false readings. |
|
What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain
locker? |
H2S meter |
Flame safety lamp |
Combustible gas indicator |
Oxygen indicator |
|
Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with
__________. |
litmus paper |
an oxygen breathing apparatus |
a
combustible gas indicator |
an oxygen indicator |
|
Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of
oxygen? |
6
(%) |
10 (%) |
15 (%) |
21 (%) |
|
After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be
purged with __________. |
the tested compartment's air |
water |
CO2 |
fresh air |
|
When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should
you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument? |
Rise to the correct reading and then, slowly fall to zero as the oxygen
in the sample is consumed |
Slowly rise to the correct reading and then remain stationary |
Move back and forth and finally stabilize at the correct reading after
about 10 seconds |
Rise to the correct reading immediately and then rise slowly to a false
reading as the operating temperature increases |
|
You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the
sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter? |
No wait is necessary, the reading occurs immediately. |
At least 20 seconds |
At least 10 seconds |
At least 5 seconds |
|
If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what
should be done? |
Adjust the final reading by the amount the needle is displaced from
zero. |
Check the sampling tube for blockage. |
Replace the batteries. |
Replace the platinum filament. |
|
What is used to test a tank for oxygen content? |
Vapor indicator |
Atmosphere analyzer kit |
Combustible gas indicator |
None of the above |
|
Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the
instrument __________. |
where its specific gravity is measured |
where it is mixed with nitrogen |
where it is ignited by a sparking device |
over an electrically heated platinum filament |
|
Before entering the chain locker, you should __________. |
have someone standing by |
de-energize the windlass |
make sure there is sufficient air within the locker |
All of the above. |
|
What can cause a lack of oxygen in a chain locker? |
Absorption |
Oxidation |
Osmosis |
Evaporation |
|
Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with
__________. |
litmus paper |
oxygen breathing apparatus |
oxygen indicator |
combustible gas indicator |
|
As an extinguishing agent, foam __________. |
extinguishes by cooling oil fires below ignition temperature |
is most effective on burning gases which are flowing |
should be directed at the base of the fire |
conducts electricity |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil
fire? |
It cools the surface of the liquid. |
It should be used at the same time a solid stream of water is being
applied. |
It gives protection to fire fighting personnel against the heat of the
fire. |
It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil. |
|
Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on class
__________. |
A
and class C fires |
B
and class C fires |
A
and class B fires |
A, class B, and class C fires |
|
A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most
useful in combating a fire in __________. |
the bridge controls |
combustible metals |
oil drums |
generators |
|
Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________. |
chemical action |
smothering |
cooling |
inerting the air |
|
How does foam extinguish an oil fire? |
By increasing the weight of the oil |
By removing the fuel source from the fire |
By cooling the oil below the ignition temperature |
By excluding the oxygen from the fire |
|
Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire? |
To coat the surrounding bulkheads with foam in case the fire spreads |
To cool the bulkhead closest to the fire |
To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire |
To prevent any oil on the bulkheads from igniting |
|
Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________. |
completely covers the top of the burning liquid |
is kept saturated with low-velocity water fog |
mixes with the burning fuel oil |
penetrates to the bottom of the fire |
|
Foam extinguishes a fire by __________. |
chemical combination with burning material |
smothering the burning material |
absorbing the burning material |
organic destruction of the burning material |
|
Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE? |
To be most effective, foam should be directed at the base of the fire. |
Foam can ONLY be used to extinguish class A fires. |
Foam is most effective on burning liquids which are flowing. |
Foam conducts electricity. |
|
Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam? |
Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed gas
cylinders. |
The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid
increases as the temperature of the liquid increases. |
The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting a class C fire. |
Foam sets up a vapor barrier over a flammable liquid preventing
flammable gases from rising. |
|
The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________. |
spray directly on the base of the fire |
sweep the fire with the foam |
flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface |
spray directly on the surface of the fire |
|
A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating
a fire in __________. |
combustible metallic solids |
solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber |
a
piece of electrical equipment |
flammable liquids |
|
Portable-foam fire extinguishers are designed for use on what classes of
fires? |
A
and B |
B
and C |
A
and C |
A, B, and C |
|
Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid? |
Motor gasoline |
Jet fuel |
Alcohol |
Crude petroleum |
|
Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher
effective on? |
Classes A & C |
Classes B & C |
Classes A & B |
All of the above. |
|
In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator
__________. |
the maximum water pressure to be used is 50 psi |
each pound of foam powder produces about 800 gallons of chemical foam |
the speed of foam production is slower at lower water temperatures |
fresh water only should be used |
|
When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline
proportioner for the production of the mechanical foam, a 5-gallon can
of liquid foam will last __________. |
1-1/2 minutes |
15 minutes |
5
minutes |
2-1/2 minutes |
|
Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner
__________. |
gives the nozzleman more freedom of movement, since it can be placed
anywhere in the hose line |
increases the rate of foam production |
increases the size of foam bubbles formed |
improves the extinguishing properties of foam |
|
Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of
low expansion mechanical foam produced is __________. |
2
times greater |
10 times greater |
97 times greater |
94 times greater |
|
One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about __________. |
10 gallons of foam |
25 gallons of foam |
100 gallons of foam |
500 gallons of foam |
|
One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce __________. |
8
to 10 gallons of foam |
25 to 50 gallons of foam |
100 to 200 gallons of foam |
500 to 1000 gallons of foam |
|
Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard.
Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply? |
200 gallons |
420 gallons |
667 gallons |
986 gallons |
|
When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will
__________. |
be lighter |
be more heat resistant |
not cling to vertical surfaces |
be wetter |
|
When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will
__________. |
be lighter |
be more heat resistant |
cling to vertical surfaces |
be dryer |
|
When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will
__________. |
be drier |
not cling to vertical surfaces |
be heavier |
be more heat resistant |
|
Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________. |
in open bins |
in a cool dry place |
in a freezer |
at a temperature not less than 80°F |
|
Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________. |
can be used to combat combustible metal fires |
it provides cooling as a secondary effect |
works well on extinguishing electrical fires |
All of the above. |
|
One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam
__________. |
is heavier than oil and sinks below its surface |
is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters |
cannot be made with salt water |
conducts electricity |
|
Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________. |
radiation |
conduction |
convection |
direct contact |
|
The accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries
is best prevented by __________. |
covering the batteries in a nonconducting, solid enclosure |
mounting the batteries in a position as high as possible |
natural or mechanical ventilation |
securing the batteries to vibration reducing mounting brackets |
|
Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________. |
less electrolyte is required to maintain the batteries' charge |
ventilation avoids CO2 build up |
ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation |
ventilation supplies extra oxygen for charging the battery |
|
The primary reason for placing covers over storage batteries is to
__________. |
prevent the accumulation of explosive gases |
prevent movement of the battery in rough waters |
protect against accidental shorting across terminals |
protect the hull from leaking electrolyte |
|
When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the
ventilation for that area should be __________. |
operated continuously while vapors may be present |
available on standby for immediate use |
operated intermittently to remove vapors |
shut down if an explosive mixture is present |
|
It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where
there is a fire to __________. |
allow the exhaust fans to remove smoke |
prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire |
protect fire fighting personnel from smoke |
extinguish the fire by carbon monoxide smothering |
|
In battery charging rooms, exhaust ventilation should be provided
__________. |
near the batteries |
at the lowest point |
only when charging is in progress |
at the highest point |
|
Fighting a fire in the galley poses the additional threat of __________. |
spreading through the engineering space |
contaminating food with extinguishing agent |
loss of stability |
a
grease fire in the ventilation system |
|
The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by
fusible links. Which statement is TRUE? |
Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated. |
Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them. |
Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification. |
A
fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and
reset the damper. |
|
Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of
__________. |
remotely operated valves |
heat or smoke detectors |
fusible links |
CO2 system pressure switches |
|
Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________. |
a
break-glass and pull-cable system |
electrical controls on the bridge |
a
mechanical arm outside the vent duct |
the heat of a fire melting the link |
|
Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of a
__________. |
remote operated valve |
CO2 system pressure switch |
fusible link |
heat or smoke detector |
|
Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________. |
the fire to spread through the ventilation system |
fixed foam systems to be ineffective |
the accumulation of explosive gases |
faster cooling of the fire |
|
CO2 mainly extinguishes a fire by which of the following? |
chemical action |
cooling |
smothering |
All of the above. |
|
Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire? |
Electrical |
Burning oil |
Paint |
All of the above. |
|
In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is
required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher? |
Check the hose and nozzle for clogs. |
Discharge a small amount to see that it works. |
Check the external pressure gage. |
Weigh the powder in the canister. |
|
Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry-chemical
extinguisher is accomplished by __________. |
recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder |
authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only |
replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling with powder |
puncturing the cartridge seal after installation |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide? |
It is lighter than air. |
It is used mostly on class A fires. |
It is an inert gas. |
All of the above. |
|
Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest
extent by __________. |
breaking the chain reaction |
cooling |
smothering |
oxygen dilution |
|
How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher? |
Pull pin, squeeze grip. |
Break the rupture disc. |
Point the horn down. |
Turn cylinder upside-down. |
|
Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes
__________. |
II, III, and IV |
I, II, and III |
III, IV, and V |
IV and V |
|
A type B-III CO2 extinguisher has a rated capacity of __________. |
15 lbs |
25 lbs |
35 lbs |
45 lbs |
|
When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, there
is a danger of reflash because dry chemical_________. |
dissipates quickly |
is not an effective agent on Class B fires |
is rapidly absorbed by the liquid |
does little or no cooling |
|
When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________. |
is lighter than air |
is harmless to cargo and crew |
is effective if used promptly on an oil fire |
has a greater cooling effect than water |
|
After using a CO2 portable extinguisher, it should be __________. |
recharged |
retagged |
hydrostatically tested |
put back in service if some CO2 remains |
|
An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against
a fire in __________. |
spilled liquids such as oil or paint |
high voltage electrical gear |
a
trash can |
a
mattress |
|
Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and
inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire
extinguisher? |
Pressure test the discharge hose. |
Inspecty and weigh the cartridge. |
Test the pressure gauge for correct reading. |
Replace the dry chemical. |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide? |
It is non-conductive. |
It is heavier than air. |
It is used on class B and C fires. |
All of the above. |
|
A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been
partially discharged. It should be __________. |
labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible |
replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15% |
replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25% |
replaced in its proper location regardless of weight |
|
Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is
FALSE? |
When possible, the fire should be attacked from windward. |
Directing the stream into burning flammable liquid may cause splashing. |
The stream should be directed at the base of the fire. |
At temperatures of less than 32°F, the extinguisher must be recharged
more often. |
|
When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged? |
After each use |
When the air temperature exceeds 90°F |
Every 6 months |
Every 12 months |
|
What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing
agents? |
Effective on electrical equipment |
Non-corrosive |
Effective even if ventilation is not shut down |
Will not deteriorate in storage |
|
Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in
firefighting? |
More protective against re-flash |
Compatible with all foam agents |
Cleaner |
All of the above. |
|
Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of
not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature? |
Foam |
Water spray |
CO2 |
Water stream |
|
What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a
carbon dioxide extinguisher? |
It is nontoxic. |
It offers lasting, effective protection against burn-back. |
It has a greater duration. |
It provides a heat shield for the operator. |
|
Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on
board a vessel? |
Foam |
Water (stored pressure) |
Carbon dioxide |
Carbon tetrachloride |
|
The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is __________. |
breaking the chain reaction |
shielding of radiant heat |
smothering |
the CO2 that is formed by heat |
|
When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold
the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________. |
could come off in your hands |
becomes extremely hot |
is placed directly in the flames |
becomes extremely cold |
|
In order to discharge a CO2
portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________. |
open the discharge valve |
invert the CO2 extinguisher |
remove the locking pin |
squeeze the two trigger handles together |
|
Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical
extinguishers? |
You should direct the spray directly into the fire. |
You should direct the spray at a vertical bulkhead and allow it to flow
over the fire. |
You should direct the spray at the base of the fire. |
All of the above. |
|
When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide
extinguisher, the stream should be directed at the __________. |
center of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically from top to
bottom |
base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side, following the
flames upward as they diminish |
top of the flaming area, moving the horn from side to side, following
the flames downward as they diminish |
bottom of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically to the top
following the flames upward as they diminish |
|
You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical
extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________. |
to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire |
over the top of the fire |
at the main body of the fire |
at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge |
|
As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage? |
Greater range |
More cooling effect |
Effective on metal fires |
Cleaner |
|
Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which advantage over other
agents? |
It is safer for personnel. |
It is cheaper. |
It is most effective on a per unit basis. |
It causes minimal damage. |
|
The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is
__________. |
foam |
water stream |
water fog |
carbon dioxide |
|
Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are
extinguished by dry chemical? |
The stream of dry chemical powder cools the fire. |
The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction. |
The powder forms a solid coating over the surface. |
The dry chemical smothers the fire. |
|
An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher
is __________. |
lack of toxicity |
burn-back protection |
the multipurpose extinguishing ability |
cooling ability |
|
Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a
class "C" fire? |
The dry chemical leaves a residue. |
It takes smaller amounts of CO2 to cover the same area. |
CO2 will not dissipate in air. |
The dry chemical is a conductor. |
|
CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the
cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the
charge? |
80 (%) |
85 (%) |
90 (%) |
95 (%) |
|
When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, the stream of dry
chemicals should be __________. |
used to shield against electrical shock |
aimed at the source of the flames |
shot off a flat surface onto the flames |
fogged above the equipment |
|
Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore
facility? |
Water (pump tank) |
Carbon dioxide |
Dry chemical (cartridge-operated) |
Water (cartridge-operated) |
|
You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical
extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________. |
to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire |
at the main body of the fire |
over the top of the fire |
at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge |
|
An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher
is its __________. |
greater range |
cleanliness |
cooling ability |
All of the above. |
|
In continuous operation, the effective range of the 15 pound CO2
extinguisher is limited to __________. |
2
to 4 feet |
3
to 8 feet |
9
to 12 feet |
10 to 15 feet |
|
One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in
firefighting is that __________. |
it is ineffective in fighting fires in high-voltage electrical equipment |
fire has been known to flash back over the surface of an oil fire |
it can break down under high heat and emit noxious fumes |
it will decompose under prolonged storage and lose its effectiveness |
|
To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge
mode __________. |
slip the "D yoke" ring in the lower handle over the upper handle |
reinsert the locking pin |
open the discharge valve |
invert the CO2 extinguisher |
|
Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires? |
B
and C only |
A
only |
B
only |
A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher |
|
Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and
servicing of __________. |
water (stored pressure) fire extinguishers |
CO2 (carbon dioxide) fire extinguishers |
foam fire extinguishers |
All of the above. |
|
In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds
__________. |
20% of weight of charge |
10% of weight of full bottle |
10% of weight of charge |
15% of weight of full bottle |
|
A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________. |
gravity when the extinguisher is turned upside down |
pressure from the reaction when water is mixed with the chemical |
air pressure from the hand pump attached to the extinguisher |
pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher |
|
You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire
extinguishers aboard will be __________. |
weighed |
checked for pressure loss |
sent ashore to an approved service facility |
discharged and recharged |
|
Actuating the CO2 fixed system causes the shutdown of the __________. |
exhaust ventilation |
supply and exhaust ventilation |
mechanical and natural ventilation |
fuel supply |
|
Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that
are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve
in the line leading to the space, and __________. |
three separate controls to release the CO2 |
the same control releasing the CO2 |
a
separate control to release the CO2 |
two separate controls to release the CO2 |
|
Which of the following statements is true concerning the control
activators, i.e., pull-handles, push-buttons or levers, for a space
protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system? |
Two control activators are required when a stop valve is installed in
the main discharge line to a space. |
An alarm must sound for at least 20 seconds before CO2 is released into
a space that is likely to be occupied. |
Only one control activator is required for discharge piping systems
designed without a stop valve. |
All of the above. |
|
Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to
have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2.
This time delay must be at least __________. |
20 seconds |
40 seconds |
one minute |
two minutes |
|
The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space is
__________. |
an explosive reaction |
frostbite |
skin burns |
asphyxiation |
|
There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these
is the limited quantity available, and the other is __________. |
that it cannot be used in a dead ship situation with no electrical power
to the CO2 pump |
there is no effect on a class A fire even in an enclosed space |
that it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases |
the lack of cooling effect on heated materials |
|
The CO2 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are
__________. |
open stop valve, open control valve, trip alarm |
break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control |
open bypass valve, break glass, pull handle |
sound evacuation alarm, pull handle |
|
Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small
enclosed space? |
Respiratory arrest |
Frostbite |
Electric shock |
Damaged eardrums |
|
Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE? |
It cannot be smelled. |
It is safe to use near personnel in a confined space. |
It displaces the oxygen in the air. |
It cannot be seen. |
|
While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally
activated. You should __________. |
make sure all doors and vents are secured |
retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning |
continue with your work as there is nothing you can do to stop the flow
of CO2 |
secure the applicators to preserve the charge in the cylinders |
|
Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting
fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the
__________. |
persons in the space wear gas masks |
ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the space |
ventilation system is kept operating |
persons in the space wear damp cloths over their mouths and nostrils |
|
The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700
psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure will be reached at a
temperature of __________. |
70°F |
100°F |
125°F |
135°F |
|
CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will
discharge automatically when __________. |
the control box glass is broken |
the control cylinders have been completely discharged |
pressure from the control cylinders is detected |
the discharge valve is open |
|
Spaces protected by a fixed CO2 system must be equipped with an alarm
which sounds __________. |
if all doors and ventilation are not secured |
for the first 20 seconds CO2 is being released into the space |
for at least 20 seconds prior to release of CO2 |
during the entire period that CO2 is being released |
|
A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent
__________. |
over pressurization of the CO2 discharge piping |
rupture of cylinder due to temperature increase |
flooding of a space where personnel are present |
over pressurization of the space being flooded |
|
Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must
__________. |
secure the engine room ventilation |
evacuate all engine room personnel |
secure the machinery in the engine room |
All of the above. |
|
The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is
220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 120 lbs. What is the minimum
acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged
by the manufacturer? |
200 lbs |
205 lbs |
210 lbs |
220 lbs |
|
The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 cylinder is 80 lbs. When the
bottle is empty it weighs 60 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross
weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the
manufacturer? |
55 lbs |
68 lbs |
78 lbs |
82 lbs |
|
Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or __________. |
spaces open to the atmosphere |
the paint locker |
the engine room |
cargo holds |
|
CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be
pressure tested at least every __________. |
2
years |
6
years |
12 years |
year |
|
In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space,
designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space,
the flow of CO2 is established by actuating __________. |
one control |
two controls |
three controls |
none of the above |
|
A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space,
designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected
space, is actuated by __________. |
two controls |
one control |
three controls |
none of the above |
|
The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be
located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to
protect that space is not more than __________. |
300 pounds |
400 pounds |
500 pounds |
600 pounds |
|
In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot
cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of cylinders,
the number of required pilot cylinders shall be at least __________. |
2 |
3 |
4 |
6 |
|
When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from
a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders,
the number of pilot cylinders shall be at least __________. |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the
release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be
made for releasing the CO2 __________. |
from the cargo control station |
at the cylinder location |
from inside the engine room |
from the bridge |
|
Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations
pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing
system? |
The door must be kept unlocked. |
The compartment shall be clearly marked and identifiable. |
The compartment must be properly ventilated. |
The temperature of the room should never exceed 130°F. |
|
A crew member reports that the high-pressure alarm light of a
low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is illuminated. The
most probable cause of this condition would be that __________. |
the pilot cylinder discharge valve is leaking |
the tank cooling system has malfunctioned |
an excessive amount of insulation has been installed on the tank and
piping |
an air leak has developed in the tank |
|
What would be a major consequence of the refrigeration system for a
low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system remaining inoperable? |
Excessive condensation inside the tank would freeze, causing a
restriction in the discharge piping. |
The warmed charge of CO2 would not be effective in extinguishing a fire. |
The entire charge might eventually be lost due to CO2 venting out
through the relief valve. |
Liquid CO2 would vent out through the safety valve as the temperature
increases. |
|
When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is
activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2
being released into a selected space? |
The number of discharge nozzles in the space determines the quantity
released. |
The discharge will continue until the temperature of the space returns
to its normal ambient temperature. |
The main CO2 tank is partitioned into sections that are individually
designated for each of the protected spaces. |
A
pneumatic timer controls each discharge selector valve, and is preset
for each space. |
|
The normal designed CO2 storage tank temperature and pressure associated
with a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is
approximately __________. |
70°F at 150 PSI |
0°F at 300 PSI |
70°F at 500 PSI |
0°F at 50 PSI |
|
The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly
ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of
__________. |
75°F |
100°F |
130°F |
165°F |
|
A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its
characteristic of __________. |
alternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid state becomes a
vapor |
absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a liquid to a
vapor |
rapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor |
rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam |
|
A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against fires of
class __________. |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire? |
Foam |
Dry Chemical |
Water |
CO2 |
|
Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on
flammable liquid fires? |
Dry chemical |
Water (cartridge-operated) |
Foam |
Carbon dioxide |
|
The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood fires is
__________. |
dry chemical |
foam |
water |
carbon dioxide |
|
Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on
flammable liquid fires? |
Dry chemical |
Foam (stored-pressure) |
Carbon dioxide |
Water (cartridge-operated) |
|
The most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen is
__________. |
dry chemical |
carbon dioxide |
water |
foam |
|
On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing
agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with which
chemical? |
oleum |
vinyl toluene |
benzene |
acrylic acid |
|
The primary method by which water spray puts out fires is by __________. |
cooling the fire below the ignition temperature |
removing the oxygen |
removing combustible material |
diluting combustible vapors |
|
Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat? |
CO2 |
Dry chemical |
Foam |
Water |
|
The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight
fires is __________. |
chemical foam |
carbon dioxide |
mechanical foam |
water fog or spray |
|
An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible
vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is
__________. |
Halon 1301 |
water fog |
carbon dioxide |
dry chemical |
|
Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least
amount of time? |
Dry chemical |
Steam |
Water fog or spray |
Water stream |
|
Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat? |
Foam |
Dry chemical |
Carbon dioxide |
Water spray |
|
What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires? |
Smothers burning surfaces, organically destroys fuel |
Allows fire to be attacked from leeward, saturates liquid surfaces |
Reaches areas not protected by steam or CO2 smothering systems |
Cools fire and adjacent surfaces, provides protective barrier |
|
When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility
of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow back is most likely to
occur when __________. |
the only opening in a passageway is the one from which the nozzle is
being advanced |
pressure builds up in the nozzle which causes a surge of water |
a
bulkhead collapses due to heat and pressure |
pressure in the fire hose drops below 100 psi |
|
What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream
of water in fighting an oil fire? |
It has a smothering effect on the fire. |
It gives more protection to fire fighting personnel. |
It requires less water to remove the same amount of heat. |
All of the above. |
|
Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to __________. |
fight a magnesium fire |
fight an electrical fire |
eliminate smoke from a compartment |
All of the above. |
|
What is the BEST conductor of electricity? |
Salt water |
Fresh water |
Carbon dioxide |
Distilled water |
|
The primary function(s) of an automatic sprinkler system is(are) to
__________. |
protect people in the areas which have sprinkler heads |
limit the spread of fire and control the amount of heat produced |
alert the crew to the fire |
extinguish the fire which triggers it |
|
Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound
fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and what
action is taken? |
the bone has been set |
the fracture is immobilized |
radio advice has been obtained |
the wound has been washed |
|
What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first aid? |
Control bleeding |
Reset the bone |
Immobilize a fracture |
Reduce pain |
|
You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm.
Which action should you take? |
Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the bleeding, and
splint. |
Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint. |
Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then
apply a temporary splint, and obtain medical advice. |
Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint, and apply
a pressure dressing. |
|
Which is the most serious type of fracture? |
Greenstick |
Crack |
Compound |
Closed |
|
How deeply should the sternum be depressed when applying chest
compressions on an adult victim during CPR? |
1
to 1-1/2 inches |
1/2 to 1 inch |
1/2 inch or less |
1-1/2 to 2 inches |
|
You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his
mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should
you do? |
Raise the victim's head higher than his feet. |
Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any
obstruction. |
Blow harder to force the air past the tongue. |
Re-tip the head and try again. |
|
What should a person do after being revived by artificial respiration? |
be given several shots of whiskey |
be walked around until he is back to normal |
be allowed to do as he wishes |
be kept lying down and warm |
|
You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the
victim's body should the pressure be applied? |
Left chest over the heart |
Lower half of the sternum |
Tip of the sternum |
Top half of the sternum |
|
The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth
resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________. |
holding the jaw down firmly |
cupping a hand around the patient's mouth |
applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth |
keeping the head elevated |
|
While carrying out artificial respiration how should rescuers be changed
out? |
at ten-minute intervals |
by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes |
only with the help of two other people |
without losing the rhythm of respiration |
|
What is the MOST important element in administering CPR? |
treating for traumatic shock |
having the proper equipment for the process |
administering of oxygen |
starting the treatment quickly |
|
What is the FIRST thing the rescuer must do if the patient vomits during
mouth-to mouth resuscitation? |
ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation |
pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume
ventilation mouth-to-mouth |
turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume
mouth-to-mouth ventilation |
switch to mouth-to-nose ventilation |
|
What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops
breathing? |
immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary |
administer oxygen |
make the victim comfortable in a bunk |
immediately start CPR |
|
What is a sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial
respiration? |
blue color and lack of breathing |
vomiting |
unconsciousness |
irregular breathing |
|
What should you do before CPR is started? |
insure the victim is conscious |
treat any bleeding wounds |
establish an open airway |
make the victim comfortable |
|
Which situation may require you to administer artificial respiration? |
drowning |
poisoning |
electrocution |
All of the above. |
|
What is MOST important when administering artificial respiration? |
monitor blood pressure |
know all approved methods |
clear airways |
use the rhythmic pressure method |
|
After pinching a victim's nostrils, how can a rescuer best provide an
airtight seal during mouth to mouth ventilation? |
by holding the jaw down firmly |
by applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth |
by keeping the head elevated |
by cupping a hand around the patient's mouth |
|
How can you recognize the necessity for administering artificial
respiration? |
blue color and lack of breathing |
irregular breathing |
vomiting |
unconsciousness |
|
What should you do in order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim? |
drain water from the lungs before ventilating |
begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations |
start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water |
do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting |
|
Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube? |
A
size 2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult. |
Inserting the airway tube will prevent vomiting. |
The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat. |
Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube. |
|
What should a observer do if a victim is coughing and wheezing from a
partial obstruction of the airway? |
give back blows and something to drink |
allow the person to continue coughing and dislodge the obstruction on
his own |
perform the Heimlich maneuver |
immediately start CPR |
|
What action should you take if a shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak,
and starts to turn blue? |
immediately administer CPR |
make the victim lie down with the feet elevated to get blood to the
brain |
perform the Heimlich maneuver |
do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious |
|
For small, first-degree burns, what is the quickest method to relieve
pain? |
administer aspirin |
immerse the burn in cold water |
apply a bandage to exclude air |
apply petroleum jelly |
|
In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you
AVOID doing? |
Keeping the patient warm and comfortable |
Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating atmosphere |
Giving stimulants |
Applying artificial respiration and massage |
|
A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye
with what liquid? |
baking soda solution |
boric acid solution |
water |
ammonia |
|
When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding? |
when the victim is unconscious |
when all other means have failed |
to prevent bleeding from minor wounds |
with puncture wounds |
|
As a last resort, what can a tourniquet can be used for? |
stop uncontrolled bleeding |
restrain a delirious victim |
hold a large bandage in place |
hold a victim in a stretcher |
|
A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding
excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the
wound? |
Wrap a tight bandage around the wound. |
Use temporary stitches of sail twine. |
Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing. |
Apply a compression bandage. |
|
What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open
wounds? |
stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound |
apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops |
apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it |
lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops |
|
A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure
should you use to remove it? |
push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook |
cut the skin from around the hook |
pull it out with pliers |
have a surgeon remove it |
|
In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be
controlled? |
cooling the wound with ice |
applying direct pressure to the wound |
applying a tourniquet |
submerging the wound in lukewarm water |
|
A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been
controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should
you do next? |
Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting. |
Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic. |
Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. |
Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing. |
|
How does bleeding from a vein appear? |
dark red and has a steady flow |
bright red and slow |
dark red and spurting |
bright red and spurting |
|
How does blood flowing from a cut artery appear? |
dark red and in spurts |
bright red and in spurts |
bright red with a steady flow |
dark red with a steady flow |
|
Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method? |
heavy application of a disinfectant |
applying direct pressure to the wound |
pinching the wound closed |
pouring ice water directly onto the wound |
|
What is the preferred method of controlling external bleeding? |
a
tourniquet above the wound |
direct pressure on the wound |
pressure on a pressure point |
elevating the wounded area |
|
When a person is in shock, how will their skin appear? |
cold and damp |
warm and damp |
warm and dry |
cold and dry |
|
After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be
done to help prevent shock? |
Slightly elevate the head and feet. |
Keep the person awake. |
Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature. |
Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow. |
|
EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock
should be placed in which position? |
Head down and feet up |
Arms above the head |
Head up and feet down |
Flat on back with head and feet elevated |
|
In any major injury, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and
what secondary condition? |
application of CPR |
for traumatic shock |
removal of any foreign objects |
administration of oxygen |
|
What is a treatment for traumatic shock? |
Open clothing to allow cooling of the body. |
Keep the victim in a sitting position. |
Administer fluids. |
Administer CPR. |
|
A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position? |
Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level |
Arms above their head |
On their side if unconscious |
Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head |
|
What are the symptoms of sun stroke? |
Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, skin is clammy. |
Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, skin is cold
and clammy. |
Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, skin is hot and dry. |
Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, skin is clammy. |
|
If a person is unconscious from electric shock, the first action is to
remove him from the electrical source. What is the secondary action? |
administer ammonia smelling salts |
determine if he is breathing |
massage vigorously to restore circulation |
check for serious burns on the body |
|
Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, what is the FIRST medical
indicator to check for? |
symptoms of concussion |
breathing and heartbeat |
indication of broken bones |
bleeding injuries |
|
What precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact
with dry lime? |
Before washing, the lime should be brushed away gently. |
The entire burn area should be covered with ointment. |
The burned area should be immersed in water. |
Water should be applied in a fine spray. |
|
A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the
skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard
medical terminology? |
Major burn |
Dermal burn |
Third-degree burn |
Lethal burn |
|
A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering,
and swelling. Using standard medical terminology what type of burn is
this? |
major burn |
secondary burn |
second-degree burn |
blister burn |
|
When treating a chemical burn, what is the minimum amount of time you
should flood the burned area? |
ten minutes |
twenty minutes |
five minutes |
fifteen minutes |
|
A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower
arm. What is the proper treatment for this injury? |
Apply burn ointment, remove any foreign material and insure that nothing
is in contact with the burn. |
Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, open any blister and
apply burn ointment. |
Open any blisters with a sterile needle, apply burn ointment and
bandage. |
Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn ointment, and
bandage. |
|
A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin
but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, what
type of burn is this? |
Superficial burn |
Extremity burn |
Minor burn |
First-degree burn |
|
Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with what
substance(s)? |
alkalies, but not acids |
acids or alkalies |
diesel oil |
acids, but not alkalies |
|
What can be caused by severe airway burns? |
complete obstruction of respiratory passages |
nosebleed |
nausea |
reddening of cheeks |
|
What is the immediate and most effective first aid treatment for
chemical burns? |
apply an ice pack to the burned area |
apply ointment to the burned area |
flood the affected area with water |
wrap the burn with sterile dressing |
|
What is the most important concern in treating a person with extensive
burns? |
preventing infection |
cooling with ice water |
reducing disfigurement |
reducing swelling |
|
What is the basic emergency care for third degree electrical burns? |
flood the burned area with warm water for two minutes |
brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area |
cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a
medical facility |
apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth |
|
What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns? |
cover the burns with thick, sterile dressings |
break blisters and remove dead tissue |
make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation |
submerge the burn area in cold water |
|
If a rescuer finds an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of live
electrical equipment or wiring, what would be the first action to take? |
apply ointment to the burned areas on the patient |
flush water over any burned area of the patient |
remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment or
wiring |
get assistance to shut down electrical power in the area |
|
How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated? |
mineral oil drops directly on the eye |
warming the eye with moist warm packs |
laying the person flat on his back |
gently flooding with water |
|
What is of importance when a patient has an electrical burn? |
apply ointment to the burn area and wrap with clean cloth |
look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current
passing through the body |
remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burn |
locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for five
minutes |
|
What should be the FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having
airway burns? |
apply a cool damp dressing to his neck |
have him drink cool liquids |
maintain an open airway |
move him to a cool location |
|
How are First-, second-, and third-degree burns classified? |
according to the area of the body burned |
according to the size of the burned area |
according to the source of heat causing the burn |
according to the layers of skin affected |
|
What is the FIRST treatment for a surface burn? |
wash the burned area with a warm soap and water solution |
flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold water |
cover the burned area with talcum powder and bandage it tightly |
leave the burned area exposed to the atmosphere |
|
What should you do if a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm? |
drain any blisters |
apply antiseptic ointment |
immerse the arm in cold water |
scrub the arm thoroughly to prevent infection |
|
Which of the following medical conditions has symptoms of: burning pain
with redness of the skin, an irritating rash, blistering or loss of skin
and or toxic poisoning? |
athlete's foot |
dermatitis |
chemical burn |
asphyxia |
|
What would be the result of physical exertion on the part of a person
who has fallen into cold water? |
it will increase the rate of heat loss from the body |
it will increase survival time in the water |
it will increase the water temperature between the body and layers of
clothing |
it will decrease exposure of the body surface to cold water |
|
What should you do for a crew member who has suffered frostbite to the
toes of both feet? |
immerse the feet in warm water |
warm the feet with a heat lamp |
warm the feet at room temperature |
rub the feet |
|
What is the most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering
from hypothermia? |
running or jumping to increase circulation |
raising body temperature rapidly by placing hands and feet in hot water |
laying prone under heat lamps to rewarm rapidly |
bundling the body in blankets to rewarm gradually |
|
Which of the following is a treatment of frostbite? |
rubbing affected area with ice or snow |
wrapping area tightly in warm cloths |
rubbing affected area briskly to restore circulation |
warming exposed parts rapidly |
|
Which of the following describes the condition of Hypothermia? |
when the rate of heat loss of the body exceeds the rate of heat
production |
when the rate of heat production in the body exceeds the rate of heat
loss |
when the core body temperature drops to 38 degrees Celsius |
any instance when a person is emerged in water |
|
Which of the following is a symptom of mild hypothermia? |
decreased pulse and signs of drowsiness |
increased pulse and increased breathing rate |
decreased pulse and increased breathing rate |
increased pulse and signs of drowsiness |
|
You are attending to survivors after abandoning ship. Several of the
personnel have a slow pulse and slow breathing rates. Which of the
following is the most probable cause of these conditions? |
mild hypothermia |
moderate hypothermia |
dehydration |
shock |
|
A survivor has been pulled from the water off the coast of Greenland.
The patient is in a state of confusion and has ceased shivering. Which
of the following best describes the patient's condition? |
the patient is suffering from frostbite |
the patient is suffering from mild hypothermia |
the patient is suffering from moderate hypothermia |
the patient is suffering from frostnip |
|
Your vessel is in distress and the order has been given to abandon ship.
If you must enter the water which of the following would aid in
preventing hypothermia? |
once you are in the water keep moving as much as possible to increase
circulation |
remove as many layers of clothing as possible before donning a survival
suit to help increase buoyancy |
consume large amounts of cold liquids to increase hydration |
apply as many layers of clothing as possible before donning a survival
suit to preserve body heat |
|
A person is exhibiting signs of hypothermia and starts to shiver, what
does this indicate? |
the body requires a rapid increase in core temperature |
the body is dilating blood vessels to conserve heat |
the body is in the final stages of severe hypothermia |
the body is trying to generate more heat |
|
You have abandoned ship are in a liferaft with several other members of
the crew. One person in the life raft is exhibiting symptoms of
hypothermia. Which of the following could you do to aid the victim? |
keep him in an upright and vertical position |
use direct body to body contact to warm him |
give him alcohol to drink |
massage the persons limbs to increase circulation |
|
Your vessel is taking on water and the order has been given to abandon
ship. Which of the following is an effective method of combating
hypothermia if you must enter the water? |
apply multiple layers of clothing before donning an immersion suit |
only swim if necessary to reach survival craft or other survivors |
when entering the water attempt to do so gradually |
All of the above. |
|
When abandoning ship in cold waters, what actions can be taken to
minimize the effects of entering the water? |
utilize embarcation ladders or a fire hose to lower yourself to a
survival craft |
wear a type II PFD and carry an immersion suit with you |
inflate the life raft on deck, board the raft and wait for the vessel to
sink |
do not abandon the vessel until help arrives on scene |
|
What can you do if a person gets something in his or her eye and you see
that it is not embedded? |
remove it with a piece of dry sterile cotton |
remove it with a moist, cotton-tipped applicator |
get them to rub their eye until the object is gone |
remove it with a match or toothpick |
|
Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head
injury and is groggy or unconscious? |
Elevate his head. |
Give a stimulant. |
Treat for shock. |
Stop severe bleeding. |
|
Where can a rescuer most easily check to determine whether or not an
adult victim has a pulse? |
carotid artery in the neck |
brachial artery in the arm |
femoral artery in the groin |
radial artery in the wrist |
|
Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids
in what body part? |
stomach |
lower intestines |
bladder |
inner ear |
|
Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted? |
Give pain reliever. |
Revive the person with smelling salts. |
Lay the person horizontally. |
Loosen the clothing. |
|
What is the most useful drug to reduce mild fever? |
aromatic spirits of ammonia |
paregoric |
aspirin |
bicarbonate of soda |
|
What does first aid mean? |
medical treatment of accident |
emergency treatment at the scene of the injury |
dosage of medications |
setting of broken bones |
|
What are the symptoms of sea sickness? |
stomach cramps and diarrhea |
fever and thirst |
nausea and dizziness |
reddening of skin and hives |
|
What is the primary use of antiseptics? |
speed healing |
increase blood circulation |
prevent infection |
reduce inflammation |
|
What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person? |
whiskey and water |
coffee |
tea |
ammonia inhalant |
|
What should you avoid when administering first aid? |
touching the patient before washing your hands |
unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty |
instructing bystanders |
any conversation with the patient |
|
What is normal mouth temperature? |
96.4°F |
99.7°F |
97.5°F |
98.6°F |
|
What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the
severity of their injuries? |
evaluation |
surveying |
triage |
prioritizing |
|
Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the
first to receive emergency treatment? |
Back injuries |
Burns |
Suspension of breathing |
Major multiple fractures |
|
Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should
be the first to receive emergency treatment? |
Eye injuries |
Major multiple fractures |
Burns |
Severe shock |
|
What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving
multiple injuries? |
prescribe treatment for the victim |
provide the necessary medication |
accurately diagnose the ailment or injury |
rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries |
|
What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a
victim's pupils? |
The degree of pain being suffered |
The degree of vision impairment |
Whether or not the victim's blood pressure is normal |
Whether or not the brain is functioning properly |
|
When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening
situation, what must the person giving first aid do? |
avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance |
carry the victim to a location where injuries can be assessed |
place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal |
pull the victim by the feet |
|
What is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an
injury victim? |
Look for discoloration of the patient's skin. |
Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body. |
Check the corresponding (left versus right) parts of the body. |
Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body. |
|
When giving first aid, in addition to conducting primary and secondary
surveys, what should you be familiar with? |
how to set broken bones |
the limits of your capabilities |
which medications to prescribe |
how to diagnose an illness from symptoms |
|
What should you look for evidence of if a victim is unconscious? |
head injury |
irregular breathing |
broken limbs |
high fever |
|
What should you look for evidence of if a victim is unconscious? |
head injury |
irregular breathing |
broken limbs |
high fever |
|
Medical treatment aboard a vessel should not go beyond examination and
emergency care without first consulting __________. |
the shore based superintendent |
the approved company medical manual |
the designated medic aboard |
a
medical doctor |
|
Which statement describes a compound fracture? |
a
fracture where more than one bone is broken |
a
fracture where the bone may be visible |
a
fracture where there is never any internal bleeding |
a
fracture where the same bone is broken in more than one place |
|
How should a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal
injuries be treated? |
not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives |
not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk |
be assisted in walking around |
be examined then walked to a bunk |
|
How should you FIRST treat a simple fracture? |
attempting to set the fracture |
preventing further movement of the bone |
alternately applying hot and cold compresses |
applying a tourniquet |
|
What should you do if a crew member is unconscious and the face is
flushed? |
lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised |
administer a liquid stimulant |
lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet |
attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness |
|
What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion? |
slow and deep breathing |
slow and strong pulse |
pale and clammy skin |
flushed and dry skin |
|
What does the treatment(s) of heat exhaustion consist(s) of? |
moving to a shaded area and laying down |
bathing with rubbing alcohol |
placing the patient in a tub of cold water |
All of the above. |
|
What causes heat exhaustion? |
excessive intake of water when working or exercising |
excessive increase in body temperature |
excessive loss of water and salt from the body |
excessive loss of body temperature |
|
What are the symptoms of heat stroke? |
cold and moist skin, high body temperature |
hot and moist skin, high body temperature |
cold and dry skin, low body temperature |
hot and dry skin, high body temperature |
|
What is the principle treatment of sunstroke? |
bathing with rubbing alcohol |
cooling, removing to shaded area, and lying down |
drinking ice water |
All of the above. |
|
How should you treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion? |
administer artificial respiration |
give him sips of cool water |
cover him with a light cloth |
put him in a tub of ice water |
|
How should a patient suffering from heat exhaustion be treated? |
moved to a cool room and told to lie down |
kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously |
given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of
rest |
None of the above are correct |
|
A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injury. What symptoms
would indicate the onset of a diabetic coma? |
reduced appetite and thirst |
slurred speech and loss of coordination |
only a low grade fever |
sneezing and coughing |
|
What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix? |
Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen |
Diarrhea and frequent urination |
Extreme sweating and reddening skin |
Dilated pupils and shallow breathing |
|
What is the primary action when a patient is suspected of having
appendicitis? |
give the patient a laxative to relieve pain |
give the patient morphine sulfate to relieve pain |
give the patient aspirin with a glass of water |
confine to bed until helicopter arrives |
|
What are the symptoms of sugar diabetes? |
decreased appetite and thirst |
elevated temperature |
gain in weight |
increased appetite and thirst |
|
What should be given to a diabetic who suffers an insulin reaction and
is conscious? |
a
glass of milk |
an ounce of whiskey |
orange juice |
soda crackers and water |
|
How is epilepsy, a chronic nervous disorder characterized? |
severe nausea and cramps |
muscular convulsions with partial or complete loss of consciousness |
sudden thirst and craving for candy |
severe agitation and desire to get out of closed spaces |
|
What should you do if a crew member is having an epileptic convulsion? |
completely restrain the victim |
give the victim artificial respiration |
give the victim one 30 mg. tablet of phenobarbital |
keep the victim from injuring him or herself |
|
What is the most important consideration while providing assistance to a
victim of an epileptic seizure? |
prevent patient from hurting himself |
give artificial respiration |
keep the patient awake and make him/her walk if necessary to keep
him/her awake |
remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed |
|
How should the pain be relieved when a patient is suspected of having
appendicitis? |
giving the patient aspirin with a glass of water |
giving the patient a laxative |
giving the patient morphine sulfate |
keeping an ice bag over the appendix area |
|
Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given
large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water? |
to neutralize the poison in the blood |
to absorb the poison from the blood |
to increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison |
to induce vomiting |
|
When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, the MOST
important symptom to check for is __________. |
unconsciousness |
suspension of breathing |
cold and moist skin |
slow and weak pulse |
|
What is the major cause of shock in burn victims? |
increase in body temperature and pulse rate |
high level of pain |
massive loss of fluid through the burned area |
emotional stress |
|
Why should a person being treated for shock should be wrapped in warm
coverings? |
to preserve body heat |
to protect the person from injury during transportation |
to increase body heat |
to avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic movement |
|
What is the best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an
accident? |
have the victim exercise to increase circulation |
keep the victim from electrical equipment |
apply ice packs and avoid excitement |
keep the victim warm and dry while lying down |
|
Which is a symptom of traumatic shock? |
Weak, rapid pulse |
Pale, cold skin |
Restlessness and anxiety |
All of the above. |
|
What are the symptoms of a fractured back? |
pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arms |
pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis
below the injury |
leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legs |
vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement |
|
What is an effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries
onto a spine board? |
pack-strap carry |
two man extremities carry |
four man log roll |
fireman's drag |
|
What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury patient? |
providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration |
preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain |
avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling |
relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication |
|
What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an
unconscious patient? |
Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to see
if he registers pain |
Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press
the spine to find where it hurts |
Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to
check reaction |
Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp
object to check for reaction |
|
If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________. |
body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry
into the water |
both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees bent and
legs crossed |
holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing
the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together |
knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs |
|
When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial
height without a life jacket, you should __________. |
jump feet first, holding your knees to your chest |
hold your arms firmly at your sides and jump feet first |
dive head first, using your hands to break the surface of the water |
jump feet first, covering your nose and mouth with one hand and grasping
the opposing upper arm with the other |
|
If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should
__________. |
enter the water on the windward side of the vessel |
protect your life preserver by holding it above your head |
wear very light clothing |
keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when
diving head first |
|
If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should
be __________. |
extended straight down and crossed at the ankles |
in a kneeling position |
spread apart as far as possible |
held as tightly against your chest as possible |
|
When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water,
one of the FIRST things to be done is __________. |
transfer all the injured to one raft |
separate the rafts as much as possible to increase chances of detection |
transfer all supplies to one raft |
secure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart |
|
When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should
__________. |
stay in the immediate area |
plot a course for the nearest land |
go in one direction until fuel runs out |
take a vote on which direction you should go |
|
If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of
action should be to __________. |
head for the closest sea-lanes |
head for the closest land |
get a majority opinion |
remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel |
|
Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable
liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic
release. Which action should you take? |
Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate
and open the container. |
Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes
down. |
Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down. |
Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump. |
|
The abandon ship signal is __________. |
a
continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 seconds |
a
continuous sounding of the ship's whistle |
a
continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship's
whistle |
more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the
same signal on the general alarm bells |
|
The sea painter of a rescue boat should be led __________. |
to the foremost point on the vessel |
forward and outboard of all obstructions |
forward and inboard of all obstructions |
up and down from the main deck |
|
Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by
avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive
without water? |
Up to 3 days |
8
to 12 days |
15 to 20 days |
25 to 30 days |
|
What should you do, following the launching of the survival craft, in an
abandon ship scenario? |
go in one direction until fuel runs out |
take a vote on the direction in which to go |
stay in the immediate area |
plot a course for the nearest land |
|
What should you do, if help has not arrived in 10-12 hours, after having
abandoned your vessel in a survival craft? |
take a vote on the direction in which to go |
shutdown the engines and put out the sea anchor |
plot course for the nearest land |
go in one direction until the fuel runs out |
|
Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a
liferaft in an emergency? |
Take anti-seasickness pills, if available. |
Ration food and water supplies. |
Check pyrotechnic supplies. |
Determine position and closest point of land. |
|
If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship
it will __________. |
weigh you down |
make it more difficult to breathe |
reduce your body heat |
preserve body heat |
|
If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk,
__________. |
the possibility of a search aircraft finding you is increased by
spreading out |
reduce the number of liferafts by getting as many people as possible
into as few rafts as possible |
tie each of the rafts together and try to stay in a single group |
each raft should go in a different direction in search of land |
|
All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats __________. |
maintenance schedule |
boarding and operating procedures |
navigational systems |
fuel consumption rates |
|
During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the
survival craft should __________. |
activate the emergency release handle |
open the doors and start the sprinkler system |
open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding |
pass out food and water to personnel |
|
Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body
moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally
possible to survive without stored quantities of water? |
Up to 3 days |
8
to 14 days |
15 to 20 days |
25 to 30 days |
|
If your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you should FIRST
__________. |
get out of the raft and swim to safety |
cut the line to the sea anchor |
paddle away from the fire |
splash water over the liferaft to cool it |
|
You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just
inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a
buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this? |
The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the
canopy. |
A
deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2. |
The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully
inflated. |
Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop. |
|
You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is
completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety
valve. You should __________. |
remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch |
unscrew the deflation plugs |
plug the safety valve |
not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time |
|
If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should
__________. |
tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group |
reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as
few rafts as possible |
spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you |
go in a different direction in search of land |
|
If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, your course of action
should be to __________. |
head for the nearest land |
let the persons in the boat vote on what to do |
head for the closest sea-lanes |
remain in the immediate vicinity |
|
If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at
sea, it is important that the crew members should __________. |
immediately head for the nearest land |
remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the
vessel's last known position |
separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being
rescued |
get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel |
|
If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________. |
head for the nearest land |
remain in the immediate vicinity |
head for the closest sea-lanes |
vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision |
|
After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft
to __________. |
navigate against the current |
stay in the general location |
keep the liferaft from capsizing |
keep personnel from getting seasick |
|
If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship,
they should __________. |
send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance |
tie themselves to the unit so they won't drift with the current |
form a raft by lashing their life preservers together |
form a small circular group to create a warmer pocket of water in the
center of the circle |
|
To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they
should __________. |
remove their life preservers and hold on to the uninjured survivors |
float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to
the air |
sip water at intervals of fifteen minutes |
be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors
in the water |
|
If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a
lifeboat, you should __________. |
shut down the engines and set the sea anchor |
go in one direction until the fuel runs out |
take a vote on which direction you should go |
plot course for the nearest land |
|
Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard
liferafts to look for __________. |
bad weather |
food and water |
survivors in the water |
land |
|
What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable
liferaft? |
Pick up other survivors. |
Open equipment pack. |
Issue anti-seasickness medicine. |
Post a lookout. |
|
You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared
away from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to
__________. |
identify the person in charge of liferaft |
search for survivors |
prepare and use radio equipment |
take measures to maintain morale |
|
You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of
your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft? |
Open the equipment pack. |
Cut the sea painter and clear the vessel. |
Decide on food and water rations. |
Inflate the liferaft floor. |
|
After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon
entering a liferaft? |
Get clear of the ship. |
Open equipment pack. |
Dry the liferaft floor and inflate. |
Issue anti-seasickness medicine. |
|
You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other
survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next? |
Top up the buoyancy tubes. |
Decide on food and water rations. |
Close up the entrances. |
Prepare for the arrival of rescue units. |
|
What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and
clearing away from a vessel? |
Arrange watches and duties. |
Prepare for arrival of rescue units. |
Gather up useful floating objects. |
Identify the person in charge. |
|
You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a
sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the
liferaft? |
Ventilate the liferaft of CO2. |
Cut the painter. |
Open the equipment pack. |
Operate the radio equipment. |
|
You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water
per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24
hours? |
1
quart |
1
can |
1
gallon |
1
pint |
|
Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a
survival situation, how should you drink it? |
Small sips only after sunset |
Small sips at regular intervals during the day |
One-third the daily ration three times daily |
The complete daily ration at one time during the day |
|
If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT __________. |
cover eyes with one hand when entering the water |
enter the water feet first |
wear as much clothing as possible |
swim with the wind |
|
You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be
used during a prolonged period in a raft? |
Get plenty of rest. |
Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration. |
Keep the entrance curtains open. |
All of the above. |
|
When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat
or liferaft? |
After 12 hours |
After 24 hours |
Within 48 hours |
Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48
hours later. |
|
After abandoning a vessel, water that is consumed within the first 24
hours will __________. |
help to prevent seasickness |
pass through the body with little absorbed by the system |
help to prevent fatigue |
quench thirst for only 2 hours |
|
In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given
only to personnel who are __________. |
thirsty |
awake |
wet |
sick or injured |
|
Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE? |
Fresh water may be obtained from fish. |
Lifeboat covers or canopies should be washed with rain before drinking
water is collected. |
Fresh water may be collected from condensation inside the liferaft. |
Seawater should never be consumed. |
|
When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________. |
it should be strained through a finely woven cloth |
only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collected |
chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable |
a
sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free |
|
The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as
possible after entering a life raft is to __________. |
prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting |
reduce appetite by decreasing nausea |
assist in sleeping |
prevent impaired judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness |
|
When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first
collection should be __________. |
passed around so all can drink |
used to boil food |
poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy |
saved to be used at a later time |
|
Seawater may be used for drinking __________. |
under no conditions |
at a maximum rate of two ounces per day |
after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water |
if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain |
|
Drinking salt water will __________. |
dehydrate you |
be safe if mixed with fresh water |
protect against heat camps |
prevent seasickness |
|
You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft or survival
craft. How much water per day should you permit each person to have
after the first 24 hours? |
1
quart |
1
pint |
1
gallon |
1
can |
|
If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, you should
__________. |
vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision |
remain in the immediate vicinity |
head for the closest sea-lanes |
head for the nearest land |
|
If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning a vessel in a
rescue boat, you should __________. |
steer a course for the nearest land |
shut down the engines if installed and put out the sea anchor |
go in one direction until the fuel runs out |
steer a course for the nearest sea lane |
|
The AMVER system requires __________. |
sailing plans to be sent before departure |
a
position report within 24 hours of departure |
more frequent reports in heavy weather |
arrival reports to be sent within 8 hours of arrival |
|
What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for
use in an AMVER report? |
06 1122 ZD+6 |
G1722 06APR81 |
1122Z6 06APR |
061722Z |
|
Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in
longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be
entered into an AMVER report? |
030647Z MAR |
030947C MAR |
3094703 |
06470303Z |
|
Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in
longitude 149°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be
entered into an AMVER report? |
094703K |
234703Z |
022347Z |
030947K MAR |
|
Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in
longitude 149°16.3'W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be
entered into an AMVER report? |
03MAR1947Z |
031947 88 |
030947W |
031947Z |
|
Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in
longitude 49°16.3 W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be
entered into an AMVER report? |
309473 |
124733 MAR |
031247Z |
030947P |
|
Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated
Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE? |
There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER
system. |
The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to
calls for assistance. |
An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour
advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from
offshore. |
An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to
a vessel in distress than a non-participant. |
|
After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing
foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently
than every __________. |
24 hours |
36 hours |
48 hours |
Monday, Wednesday, and Friday |
|
The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of
departure? |
12 |
24 |
36 |
48 |
|
The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be
sent __________. |
within 12 hours of departure |
within a few hours before or after departure |
within 24 hours of departure |
prior to departure |
|
Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE? |
In the body of the sailing plan report, the letter G is used to indicate
a great circle course. |
There are four different message reports in the AMVER system. |
Distress messages should be sent to the AMVER center. |
The sailing plan may be sent in any reasonable time before departure,
but not later than 12 hours after departure. |
|
What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report? |
NURSE |
NONE |
MD |
MED TECH |
|
What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report? |
MD |
PA |
MT |
NURSE |
|
How should latitude 54°18.9'N be written when preparing an AMVER report? |
0543N |
54°N |
5419N |
54.3N |
|
How should longitude 116°54.9'E be written when preparing an AMVER
report? |
117E |
11655E |
Q1169 |
116.9E |
|
How should longitude 119°56.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER
report? |
119.9W |
V19.9 |
120°W |
11956W |
|
How should longitude 116°24.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER
report? |
116.4W |
116W |
116°24.3W |
11624W |
|
How should latitude 51°48.7'S be written when preparing an AMVER report? |
52S |
51.8S |
5149S |
0578S |
|
What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report? |
PR |
FR |
DV |
DR |
|
What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at
the start of a voyage? |
PR |
DP |
DR |
SP |
|
AMVER is a system which provides __________. |
position reporting service |
weather information |
navigational information |
satellite communications |
|
The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by
the __________. |
U.S. Coast Guard |
Department of Energy |
Corps of Engineers |
Minerals Management Service |
|
When in command of a lifeboat under oars, the command "Backwater" means
to __________. |
complete the stroke, come to "Oars", raise oars smartly to vertical,
rest handles on footing, trim blades fore and aft |
complete stroke, stop rowing, dip blade about halfway into water, hold
water to stop the way on the boat |
lift oars to vertical position, trim blades fore and aft with handles
resting on footings |
row in astern motion |
|
If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", you
should __________. |
complete the stroke, hold your oar out from the boat and level with the
water |
lift your oar to a vertical position |
dip the blade of your oar into the water and leave it there |
complete the stroke, raise your oar slightly, swing it forward, and
place it in the boat |
|
The command "Oars" means to __________. |
lift the oars to a vertical position |
complete the stroke and bring the oars horizontal, blades feathered |
place the oars in the boat with blades forward |
place the oars in the rowlocks directly from the boated position |
|
The boat command that means complete the stroke and level the oars
horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft is __________. |
"Oars" |
"Up oars" |
"Hold water" |
"Way enough" |
|
If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "Hold water" you
should __________. |
complete the stroke and hold the oar out of the water |
dip the blade of your oar into the water vertically and hold it
perpendicular to the keel line |
complete the stroke, raise your oar slightly, swinging the oar slightly
forward, and place it in the boat |
lift the oar in a vertical position |
|
Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat while passengers are
boarding are __________. |
tripping lines |
life lines |
frapping lines |
tricing lines |
|
In illustration D011SA below, what does the item labeled number (1)
operate? |
Fleming gear |
McCluny hook |
sea painter |
releasing gear |
|
A right-handed propeller will cause the survival craft to __________. |
run faster than a left-handed propeller |
walk the stern to port in reverse |
walk the stern to starboard in reverse |
right itself if capsized |
|
A sea anchor is __________. |
a
heavy anchor with an extra long line used to anchor in deep water |
a
cone shaped bag used to slow down the wind drift effect |
a
pad eye to which the sea painter is made fast |
made of wood if it is of an approved type |
|
The sea painter is secured in the lifeboat by __________. |
an eye splice placed over one of the hooks of the releasing gear |
a
turn around a forward thwart with a toggle pin thru the eye |
a
knot around a thwart |
All of the above. |
|
The sea painter of a lifeboat should be secured __________. |
to the bow of the lifeboat |
to an inboard thwart in the forward one-third of the boat |
anywhere along the inboard side of the boat |
as close as possible to amidships of the lifeboat |
|
In illustration D016SA below, the line indicated by number 4 is
connected to which of the following? |
releasing gear |
Fleming gear |
sea painter |
McCluny hook |
|
At a speed of 6 knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last
__________. |
8
hours |
12 hours |
24 hours |
48 hours |
|
In illustration D012SA below, what will be released when pulling on line
number 5? |
Gripes |
Tricing pendant |
Frapping line |
Lifeboat |
|
The lever shown in illustration D013SA below is operated when a lifeboat
is which of the following positions? |
at the embarkation deck |
in the secured position |
waterborne |
being lowered to sea level |
|
In illustration D016SA below, what number indicates the frapping line? |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
In illustration D012SA below, what is the mechanism that will release
the tricing pendant? |
a
quick release lever |
a
3/4" shackle |
the McCluny hook |
the fore and aft gripes |
|
When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________. |
prevent the lifeboat from pitching |
help to prevent broaching |
completely stop the lifeboat from drifting |
None of the above |
|
When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line
is __________. |
short enough to cause the pull to be downward |
long enough to cause the pull to be more horizontal than downward |
short enough to avoid tangling |
long enough to reach bottom |
|
What is the purpose of limber holes? |
To allow water in the bilge to get to the boat drain |
To allow for stress and strain in rough waters |
To allow for air circulation |
To allow water in the boat to drain overboard |
|
Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the
aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must
be very careful __________. |
to keep the boats covered at all times |
to rinse these boats regularly with salt water |
to keep an electric charge on the hull at all times |
not to leave steel or iron tools lying in or near these boats |
|
In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be
insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is
acceptable as an insulator? |
Sponge rubber |
Hard rubber |
Canvas |
Leather |
|
Stretchers are fitted in lifeboats to provide a __________. |
means for rigging the sail |
place for rowers to brace their feet |
suitable means for water to drain below the footings |
place for people to lie down |
|
The grab rail of a metal lifeboat is normally located __________. |
along the turn of the bilge |
at the bow and at the stern |
near the top of the gunwale |
along each side of the keel |
|
The purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat is to __________. |
add strength to the boat |
make the boat float higher |
keep the boat afloat if flooded |
provide a stowage place for provisions |
|
The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat
are painted which color? |
White |
Red |
Yellow |
International orange |
|
In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be
painted bright red? |
the thwarts |
the top 2-1/2 inches of each side |
the fuel tanks |
the releasing gear lever |
|
In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly
__________. |
the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne |
there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube |
the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned
counterclockwise |
the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly |
|
A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of
__________. |
the emergency rudder |
the line attached to the tack of the lugsail |
a
canvas awning |
the aftermost seating |
|
Frapping lines __________. |
reduce the swinging of the lifeboat at the embarkation level |
secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position |
bring the lifeboat close alongside the rail in the embarkation position |
give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being lowered from the
embarkation level |
|
What is TRUE concerning frapping lines? |
They are normally attached to the davit span. |
They are used to steady a lifeboat when lowered. |
They are needed only on radial davits. |
They are used to clear the puddings. |
|
The tricing pendants should be released __________. |
after the boat is afloat |
before the gripes are removed |
after loading the passengers |
before loading the passengers |
|
The purpose of the tricing pendants is to __________. |
control the fore and aft motion of a lifeboat during lowering |
hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck while loading |
provide suspensions for the manropes |
control the outboard swing of a lifeboat during lowering |
|
On open lifeboats, the purpose of the wire stretched between the davit
heads is to __________. |
keep the movement of the davits at the same speed |
keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed position |
support the manropes |
prevent vibration during lowering of the boat |
|
Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum
safety factor of __________. |
4, based on the breaking strength |
6, based on the maximum working load |
5, based on the maximum allowable stress |
8, based on the normal working load |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes? |
They must be released by freeing a safety shackle. |
They may be adjusted by a turnbuckle. |
They should not be released until the boat is in lowering position. |
They are normally used only with radial davits. |
|
When using a hand held smoke signal from a lifeboat, you should activate
the signal __________. |
on the downwind side |
on the upwind side |
at the stern |
inside the boat |
|
Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night
signaling to a ship on the horizon? |
A
lantern |
A
flashlight |
A
red parachute flare |
A
red hand-held flare |
|
The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should
__________. |
be fitted with a swivel and quick-releasing pelican hook |
have a long eye splice at the end, and a hardwood toggle should be
attached to the thwart with a lanyard |
be fitted at the end with an approved safety shackle |
have a long eye splice at the end, and a shackle and pin should be
attached to the painter with a lanyard |
|
In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________. |
placed in a fixed bracket when being used |
permanently mounted on the lifeboat's centerline |
clamped to any position convenient for the coxswain to see it |
mounted in the center of the boat to eliminate deviation |
|
Where should Lifeboat hatchets be kept? |
secured at each end of the boat with a lanyard |
kept next to the boat coxswain |
kept in the emergency locker on the ship and brought to the lifeboat
when needed |
kept in a locker |
|
Which represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares
and rockets? |
Immediately upon abandoning the vessel |
At half hour intervals |
At one hour intervals |
Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels |
|
When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at
__________. |
straight overhead |
at the vessel whose attention you are trying to get |
into the wind |
about 60 degrees above the horizon |
|
When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they
are used for __________. |
priming the sprinkler system |
filling the self righting bags |
additional flotation |
an air supply for personnel |
|
When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the
__________. |
hydraulic pressure is within the specified range |
steering controls are locked |
sea anchor is deployed |
hydraulic starting system has been drained |
|
The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a __________. |
hand crank |
pneumatic system |
hydraulic system |
spare battery |
|
The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with
__________. |
nitrogen |
oxygen |
nitrogen and oxygen |
compressed air |
|
With the sprinkler system and air system on and all hatches shut, the
survival craft will provide protection from a __________. |
hurricane |
drop greater than 10 feet |
nuclear environment |
fire and toxic environment |
|
The survival capsule is manufactured with fire retardant __________. |
fiberglass |
marine plywood |
foam |
steel |
|
Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to __________. |
prime the air supply |
prime the sprinkler system |
aid in helping personnel breathe |
start the engine in cold weather |
|
If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see
__________. |
if the air supply system is open |
if the limit switch is on |
if the water sprinkler system is open |
that the fuel valve is open |
|
The survival craft's engine is fueled with __________. |
diesel oil |
liquefied gas |
kerosene |
unleaded gasoline |
|
Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the
following? |
An air starter on the diesel engine |
Compartments for the storage of canned drinking water |
Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing |
Auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear) |
|
The engine in a covered lifeboat is fueled with __________. |
liquefied gas |
leaded gasoline |
diesel oil |
unleaded gasoline |
|
What is NOT a function of the air supply of a covered lifeboat? |
Provides air for engine combustion |
Prevents smoke and other noxious fumes from entering craft |
Provides air for passenger respiration |
Pressurizes water spray system |
|
With the air supply on, the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat will be
__________. |
changing in relation to the speed of the craft |
equal to outside air pressure |
greater than outside air pressure |
less than outside air pressure |
|
When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the
__________. |
engine should be shut off |
air cylinder shut-off valve should be closed |
fuel supply valve should be closed |
hatches, doors, and oar ports should be closed |
|
Most lifeboats are equipped with __________. |
contraguide rudders |
straight rudders |
balanced rudders |
unbalanced rudders |
|
The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________. |
spray oil on the sea to calm it |
cool the engine |
cool the craft in a fire |
spray personnel during a fire |
|
The purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat is to
__________. |
keep the lifeboat from reaching combustion temperature while operating
in a fire |
cool the lifeboat engine |
keep the lifeboat warm in a cold climate by applying heated water spray
from the engine to the boat |
put out a fire inside the lifeboat |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat? |
Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are required. |
If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided, they are
the only distress signals required. |
A
Very pistol with twelve flares is required. |
Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provided. |
|
The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________. |
the same length as the rowing oars |
longer than the rowing oars |
shorter than the rowing oars |
unrelated to the length of the rowing oars |
|
The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________. |
used for the stroke oar |
longer than the others and should be lashed to the stern |
shorter than the others |
used by the forward man in the boat to direct the bow |
|
A sweep oar is an oar that is __________. |
generally shorter than the others and is used to steer with |
is longer than the others and is used as the stroke oar |
is raised in the bow of the boat for the steersman to steer by |
longer than the others used for steering |
|
The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________. |
becket oar |
bumpkin oar |
sweep oar |
stroke oar |
|
What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost
or damaged? |
Sea anchor |
Spare rudder |
Steering oar |
Daggerboard |
|
Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Lifeboat No. 2 is located
__________. |
forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the port side |
forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the starboard side |
aft of lifeboat No. 1 on the starboard side |
All of the above. |
|
Number 3 lifeboat would be __________. |
behind boat number 1 on the starboard side |
the forward boat on the starboard side |
behind boat number 2 on the port side |
behind boat number 1 on the port side |
|
The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be __________. |
abaft no.1 lifeboat starboard side |
abaft no.1 lifeboat port side |
forwardmost on the starboard side |
forwardmost on the port side |
|
When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the
rudder amidships, the stern will back __________. |
to starboard |
straight |
to port |
None of the above |
|
Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of __________. |
lengthening the distance between successive crests |
increasing the height of the seas |
preventing the wave crests from breaking |
diminishing the height of the seas |
|
When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf,
sternway is checked by __________. |
towing the apex end forward with the tripping line |
slacking the tripping line and towing the sea anchor by the holding line |
towing with the tripping line and leaving the holding line slack |
slacking the tripping line and towing the sea anchor from the stern |
|
You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and
unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should __________. |
put out the sea painter |
fill the bottom of the boat with about one foot of water to make it ride
better |
take no action, broaching is recommended in a heavy sea |
put out the sea anchor |
|
In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________. |
in the same direction as the seas |
in a series of figure-eights |
into the seas |
broadside to the seas |
|
Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to
__________. |
sink |
run smoother |
run faster |
capsize |
|
When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________. |
apply the correction for compass error |
set it on the centerline of the boat |
keep metal objects away from it |
All of the above. |
|
If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first
__________. |
abandon the survival craft |
check for cracks in the hull |
check the bilge drain plug |
shift all personnel to the stern |
|
If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should FIRST
__________. |
abandon the survival craft |
check the bilge drain plug |
shift all personnel to the stern |
check for cracks in the hull |
|
A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position
provided that all personnel __________. |
are to shift to one side to right it |
are seated with seat belts on and doors shut |
are seated with seat belts on and doors open |
escape from the craft |
|
The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to
__________. |
right the craft in case of capsizing |
increase area for radar detection |
act as a sail in case of a power loss |
steady the craft in heavy seas |
|
To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water,
you must pull the safety pin and __________. |
pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar |
use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer |
pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer |
pull the hook release handle |
|
If there are no alternatives for escape, what is the maximum height that
the survival craft could be dropped into the water? |
2
ft. |
6
ft. |
10 ft. |
14 ft. |
|
Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to
__________. |
run faster |
run smoother |
sink |
capsize |
|
In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________. |
in a series of figure-eights |
in the same direction as the seas |
into the seas |
broadside to the seas |
|
During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to
__________. |
check the water level in the bilge |
look for food and water |
release the towline in an emergency |
help the helmsman steer |
|
Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need
NOT be checked? |
Fuel supply line valve |
Pressure registered on the accumulator gauge |
Engine stop control |
Cold-spark voltage readings test lamp |
|
Why are lifeboats usually double-enders? |
They require less space for stowing aboard ship. |
There is no particular reason for this. |
They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to. |
They can go forward and backward more easily. |
|
The bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat is known as the
__________. |
bilge strake |
keel rib |
sheer strake |
garboard strake |
|
Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement
is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames? |
The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links. |
The motor takes its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent
asphyxiation of the crew. |
An air tank will provide about ten minutes of air for the survivors and
the engine. |
A
water spray system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a
high-volume manual pump. |
|
Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the
__________. |
lower ballast tanks are filled with water |
sea anchor is deployed to windward |
fuel tanks are not less than half full |
passengers are strapped to their seats |
|
What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits? |
To stop the davits from going too fast |
To cut off the power when the davits hit the track safety stops |
To cut off the power when the davits are about 12 inches or more from
the track safety stops |
None of the above |
|
Limit switches are used on which davits? |
Sheath-screw davits |
Gravity davits |
Quadrantal davits |
Radial davits |
|
After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin
moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________. |
hoist man |
preventer bar |
brake handle |
limit switch |
|
Limit switches __________. |
control the descent rate of a lifeboat |
control the ascent rate of a lifeboat |
cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed
position |
cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit bumpers |
|
You will find a limit switch on a __________. |
gravity davit |
radial davit |
sheath-screw davit |
liferaft cradle |
|
Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________. |
the engineers, from a panel in the engine room |
pushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running |
shutting off the current to the winch |
All of the above. |
|
In illustration D008SA below, what type of davits are displayed? |
round-bar davits |
quadrantal davits |
gravity davits |
radial davits |
|
While cranking out a quadrantal davit, slippage of the quadrant due to
excessive wear or failure of the teeth in the quadrant will cause the
__________. |
limit switch to engage and hold the traveling nut in position |
davit arm to pivot on the traveling nut and the head to fall outboard |
traveling nut to lock up in place on the worm gear |
winch brake to lock in position and prevent lowering the boat |
|
What is required to launch a boat stowed in a crescent davit? |
Hoist the boat clear of the cradle. |
Release the outboard part of the cradle. |
Rig the tricing lines. |
Crank the crescent out. |
|
Each open lifeboat carried on a vessel on an international voyage must
have __________. |
a
mast and a sail |
hand-propelling gear |
a
davit span with at least 2 lifelines |
a
motor |
|
Which type of davit is not considered to be a mechanical davit? |
Radial |
Crescent |
Sheath-screw boom |
Quadrantal |
|
The lifeboats on your vessel are stowed on cradles on deck and are
handled by sheath-screw boom davits. Which of the following statements
about launching a boat is TRUE? |
The boat should be hoisted a few inches clear of the cradle before
cranking out the davits. |
The outboard section of the cradle must be released. |
The inboard gripes should be cast off before the outboard gripes. |
The tricing pendants will automatically bring the boat alongside at the
embarkation deck. |
|
A mechanical davit is designed to automatically __________. |
position the boat at the embarkation station |
set the brake on the winch |
energize the winch for the falls |
lift the boat off the inboard chocks |
|
Many sheath-screw davits have markings to indicate the maximum angle to
which they should be cranked out. If the angle is exceeded, the davit
__________. |
will not automatically position the boat at the embarkation station |
screw may come out of the sheath |
may jam against the stops |
will chafe against the falls and may cause their failure |
|
Your vessel is equipped with mechanical davits. When stowing the
lifeboat after a drill while underway, you should __________. |
leave the tricing pendants slack |
leave the outboard part of the cradle in the down position |
ensure the falls are taut |
secure the inboard gripes only |
|
The boat is stowed on the davit rather than on a cradle with which type
of davit? |
Sheath-screw boom |
Crescent |
Radial |
Quadrantal |
|
What is the accepted standard for wire rope falls used in connection
with the lifeboat gear? |
Six by seven galvanized wire rope |
Six by nineteen regular-lay filler wire rope |
Six by twenty-four improved plow steel wire rope |
Six by thirty-seven preformed fiber-core wire rope |
|
Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to __________. |
hold the lifeboat to the ship's side until the tricing lines are passed |
secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position |
reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the
embarkation level |
be used as a safety line in an emergency |
|
The falls on gravity davits are __________. |
wire |
nylon |
manila |
All of the above. |
|
The type of davit on which you must turn a crank in order to swing the
lifeboat out over the ship's side is a __________. |
sheath-screw davit |
gravity davit |
radial davit |
bruckner davit |
|
The most common type of davit found on merchant vessels today is the
__________. |
quadrantal |
radial |
gravity |
sheath-screw |
|
On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height? |
Gravity |
Quadrantal |
Radial |
Sheath-screw |
|
Which davit type may be operated by one person? |
Radial |
Quadrantal |
Sheath-screw |
Gravity |
|
The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is
controlled by the __________. |
position of the counterweight on the brake handle |
governor brake |
limit switches |
emergency disconnect switch |
|
When operating gravity davits, the __________. |
davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final
stowed position |
gripes should be released after the boat is moving |
tricing pendant should be tripped prior to releasing the gripes |
boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around cruciform bitts |
|
What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches
and davits? |
Moisture accumulation in winch motor damaging the electrical wiring |
Corroding of sheaves on the davits so they will not rotate |
Freezing of gears in cold weather |
All of the above. |
|
According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at
intervals of how many years? |
2.5 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
|
According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be
taken at 30-month intervals? |
Inspected |
Weight tested |
End-for-ended |
Renewed |
|
The pivot pin at the base of a sheath-screw boom davit must be
__________. |
periodically removed for inspection and lubricated |
replaced at each inspection for certification |
in the locked position after the boat is cradled and griped down |
inserted each time before the booms are cranked out |
|
Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving
ship? |
Fleming Gear |
The falls |
Boat hook |
Sea painter |
|
When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor
driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up __________. |
until just before they make contact with the limit switch, and then hand
cranked to their final position |
to their final position with the winch operating at slow speed |
to the embarkation deck, and then hand cranked to their final position |
to the bar stop, and then hand cranked to their final position |
|
The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led __________. |
to the foremost point on the ship |
up and down from the main deck |
forward and inside of all obstructions |
forward and outside of all obstructions |
|
On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, turning the
releasing lever releases __________. |
both falls at the same time even if the boat has not reached the water |
the painter |
the after boat fall only if the boat is waterborne |
both falls at the same time only if the boat is waterborne |
|
How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged? |
Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the
falls |
Spliced into the ring on the stem post |
Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart |
Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls |
|
When launching a lifeboat, the tricing pennants should be released
__________. |
after the boat is released into the water |
before the boat is lowered from the embarkation level |
before the boat is lowered from the stowed position |
as the boat-fall blocks break clear of the davit head |
|
In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released? |
Before the boat is lowered from the stowage position |
As soon as the boat-fall blocks clear the davit head |
After all people have been embarked |
After the limit switch is activated |
|
When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be pulled into the
embarkation deck by the __________. |
falls |
boat hooks |
frapping lines |
tricing pendants |
|
Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity
davits? |
Release gripes, lift brake, release tricing pennants |
Release gripes, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping
lines |
Release tricing pennants, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release
frapping lines |
Operate limit switches, release gripes, lift brake |
|
Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and
report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open
lifeboat. The FIRST thing to do is to __________. |
lift the brake handle |
release the gripes |
release tricing pendants |
put the cap on the drain |
|
In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, it is best to launch
a lifeboat __________. |
on the lee side |
with the wind from astern |
with the wind dead ahead |
on the windward side |
|
Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the
__________. |
boat plug |
sail |
life preservers |
oars |
|
When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig
frapping lines __________. |
with a lead of about 45 degrees to the boat |
on only the after falls |
from the falls to the main deck of the vessel |
on only the forward falls |
|
When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________. |
at the embarkation deck |
after the boat is in the water |
before the gripes are released |
before the boat is moved from the davits |
|
What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while
utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter? |
Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your ship with the wind about
broad on the bow of your ship. |
Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your vessel with the wind
about broad on the bow of your ship. |
Place your ship to windward of the lifeboat with the wind on the quarter
to allow your ship to drift down to the lifeboat. |
Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your ship with the wind
about broad on the quarter of your ship. |
|
When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, the sea painter
should be secured __________. |
only after the falls have been attached |
well aft in the lifeboat |
about amidships in the lifeboat |
well forward in the lifeboat |
|
In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat
from inside the lifeboat cabin? |
Frapping line |
Rottmer release |
Winch remote control wire |
Tricing line |
|
When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running
parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward) the
recommended procedure is to __________. |
approach slow enough so that the boat can be brought around to meet
breaking seas on the bow |
approach while coming to the left to take advantage of the current |
rig a drogue with tripping line over the bow, back ashore with drogue
tripped between breakers |
drop an anchor outside the surf line, then pay out anchor line over the
bow while the seas carry the boat toward the beach |
|
If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a
heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________. |
head directly into the beach by staying between the crests of the waves |
keep the bow into the seas with the sea anchor out over the bow, and row
to meet the breaking waves |
keep the bow directly in toward the beach, and tow the sea anchor off
the stern |
ride in on the back of a large breaker |
|
You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy
sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent
broaching, you should __________. |
take no action to prevent broaching as this is a recommended maneuver in
a heavy sea |
head the boat into the swells to take them at a 30 to 40 degree angle on
either bow and run as slow as possible without losing steerage |
place everyone as far forward in the boat as possible to keep the bow
heavy |
put the sea on your stern and run as fast as the boat will go |
|
An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be
released __________. |
only when there is a load on the cable |
only when the load is taken off the cable |
only when activated by the controls at the lowering station |
at any time |
|
The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be
activated __________. |
when there is no load on the cable |
when there is a load on the cable |
when the engine is started |
only when the doors are closed |
|
If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel
should be __________. |
allowed to sit anywhere |
loaded equally on both sides with more aft |
loaded equally on both sides with more forward |
loaded more on the port side forward |
|
During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the
survival craft should __________. |
pass out food and water to personnel |
activate the emergency release handle |
open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding |
open the doors and start the sprinkler system |
|
When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the
winch and check __________. |
the hydraulic fluid level before lifting |
that all personnel are seated in the craft |
which way the wind is blowing |
that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum |
|
While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped
__________. |
on approach to the platform |
when the cable has been attached |
when the craft clears the water |
at the embarkation deck |
|
When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the
crewman to __________. |
take the life preservers off |
check that hooks are fully locked in place |
check the fuel level |
open the doors |
|
Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent
__________. |
accidental unhooking when the falls become slack |
the falls from unhooking if the releasing gear is operated accidentally |
the falls from rehooking after they have been released |
operation of the release lever until the boat is waterborne |
|
Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________. |
near a liferaft canister |
during a rain storm |
by other than credentialed officers |
in an explosive atmosphere |
|
Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun? |
Wear asbestos gloves. |
Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon. |
Never remove the line from the rocket. |
All of the above. |
|
What precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun? |
Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon. |
Never remove the line from the rocket. |
Wear asbestos gloves. |
All of the above. |
|
For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and practicable,
how frequently should rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew? |
once a week |
once a year |
twice a year |
once a month |
|
According to the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and
abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the
percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that
particular vessel in the prior month exceeds __________. |
5
(%) |
10 (%) |
25 (%) |
40 (%) |
|
Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W require that a fire drill include
__________. |
checking arrangements for abandon ship |
starting the fire pumps |
checking the operation of watertight doors |
All of the above. |
|
What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill? |
Fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets opened. |
All lifeboat equipment shall be examined. |
All watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill shall be operated. |
All of the above. |
|
If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out,
they should __________. |
watch |
go to their quarters |
take part |
stay out of the way and do what they want |
|
All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue
boat's __________. |
fuel consumption rates |
maintenance schedules |
boarding and operating procedure |
navigational systems |
|
While steering by autopilot you notice that the vessel is deviating from
the given course and there is no follow up with corrective rudder action
to return to the proper heading. The emergency operating procedure
should require you to immediately change operation from __________. |
"control" to "hand" |
"gyro" to "control" |
"gyro" to "hand" |
"hand" to "gyro" |
|
A situation has occurred in which your vessel must be towed. When the
towing vessel passes the towing line to you, you should secure the line
__________. |
to the forward-most bitts |
to the base of the foremast |
at the stern |
to the forward part of the deckhouse |
|
The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are
going to take her in tow. The wind is coming from her starboard beam.
You are making more leeway than she. Where should you position your
vessel when you start running lines? |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are
going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. Both
vessels are making the same amount of leeway. Where should you position
your vessel when you start running lines? |
A |
D |
B |
C |
|
The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are
going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. She is
making more leeway than you. Where should you position your vessel when
you start running lines? |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed.
What action should be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing? |
Throw excess weight overboard |
Shift weight to the stern |
Shift weight to the bow |
Shift weight to the center of the boat |
|
If the situation arose where it became necessary to tow a disabled
vessel, which statement is TRUE concerning the towing line? |
There should be a catenary so the line dips into the water. |
The towing line between the two vessels should be clear of the water. |
The towing line should be taut at all times between the vessels. |
None of the above |
|
You have taken another vessel in tow at sea. You can tell that the
towing speed is too fast when the __________. |
tow line feels like it is "jumping" when touched |
towed vessel goes "in irons" |
vessels are not in step |
catenary comes clear of the water |
|
You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor
cable towline. Both vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in
an emergency; however, unless there are special circumstances
__________. |
the vessel towed should slip first |
the towing vessel should slip first |
they should slip simultaneously |
either vessel may slip first |
|
You are on a ship that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in
tow. You will use your anchor cable as part of the towline. Which
statement is TRUE? |
The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection
to be immediately astern of the towing vessel. |
The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection
to be just forward of your bow. |
The strain of the tow is taken by the riding pawl, chain stopper, and
anchor windlass brake. |
The anchor cable should be led out through a chock, if possible, to
avoid a sharp nip at the hawsepipe lip. |
|
You are approaching a ship that is broken down and are preparing to take
her in tow. BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, you must
__________. |
compare the rate of drift between the ships |
install chafing gear on the towline |
have traveling lizards rigged to guide the towline while it is paid-out |
secure the bitter end of the towing hawser to prevent loss if the tow is
slipped |
|
You are attempting to take a dead ship in tow. All lines have been
passed and secured. How should you get underway? |
Gradually apply power until catenary almost breaks the water, but keep
the catenary in the water. |
Order minimum turns until the towing hawser is just clear of the water,
then reduce speed to that necessary to keep the line clear of the water. |
Order minimum turns until the towing hawser is taut and then continue at
that speed until towing speed is attained. |
If the towline is properly adjusted and weighted you can order slow or
dead slow and the towline will act as a spring to absorb the initial
shock. |
|
Life jackets should be stowed in __________. |
messrooms |
locked watertight containers |
survival craft |
readily accessible locations |
|
Life jackets should be marked with the __________. |
vessel's home port |
vessel's name |
maximum weight allowed |
stowage space assigned |
|
Life jackets should be stowed in __________. |
messrooms |
readily accessible locations |
locked watertight containers |
survival craft |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely
damaged? |
They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress. |
They can be used for children. |
They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use. |
They should be replaced. |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely
damaged? |
They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use. |
They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress. |
They should be replaced. |
They can be used for children. |
|
Kapok life jackets should NOT be __________. |
left on open decks |
stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted |
used as seats, pillows, or foot rests |
All of the above. |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers (Type I personal
flotation devices)? |
Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets. |
Life preservers are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear
of the water. |
Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should
not be used. |
Life preservers must always be worn with the same side facing outwards
to float properly. |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers? |
Kapok life preservers must have vinyl-covered pad inserts. |
Life preservers must always be worn with the same side facing outwards. |
Life preservers are not designed to turn a person's face clear of the
water when unconscious. |
Buoyant vests may be substituted for life preservers. |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets? |
Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets. |
Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should
not be used. |
Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of
the water. |
Life jackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to
float properly. |
|
What is the difference between a Type One PFD life jack and a Type Five
PFD work vest? |
A
Type One PFD Life Jacket is designed for cold weather only |
The work vest has a higher buoyancy rating than a life jacket |
A
work vest will not float an unconscious person face up |
Life jackets are more comfortable to wear while working the barges |
|
An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________. |
whistle and hand held flare |
whistle, strobe light and reflective tape |
whistle, hand held flare and sea dye marker |
air bottle for breathing |
|
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? |
The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while
swimming through burning oil. |
The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth
clear of the water within 5 seconds. |
The suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia
indefinitely. |
The suit's oil resistance is such that it will be serviceable and be
usable after exposure to gasoline or mineral spirits without needing to
be specially treated. |
|
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? |
The suit's oil resistance is such that it will be serviceable and be
usable after exposure to gasoline or mineral spirits without needing to
be specially treated. |
The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while
swimming through burning oil. |
The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth
clear of the water within 5 seconds. |
The suit seals in body heat and provides protection against hypothermia
indefinitely. |
|
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? |
The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against
hypothermia for weeks. |
The suit will still be serviceable after a brief (2-6 minutes) exposure
to flame and burning. |
The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth
clear of the water within 5 seconds. |
The collar must be inflated before abandoning ship. |
|
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? |
The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while
swimming through burning oil. |
The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against
hypothermia for weeks. |
Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking,
climbing a ladder and picking up small objects. |
The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires twice the
time to climb a ladder than without the suit. |
|
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? |
The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while
swimming through burning oil. |
Prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking,
climbing a ladder and picking up small objects. |
The wearer of the suit is severely restricted and requires 1.5 times
more time to climb a ladder than without the suit. |
The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides protection against
hypoglycemia for weeks. |
|
Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE? |
The suit is flameproof and provides protection to a wearer swimming in
burning oil. |
The suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth
clear of the water within 5 seconds. |
The suit may be stored in a machinery space where the ambient
temperature is 160°F. |
The primary color of the suit's exterior may be red, orange or yellow. |
|
Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use? |
Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath. |
A
puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value. |
They should be tight fitting. |
They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of
wearing a life jacket. |
|
Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use? |
A
puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value. |
Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath. |
They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of
wearing a life jacket. |
They should be tight fitting. |
|
What statement about immersion suits is TRUE? |
Any tear or leak will render the suit unserviceable and it must be
replaced. |
No stowage container for immersion suits may be capable of being locked. |
During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be lubricated
using light machine oil or mineral oil. |
Immersion suits should be worn while performing routine work on deck. |
|
Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE? |
Immersion suits should be worn while performing routine work on deck. |
After purchasing, the suit should be stowed in the storage bag in which
it was received. |
Any tear or leak will render the suit unserviceable and it must be
replaced. |
During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be lubricated
using light machine oil or mineral oil. |
|
You are testing the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit and
find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken? |
Replace the suit. |
Some leakage should be expected and a topping off tube is provided; no
other action is necessary. |
Replace the inflation bladder. |
Take it out of service and repair in accordance with the manufacturers
instructions. |
|
Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE? |
Immersion suits must have a PFD light attached to the front shoulder
area. |
Small leaks or tears may be repaired using the repair kit packed with
the suit. |
Immersion suits should be worn during routine work on deck to provide
maximum protection. |
After purchasing, the suit should be removed from its storage bag and
hung on a hanger where readily accessible. |
|
How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated? |
It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube. |
It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when
the front zipper is at the top of the zipper track. |
It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped. |
It inflates by sea water bleeding into the flotation bladder and
reacting with a chemical therein. |
|
The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated
__________. |
only after two hours in the water |
before entry into the water |
only after four hours in the water |
upon entry into the water |
|
An immersion suit must be equipped with a/an __________. |
air bottle for breathing |
sea dye marker |
whistle, light and retroreflective material |
orange smoke canister |
|
An immersion suit must be equipped with a/an __________. |
orange smoke canister |
sea dye marker |
air bottle for breathing |
whistle, light and retroreflective material |
|
How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated? |
It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube. |
It inflates by seawater bleeding into the inflation bladder and reacting
with a chemical. |
It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when
the front zipper is at the top of the zipper track. |
It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped. |
|
The external inflation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated
__________. |
before you enter the water |
after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy |
after you enter the water |
after one hour in the water |
|
You are testing the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit and
find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken? |
Replace the suit. |
Replace the inflation bladder. |
Some leakage should be expected and a topping off tube is provided; no
other action is necessary. |
Contact the manufacturer for repair instructions. |
|
The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated
__________. |
only after two hours in the water |
upon entry into the water |
before entry into the water |
only after four hours in the water |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire
extinguishers on unmanned tank barges? |
Spare charges shall be stowed in watertight containers on deck. |
If the unit cannot be charged by the vessel's personnel, one spare unit
shall be carried in lieu of spare charges. |
Regulations concerning spare charges do not apply to unmanned barges. |
Spare charges shall be carried for at least 50 percent of each size and
variety required on board. |
|
Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced
not later than the marked date of expiration, or not more than how many
months from the date of manufacture? |
48 months |
42 months |
36 months |
30 months |
|
By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than
how many months from the date of manufacture? |
24 months |
36 months |
42 months |
54 months |
|
Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast
Guard approved service facility every __________. |
six months |
twelve months |
eighteen months |
twenty-four months |
|
What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved
for? |
1
and 1/2 years |
2
years |
3
and 1/2 years |
5
years |
|
Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________. |
a
towing connection |
an oil lantern |
canned milk |
a
portable radio |
|
The lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft
operate __________. |
automatically when the raft is inflated |
by a light sensor |
by a switch at each light |
by turning the globe clockwise |
|
What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of
675 cubic feet? |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to
operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours? |
6 |
12 |
18 |
24 |
|
A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining a
speed of at least __________. |
6
knots in smooth water |
3
knots in rough water |
3
knots in smooth water |
6
knots in rough water |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat? |
It must be able to maintain a loaded speed of 6 knots. |
It has a sufficient fuel capacity, if motorized, for 48 hours of
operation. |
It is propelled by engine or hand-propelling gear. |
All of the above. |
|
When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead
sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not
more than __________. |
4° |
8° |
12° |
16° |
|
Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the
groove equal to at least __________. |
6
times the diameter of the wire rope |
8
times the diameter of the wire rope |
12 times the diameter of the wire rope |
16 times the diameter of the wire rope |
|
The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling
the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at
__________. |
a
safe speed only specified |
not more than 120 feet per minute |
not more than 90 feet per minute |
not less than 120 feet per minute |
|
The quantity of fuel required to be carried in a motor lifeboat is
__________. |
90 gallons |
the quantity needed for 48 hours continuous operation |
the quantity needed for 24 hours continuous operation |
55 gallons |
|
A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for
a period of __________. |
12 hours |
18 hours |
24 hours |
36 hours |
|
Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain __________. |
two rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type |
three rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type |
four rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type |
five rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type |
|
The breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with an
impulse-projected, rocket type line throwing appliances is __________. |
300 lbs |
500 lbs |
1000 lbs |
1500 lbs |
|
Hand held red flares expire 42 months from the date of manufacture.
Floating orange smoke distress signals expire after how many months? |
18 months |
24 months |
42 months |
60 months |
|
The service use of pyrotechnic distress signals measured from the date
of manufacture shall be limited to a period of __________. |
24 months |
36 months |
42 months |
60 months |
|
Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced
not later than the marked date of expiration, or, from the date of
manufacture, not later than __________. |
6
months |
12 months |
24 months |
42 months |
|
How are lifelines attached to a life float? |
Securely attached around the outside in bights no longer than three feet |
With an approved safety hook or shackle |
By serving |
By splicing one end of the line around the apparatus |
|
The lifeline of a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________. |
be at least 3/8 inch diameter and properly secured around the sides and
ends of the device |
be festooned in bights not longer than three feet long |
have a seine float in each bight unless the line is an inherently
buoyant material |
All of the above. |
|
A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is
a __________. |
rigid liferaft |
inflatable liferaft |
survival capsule |
life float |
|
Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a
motor vessel carrying passengers? |
Life jacket |
Buoyant vest |
Buoyant cushion |
Ring life buoy |
|
Which person may command a lifeboat in ocean service? |
Credentialed deck officer |
Able seaman |
Certificated person |
All of the above. |
|
What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated
persons required to command each lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service? |
Two |
Three |
Four |
Five |
|
What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in
ocean service? |
twice the distance from the main deck to the light waterline or 50 feet
whichever is greater |
60 fathoms |
the distance from the main deck to the light waterline |
two times the distance from the boat deck to the light waterline or 50
feet whichever is greater |
|
On every vessel, where must distress signals be stowed? |
above the freeboard deck away from heat |
in an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away from heat |
on the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any bulkhead |
on or near the navigating bridge |
|
How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test
fired? |
Semiannually |
At the Master's discretion |
Monthly |
Annually |
|
The regulations require that inspected vessels on an international
voyage, other than small passenger vessels, must carry which of the
following distress signals on or near the navigating bridge? |
6
hand red flares, and 6 hand orange smoke signals |
12 hand combination flares and orange smoke signals |
12 hand red flares |
12 rocket parachute flares |
|
On a rigid liferaft (SOLAS B pack) which is equipped with all of the
required equipment you may NOT find a __________. |
bailer |
fishing kit |
sponge |
whistle |
|
Each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats shall be tested __________. |
weekly |
every 2 weeks |
monthly |
every 3 months |
|
Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB. |
A
non self-propelled vessel in tow |
A
fishing vessel |
A
towing vessel |
A
sailing vessel |
|
Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry? |
Class A |
Category 1 |
Class B |
Class C |
|
The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be
tested __________. |
monthly |
every 3 months |
weekly |
every 2 months |
|
The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by
__________. |
referring to the shipping articles |
examining the plate on the outside of the raft container |
examining the Certificate of Inspection |
referring to the Muster List ("Station Bill") |
|
According to the regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to
be marked __________. |
at the liferaft stowage location |
on the Muster List ("Station Bill") |
on the Certificate of Inspection |
in the Operations Manual |
|
Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility
every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for
certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot
exceed __________. |
12 months |
15 months |
17 months |
18 months |
|
Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002.
One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The
raft must be reinspected no later than __________. |
Apr-04 |
Jan-03 |
Jun-03 |
Jan-07 |
|
If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be
maintained? |
They do not need any maintenance. |
Have them sent ashore to an approved maintenance facility annually. |
Have them serviced by the shipyard annually. |
Have your crew check them annually. |
|
Inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels must be annually
__________. |
sent to the steamship company shore repair facility |
sent to the Coast Guard for servicing |
overhauled by the ship's crew |
sent to a Coast Guard approved service facility |
|
Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft? |
The Chief Mate |
A
certificated lifeboatman |
An approved servicing facility |
Shipyard personnel |
|
Inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast
Guard approved service facility every __________. |
six months |
twenty-four months |
eighteen months |
twelve months |
|
Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able
to carry at least __________. |
2
persons |
4
persons |
6
persons |
8
persons |
|
A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required
by regulations to carry __________. |
8
liters of fresh water |
12 units of provisions |
12 liters of fresh water |
24 units of provisions |
|
The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member
participates in at least one fire drill every __________. |
day |
week |
month |
3
months |
|
Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________. |
knife |
towing connection |
lifeline |
All of the above. |
|
The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________. |
on a cord hanging from the canopy |
in a special pocket near the forward entrance |
in a pocket on the first aid kit |
in one of the equipment bags |
|
Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n)
__________. |
orange smoke signal |
Very pistol |
lantern |
air horn |
|
Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and
could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night? |
The water light |
Orange dye marker |
Red flares |
Smoke marker |
|
Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be
produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be
done in __________. |
12 hours |
1
day |
2
days |
4
days |
|
If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet
from the bow, how long must the sea painter be? |
Sufficiently long enough to reach the water when the vessel has an
adverse list of 15° |
80 feet |
One third the length from the bow to where the lifeboat is stowed |
160 feet |
|
When launching an open lifeboat by falls, the boathooks should be
__________. |
used for fending off |
secured forward and aft where readily available |
used for picking up survivors in the water |
secured amidships where they will not hinder the personnel |
|
The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open
lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________. |
specified by the Coast Guard |
determined by the Master |
specified by the manufacturer |
None |
|
A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat should
__________. |
drain the hydraulic pressure before lowering the craft |
be the first individual to board the craft |
have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat |
All of the above. |
|
All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped,
cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every __________. |
6
months |
year |
18 months |
two years |
|
The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each
lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with
crew and maneuvered at least once every __________. |
week |
month |
three months |
year |
|
If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, free-fall lifeboats must be
lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew at least once
every __________. |
3
months |
6
months |
year |
2
years |
|
What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on
cargo vessels? |
There may not be more than two launching appliances on the same deck. |
Launching appliances must be of the gravity type. |
Each lifeboat must have a launching appliance. |
All of the above. |
|
Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at
least every __________. |
2
months |
6
months |
4
months |
year |
|
According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be
taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals? |
Weight tested |
Proof tested |
Renewed |
End-for-ended |
|
"Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the
persons a survival craft is equipped to carry? |
10 (%) |
50 (%) |
75 (%) |
100 (%) |
|
For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing
passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT
__________. |
1
life preserver |
1
seasickness kit |
3
liters of water |
1
unit of provisions |
|
The required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an
oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage, is __________. |
1
liter |
2
liters |
3
liters |
4
liters |
|
On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting
kits) is certified to carry, the boat must be supplied with __________. |
2
pounds of condensed milk |
a
life preserver |
3
liters of water |
a
signaling whistle |
|
How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a
tankship sailing a coastwise route? |
One |
Two |
Three |
None |
|
The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours
continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in cycles of
__________. |
5
minutes on and 10 minutes off |
10 minutes on and 5 minutes off |
15 minutes on and 5 minutes off |
15 minutes on and 10 minutes off |
|
A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance at
least once in every __________. |
2
months |
3
months |
4
months |
5
months |
|
Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing
appliance? |
A
coastwise vessel of 550 GT |
An oceangoing vessel of 140 GT |
An river-going vessel of 760 GT |
All of the above. |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing
appliance? |
Drills shall be held quarterly and it shall be fired annually. |
A
drill in its use shall be held once in every 3 months. |
It shall be fired at least once in every three months. |
No drills are required. |
|
Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing
appliance. The auxiliary line must __________. |
be made of synthetic material |
be 250 meters in length |
have a breaking strength of 9000 lbs |
be of a light color |
|
What is NOT a requirement for testing the line throwing appliance on a
vessel? |
The actual firing is at the discretion of the Master. |
A
drill should be conducted every three months. |
A
regular service line must be used when it's fired. |
A
regular projectile must be used when it's fired. |
|
What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a
vessel? |
The auxiliary line must be of a light color. |
The actual firing is at the discretion of the Master. |
A
drill on its use must be held once every three months. |
The auxiliary line must be at least 1500 feet long. |
|
Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be
__________. |
provided for each person onboard |
provided for all personnel of watch |
readily accessible to persons in the engine room |
All of the above. |
|
Lifejackets should be stowed in __________. |
the forepeaks |
readily accessible spaces |
the pumproom |
locked watertight containers |
|
Life preservers must be marked with the __________. |
maximum weight allowed |
stowage space assigned |
vessel's name |
vessel's home port |
|
Immersion suits must be stowed __________. |
on top of lockers |
on open deck areas |
where readily accessible |
in the pilothouse |
|
What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a
275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives
for cargo vessels in a specified service? |
6 |
8 |
12 |
14 |
|
How many ring life buoys should a 700 foot cargo vessel, not subject to
SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry? |
12 |
14 |
18 |
24 |
|
Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively
equipped for operating in river service. The number of ring life buoys
required for the vessel is __________. |
2 |
4 |
6 |
8 |
|
On a passenger vessel, the vessel's name must appear on __________. |
ring life buoy |
lifeboat oars |
lifeboats |
All of the above. |
|
Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is
certificated for what type of service? |
Great Lakes service |
river service |
coastwise service |
None of the above |
|
Where should muster lists be posted? |
In crew's accommodation spaces |
In the engine room |
On the navigating bridge |
All of the above. |
|
If a passenger vessel navigating the Great Lakes is required to carry 8
life buoys, what is the allowable minimum number of these buoys that
must have self-igniting lights attached? |
2 |
6 |
4 |
8 |
|
Great Lakes vessels, using liferafts, must have sufficient liferaft
capacity on each side of the vessel to accommodate at least __________. |
150% of the crew |
100% of the persons on board |
100% of the persons normally assigned to those spaces |
50% of the persons on board |
|
Great Lakes cargo vessels, having a liferaft stowed more than 100 meters
from the bow or stern, must have at least how many liferafts? |
One |
Two |
Three |
Four |
|
Where, due to the arrangement of the vessel, lifejackets may become
inaccessible, additional lifejackets shall be carried __________. |
as determined by the OCMI |
for the forward lifeboats |
for the people on bridge watch |
for 50% of the crew of the vessel, not including those assigned to
engineering duties |
|
A 750 foot passenger vessel operating on the Great Lakes, not subject to
SOLAS regulations, is required to carry how many ring life buoys? |
24 |
18 |
12 |
6 |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat installations on Great Lakes
vessels? |
All lifelines shall be able to reach the water at the vessel's lightest
draft with a 20° list. |
All vessels over 3,000 gross tons must be fitted with gravity davits. |
All davit installations shall have 3 lifelines fitted to a davit span. |
All of the above. |
|
Enclosed lifeboats which have been afloat over a long period of time
require __________. |
frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air |
frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water |
regular checks of bilge levels |
use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise |
|
You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the
greatest danger is __________. |
hypothermia caused by cold temperature |
collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures |
starvation |
asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed |
|
If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________. |
find some wood for a fire |
drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter |
get the provisions out of the raft |
set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it |
|
Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the "Vessel
Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in a __________. |
$500 criminal penalty charged against the Master |
$1500 criminal penalty charged against the Master |
$1500 civil penalty charged against the person in charge of the vessel |
$650 civil penalty charged against the person in charge of the vessel |
|
Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", failure of a
vessel's radiotelephone equipment __________. |
obligates the operator to moor or anchor the vessel immediately |
does not, in itself, constitute a violation of the Act |
requires immediate, emergency repairs |
constitutes a violation of the Act |
|
According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what is
NOT required in the radiotelephone log? |
Times of beginning and end of watch period |
Daily statement about the condition of the required radiotelephone
equipment |
Distress and alarm signals transmitted or intercepted |
Routine navigational traffic |
|
A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may
result in a __________. |
civil penalty of $650 against the Master or person in charge of a vessel |
civil penalty of $1,000 against the vessel itself |
suspension and/or revocation of an operator's FCC license |
All of the above. |
|
A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" may
result in a __________. |
civil penalty of $1,000 against the vessel itself |
suspension and/or revocation of an operator's FCC license |
civil penalty of $650 against the Master or person in charge of a vessel |
All of the above. |
|
If your radiotelephone fails while underway, __________. |
you must visually signal oncoming vessels |
you must immediately tie up in the nearest port until the radiotelephone
is repaired |
you must anchor until the radiotelephone is repaired |
the loss of the radiotelephone must be considered in navigating the
vessel |
|
If your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate, you must
__________. |
exercise due diligence to restore the system at the earliest practicable
time |
arrange for the repair of the system to be completed within 48 hours |
immediately anchor your vessel and arrange for repairs to the system |
moor your vessel at the nearest dock available and arrange for repairs
to the system |
|
You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a radiotelephone,
on the navigable waters of the United States. You must __________. |
use the bridge-to-bridge VHF-FM designated frequency only to exchange
navigational information or necessary tests |
have on board an operator who holds a restricted radiotelephone operator
permit or higher license, as well as a FCC ship station license |
maintain a listening watch and communicate in English |
All of the above. |
|
Radio station logs involving communications during a disaster shall be
kept by the station licensee for at least __________. |
3
years from date of entry |
1
year from date of entry |
2
years from date of entry |
4
years from date of entry |
|
If you use obscene, indecent, or profane language over the
radiotelephone, you can be __________. |
assessed a fine not to exceed $20,000 |
assessed a fine of up to $5,000, imprisonment of up to three years, or
both |
assessed a fine not to exceed $11,000, imprisonment of not more than two
years, or both |
imprisoned up to five years |
|
The ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for
__________. |
ten years |
two years |
one year |
the life of the vessel |
|
What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel
bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations? |
$5,000 fine and imprisonment for not more than one year, or both |
$1,000 fine or imprisonment for not more than two years |
Civil penalty of no more than $650 |
Civil penalty of no more than $5,000 |
|
The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is
carried voluntarily, must hold at least a __________. |
restricted radiotelephone operator permit |
second-class radio operator's license |
mate's license |
seaman's document |
|
A ship's radiotelephone station license is issued by the __________. |
U.S. Coast Guard |
Federal Communications Commission |
Maritime Mobile Service Commission |
Radio Technical Commission for Marine Services |
|
The Master or person in charge of a vessel subject to the "Vessel
Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" who fails to comply with the Act or
the regulations there under may be charged a civil penalty of
__________. |
2000 |
1500 |
650 |
1000 |
|
If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be
aboard? |
Certificate of Inspection |
Copy of ship to shore channels |
List of ship stations |
Radio station license |
|
A vessel which violates the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"
may be charged a civil penalty of __________. |
100 |
650 |
1000 |
1500 |
|
Radio station logs involving communications during a disaster shall be
kept by the station licensee for at least __________. |
2
years from date of entry |
1
year from date of entry |
4
years from date of entry |
3
years from date of entry |
|
Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", the maximum
power of all transmitters used shall be not more than __________. |
25 watts |
50 watts |
75 watts |
100 watts |
|
The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at
__________. |
midnight |
beginning of the watch |
any convenient time |
noon |
|
What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing,
required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone
regulations? |
50 meters |
12 meters |
20 meters |
25 meters |
|
Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge
radiotelephone regulations while navigating? |
All power-driven vessels 12 meters or less in length |
All passenger vessels less than 100 gross tons |
All towing vessels 26 feet in length or greater |
All of the above. |
|
Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel
Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating? |
Passenger vessel 50 gross tons or less, carrying passengers for hire |
Towing vessels 25 feet or less in length, engaged in towing operations |
Dredges engaged in operations likely to restrict navigation of other
vessels in or near a channel or fairway |
An intermittently manned floating plant under the control of a dredge |
|
Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel
Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating? |
Passenger vessels of 100 gross tons or greater, carrying one or more
passengers for hire |
Towing vessel 26 feet in length or greater |
Power-driven vessels 20 meters in length or greater |
All of the above. |
|
Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel
Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating? |
Power-driven vessels 12 meters or less in length, operating on inland
waters |
Towing vessel 25 feet or less in length |
Dredges engaged in operations likely to restrict navigation of other
vessels in or near a channel or fairway |
Passenger vessel of 50 GT or less, carrying one or more passengers for
hire |
|
Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel
Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating? |
All towing vessels 25 feet or less in length |
All passenger vessels of 50 gross tons or less, carrying one or more
passengers |
Power-driven vessels 20 meters in length or longer |
An intermittently manned floating plant under the control of a dredge |
|
The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which
towboat? |
A
100 GT towboat, 24 feet in length |
A
90-foot towboat tied to the pier |
A
400 GT towboat anchored |
A
60-foot towboat pushing ahead |
|
The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to __________. |
every towing vessel of 16 feet or over in length while navigating |
all aircraft operating on the water |
every vessel of 50 GT and upward, carrying one or more persons for hire |
every power-driven vessel of 20 meters and upward while navigating |
|
Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone? |
A
34-foot vessel engaged in towing |
A
dredge operating in a channel |
A
12-meter private yacht |
A
vessel of 100 GT carrying 50 passengers for hire |
|
General requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log are that
__________. |
erasures are not allowed |
logs must be kept in an orderly manner |
it must identify the vessel's name and official number |
All of the above. |
|
Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge
radiotelephone must be able to __________. |
speak English |
repair the unit |
send Morse Code |
speak a language the vessel's crew will understand |
|
By regulation, you MUST keep a record of the use of your radiotelephone
for a minimum of __________. |
six months |
one year |
two years |
thirty months |
|
According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your
radiotelephone log must contain __________. |
a
summary of all distress calls and messages |
a
record of your transmissions only |
the home address of the vessel's Master or owner |
a
record of all routine calls |
|
Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a
vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"
applies? |
As high as possible on the vessel |
Adjacent to the main power source |
In a separate radio compartment |
On the bridge or in the wheelhouse |
|
The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge
Radiotelephone Act" is for the exclusive use of __________. |
the Master or person in charge of the vessel |
a
person designated by the Master |
a
person on board to pilot the vessel |
All of the above. |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing
vessels? |
The officer in charge of the wheelhouse is considered to have the
radiotelephone watch. |
There cannot be a radiotelephone located anywhere except in the
wheelhouse. |
Only distress messages may be transmitted over channel 13. |
Only the Master of the vessel is allowed to speak over the
radiotelephone. |
|
All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to
carry which item? |
At least two lifeboats |
A
radio direction finder |
A
radiotelephone |
None of the above |
|
The regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge
radiotelephone are issued by the __________. |
U.S. Coast Guard |
Department of Defense |
Department of Transportation |
Federal Communications Commission |
|
One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing.
Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________. |
trapping and/or poisoning the rats |
eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is constructed |
keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of garbage |
installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in port |
|
A Deratization Exemption Certificate is valid for a period of
__________. |
no time limit so long as Certificate of Sanitation is valid |
no time limit so long as no evidence of rodents aboard |
1
year |
6
months |
|
What is the period of validity of a De-Rat certificate? |
6
months |
Specific voyage |
1
year |
2
years |
|
Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the
__________. |
domestic water tank |
feed-water system |
freshwater sanitary system |
fire-main system |
|
Normally Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its
possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine
that the source __________. |
has been treated with chlorine |
is approved by the Public Health Service |
is not from surface water |
is used by a city |
|
Normally Which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its
safety for drinking? |
Oxygen |
Nitrogen |
Chlorine |
Carbon |
|
Normally It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water
tanks to __________. |
prevent explosions |
filter the incoming air |
stop insects from entering |
prevent backups |
|
Normally Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number
of sanitary inspections required is __________. |
one |
three |
six |
twelve |
|
Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by __________. |
eliminating potential fuel sources |
allowing better access in an emergency |
improving personnel qualifications |
eliminating trip hazards |
|
In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew
quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service? |
Once each day |
Once each week |
Once each month |
Once each trip |
|
On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the
responsibility of the __________. |
Master and union delegate |
Master and Chief Engineer |
Master and Chief Mate |
Master and Second Mate |
|
The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering
department is the __________. |
Chief Engineer |
Chief Mate |
First Assistant |
Master |
|
What represents poor sanitary procedures? |
Keep and use a separate filling hose for potable (drinking) water. |
Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge. |
After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize them in water
of at least 170°F (76.7°C). |
Eliminate enclosed spaces in which trash, food particles, dirt may
gather. |
|
What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing
apparatus? |
The valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle to about 3 psi above
atmospheric pressure. |
The valve opens in excessive heat to release the oxygen in the bottle
and prevent the bottle from exploding. |
In the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve can be
operated manually to give the wearer air. |
When pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi above atmospheric pressure,
the valve opens to release pressure. |
|
When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained
breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last? |
About 8-10 minutes |
About 4-5 minutes |
About 18-20 minutes |
About 12-15 minutes |
|
The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing
apparatus is to __________. |
allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle |
allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen |
release excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle to explode |
control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body |
|
You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing apparatus and you
desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean to take up
the slack? |
One |
Two |
Three |
Four |
|
A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________. |
determine if the air in a tank is safe for men |
enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen |
resuscitate an unconscious person |
make underwater repairs to barges |
|
To safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed
extinguishing system, you should __________. |
wear a self-contained breathing apparatus |
test the air with an Orsat apparatus |
wear a canister type gas mask |
test the air with a pure air indicator |
|
After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air
supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean? |
The air bottle needs to be refilled. |
The unit is working properly. |
The face mask is not sealed properly. |
The air supply hose has a leak. |
|
When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened,
the mainline valve should be __________. |
completely closed |
pinched to check the air flow |
completely open |
immediately disconnected |
|
When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened,
the air flows __________. |
directly to the face piece |
through the regulator |
from the bottle into the atmosphere |
directly to the air supply bottle |
|
When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open,
the bypass valve should be __________. |
completely open |
disconnected |
completely closed |
partially opened |
|
The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened
if __________. |
the regulator of the breathing apparatus malfunctions |
you are entering a space containing poisonous vapors |
the face piece of the breathing device is too tight |
you are entering a space containing explosive gases |
|
The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be
reduced in actual use because of __________. |
the physical exertion of the person wearing the device |
pressure differences in the atmosphere |
the length of the hose attached to the face piece |
spaces containing poisonous vapors |
|
The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which
situation? |
Oxygen deficient spaces |
Fighting fires that produce heavy smoke |
Underwater search |
Compartments containing poisonous vapors |
|
Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained
breathing apparatus be carried? |
Emergency gear locker |
Bridge or pilothouse area |
The same location as the equipment it reactivates |
Where they can be readily found |
|
You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment
wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are
you all right"? |
One |
Two |
Three |
Four |
|
You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on
the lifeline should you give to indicate that you are advancing? |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on
the lifeline indicate that you are all right? |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a
breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man
should come out immediately? |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a
breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man
should back out? |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a
breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man
should advance? |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on
the lifeline should you give to indicate that you need help? |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return
topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"? |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
A 2,000 GT tankship is required to carry __________. |
two canister type gas masks if such vessel is authorized to carry grade
A, B, C or D liquids |
emergency outfits only on an international voyage |
one oxygen breathing apparatus with enough lifeline to reach from the
open deck to any part of the tanks |
two self-contained breathing apparati |
|
Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be
stowed in a(n) __________. |
locked cabinet in the machinery space |
unlocked cabinet in the machinery space |
location near a fire hydrant |
separate and accessible location |
|
What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a
self-contained breathing apparatus required to last? |
10 minutes |
15 minutes |
30 minutes |
45 minutes |
|
One function of a bulwark is to __________. |
help keep the deck dry |
prevent stress concentrations on the stringer plate |
reinforce the side stringers |
protect against twisting forces exerted on the frame of the vessel |
|
Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks __________. |
permit easy jettison of deck cargo in an emergency |
provide openings through the bulwarks for mooring lines |
prevent stress concentration in the bulwark |
allow water shipped on deck to flow off rapidly |
|
Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated
and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called
__________. |
furnaced plate |
rolled plate |
compound plate |
flat plate |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by
the letter I? |
keel |
center pillar |
girder |
garboard strake |
|
In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a seam? |
E |
H |
L |
M |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what is the area indicated by the letter G
is known as? |
turn of the bilge |
garboard |
stringer plate |
entrance |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what is the space indicated by the letter
J known as? |
double bottom |
bilge tank |
floor space |
flooding barrier |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by
the letter K? |
floor |
stringer |
longitudinal frame |
girder |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by
the letter L? |
bilge keel |
longitudinal |
web frame |
side keel |
|
In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a longitudinal? |
M |
C |
L |
E |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what does the letter "M" indicate? |
cant frame |
intercostal |
stringer |
web frame |
|
In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates the garboard
strake? |
A |
B |
G |
H |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what is the strake of shell plating
indicated by letter H known as? |
garboard strake |
bilge strake |
outboard keel plate |
sheer strake |
|
In illustration D033DG below, the structural member indicated by the
letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is
known as which type of floor? |
Lightened |
Non-watertight |
Open |
Intercostal |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what is the joint indicated by letter D? |
seam |
butt |
sheet line |
span |
|
In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a butt? |
J |
E |
F |
D |
|
In illustration D033DG below, the lower seam of the strake indicated by
the letter B is sometimes riveted. Why is this done? |
reduce construction costs |
serve as a crack arrestor and prevent hull girder failure |
increase the strength in a highly stressed area |
provide the flexibility inherent in a riveted seam |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by
the letter F? |
erection |
girder |
deck support |
pillar |
|
In illustration D033DG below, the stringer plate is represented by which
letter? |
A |
C |
I |
N |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what is the run of plating labeled A known
as? |
sheer strake |
deck longitudinal |
deck strake |
stringer plate |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what is a wooden deck installed on top of
the plating lettered N known as? |
spar decking |
ceiling |
furring |
flooring |
|
In illustration D033DG below, what is the plating indicated by the
letter N known as? |
floor riders |
tank-top rider plating |
ceiling |
inner bottom |
|
In illustration D041DG below, which is the symbol for the vertical plane
midway between the fore and aft perpendiculars? |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
|
In illustration D041DG below, which of the following is the symbol for
the reference from which transverse measurements are made? |
1 |
5 |
4 |
3 |
|
In illustration D041DG below, which of the following is the symbol for
displacement? |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
In illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 1 refer to? |
angle of inclination |
change of draft |
centerline |
displacement |
|
In illustration D041DG below, which symbol is the reference from which
the height of the center of gravity is measured? |
5 |
4 |
3 |
2 |
|
In the illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 2 represent? |
bilge level |
baseline |
beam limit |
displacement |
|
In illustration D041DG below, which is the symbol for amidships? |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
|
In the illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 3 represent? |
amidships |
displacement |
baseline |
forward perpendicular |
|
In the illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 5 represent? |
counterflood limits |
displacement |
leverage center |
centerline |
|
The term "pintle" and "gudgeon" are associated with the __________. |
steering engine |
jumbo boom |
rudder |
anchor windlass |
|
The projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the
rudder are called __________. |
pintles |
rudder lugs |
bases |
gudgeons |
|
The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with the vessel's
__________. |
stern |
cargo hatch |
steering engine |
forecastle |
|
A Kort nozzle is a(n) __________. |
intake valve on a diesel engine |
hollow tube surrounding the propeller used to improve thrust |
nozzle attached to a firefighting hose |
piston cylinder on a diesel engine |
|
A "contra-guide" is a type of __________. |
rudder |
steering engine |
bow thruster |
cargo gear |
|
The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are
the __________. |
lifting flanges |
rudder keys |
shoes of the rudder |
rudder palms |
|
A chock __________. |
permits easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergency |
provides openings through the bulwark for mooring lines |
prevents stress concentration in the bulwark |
is a deck fitting used to shackle gear to the deck |
|
What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid
bulwarks? |
Allow water which may be shipped on deck to flow off rapidly |
Prevent the formation of any unusual stress concentration points |
Lighten the above deck weight caused by a solid bulwark |
Permit easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergency |
|
A deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single
body with two protruding horns is called a __________. |
cleat |
bitt |
capstan |
bollard |
|
A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum
superstructure. Which statement is TRUE? |
The aluminum will provide greater resistance to the spread of fire by
conduction. |
The steel at the area of the aluminum-to-steel connection must be
closely checked for galvanic corrosion. |
The aluminum structure is usually attached to a steel coaming by a
method that insulates the two metals. |
If the superstructure is stressed, an aluminum structure requires
additional expansion joints to prevent fracture. |
|
Holes in the bulwark, which allow deck water to drain into the sea, are
__________. |
doggers |
swash ports |
freeing ports |
fidleys |
|
When using the term "limber system" one is referring to a __________. |
cleaning system |
weight reduction system |
strengthening system |
drainage system |
|
Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in
double bottom tanks? |
Cuts down free surface effect |
Lowers the center of buoyancy without decreasing GM |
Decreases weight because extra stiffeners are unneeded |
Increases the rolling period |
|
The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or
folding over, by __________. |
transverse deck beams |
longitudinal deck beams |
bottom longitudinals |
face plates |
|
Floors aboard ship are __________. |
frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a double
bottomed ship |
longitudinal angle bars fastened to a surface for strength |
longitudinal beams in the extreme bottom of a ship from which the ship's
ribs start |
transverse members of the ships frame which support the decks |
|
Aboard ship, vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting
the vertical keel to the margin plates are called __________. |
girders |
floors |
stringers |
intercostals |
|
Frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened are called
__________. |
stringers |
intercostals |
floors |
tank top supports |
|
Vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to
the floors are called __________. |
stiffeners |
boss plates |
buckler plates |
breast hooks |
|
What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships? |
They are less expensive to construct because of increased access space. |
The center of gravity of a loaded bulk cargo ship may be raised to
produce a more comfortable roll. |
The floors and longitudinals distribute the upward push of the water on
the ship's bottom. |
The tank top forms a second skin for the vessel. |
|
Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks
against excessive pressure? |
There must be twice as much vent area as the area of the fill line. |
Each vent for the tank must be equal to the area of the tank filling
line. |
The tanks must be protected by overflows. |
The total area of the vents or the overflow shall be at least 125% of
the area of the fill line. |
|
Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE? |
They are lighter than open floors. |
They must be watertight. |
They are built of structural frames connected by angle struts and
stiffeners, with flanged plate brackets at each end. |
They may have lightening, limber, or air holes cut into them. |
|
The "inner bottom" is the __________. |
compartment between the tank top and shell of the vessel |
inner side of the vessel's shell |
tank top |
space between two transverse bottom frames |
|
What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak
tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision? |
Pipe lines must run vertically from the tank to a point above the margin
line before turning fore or aft towards the pump. |
Separate lines are provided for filling and pumping these tanks. |
All tanks must be served by the fewest possible number of pipes to
reduce the possibility of rupture. |
Suction lines are fitted with a non-return valve |
|
The usual depth of a beam bracket is __________. |
same depth as the beam |
5
times the depth of the beam |
10 times the depth of the beam |
2
1/2 times the depth of the beam |
|
A deck beam does NOT __________. |
act as a web to prevent plate wrinkling due to twisting action on the
vessel |
act as a tie to keep the sides of the ship in place |
lessen the longitudinal stiffness of the vessel |
act as a beam to support vertical deck loads |
|
The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist
__________. |
shearing stresses |
racking stresses |
sagging stresses |
hogging stresses |
|
Beams are cambered to __________. |
increase their strength |
relieve deck stress |
provide drainage from the decks |
All of the above. |
|
Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck? |
Camber |
Deadrise |
Flare |
Freeboard |
|
The strength of a deck will be increased by adding __________. |
hatch beams |
sheer |
camber |
deck beam brackets |
|
The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight
is the __________. |
"H" Beam pillar |
"I" Beam pillar |
octagonal pillar |
circular type pillar |
|
A carling is used aboard ship __________. |
to prevent the anchor from fouling when the brake is released |
to provide an extra heavy fitting in a heavy lift cargo rig |
to stiffen areas under points of great stress between beams |
as a connecting strap between the butted ends of plating |
|
A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________. |
shelter deck |
orlop deck |
main deck |
weather deck |
|
The ceiling is __________. |
material driven into seams or cracks to prevent leaking |
a
wooden protection placed over the tank top |
the overhead in berthing compartments |
None of the above are correct |
|
The wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading is
called __________. |
toms |
shores |
ceiling |
frames |
|
Regulations define the bulkhead deck as __________. (subdivision and
stability regulations) |
the uppermost deck to which transverse watertight bulkheads extend |
the uppermost complete deck |
the lowermost deck to which transverse watertight bulkheads extend |
any deck extending from stem to stern |
|
The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a
vessel is referred to as the __________. |
floodable length |
permissible length |
compartment standard |
factor of subdivision |
|
Camber, in a ship, is usually measured in __________. |
feet per feet of length |
inches per feet of breadth |
feet per feet of breadth |
inches per feet of length |
|
The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a
vessel is referred to as the __________. |
floodable length |
factor of subdivision |
compartment standard |
permissible length |
|
In ship construction, keel scantlings should be the greatest __________. |
one-third the distance from the bow |
at each frame |
one-third the distance from the stern |
amidships |
|
Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________. |
of severest racking stresses |
resistance to grounding is at a maximum amidships |
connections between forebody and afterbody are most crucial |
of maximum longitudinal bending moments |
|
The "margin plate" is the __________. |
outer strake of plating on each side of the main deck of a vessel |
uppermost continuous strake of plating on the shell of a vessel |
outboard strake of plating on each side of an inner bottom |
plate which sits atop the center vertical keel |
|
The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with the
__________. |
tank top |
engine room |
crew's quarters |
main deck |
|
A term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship is
__________. |
shear plating |
outer bottom |
bottom floor |
tank top |
|
In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by
all of the following EXCEPT __________. |
longitudinals |
web plates |
side stringers |
girders |
|
In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in
place and supported by athwartship members called __________. |
stringers |
web frames |
floors |
margin plates |
|
When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and
closely spaced, the vessel is __________. |
transversely framed |
longitudinally framed |
web framed |
intermittently framed |
|
In ship construction, frame spacing is __________. |
reduced at the bow and stern |
greater at the bow and stern |
uniform over the length of the vessel, with the exception of the
machinery spaces, where it is reduced due to increased stresses |
uniform over the length of the vessel |
|
Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system
rather than the longitudinal system? |
The numerous longitudinal frames cause excessive broken stowage. |
The transverse system provides better support to the varying cargo
densities on a break bulk vessel. |
The transverse system is more resistant to hog and sag stresses. |
The deep web frames interfere with the stowage of break bulk cargo. |
|
Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with
the __________. |
isometric system of framing |
transverse system of framing |
longitudinal system of framing |
centerline system of framing |
|
What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels? |
To support the overhang of the stern |
To provide strength to shell plating at the stern |
To support the plating of a cylindrical tank |
To add strength to the deck beams which support the weather decks |
|
Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a vessel are called
__________. |
intercostals |
brackets |
stiffeners |
side longitudinals |
|
Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the vessel's side plating are
called __________. |
stringers |
side stiffeners |
intercostals |
side frames |
|
The term "scantlings" refers to the __________. |
placement of a vessel's load line |
measurements of structural members |
draft of a vessel |
requirements for ship's gear |
|
The garboard strake is the __________. |
row of plating nearest the keel |
raised flange at the main deck edge |
riveting pattern most commonly used in ship construction |
riveted crack arrester strap on all-welded ships |
|
The strake on each side of the keel is called a __________. |
sheer strake |
garboard strake |
gatewood strake |
insulation strake |
|
In vessel construction, the garboard strake is __________. |
located next to and parallel to the gunwale |
another term for the rub rail |
another term for the bilge keel |
located next to and parallel to the keel |
|
Another name for the garboard strake is the __________. |
A
strake |
stringer plate |
Z
strake |
side keel plate |
|
The term "strake" is used in reference to __________. |
rudder mountings |
anchor gear |
hull plating |
vessel framing |
|
The joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally
side to side is called a __________. |
strake |
bevel |
bond |
seam |
|
The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a
__________. |
seam |
butt |
bond |
bevel |
|
Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain
strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the
amount of plating at the ends. These strakes are called __________. |
drop strakes |
throughs |
stealers |
voids |
|
To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and
joined at their ends by a single plate. This plate is known as a
__________. |
lap strake |
cover plate |
joiner |
stealer plate |
|
Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding? |
Flush |
In-and-Out |
Joggled |
Clinker |
|
What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt
joints in the shell plating? |
Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the joints |
Reduces frictional resistance |
Reduces plate stress |
Reduces weight |
|
Which is NOT an advantage of the flush method of welded shell plating? |
Reduces plate stress |
Reduces weight |
Reduces frictional resistance |
Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the joints |
|
Shell plating is __________. |
a
hatch cover |
the outer plating of a vessel |
the galvanizing on steel |
synonymous with decking |
|
The function of the bilge keel is to __________. |
add strength to the bilge |
reduce the rolling of the vessel |
serve as the vessel's main strength member |
protect the vessel's hull when alongside a dock |
|
Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls as the __________. |
rolling increases |
draft decreases |
pitching increases |
list increases |
|
Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT? |
They attach to a low stress area. |
They provide support when the vessel is dry docked. |
They increase resistance to rolling. |
They are critical strength members and require careful design
consideration. |
|
The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection
between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell
is called the __________. |
garboard strake |
limber strake |
stringer strake |
sheer strake |
|
To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside
framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel.
This plate is known as a(n) __________. |
breasthook |
joiner |
intercostal plate |
apron plate |
|
Panting frames are located in the __________. |
forward double bottoms |
fore and after peaks |
centerline tanks on tankships |
after double bottoms |
|
A thirty pound plate would be __________. |
3/4" thick |
1/2" thick |
1" thick |
3/8" thick |
|
The thickness of a 30.6 pound plate is __________. |
3/8" |
1/2" |
3/4" |
1" |
|
What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat plate keel? |
Designer's waterline |
Molded line |
Keel line |
Base line |
|
What descriptive term indicates that the dimension is measured from the
inner face of the shell or deck plating? |
Molded |
Tonnage |
Register |
Effective |
|
Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the
plane of the base line? |
Deadrise |
Sheer |
Camber |
Molded height |
|
By definition, a "spar deck" is the __________. |
upper or weather deck above the main strength deck |
lower most continuous deck not broken by water tight bulkheads |
after most weather deck above the main strength deck |
deck of light construction below the main or strength deck |
|
The point that is halfway between the forward and after perpendicular
and is a reference point for vessel construction is the __________. |
center line |
amidships |
mid-body |
half length |
|
The vessel's "quarter" is located __________. |
dead astern |
abeam |
on either side of the stern |
just forward of the beam on either side |
|
What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from
the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the
intersection of that load line with the aft side of the rudder post? |
Length on the waterline |
Register length |
Length overall |
Length between perpendiculars |
|
The space above the engine room is called the __________. |
noble |
gold locker |
fidley |
middle hatch |
|
The purpose of a bilge well is to __________. |
collect water to be pumped out |
provide access for the pneumercator |
afford access to the shell through the double bottoms |
provide a base line for sounding measurements |
|
A "strongback" refers to a __________. |
spanner stay |
bar securing a cargo port |
centerline vertical bulkhead |
deep beam |
|
The beam of a vessel refers to the __________. |
molded depth of the vessel |
internal cubic capacity |
width of the vessel |
depth between decks |
|
Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________. |
bulwark |
sheer strake |
deck line |
gunwale bar |
|
Molded depth is measured from the __________. |
inside of the shell |
outside of the shell |
top of the garboard stake |
top of the center vertical keel |
|
The upward slope of a vessels bottom from the keel to the bilge is
called __________. |
sheer |
camber |
rise of bottom |
rake |
|
What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a longitudinal
direction? |
Deadrise |
Camber |
Flare |
Sheer |
|
What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel forward of the
parallel mid-body? |
Sheer |
Entrance |
Flare |
Run |
|
What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that has a constant
cross section? |
Amidships |
Molded length |
Half length |
Middle body |
|
What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the parallel
mid-body? |
Flow |
Counter |
Run |
Stern |
|
What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the
waterline? |
sheer |
tumble home |
flare |
deadrise |
|
What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the
waterline? |
Deadrise |
Tumble home |
Camber |
Flare |
|
The fittings used to secure a watertight door are known as __________. |
dogs |
clamps |
latches |
clasps |
|
In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________. |
heavy steel beam |
crow bar |
wedge |
device to force a water tight door against the frame |
|
The perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the
chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to
flow to the drains, is called a __________. |
harping |
manger |
cradle |
draft |
|
The purpose of sheer in ship construction is to __________. |
eliminate the need for margin plates |
allow the ship to ride waves with drier decks |
eliminate the need for butt straps |
give greater strength at the deck edge |
|
A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is
known as __________. |
stairs |
a
companion way |
'tween-decks |
All of the above. |
|
A cofferdam is __________. |
a
heavy fore-and-aft beam under the deck |
made by placing two bulkheads a few feet apart |
a
member that gives fore-and-aft strength |
any deck below the main deck and above the lowest deck |
|
The Sheer Plan __________. |
has the forebody to the right of centerline and afterbody to the left of
centerline |
is an endwise view of the ship's molded form |
is usually drawn for the port side only |
shows a longitudinal side elevation |
|
The half-breadth plan is __________. |
usually drawn for the port side only |
an endwise view of the ship's molded form |
a
plan with the forebody to right of centerline and afterbody to the left
of centerline |
a
longitudinal side elevation |
|
The body plan of a vessel is a(n) __________. |
plan made looking down on the ship, showing it's hull cut horizontally
by the first set of planes |
vertical view made looking up in the ship, with the keel at the center |
endwise view of the ship's molded form |
longitudinal side elevation view |
|
Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________. |
deck line |
gunwale bar |
sheer strake |
bulwark |
|
What is the name given to the distance between the waterline of a vessel
and the main continuous deck of a vessel? |
The draft |
The freeboard |
The camber |
Buoyancy |
|
A long ton is __________. |
1,000 pounds |
2,000 pounds |
2,240 pounds |
2,400 pounds |
|
A short ton is a unit of weight consisting of __________. |
2,240 pounds |
1,000 pounds |
2,000 pounds |
2,205 pounds |
|
What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage? |
Net tonnage is tonnage of cargo compared to tonnage of whole ship. |
There is no difference. |
Net tonnage is the gross tonnage less certain deductions for machinery
and other areas. |
Net tonnage is the net weight of the ship. |
|
Gross tonnage indicates the vessel's __________. |
volume in cubic feet |
draft in feet |
total weight including cargo |
displacement in metric tons |
|
Tonnage openings must be closed by means of __________. |
steel plates |
wooden hatch boards |
steel hatch boards |
press board |
|
A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a
temporary means of closing for the purpose of gaining an exemption from
tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________. |
exemption space |
tonnage deck |
tonnage opening |
cofferdam |
|
The term that indicates how many tons of cargo a vessel can carry is
__________. |
bale cubic |
loaded displacement |
deadweight |
gross tonnage |
|
The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew, and
their effects, that a ship can carry, is the __________. |
loaded displacement |
deadweight |
bale cubic |
gross tonnage |
|
Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and
welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure? |
Tearing through the member is more likely in this type connection. |
The weld increases the tensile stress on the rivet heads. |
The welding must be completed before the riveting commences. |
The weld may be broken by the stresses caused by riveting. |
|
A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________. |
48 (%) |
90 (%) |
100 (%) |
121 (%) |
|
What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a
plate? |
Tack |
Chain intermittent |
Continuous |
Staggered intermittent |
|
The welds used to attach stiffeners to a plate are known as __________. |
butt welds |
plate welds |
fillet welds |
seam welds |
|
The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as
__________. |
butt welds |
seam welds |
fillet welds |
continuous welds |
|
Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws? |
Radiographic |
Chemical reaction |
Dye penetrant |
Magnetic particle |
|
Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws? |
Magnetic particle |
Dye penetrant |
Ultrasonic |
Chemical reaction |
|
Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the
internal structure of a weld? |
Lack of reinforcement |
Lack of penetration |
Undercut |
Overlap |
|
Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's
shell plating and to __________. |
test the links of the anchor cables while being ranged |
check the wear of the rudder carrier bearing |
test welds for subsurface defects |
provide tail shaft clearances |
|
The type of welding employed in shipyards is primarily __________. |
brazing |
thermite welding |
electric arc |
pressure welding |
|
A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________. |
abeam |
dead astern |
on either side of the stern |
just aft of the bow |
|
A weight of 1,000 short tons is equivalent to __________. |
2,000 pounds |
2,000 kips |
2,240 long tons |
1,500 foot-pounds |
|
"Limber" is a term associated with __________. |
securing gear |
emergency gear |
drainage |
deck cargo storage |
|
A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is
__________. |
cellular framed |
longitudinally framed |
transversely framed |
web framed |
|
While in dry dock your vessel will be belt-gauged. This process involves
__________. |
testing and examining the anchor cables for defective links |
drilling or sonic-testing the hull to determine the plate thickness |
taking the vessel's offsets to check for hull deformation |
measuring the thickness of the tail shaft liner |
|
The best information on the location of the blocks when dry docking a
vessel is contained in the __________. |
ship's docking plan |
general arrangement plan |
shell expansion plan |
docking diagram |
|
Wale shores would be used when dry docking a vessel with __________. |
a
list |
tumble home |
excessive trim |
excessive deadrise |
|
Which of the following requires the vessel to be dry-docked? |
Inspection of the tail shaft liner |
Cleaning of the hull |
Verification of load line measurements |
Inspection of the double bottoms |
|
A large basin cut into the shore, closed off by a caisson, and used for
dry docking of ships is known as a __________. |
slipway |
caisson dock |
graving dock |
ground warp |
|
Which statement about a vessel's stability while dry-docking is TRUE? |
The stability of the vessel increases as a dock is pumped out due to the
support of the keel blocks. |
As the dock begins to support the weight of the vessel, stability
calculations are based on the ship and dock as a single unit. |
Every ton of weight bearing on the blocks acts as if a ton of weight was
removed at keel level. |
When the ship touches the blocks, the beam for stability purposes
increases to the beam of the dry-dock. |
|
What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of
times on channel 16 and have received no reply? |
Repeat the message using any other channel on which you might attract
attention. |
Key the microphone several times before transmitting again. |
Report the problem to the head electrician. |
Turn up the volume on the receiver before transmitting again. |
|
The distress message of a ship should include considerable information
which might facilitate the rescue. This information should __________. |
ALWAYS be included in the initial distress message |
be sent to a Coast Guard station FIRST |
be transmitted as a series of short messages, if time allows |
include the vessel's draft |
|
What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF
radio? |
Security |
Red Alert |
Pan |
Mayday |
|
You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information
would be essential to your rescuers? |
The time of day |
The nature of the distress |
Your radio call sign |
Your position by latitude and longitude |
|
You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message
over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south
of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What
action should you take? |
Do not acknowledge receipt because you are too far away to take action |
Immediately acknowledge receipt of the distress message |
Do not acknowledge receipt until other ships nearer to the distress have
acknowledged |
Defer acknowledgment for a short interval so that a coast station may
acknowledge receipt |
|
You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the
VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action
should you take? |
Do not acknowledge because you are too far away to take action. |
Do not acknowledge receipt until other ships nearer to the distress have
acknowledged. |
Immediately acknowledge receipt of the distress message. |
Defer acknowledgment for a short interval so that a coast station may
acknowledge receipt. |
|
You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The
position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has
acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the
seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide
effective assistance. What action should you take? |
Send an urgency message about the distress. |
Use the signal MAYDAY RELAY and transmit the distress message. |
Transmit a message as though your vessel was in distress. |
Do not acknowledge the distress message. |
|
You can indicate that your vessel is in distress by __________. |
sounding five or more short and rapid blasts on the whistle |
displaying a large red flag |
continuously sounding the fog whistle |
displaying three black balls in a vertical line |
|
When a vessel signals her distress by means of a gun or other explosive
signal, the firing should be at intervals of approximately __________. |
10 minutes |
3
minutes |
1
minute |
1
hour |
|
Distress signals may be __________. |
smoke signals |
red flares |
sound signals |
Any of the above. |
|
A man aboard a vessel, signaling by raising and lowering his
outstretched arms to each side, is indicating __________. |
danger, stay away |
all is clear, it is safe to pass |
a
distress signal |
all is clear, it is safe to approach |
|
All of the following are recognized distress signals under the
Navigation Rules EXCEPT __________. |
the repeated raising and lowering of outstretched arms |
red flares |
a
green star signal |
orange-colored smoke |
|
A distress signal __________. |
consists of the raising and lowering of a large white flag |
is used to indicate doubt about another vessel's intentions |
may be used individually or in conjunction with other distress signals |
consists of 5 or more short blasts of the fog signal apparatus |
|
One of the signals, other than a distress signal, that can be used by a
rescue boat to attract attention is a/an __________. |
burning barrel |
searchlight |
red star shell |
orange smoke signal |
|
When signaling by flag hoist, what signal indicates completion of the
communication? |
code flag N |
code flag R |
answering pennant |
signal AR |
|
A vessel is signaling to you by flag hoist, and the answer pennant is
hoisted close-up. What action should you take? |
hoist flag "C" |
wait for further signals after a short delay |
hoist flag "R" |
expect no further flag hoists |
|
You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag
"F" hoisted. What should you do? |
Continue on your present course since the vessel is signaling for a
pilot. |
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is
disabled. |
Change course to keep clear of the vessel because she is maneuvering
with difficulty. |
Stop your vessel instantly. |
|
You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag
"A" hoisted. What should you do? |
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is
disabled. |
Stop your vessel instantly. |
Give the vessel a wide berth as she is carrying dangerous goods. |
Slow your vessel and keep well clear because she has a diver down. |
|
You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag
"J" hoisted. What should you do? |
Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is requesting a
tug. |
Approach the vessel with caution because she is dragging her anchor. |
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is
requesting to communicate. |
Keep well clear of the vessel because she is on fire and has dangerous
cargo on board or she is leaking dangerous cargo. |
|
You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag
"W" hoisted. What should you do? |
Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and
making no way through the water. |
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is
disabled. |
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because someone on
board requires medical assistance. |
Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is declaring that
she is "healthy" and requests free pratique. |
|
You are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag
"T" hoisted. What should you do? |
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because it requires
assistance. |
Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and
making no way through the water. |
Keep clear of the vessel because it has a diver down. |
Keep clear of the vessel because it is engaged in pair trawling. |
|
At sea, you are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the
signal flag "P" hoisted. What should you do? |
Keep clear of the vessel because it has a diver down. |
Approach with caution because the vessel is a fishing vessel and its
nets are fouled on an obstruction. |
Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is stopped and
making no way through the water. |
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because someone on
board requires medical assistance. |
|
You are approaching another vessel and see that it has the signal flag
"O" hoisted. What is your next action? |
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone and begin a search
because the vessel has a man overboard. |
Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is requesting a
pilot. |
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because it is disabled. |
Approach with caution because the vessel is stopped and making no way
through the water. |
|
While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's crew to report
on board because the vessel was about to proceed to sea? |
"U" |
"H" |
"P" |
"A" |
|
What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")? |
"C" |
"Z" |
"P" |
"H" |
|
While using the International Code of Signals, how can the receiving
station indicate that they are able to distinguish the flag signal of
the transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of it? |
ZR |
ZL |
ZP |
ZK |
|
The flag hoist 62.2 would be sent as pennant 6, pennant 2 followed by
what? |
space, second substitute |
answering pennant, second substitute |
answering pennant, third substitute |
answering pennant, first substitute |
|
How would the flag hoist 1.33 be sent? |
N, 1, answer pennant, 3 |
1, answer pennant, 3, second substitute |
1, answer pennant, 3, first substitute |
1, answer pennant, 3, third substitute |
|
What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first
substitute. |
G421G |
G4214 |
G4211 |
G421G421 |
|
What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist F 2 1 3 second
substitute? |
F213F213 |
F2131 |
F213213 |
F2132 |
|
How should a receiving station indicate that it cannot distinguish a
signal sent by flag hoist? |
hoist ZQ |
keep the answering pennant at the dip |
raise and lower the answering pennant |
hoist ZL |
|
Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to communicate with the
vessel bearing 046°T from you but do not know the vessels call letters.
Which flag hoist should NOT be used to establish communications? |
RQ A046 |
VF |
CS |
YQ3 A046 |
|
You are signaling by flag hoist using the International Code of Signals.
You wish to send the signals CL and IW and have them read in that order.
What would ensure this? |
Hoist CL tackline IW |
Hoist CL from the starboard yard and IW from the port yard. |
Hoist CLIW together. |
Any of the above will ensure the correct reading. |
|
How does a warship indicates that it wishes to communicate with a
merchant ship? |
by hoisting the merchant ship's identity signal and keeping it hoisted
during the entire communication |
by hoisting the national ensign of the merchant vessel at the starboard
yard |
by hoisting the code pennant, and keeping it flying during the entire
communication |
by hoisting the flags MV close up until acknowledged and then lowering
them to the dip |
|
If you send a flag hoist of MAJ 8, what information are you conveying? |
Navigation is closed. You should navigate with caution. |
The least depth of water in the channel is 8 meters. |
Derelict dangerous to navigation to the north. |
I
have a male age 8 years. |
|
What flag signal would you hoist if you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if
he had a doctor on board? |
AM |
MA |
AL |
AN 1 |
|
A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard halyard. What
does this signal mean? |
an aircraft is circling over an accident |
the aircraft is still afloat |
an aircraft is ditched in position indicated |
there is no danger of explosion |
|
Which group would be used to send the signal Greenwich mean time 11:35
pm? |
G
2335 |
Z
2335 |
T
2335 GMT |
GMT 1135PM |
|
What would a signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded
with? |
the letter Z |
the letter G |
a
code hoist to indicate Greenwich mean time to follow |
the letters GT |
|
What letter is a signal indicating zone time preceded with? |
N |
T |
L |
Z |
|
The signal T 0735 means __________. |
The zone time is 0735 |
The latitude is 7° 35' |
The Greenwich mean time is 0735 |
The longitude is 7° 35' |
|
What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"? |
Date September 10 |
Date October 9 |
Distance 910 miles |
Longitude 9°10' |
|
What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between
figures using flashing light? |
AAA |
TTTT |
EEEEE |
AS |
|
What is the International Code signal for calling an unknown station
using flashing light? |
AA AA |
CQ |
UNK |
STA |
|
What is the standard rate of signaling by flashing light? |
twenty letters per minute |
fifty letters per minute |
thirty letters per minute |
forty letters per minute |
|
You have called another vessel by flashing light and he has answered
your call properly. You now send your call sign "DE KLIS". What should
he respond with? |
his own call letters |
TTTT |
R |
KLIS, DE, his own call letters |
|
How is the "call" part of a signal by flashing light made? |
omitting the call if the name of the station is unknown |
spelling the name of the station called |
the identity signal of the station called |
sending "CQ" |
|
A message by flashing light consists of four elements, including the
call, the identity, the text, and what fourth element? |
answer |
destination |
time |
ending |
|
When signaling by flashing light, what should the signal "C" should be
used to indicate? |
change from affirmative to negative |
affirmative statement |
question |
request for the identity signal of the receiving stations |
|
Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a
question? |
N |
NO |
C |
RQ |
|
When signaling by flashing light, how should you acknowledge a correctly
received repetition of a signal? |
E |
AR |
T |
OK |
|
In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters will direct
the receiver of a message to repeat the transmission back to the sender? |
REPEAT |
RPT |
RPB |
UD AA |
|
The groups "AA" and "AB" are used in conjunction with what other group
in signaling by flashing light? |
WA |
RQ |
CS |
RPT |
|
If you make an error while signaling by flashing light what action
should you take? |
RPT, then repeat the entire signal |
the erase signal then continue the message with the last correctly
spelled word |
the correction signal and re-spell the word |
EEE, then send the word correctly |
|
What is the unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code? |
three times the length of a dot |
four times the length of a dot |
one and one-half times the length of a dot |
twice the length of a dot |
|
Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp? |
A
1,000 GT tanker on a coastwise voyage |
A
200 GT tanker on an international voyage |
A
300 GT tanker on an intercoastal voyage |
All of the above. |
|
Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB.
An EPIRB __________. |
must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel
sinks |
must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use |
is a devise that transmits a radio signal |
All of the above. |
|
Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels
be found? |
These are located in FCC Part 83. |
These are published only by the U.S. Coast Guard. |
These are located in CCIR no.476. |
These are located in 47 CFR Part 80. |
|
When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be
activated after abandoning ship? |
Immediately after floating free |
After about one hour when the salt water activates the battery |
Only when keyed by the radar of another vessel |
Only when daylight activates the photovoltaic cell |
|
CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by
__________. |
orbiting satellites in space |
commercial radio stations |
private, commercial, and military aircraft |
Both A & C |
|
Which system has the least effective radius of operation? |
VHF DSC |
MF NBDP |
HF SITOR |
NAVTEX |
|
What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC
distress alert is received? |
No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically
switch to the NBDP follow-on communications frequency. |
The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the NBDP
frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which the
distress alert was received. |
The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the
radiotelephone frequency that is associated with the frequency band on
which the distress alert was received. |
The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70. |
|
What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)? |
DSC is to be used for transmitting and receiving distress alerts to and
from other ships or coast radio stations via radio. |
DSC provides reception of weather and navigational warnings plus search
and rescue information. |
DSC provides low-cost, routine communications for the vessel operator. |
This aids SAR authorities in tracking a vessel's position by satellite. |
|
When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________. |
position will automatically be sent if the vessel is sending a "Distress
Hot Key" alert |
position will automatically be sent |
MMSI will indicate its ocean region |
None of the above |
|
What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to
insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert? |
It will initiate the DSC distress alert, but any station receiving it
will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine
its identity, position and situation. |
It will initiate the DSC distress alert and default information will
automatically be transmitted. |
It will initiate the DSC distress alert but, as no information will be
transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel,
its position or its situation. |
It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be
manually reset. |
|
If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does
not insert a message, what happens? |
The transmission will be made with "default" information provided
automatically. |
The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate this data
must be provided by the operator. |
The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in distress
to download the necessary information |
The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on the
display readout. |
|
Which channel and mode should be used when initiating a Distress alert
transmission? |
Channel 70 DSC |
Channel 6 DSC |
Channel 6 Radiotelephony |
Channel 13 Radiotelephony and Channel 16 DSC |
|
When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated
after abandoning a vessel? |
Immediately |
Only when another vessel is in sight |
After one hour |
Only after sunset |
|
Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of
transmitting locating signals? |
A
SART transmitting on 406 MHz |
An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz |
Survival Craft Transceiver |
Radio Direction Finder (RDF) |
|
Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator? |
Ensuring the SART's batteries are replaced before their expiration date. |
Placing the SART in the test mode and verifying that the nearby PPI
shows concentric circles. |
Measuring the SART's transmitted frequency. |
Inspecting and cleaning the SART's container, and clearing the immediate
storage area of any debris or obstacles. |
|
What does "EPIRB" stand for? |
Electronic Pulse Indicating Radio beacon |
Emergency Position Indicating Radar Buoy |
Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon |
None of the above |
|
Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART? |
X-Band Radar |
The autoalarm |
A
DSC receiver |
S-Band Radar |
|
After you activate your emergency position indicating radio beacon, you
should __________. |
turn it off for five minutes every half-hour |
turn it off during daylight hours |
turn it off and on at five-minute intervals |
leave it on continuously |
|
What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio beacon
if you are in a liferaft in a storm? |
Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on. |
Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off. |
Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on. |
Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes. |
|
Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by
an INMARSAT satellite? |
Class A EPIRBs |
Class B EPIRBs |
L-Band EPIRBs |
Category I EPIRBs |
|
How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the
immediate vicinity? |
The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of
heavy swells on a SART. |
The SART's blips on the PPI will become arcs and eventually become
concentric circles. |
The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical
mile radius, per IMO standards. |
The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the
two-tone alarm. |
|
What would most likely prevent a SART's signal from being detected? |
Signal absorption by the ionosphere |
The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-cm radar |
The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-cm radar |
Heavy sea swells |
|
Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE? |
The coded signal identifies the nature of the Distress situation. |
The coded signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. |
Once activated, these EPIRBs continuously send up a signal for use in
identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. |
If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit
default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and
mode. |
|
What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able
to operate the unit in the standby mode? |
2
days |
4
days |
8
hours |
3
days |
|
Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal? |
EPIRB and SART |
DSC only |
DSC and EPIRB |
SART and DSC |
|
How can a SART's effective range be maximized? |
The SART should be held as high as possible. |
The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation. |
If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal
matches that of the searching radar signal. |
Switch the SART into the "high" power position. |
|
How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used? |
It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC. |
It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby. |
It informs survivors when the SART switches to the standby mode. |
It informs survivors when the battery's charge condition has weakened. |
|
Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active
mode? |
A
SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching aircraft's
radar if the radar's output power is at least 10,000 watts and the
aircraft is at a height of 3000 feet and within 30 nautical miles. |
A
SART will normally respond to interrogation from a searching vessel's
radar if the radar antenna is at least 15 meters high. |
It will respond only to interrogation by 9-Ghz radar signals. |
All of the above. |
|
Which statement concerning locating signals in the GMDSS is FALSE? |
Locating signals are not transmitted by autoalarm generators. |
Locating signals are transmitted by SARTs. |
Locating signals are transmitted by survival craft VHF transceivers. |
Locating signals are intended to facilitate the finding of a distressed
vessel or its survivors |
|
Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE? |
A
homing signal may be transmitted by equipment attached to the survival
craft. |
A
homing signal is detected by the COSPAS-SARSAT satellites. |
A
homing signal cannot be detected by a GPS receiver. |
A
homing signal provides a bearing for rescue personnel to follow to the
signal's SOURCE. |
|
After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon,
you should __________. |
turn it off and on at 5 minute intervals |
turn it off during daylight hours |
leave it on continuously |
turn it off for 5 minutes every half-hour |
|
If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be used to __________. |
generate orange smoke |
hold the survival craft's head up into the seas |
seal leaks in rubber rafts |
send radio homing signals to searching aircraft |
|
What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio beacon
if you are in a lifeboat during storm conditions? |
Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on. |
Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on. |
Leave it outside the liferaft and turn it off. |
Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes. |
|
You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an
aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You
should __________. |
use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft
to your raft |
switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode |
turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB |
use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB |
|
You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your
Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon? |
Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off. |
Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on. |
Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on. |
Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes. |
|
Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances? |
MF NBDP |
HF NBDP |
NAVTEX |
INMARSAT |
|
Which system is least likely to be subject to fading or static
interference? |
HF SITOR |
Digital Selective Calling on channel 70 |
INMARSAT |
VHF ARQ |
|
What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when
initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT? |
Pressing a "Distress Key" on the equipment |
Contacting the CES operator and announcing a distress condition is in
existence |
Contacting the CES operator using the radiotelephone distress procedure
"Mayday"...etc. |
Dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit |
|
Which system provides maximum communications range? |
Digital Selective Calling on 8414.5KHz |
MF SITOR |
INMARSAT |
VHF ARQ |
|
What is the best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal? |
send a message to another ship terminal |
send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation |
see if the send light flashes, then proper operation has been confirmed |
compose and send a brief message to your own INMARSAT-C terminal |
|
Which statement concerning exposure to radiation is TRUE? |
The INMARSAT unit's ray dome filters out potentially dangerous UV rays. |
An INMARSAT-C antenna must be carefully avoided because it focuses the
transmitter's signal into a fine beam of energy. |
INMARSAT-A and B antennas are safe because they are omnidirectional. |
Certain INMARSAT systems will automatically transmit when called and can
expose an individual to harmful radiation. |
|
How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT? |
Certain INMARSAT units have a dedicated key that can be pressed for
immediate action, while other systems provide menu-driven features. |
By transmitting the distress message on the U.S. Coast Guard's dedicated
monitoring channel. |
By adding the word "DISTRESS" in the first line of the message's
preamble |
All INMARSAT units have a dedicated key that can be pressed for
immediate action. |
|
What is the best method to overcome the effects of shadowing when
attempting to place an INMARSAT-B call? |
A
small course change should work. |
Select a CES that serves the INMARSAT satellite that will handle the
call. |
Installing a shadow correction filter will compensate in fringe areas. |
Turning on compensators will work in all but extreme cases of shadowing. |
|
What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance
with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections? |
U.S. Coast Guard annual inspection |
Periodic inspections not required if on board maintainers perform
routine preventive maintenance |
An inspection at least once every 12 months by the FCC or a holder of a
GMDSS Maintainers license |
FCC inspection every five years |
|
On which vessels is GMDSS required? |
All vessels capable of international voyages |
Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons |
SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. |
Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coastal radio stations |
|
How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected? |
Annually, by the U.S. Coast Guard |
Annually, by the FCC or designated authority |
The FCC's annual inspection may be waived if, and only if, monthly
inspections are performed by the vessel's onboard GMDSS Radio
Maintainer. |
Annually, by the FCC, and every six months if the vessel sails outside
of the Sea Areas A1 and A2 |
|
What is required during an annual FCC inspection? |
licensed GMDSS radio operators may be required to demonstrate equipment
competencies |
all required documents and publications may have to be produced |
all required equipment must be fully operational |
All of the above. |
|
What is a GMDSS functional or carriage requirement for compulsory
vessels? |
A
compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress
alerts. |
A
compulsory vessel must carry at least two (2) licensed GMDSS operators |
A
compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements
that are determined by where the vessel sails. |
All of the above. |
|
At sea, how must all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft
equipment) be proven operational? |
daily testing |
testing at least every 48 hours |
operational use of the equipment |
either A or C |
|
What is the minimum permit or license requirement of a GMDSS Radio
Maintainer? |
Holding the GMDSS Radio Operator license for at least one year is a
prerequisite to holding the GMDSS Radio Maintainer license |
Holding the Marine Radio Operator Permit is a pre-requisite before the
GMDSS Maintainer Endorsement can be obtained |
Holding a valid GMDSS Radio Operator license is sufficient |
Holding the GMDSS Radio Maintainer license is sufficient |
|
What is the minimum license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Operator? |
Holding the General Radiotelephone Operator License with RADAR
endorsement is sufficient. |
Holding either the General Radiotelephone Operator License or the First
or Second Class Radiotelegraph License with GMDSS Radio Maintainer's
Endorsement is sufficient. |
Holding the Marine Radio Operator Permit is a pre-requisite before the
GMDSS Radio Operator Endorsement can be obtained. |
Holding a valid GMDSS Radio Operator License is sufficient. |
|
What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS? |
Distress alerting and response |
Equipment carriage requirements |
Two licensed GMDSS radio operators |
All of the above. |
|
Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE? |
Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed Radio Operators
at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio
Maintainer as well. |
Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio
Operators at all times while at sea. |
While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment
may be performed by the GMDSS Radio operator as long as the work is
supervised by an onboard licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. |
Communications involving safety of life at sea do not have to be logged
as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such
communications. |
|
What is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels? |
A
compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements
that are determined by where the vessel sails. |
A
compulsory vessel must carry at least two FCC licensed GMDSS Radio
Operators. |
A
compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress
alerts. |
All of the above. |
|
For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE? |
Passenger vessels between 300-500 gross tons need to carry only one
licensed GMDSS Radio Operator, but passenger vessels larger than 500
must carry two licensed Operators. |
Vessels between 300-500 gross tons need to carry no more than one EPIRB,
SART and survival craft transceiver, but vessels larger than 500 gross
tons must carry two of each unit. |
Vessels larger than 500 gross tons must carry certain additional GMDSS
equipment than what a vessel between 300-500 gross tons must carry. |
Vessels over 500 gross tons must carry at least three licensed GMDSS
Radio Operators. |
|
For GMDSS, when may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port? |
When the vessel is carrying only two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators and
is capable of performing all required functions |
When the vessel has arranged for both duplication of equipment AND
shore-based maintenance |
When the vessel has replaced a required piece of GMDSS-related equipment
but its performance has not been verified or logged |
When the vessel is in an overloaded condition |
|
What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to
depart from any port? |
The vessel is carrying more than the required number of qualified GMDSS
radio operators. |
The vessel is not carrying a GMDSS radio maintainer, but has provided
for shoreside maintenance plus duplication of equipment if required. |
The vessel is not capable of performing all required distress and safety
functions. |
The vessel has a temporary waiver of its radio license and Safety
Certificate. |
|
Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing
under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization? |
Radio direction finding |
Distress alerting to and from vessels, search and rescue coordination,
on-scene communications, signals for locating, Maritime Safety
Information, general and bridge-to-bridge communications. |
All communications possible within the International Safety-NET service |
Communications in each of the operational ocean areas |
|
Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international
voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? |
47 CFR Part 80 FCC Rules and Regulations |
Station logs |
A
copy of the IMO master plan of shore-based facilities |
All of the above. |
|
Which documents are required by Part 80 of the FCC Rules for vessels on
international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? |
International list of ship call signs (ITU List VI) |
List of Radiodetermination and Special Service Stations (ITU List VI) |
Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate |
All of the above. |
|
In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF
SITOR equipment? |
This equipment satisfies in full the carriage requirement for vessels
operating in Sea Area A2. |
HF SITOR equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for
vessels operating in Sea Area A3, but INMARSAT equipment must be carried
to satisfy the requirement when the vessel is in Sea Area A4. |
This equipment must be carried at all times at sea regardless of where
the vessel will be operating. |
This equipment partially satisfies the carriage requirement for vessels
operating in Sea Area A3. |
|
How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the licensee when they
relate to a distress situation or disaster? |
3
years |
1
year |
6
months |
2
years |
|
How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original
form? |
3
months |
6
months |
1
year |
30 days |
|
How long must the GMDSS radio log be retained on board before sending it
to the shoreside licensee? |
At least one year after the last entry |
At least 90 days after the last entry |
At least two years after the last entry |
At least 30 days after the last entry |
|
Which statement is TRUE? |
Key letters or abbreviations may not be used in GMDSS radio logbooks
under any circumstance. |
Urgency communications do not need to be entered in the GMDSS radio log. |
Both of the above |
None of the above |
|
Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship? |
Anywhere on board the vessel |
In the Captain's office |
In the sea cabin |
At the GMDSS operating position |
|
Which statement pertaining to log keeping is TRUE? |
Entries relating to pre-voyage, pre-departure and daily tests are
required |
Both A and C |
All Distress, Urgent and Safety communications that affect the station's
own ship must be logged |
Routine daily MF-HF and INMARSAT-C transmissions do not have to be
logged |
|
Where is the GMDSS Radio Logbook kept aboard ship? |
In the Master's office |
In the Chief Mate's office |
At the principal radio operating location |
Attached to the Deck Logbook |
|
If you log a distress message, it must include the __________. |
names of witnesses |
time of its occurrence |
sea state |
wind direction and velocity |
|
How often does a coast radio station that regularly broadcasts traffic
lists transmit the list? |
No less often than every four hours |
Once per 24-hour period |
Only on an as-needed basis |
As often as is deemed necessary to effect delivery |
|
Which statement is generally correct regarding the maintenance
requirements for ships under GMDSS? |
Shoreside maintenance and scheduled tests and inspections will partially
meet this requirement. |
Redundancy of functions of certain equipment will partially meet this
requirement. |
On-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS maintainer's
license will partially meet the requirements. |
All of the above. |
|
What is the basic concept of GMDSS? |
Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in distress will be rapidly
alerted. |
Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR
operation with minimum delay. |
Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a distress
situation. |
All of the above. |
|
For GMDSS, which statement concerning a compulsory vessel is FALSE? |
A
conditional or partial exemption may be granted, in exceptional
circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the
vessel is equipped. |
Compulsory vessels must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio
Operators for Distress and Safety radio-communications purpose. |
Once a compulsory vessel's GMDSS station has been fitted and inspected,
the station must be inspected only once every five years. |
All passenger vessels regardless of size and all cargo vessels that are
300 Gross Tons or larger must comply. |
|
Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform? |
The Operator is responsible for ensuring that INMARSAT antennas are free
of built-up soot and clear of obstacles. |
The Operator may install an EPROM in order to ensure that the equipment
continues to operate within legal constraints. |
The Operator can make fine internal adjustments to the transmitter as
long as the output power does not change by more than one percent. |
All levels of maintenance must be performed by a licensed GMDSS Radio
Maintainer. |
|
Which channel has been designated for on-scene communications in GMDSS? |
24 |
16 and 2174.5 |
70 |
2187.5 |
|
Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in
GMDSS? |
Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies |
406 MHz via EPIRB |
1626.5-1645.5 MHz via INMARSAT |
All of the above. |
|
What does proper GMDSS watchkeeping include? |
reading all displays and/or printouts after silencing an alarm |
notifying the Master of any distress alerts |
monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode |
All of the above. |
|
What does proper GMDSS watchkeeping include? |
understanding the GMDSS console's normal operational indicators |
responding to and comprehending alarms |
maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log |
All of the above. |
|
Which statement concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is FALSE? |
Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements. |
Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two
of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment,
shore-based or at-sea maintenance capability. |
If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to
be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing
to a non-US port. |
Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one
of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment,
shore-based or at-sea maintenance capability. |
|
Which statement concerning maintenance requirements is FALSE? |
Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one
of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment,
shore based or at-sea maintenance capability. |
If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to
be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing
to a non-US port. |
Compulsory vessels sailing in Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of
the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore
based or at-sea maintenance capability. |
Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements. |
|
Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is TRUE? |
Distress alerts may be used to alert other vessels, including those in
port, of existing weather warnings. |
Information contained in a distress alert includes the name and position
of the distressed vessel, and may include additional information such as
the nature of the situation and what kind of assistance that may be
required. |
Distress alerts may be used to alert other vessels, including those in
port, of existing navigational hazards. |
A
vessel in the vicinity of a distress situation may leave the area
without notifying the RCC that is overseeing the operation. |
|
Which statement concerning reserve sources of energy for GMDSS is FALSE? |
While the ship is at sea, there must be available at all times a supply
of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations and
to charge any batteries used as part of a reserve source of energy. |
If a uninterrupted power supply or equivalent is used to supply power to
the ship's GPS receiver or other source of positional information, a
means must be provided to ensure the continuous supply of the
information in the event of a failure to the ship's main or emergency
source of power. |
Both the VHF and MF/HF installations must be simultaneously supplied. |
A
means of ensuring a continuous supply of electrical power must be
provided to all GMDSS equipment that could be affected by an
interruption in power. |
|
Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range? |
Setting the squelch control to its maximum level |
Setting the squelch control to its minimum level |
The power switch is set to the "high" output position resulting in
receiver over loading |
Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16 |
|
Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator? |
Meteorological warnings |
Search and Rescue information |
Navigational warnings |
All of the above. |
|
Which references should the GMDSS radio operator consult for information
on the proper operation of the equipment? |
ITU list of Equipment Operations |
47 CFR Part 80 |
Information available through SafetyNET channels |
The manufacturer's operating manuals |
|
What should the GMDSS radio operator consult to review the proper
procedures to be followed in distress situations under GMDSS? |
Part 90 of the FCC Rules and Regulations |
Part 80, Subpart W of the FCC Rules and Regulations |
The manufacturers instruction manuals |
IMO recommendations |
|
What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper
set-up and operation of vessel equipment? |
Code of Federal Regulations, Title 47, Part 80, Subpart W` |
Part 90 of the FCC Rules and Regulations |
The manufacturers instruction manuals |
ITU Publications |
|
Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress alert? |
Listen for any follow up voice/TELEX transmission on the appropriate
frequency. |
Silence the alarm. |
Read the display screen and/or printout. |
All of the above. |
|
What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence? |
To ensure that a distressed vessel will have a "window" twice each hour
for transmitting routine messages |
To ensure that interference on a particular frequency or channel to
communications concerning emergency traffic is minimized |
To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on the distress
frequency or channel |
To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is minimized |
|
When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been
imposed? |
After determining that geographic distance from the distress situation
will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency
communications |
If, in the Master's opinion, communications on that frequency will
interfere with emergency communications |
Routine communications can resume after the Rescue Coordination Center
transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency
communications stating that such traffic has concluded. |
After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer
in use |
|
What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take
in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel
is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned? |
Transmit Distress call by MF/HF, VHF or INMARSAT. |
Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on Channel
13. |
Transmit Distress call by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm
signal. |
Switch off EPIRB and SART manually. |
|
What is meant by the term "radio silence"? |
Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary information |
Stations not directly involved with the on-going Distress communications
may not transmit on the distress frequency or channel |
Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the hour,
that provide a transmitting "window" for distressed vessels to transmit
distress alerts using J3E |
Communications on a distress frequency or channel is banned for 24 hours
following the cessation of the distress traffic |
|
How is "radio silence" imposed? |
By the On Scene Coordinator (OSC) |
It is imposed by the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the distress
communications on that frequency or channel |
By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the Distress communications
on that frequency |
It is imposed by the Public Correspondence Station (PCS) controlling the
distress communications on that frequency or channel |
|
Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be
abandoned because of a distress situation? |
Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable
INMARSAT unit. |
Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and
situation. |
Place the SART and EPIRB in the "ON" position and secure them to the
survival craft. |
No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both
automatically float free and operate properly. |
|
Who is responsible for transmitting a message stating that distress
communications have ceased? |
The Coast Radio Station (CRS) that was first contacted concerning the
distress situation |
The vessel providing the initial communications with the distressed
vessel |
The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) controlling the distress
communications |
No formal message must be transmitted as long as no distress-related
communications have occurred after reasonable time. |
|
How is "radio silence" imposed? |
By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the distress communications
on that frequency or channel |
By the Public Correspondence Station (PCS), controlling the distress
communications on that frequency or channel |
By the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the distress communications
on that frequency or channel. |
By the Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) controlling the distress
communications on that frequency or channel |
|
Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is
TRUE? |
There is equally significant hazard potential from all INMARSAT antenna
systems. |
The INMARSAT-B ray dome normally prevents nearby persons from being able
to determine the direction of the internal antenna. |
There is minimal hazard potential as long as the Operator notifies other
system users aboard the vessel that the potential exists. |
FCC type acceptance regulations require that radiated power be kept to a
minimum so as to prevent hazard potential. |
|
What is meant by "CES"? |
Central Equatorial Station |
Coast Earth Station |
Coast Earth Satellite |
Coastal Equivalent Station |
|
Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress
situation when embarking in survival craft? |
Communicate via Inmarsat-C from the survival craft. |
Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave on. |
Notify RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF DSC with portable
equipment. |
Switch on EPIRB and SART manually prior to launching and remain aboard
vessel in distress. |
|
Define the acronym MSI __________. |
Mariner Safety Intelligence |
Maritime Satellite Indicator |
Maritime Safety Information |
Maritime Shipping Index |
|
What is the primary equipment for receiving MSI? |
EPIRB |
SART |
INMARSAT-B |
NAVTEX |
|
Which categories of NAVTEX messages may not be selectively rejected
through receiver programming? |
Navigational warnings |
SAR information |
Weather warnings |
All of the above. |
|
Which category of NAVTEX messages may be rejected in some receivers, BUT
SHOULD NOT? |
Weather warnings |
Category L navigational warnings |
SAR and distress alert information |
Category A navigational warnings |
|
To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be
turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port? |
6 |
8 |
2 |
4 |
|
Which kind(s) of broadcasts are available through Safety NET? |
Hourly NOAA weather broadcasts from the NWS |
MSI and vessel traffic lists |
Coastal weather broadcasts |
MSI and messages to pre-defined groups of subscribers |
|
Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information? |
AMVER |
NAVTEX |
INMARSAT-M SES |
SafetyNET |
|
Marine Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which
system? |
NAVTEX |
AMVER |
SafetyNET |
INMARSAT-M SES |
|
Which system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or
a shore-to-ship distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert
all ships in the satellite coverage area? |
EGC |
AMVER |
DSC |
NAVTEX |
|
In all forms of signaling, what is the waiting signal? |
C |
RQ |
AR |
AS |
|
What should be used to send the group "Bearing 074° True"? |
A074 |
B074 |
B074T |
A074T |
|
If you receive a message "A243" by any method of signaling, what would
it be referring to? |
speed |
altitude |
diving |
bearing |
|
What does the signal "AS", when used in signaling by the International
Code of Signals mean? |
Finished with transmission |
Repeat this signal |
Over |
Wait |
|
If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should be used to
send the group "True Bearing 045 Degrees"? |
A045 |
45 |
B045 |
B045T |
|
Which signal should be used to send the group "Distance 750 nautical
miles"? |
R750 |
D750N |
D750 |
R750N |
|
What is indicated by the signal letter R followed by one or more
numbers? |
bearing |
a
vessel's identity |
distance |
visibility |
|
Which group should be used to send the signal Longitude 109°34'West? |
LO10934W |
L10934 |
G10934 |
D0934 |
|
What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"? |
Change course to 325°. |
The longitude is 3°25'. |
The course is 325°. |
The distance is 325 miles. |
|
What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"? |
The zone time is 1325. |
The GMT is 1325. |
The latitude is 13°25'. |
The longitude is 13°25'. |
|
In signaling, when sent with a complement, what may the letter G be
followed by? |
two numerals |
four or five numerals |
three or four numerals |
two letters |
|
Which group should be used to send the signal "Latitude 73°25'North"? |
N7325 |
LA7325N |
G17325N |
L7325N |
|
The signal L1210 means the __________. |
latitude is 12°10' |
longitude is 12°10' |
zone time is 1210 |
GMT is 1210 |
|
If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated
by __________. |
D801203 |
D800312 |
D120380 |
D031280 |
|
While communicating with a shore station concerning an injured female,
your message should indicate the subject's age is 32. Which code would
your message contain? |
MAJ 32 |
MAO 32 |
MAK 32 |
MAL 32 |
|
An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger
ship that has a doctor and hospital on board. You want to rendezvous in
a certain position so the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment.
Which code should your message contain? |
MAE |
MAA |
MAF |
MAB |
|
You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting
urgent medical advice. Your message should contain which code? |
MAF |
MAB |
MAD |
MAA |
|
You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. What is the
meaning of the message? |
The wound should be stitched |
The wound should not be stitched |
You should pass a stomach tube |
Place patient in hot bath |
|
After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member,
you receive a message containing the code MRL. What is the meaning of
the message? |
Pass catheter into bladder |
Apply ice-cold compress and renew every 4 hours |
Commence artificial respiration immediately |
Give enema |
|
If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message
contain? |
MPO |
MPK |
MPJ |
MPR |
|
If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of improvement, what
code should your message contain? |
MPH |
MPF |
MVP |
MSO |
|
A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes. Which code should
your message contain? |
MNO |
MNI |
MNJ |
MNM |
|
In the International Code of signals, what does a group of three letters
indicates? |
urgency or an emergency |
a
group from the medical signal code |
the vessel's national identity signal |
a
group from the general signal code |
|
You are off the coast of South Africa, when a seaman is injured. What
indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a
South African station? |
PORT HEALTH |
XXX RADIOMEDICAL |
MEDRAD |
DH MEDICO |
|
While operating off the coast of Portugal, a seaman is injured. What
indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a
Portuguese station? |
DH MEDICO |
XXX RADIOMEDICAL |
MEDICAL RADIO |
PORT HEALTH |
|
While operating off Panama a seaman is injured. What indicator should be
included in the preamble of a radio telegram requesting medical advice
from a Panamanian station? |
XXX |
DH MEDICO |
MEDRAD |
RADIO MEDICAL |
|
While operating off the coast of Greece, a seaman is injured. What
indicator should be in the preamble of a radio telegram asking for
medical advice from a Greek station? |
MAYDAY |
MEDICO ELLAS |
RADIO MEDICAL |
DH MEDICO |
|
If you were being assisted by an icebreaker and he sent you the single
letter "Q", what would he would be telling you? |
that he has his engines in reverse |
that his vessel is healthy |
to shorten the distance between vessels |
that he is shortening the distance between vessels |
|
What does the single letter G, sent by an icebreaker to an assisted
vessel, mean? |
"I am going ahead; follow me" |
"Longitude follows" |
"Do not follow me" |
"I require a pilot" |
|
You are downbound in an ice filled channel. An icebreaker is meeting you
and sounds two short, one prolonged, and two short blasts on the
whistle. What action should you take? |
No action is required; the icebreaker will move out of the channel. |
Move to the right hand side of the channel and slow to bare steerageway. |
Stop your headway and await further signals. |
Slow to bare steerageway and be prepared to come ahead as the icebreaker
commences escorting your vessel. |
|
Signals between an icebreaker and an assisted vessel may NOT be given by
__________. |
whistle |
flag hoist |
radiotelephone |
radiotelegraph |
|
Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in compliance with the
International Rules of the Road? |
D |
F |
Q |
U |
|
Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with
the Rules of the Road? |
E |
S |
D |
All of the above. |
|
When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals, the
signal __________. |
should include the compass deviation if a compass course is signaled |
must be followed by "T", "M" or "C" to indicate if it is true, magnetic
or compass |
always indicates a true course unless indicated otherwise in the message |
should be preceded by the letters CSE |
|
If you desire to communicate with another station that your navigation
lights were not functioning, what signal would you send? |
LN1 |
PD1 |
MJ |
PB |
|
Regardless of the method it is sent, what does he signal K4 mean? |
a
distance of 4 miles |
a
speed of 4 knots |
"I wish to communicate with you by sound signals" |
the wind is from the south |
|
What is the meaning of the signal VJ 8 when sent by the International
Code of Signals? |
You should stop hauling your warps. |
A
gale is expected from the north. |
Low clouds cover 8 octants of the sky. |
Winds of force 8 are expected. |
|
What is the meaning of the signal DX RQ when sent by the International
Code of Signals? |
Are you sinking? |
There are no tugs available. |
The call sign of a vessel registered in the Philippines. |
The damage can be repaired at sea. |
|
You wish to communicate information that the swell in your area is 8-10
feet in height and from the northeast. How would you describe this
swell, as defined in the International Code of Signals? |
high |
rough |
confused |
moderate |
|
In the International Code of Signals, what is the code signal meaning "I
require immediate assistance? |
DX |
CP |
CB |
AE |
|
If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you
send? |
BZ |
BS |
BT1 |
BR |
|
If another station sent you the signal "KG", what would this indicate? |
asking you if you needed a tug |
telling you to stay clear |
telling you he found an aircraft wreckage |
telling you he has flooded a hold |
|
What is the meaning of the signal QU RQ when sent by the International
Code of Signals? |
Interrogative |
Will you lead me to a safe anchorage? |
This is the call sign of a vessel registered in Latvia. |
Is anchoring prohibited? |
|
What is the meaning of the signal SA T1035 RQ when sent by the
International code of Signals? |
I
am altering course to 103.5°T. |
Can you proceed at 1035 local time? |
The longitude is 10°35'. |
Is the latitude 10°35'? |
|
Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances? |
MF/HF radiotelephony |
SafetyNET |
VHF DSC |
INMARSAT |
|
A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is __________. |
400 kilohertz |
8221 kilohertz |
2182 kilohertz |
2728 kilohertz |
|
How does a coast radio station communicating by HF radio normally
identify itself? |
By its MID |
By its call sign |
By its subscriber number |
By its MMSI |
|
What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones? |
1347 kHz |
2738 kHz |
500 kHz |
2182 kHz |
|
Which system is most likely to be subject to fading or static
interference? |
HF SITOR |
Digital Selective Calling on channel 70 |
VHF ARQ |
INMARSAT |
|
Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by
radiotelephone? |
Breaker |
Pan |
Mayday |
Securite |
|
What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by
radiotelephone? |
Alpha Alpha |
Calling all stations |
Charlie Quebec |
Kilo |
|
A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm
signal followed immediately by the __________. |
distress position |
ship's name |
spoken words "Mayday, Mayday, Mayday" |
ship's call letters |
|
How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
DA VID |
DOG |
DUKE |
DELL TAH |
|
The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on channel
__________. |
13 |
9A |
22A |
44 |
|
The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by "opening up" the
squelch control. What is the normal setting of the squelch control? |
Completely open with the volume at the lowest level |
Completely closed with the volume at the highest level |
Just past the point where background noise is cut off |
None of the above |
|
When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of
a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by the signal __________. |
CQ |
YZ |
WA |
AR |
|
If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of
navigation, you would preface it by the word __________. |
Pan-pan |
Mayday |
Securite |
Safety |
|
You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times.
This indicates that __________. |
a
message about the safety of navigation will follow |
the sender is in distress and requests immediate assistance |
a
message of an urgent nature about the safety of a ship will follow |
you should secure your radiotelephone |
|
A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix when
sent by radiotelephone? |
No special prefix |
Pan-Pan (3 times) |
Securite Securite Securite |
TTT TTT TTT |
|
A call between any two ship stations on an intership working frequency
shall have a maximum duration of __________. |
2
minutes |
3
minutes |
4
minutes |
5
minutes |
|
Routine radio communications should be no more than __________. |
one minute |
three minutes |
five minutes |
eight minutes |
|
A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n) __________. |
safety message |
routine message |
distress message |
urgent message |
|
In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that
__________. |
the message following is a meteorological warning |
the message following the prefix will be about the safety of navigation |
a
ship is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate
assistance |
a
calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person |
|
The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a
person would be prefixed by the word __________. |
Safety |
Pan |
Mayday |
Interco |
|
Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not
require immediate assistance. You would preface a message advising other
vessels of your situation with __________. |
Securite-Securite-Securite |
Mayday-Mayday-Mayday |
Pan-Pan (3 times) |
SOS-SOS-SOS |
|
A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is
off station is preceded by the word __________. |
"PAN-PAN" |
"MAYDAY" |
"SECURITY" |
"SOS" |
|
If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa Tango"
while using the International Code of Signals, you should __________. |
continue since he received your last transmission |
end the transmission |
report to the caller |
repeat your last transmission |
|
You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International
Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". This
indicates that __________. |
you should send your message in International Code |
you should proceed with your message |
you should send your message in plain language |
he cannot accept traffic immediately |
|
Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are
preceded by __________. |
SOS |
SECURITE |
MAYDAY |
PAN-PAN |
|
You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign vessel using
the International Code of Signals. This is indicated by the signal
__________. |
"Charlie Quebec" |
"Kilo" |
"Interco" |
"Code" |
|
You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind of radio
message do you transmit to warn others? |
Routine message |
Distress message |
Urgency message |
Safety message |
|
You are communicating by radiotelephone using the International Code of
Signals. What is the correct method of sending the group 1.3? |
"Unaone decimal terrathree" |
"Wun point tree" |
"One decimal three" |
"Unaone point tercetree" |
|
When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what
procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response
is necessary? |
Over |
Wilco |
Out |
Roger |
|
You are communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English. Which
procedural word (proword) indicates that you have received another
vessel's transmission? |
Out |
Wilco |
Roger |
Over |
|
If you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone you should
__________. |
follow the transmission with the radio alarm signal |
always use the International Code |
use English language |
preface it by the word "Interco" |
|
How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
NUM-BER-NINE |
OK-TOH-NINE |
NEW-MER-AL-NINER |
NO-VAY-NINER |
|
"PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which
type of message will follow? |
Urgency |
All clear |
Distress |
Safety |
|
How should the number "7" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
SAY-TAY-SEVEN |
SEE-ETA-SEVEN |
NUM-BER-SEVEN |
NEW-MER-AL-SEVEN |
|
You receive a call from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations.
The call begins with the words "Pan-Pan" (3 times). Which type of
emergency signal would this be? |
Safety signal |
Red alert signal |
Urgency signal |
Distress signal |
|
How should the letter "R" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
AR AH |
AR EE |
ROA MA O |
ROW ME OH |
|
How should the letter "V" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
VIX TOO RE |
VIC TO RE |
VIK TAH |
VEE |
|
Which spoken emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come
assist a man overboard? |
Distress signal |
Safety signal |
Urgency signal |
None of the above |
|
How should the letter "O" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
OSS CAH |
O
RI AN |
OCK TOW BER |
OA KAM |
|
How should the letter "W" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
WI NE |
WOO LF |
WISS KEY |
DUB A U |
|
How should the letter "I" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
IN DEE GO |
I
VAN HO |
I
EE |
IN DEE AH |
|
How should the letter "Q" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
QU UE |
QWE BEC |
QUE BACH |
KEH BECK |
|
How should the number "6" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
SOK-SEE-SIX |
NUM-BER-SIX |
NEW-MER-AL-SIX |
SOX-SIX |
|
Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages
by radiotelephone is INCORRECT? |
Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 kHz. |
It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by two dashes
of 10 to 15 seconds duration. |
Channel 16 (156.8 MHz) may be used for distress messages. |
If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat
the distress call on any frequency available. |
|
How should the number "5" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
FIVE-ER |
PAN-TAH-FIVE |
NUM-ERL-FIVE |
NEW-MARL-FIVE |
|
Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone contact with
a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard vessel requests that you give
him a long count. This indicates that __________. |
the Coast Guard vessel is testing its receiver |
the Coast Guard vessel is taking a radio direction finder bearing on
your vessel |
the Coast Guard vessel is requesting your position in latitude and
longitude |
your radio transmitter is not working properly |
|
When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio, confusion over
unusual words can be avoided by using the __________. |
delimiter switch |
low power switch |
standard phonetic alphabet |
high power switch |
|
How should the number "4" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
QUAD-ROS-FOOR |
NUM-ERL-FOUR |
KAR-TAY-FOWER |
NUMB-ER-FOWER |
|
How should the number "3" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
TAY-RAH-TREE |
TRIC-THREE |
NUM-ERL-THREE |
BEES-SOH-THREE |
|
How should the number "2" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
BEES-SOH-TOO |
DOS-SOH-TU |
NUM-BER-TOO |
NEM-MARL-TWO |
|
How should the number "1" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
NUM-EV-WUN |
OO-NO |
NEW-MAL-WON |
OO-NAH-WUN |
|
How should the letter "T" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
TANG GO |
TEE |
TA HO |
TU TU |
|
Whenever your marine radio is on, FCC Rules require you to monitor
__________. |
the radio only if expecting a call |
the last frequency that was used |
the distress and calling frequency |
a
commercial ship-to-ship channel |
|
How should the letter "Z" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone? |
ZEE ZE |
ZEE BR AH |
ZE HE |
ZOO LOO |
|
One method of reducing the length of radio transmissions without
distorting the meaning of your words is by using __________. |
procedure words |
secret codes |
slang |
analogies |
|
What is the radiotelephone urgency signal? |
mayday |
securite |
seelonce feenee |
pan pan |
|
What type of messages should the "urgent" priority be used for? |
detailing important navigational warnings |
concerning the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) |
concerning on-scene communications |
containing information concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person |
|
When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "SECURITE" spoken three
times, he can expect to receive a message concerning __________. |
the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings |
the safety of a vessel or a person is in jeopardy |
a
vessel in need of immediate assistance |
a
coast station traffic list |
|
What is the radiotelephone safety signal? |
"Safety" repeated 3 times |
"Securite" repeated 3 times |
"Pan Pan" repeated 3 times |
"Securite Securite" repeated 3 times |
|
While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce
mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take? |
Resume base course and speed as your assistance is no longer required. |
Relay the original distress message as no other vessel has acknowledged
it. |
Monitor the radiotelephone but do not transmit. |
Acknowledge receipt and advise your course, speed, and ETA. |
|
Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message? |
Received mayday |
SOS acknowledged |
Roger wilco |
Mayday, roger |
|
While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce
Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take? |
Resume base course and speed because the distress situation is over. |
Do not transmit over the radiotelephone. |
Resume normal communications on the guarded frequency. |
Relay the initial distress message to the nearest shore station. |
|
While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE
over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take? |
Use that frequency only for restricted working communications. |
Shift your radio guard to the working frequency that will be indicated
in the message. |
Advise the sender of your course, speed, position, and ETA at the
distress site. |
Resume base course and speed because the distress is terminated. |
|
You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to
the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with
the vessel in distress. Which action should you take? |
Broadcast "Charlie Quebec-Mayday-Quiet". |
Broadcast "Seelonce Distress". |
Switch to flag hoists. |
Key the microphone three times in quick succession. |
|
If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio
maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies,
which frequency should you call on? |
Working frequency |
Calling frequency |
Urgency frequency |
Distress frequency |
|
The national distress, safety, and calling frequency is channel
__________. |
22 |
16 |
13 |
18 |
|
What is the average range of vessel-to-vessel VHF-FM radio
communications? |
15 to 20 miles |
60 to 90 miles |
90 to 120 miles |
120 to 150 miles |
|
Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel? |
7A |
8 |
9 |
16 |
|
Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel
and is required in all portable survival craft equipment? |
Channel 6 |
Channel 13 |
Channel 16 |
Channel 70 |
|
When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of
transmitting power should you use? |
High power |
Medium power |
Low power |
Extra high power |
|
Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 16? |
Call to a particular station |
Distress signal MAYDAY |
A
meteorological warning |
All of the above. |
|
What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to
a shore station? |
About 20 miles |
50 - 100 miles |
100 - 150 miles |
150 - 200 miles |
|
What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions? |
One watt |
Five watts |
15 watts |
25 watts |
|
You are monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your
vessel, TEXAS PRIDE. What is the proper way to answer this call? |
"This is TEXAS PRIDE. Pick a channel." |
"Please stand by. We're busy right now." |
"This is TEXAS PRIDE on Channel 16. Come back." |
"This is TEXAS PRIDE, WSR 1234, reply Channel 10." |
|
What is the minimum operating capacity required for VHF Survival Craft
Transceiver batteries? |
4
hours |
6
hours |
8
hours |
12 hours |
|
The height of a VHF radio antenna is more important than the power
output wattage of the radio because __________. |
the air is more dense the higher you go |
VHF communications are basically "line of sight" |
sea water absorbs the radiated energy |
salt water is a poor conductor of sound |
|
How many VHF Survival Craft Transceivers are required aboard passenger
ships? |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
|
Which action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on
VHF? |
Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A. |
Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70. |
Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13. |
Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. |
|
With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers
communicate? |
Communication is permitted between survival craft and ship. |
Communication is permitted between survival craft and rescue unit. |
Communication is permitted between survival craft. |
All of the above. |
|
All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode, which means that
__________. |
the radio only receives |
the radio only transmits |
only one person may talk at a time |
only two persons may talk at the same time |
|
VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications? |
Inter-vessel safety and search and rescue |
Radio checks and time checks |
Working with helicopters |
Radio direction finding |
|
What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on
channel 13? |
1
watt or less |
5
watts |
10 watts |
20 watts |
|
While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must
maintain a continuous listening watch on channel __________. |
6
(156.3 MHz) |
12 (156.6 MHz) |
14 (156.7 MHz) |
16 (156.8 MHz) |
|
The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________. |
156.8 MHz (channel 16) |
156.7 MHz (channel 14) |
156.65 MHz (channel 13) |
156.6 MHz (channel 12) |
|
The VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only to transmit
or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel is
__________. |
156.7 MHz (channel 14) |
156.6 MHz (channel 12) |
156.65 MHz (channel 13) |
156.8 MHz (channel 16) |
|
What frequency has the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge
radiotelephone communications? |
156.275 MHz channel 65 |
156.650 MHz channel 13 |
157.000 MHz channel 28 |
157.000 MHz channel 20 |
|
Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge channel, may
NOT be used to __________. |
exchange operating schedules with company dispatcher |
exchange navigational information between a vessel and a shore station |
conduct necessary tests |
exchange navigational information between vessels |
|
Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for
bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or channel __________. |
12 |
13 |
14 |
16 |
|
Channel 13 is primarily used for ship to ship communication. Channel 13
is also authorized for __________. |
coast to aircraft operational communications |
aircraft to ship navigational communications |
lock & bridge communications |
aircraft to ship operational communications |
|
You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not
replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again? |
One minute |
Two minutes |
Five minutes |
Seven minutes |
|
Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally
call on channel __________. |
23 |
16 |
19 |
13 |
|
You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service.
You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________. |
signaling tones |
a
busy signal |
speech |
All of the above. |
|
You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the
__________. |
VHF-FM service |
emergency broadcast service |
coastal harbor service |
high seas service |
|
When do you use your FCC call sign when transmitting on channel 16? |
Only at the beginning of a transmission |
Only if asked by the U.S. Coast Guard |
Only in an emergency |
Always at the beginning and ending of a transmission |
|
You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but
are not in danger. You should use the urgent signal __________. |
"SECURITE" |
"ASSISTANCE NEEDED" |
"MAYDAY" |
"PAN-PAN" |
|
What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF
radio? |
Pan-Pan |
Man Overboard |
Security |
Mayday |
|
What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be
given as soon as possible"? |
Green star rocket |
Orange smoke signal |
Red star rocket |
Vertical motion of a flag |
|
What does the lifesaving signal indicated by a horizontal motion of a
white light or white flare mean? |
"Landing here highly dangerous" |
"Negative" |
"Avast hauling" |
All of the above. |
|
The color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares used to
indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate
assistance is __________. |
yellow |
white |
red |
green |
|
What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be
given as soon as possible"? |
Red star rocket |
Orange smoke signal |
Green star rocket |
Horizontal motion of a flag |
|
What is the lifesaving signal indicating "You are seen - Assistance will
be given as soon as possible"? |
vertical motion of a white light or flare |
vertical motion of white flags |
firing of a green star signal |
None of the above |
|
When should you use distress flares and rockets? |
Immediately upon abandoning the vessel |
At half-hour intervals |
At one-hour intervals |
Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels |
|
What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be
given as soon as possible"? |
3
white star signals |
Code letter "K" by blinker light |
Horizontal motion with a white flag |
Vertical motion of a white light |
|
Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only? |
Hand-held red flare |
Self-contained rocket-propelled parachute red flare |
Red aerial pyrotechnic flare |
Hand-held orange smoke distress flare |
|
When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed
__________. |
horizontally and directly abeam of your vessel |
at greater than 60 degrees above the horizon |
into the wind |
at the vessel whose attention you want to attract |
|
If an airplane circles a vessel 3 times, crosses the vessel's course
close ahead while rocking the wings, and heads off in a certain
direction, what does this indicate? |
Someone is in distress in that direction and the vessel should follow
and assist. |
The plane is in distress and will have to ditch. |
The plane is going to drop a package and wishes the vessel to recover
it. |
There is danger ahead and the best course is indicated by the direction
of the aircraft. |
|
An airplane wants a vessel to change course and proceed towards a vessel
in distress. The actions of the aircraft to convey this message will NOT
include __________. |
heading in the direction of the distress location |
crossing ahead and rocking the wings |
flashing the navigation lights on and off |
circling the vessel at least once |
|
A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300
feet above the water, would indicate that a submarine __________. |
is about to rise to periscope depth |
has fired a torpedo during a drill |
is disabled and unable to surface |
is on the bottom in distress |
|
The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a
torpedo has been fired in a training exercise is __________. |
yellow |
white |
red |
green |
|
The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to indicate an
emergency is __________. |
green |
red |
white |
yellow |
|
The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine about to surface
from periscope depth is __________. |
red |
green |
white |
yellow |
|
The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from
periscope depth is __________. |
red |
yellow |
green |
white |
|
A yellow signal, floating in the air from a parachute, about 300 feet
above the water, indicates that a submarine __________. |
is in distress and will try to surface |
will be coming to periscope depth |
is on the bottom in distress |
will be coming to the surface |
|
The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine coming to periscope
depth is __________. |
green |
yellow |
white |
red |
|
What is the color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating
that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise? |
red |
white |
yellow |
green |
|
During a training exercise a submarine indicating that a torpedo has
been fired will send up smoke from a float. What color will the smoke
be? |
red |
black |
orange |
yellow |
|
What is the color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine about to
surface due to an emergency condition? |
yellow |
white |
red |
green |
|
You are on the beach and want to signal to a small boat in distress that
your present location is dangerous and that they should land to the
left. How would you indicate this? |
fire a green star to the left |
send the letter K by light and point to the left |
place an orange signal to your left as you signal with a white light |
send the code signal S followed by L |
|
Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to indicate "Landing
here highly dangerous"? |
The firing of a white star signal |
Horizontal motion with a white flag |
Vertical motion of a white light |
Code letter "K" by blinker light |
|
Which one of the following signals is made at night by a lifesaving
station to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"? |
Horizontal motion of a white light or flare |
Vertical motion of a red light or flare |
White star rocket |
Vertical motion of a white light or flare |
|
By day, what does the horizontal motion of a white flag, or arms
extended horizontally, by a person on the beach indicate? |
"Affirmative" |
"Haul away" |
"Negative" |
"Tail block is made fast" |
|
What is the signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate,
"Affirmative"? |
vertical motion of the arms |
firing of a red star signal |
code signal "C" sent by light or sound signaling apparatus |
None of the above |
|
What may the firing of a red star signal mean? |
"Slack away" |
"You are seen - assistance will be given as soon as possible" |
"This is the best place to land" |
"Tail block is made fast" |
|
Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place to land"? |
Horizontal motion of a flag |
Orange smoke signal |
Red star rocket |
Green star rocket |
|
What is the signal to guide vessels in distress, indicating, "This is
the best place to land"? |
horizontal motion of a white flag |
letter K in Morse code given by light |
code flag S as a hoist |
firing of a white star signal |
|
By day, what is the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land"? |
vertical motion of a white flag or the arms |
white smoke signal |
white star rocket |
vertical motion of a red flag |
|
Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast hauling"? |
Firing of a green star signal |
Three white star rockets fired at one-minute intervals |
An orange smoke signal |
Firing of a red star signal |
|
You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates,
"Hawser is made fast"? |
Firing of a red star signal |
Firing of a green star signal |
Three white star rockets at 1-minute intervals |
An orange smoke signal |
|
What is the lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here is highly
dangerous"? |
vertical motion of a red light |
code letter "K" given by light or sound signaling apparatus |
firing of a red star signal |
firing of a white star signal |
|
An aircraft has indicated that he wants you to change course and follow
him. You cannot comply because of an emergency on board. Which signal
should you make? |
Make a round turn (360°) and resume course |
Send the Morse signal "N" by flashing light |
Make an "S" turn (hard right then hard left) and resume course |
Fire a red flare at night or a red smoke signal by day |
|
An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a surface craft? |
Rocking the wings |
Flashing Morse T |
Opening and closing the throttle |
Flashing the navigational lights off and on |
|
You have sent a visual signal to an aircraft. The aircraft then flies
over your position on a straight course and level altitude. What should
you do? |
Change course to follow the airplane. |
Send any more signals necessary. |
Repeat your signal. |
Prepare for a helicopter pickup. |
|
What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB)
marine radiotelephone? |
1492 kHz |
1892 kHz |
2082 kHz |
2182 kHz |
|
The range of a SSB transmission is MOST affected by __________. |
the frequency band selected and time of day or night |
radiated power and nearness to shore |
interference and position of the moon |
atmospheric noise and radiated power |
|
What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range? |
Daylight after noon |
Daylight before noon |
At noon |
During darkness |
|
After receiving your distress call, the U.S.C.G. may ask you to switch
to which SSB frequency? |
2570 |
2670 |
2770 |
2870 |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 29'-04", AFT 30'-06". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 101.6 tons of seawater. |
FWD 29'-04.5", AFT 30'-10.0" |
FWD 29'-07.6", AFT 30'-05.0" |
FWD 29'-04.5", AFT 30'-07.5" |
FWD 30'-00.8", AFT 30'-01.0" |
|
The maximum draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 28'-08" in
order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 29'-00".
Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine
the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this
condition. |
44.4 tons |
58.0 tons |
76.7 tons |
116.0 tons |
|
The maximum draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 30'-01" in
order to cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 29'-04", AFT 30'-06".
Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine
the minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this
condition. |
97 tons |
100 tons |
103 tons |
106 tons |
|
The draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed 23'-06" in order to
cross a bar. The present drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this
condition __________. |
120 tons |
77 tons |
124 tons |
96 tons |
|
Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if
the KG is 23.7 feet and the drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 28'-06". |
16° |
21° |
41° |
56° |
|
Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if
the KG is 22.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-03". |
26° |
30° |
34° |
53° |
|
Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if
the KG is 21.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11", AFT 28'-07". |
24° |
52° |
19° |
72° |
|
Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if
the KG is 22.4 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-00". |
12° |
24° |
48° |
52° |
|
Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if
the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-05", AFT 24'-04". |
26° |
31° |
37° |
21° |
|
Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if
the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 19'-05", AFT 20'-01". |
31° |
52° |
45° |
26° |
|
Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if
the KG is 22.4 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09". |
25° |
33° |
48° |
72° |
|
Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if
the KG is 25.0 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-04", AFT 15'-08". |
12° |
17° |
20° |
23° |
|
Your vessel displaces 479 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of
gravity of 3.0 feet above the deck and weighs 16 tons. If you load 23
tons of anchor and anchor chain with an estimated center of gravity of 9
inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG above the
deck? |
0.33 foot |
1.00 foot |
1.45 feet |
1.67 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 475 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of
gravity of 2.6 feet above the deck and weighs 22 tons. If you load 16
tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 8 inches
above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? |
2.14 feet |
1.64 feet |
1.96 feet |
1.79 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 528 tons. The existing cargo has a center of
gravity of 2.9 feet above the deck and weighs 28 tons. If you load 14
tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches
above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? |
1.93 feet |
1.76 feet |
2.43 feet |
2.18 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 564 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of
gravity of 1.5 feet above the deck and weighs 41 tons. If you load 22
tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.5 feet
above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? |
1.62 feet |
1.85 feet |
2.10 feet |
2.46 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 560 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of
gravity of 4.5 feet above the deck and weighs 34 tons. If you load 10
tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.8 feet
above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? |
4.11 feet |
4.36 feet |
4.57 feet |
4.78 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 641 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of
gravity of 3.6 feet above the deck and weighs 36 tons. If you load 22
tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.0 feet
above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? |
2.33 feet |
2.55 feet |
2.77 feet |
2.99 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 640 tons. The existing deck cargo has center of
gravity of 2.3 feet above the deck and weighs 18 tons. If you load 12
tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 21 inches
above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? |
1.75 feet |
1.94 feet |
2.08 feet |
2.26 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 497 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of
gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck and weighs 24 tons. If you load 18
tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 18 inches
above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo? |
1.86 feet |
2.07 feet |
2.35 feet |
2.76 feet |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if
you are in salt water. |
12,750 tons |
12,900 tons |
13,150 tons |
13,250 tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 24'-01". Use the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if
you are in fresh water. |
11,650 tons |
11,800 tons |
12,000 tons |
12,250 tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if
you are in fresh water. |
13,075 tons |
13,350 tons |
13,590 tons |
13,700 tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if
you are in salt water. |
13,175 tons |
13,350 tons |
13,490 tons |
13,620 tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if
you are in fresh water. |
12,550 tons |
12,900 tons |
13,200 tons |
13,350 tons |
|
What is the displacement of a barge which measures 85' x 46' x 13' and
is floating in salt water with a draft of ten feet? |
17.5 tons |
1117 tons |
500 tons |
1452 tons |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 26'-04", AFT 28'-08". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 101 tons of seawater. |
FWD 27'-00.6, AFT 28'-01.7" |
FWD 27'-01.8", AFT 28'-03.1" |
FWD 27'-01.2", AFT 28'-02.5" |
FWD 27'-02.4", AFT 28'-03.7" |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 28'-00", AFT 29'-00". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 81.05 tons of seawater. |
FWD 28'-06.3", AFT 28'-08.0" |
FWD 28'-07.3", AFT 28'-07.8" |
FWD 28'-10.0", AFT 28'-08.0" |
FWD 28'-06.2", AFT 28'-06.2" |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 25'-11", AFT 26'-11". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 83 tons of seawater. |
FWD 26'-04.3", AFT 26'-06.1" |
FWD 26'-07.7", AFT 26'-05.4" |
FWD 26'-05.6", AFT 26'-07.5" |
FWD 26'-06.8", AFT 26'-06.3" |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 100.7 tons of seawater. |
FWD 23'-01.0", AFT 23'-05.7" |
FWD 22'-11.3", AFT 23'-04.0" |
FWD 22'-10.3", AFT 23'-06.0" |
FWD 23'-00.3", AFT 23'-05.0" |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 26'-05". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 77 tons of seawater. |
FWD 22'-08.7", AFT 26'-02.2" |
FWD 22'-09.9", AFT 26'-01.0" |
FWD 22'-09.3", AFT 26'-01.6" |
FWD 22'-10.5", AFT 26'-00.4" |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 28'-00", AFT 30'-04". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 110.8 tons of seawater. |
FWD 28'-08.2", AFT 29'-11.6" |
FWD 28'-09.8", AFT 29' 10.4" |
FWD 28'-10.6", AFT 29' 09.8" |
FWD 28'-09.0", AFT 29' 11.0" |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 25'-05". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 97 tons of seawater. |
FWD 23'-00.5", AFT 24'-11.1" |
FWD 22'-11.9", AFT 24'-11.7" |
FWD 22'-11.3", AFT 25'-00.3" |
FWD 22'-10.7", AFT 25'-00.9" |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 18'-07", AFT 23'-03". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 92 tons of seawater. |
FWD 19'-04.9", AFT 22'-08.7" |
FWD 19'-05.4", AFT 22'-08.0" |
FWD 19'-05.7", AFT 22'-07.7" |
FWD 19'-06.3", AFT 22'-07.1" |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 13'-05", AFT 21'-03". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 88 tons of seawater. |
FWD 14'-01.8", AFT 20'-09.3" |
FWD 14'-03.0", AFT 20'-08.1" |
FWD 14'-03.6", AFT 20'-07.5" |
FWD 14'-02.4", AFT 20'-08.7" |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 16'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 73 tons of seawater. |
FWD 17'-05.8", AFT 18'-10.9" |
FWD 17'-07.4", AFT 18'-09.2" |
FWD 17'-06.8", AFT 18'-09.8" |
FWD 17'-06.2", AFT 18'-10.4" |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 19'-04", AFT 21'-02". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 68 tons of seawater. |
FWD 19'-11.1", AFT 20'-09.4" |
FWD 19'-11.7", AFT 20'-08.8" |
FWD 19'-09.7", AFT 20'-10.0" |
FWD 20'-00.3", AFT 20'-08.2" |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 15'-06", AFT 18'-06". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts
if you ballast the forepeak with 62 tons of seawater. |
FWD 16'-00.7", AFT 18'-01.5" |
FWD 16'-01.3", AFT 18'-00.9" |
FWD 16'-00.1", AFT 18'-02.1" |
FWD 15'-11.5", AFT 18'-02.7" |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 20'-08", AFT 25'-03". Use the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1. |
1130 foot-tons |
1095 foot-tons |
1070 foot-tons |
1025 foot-tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 20'-08". Use the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1. |
920 foot-tons |
935 foot-tons |
960 foot-tons |
980 foot-tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 18'-02". Use the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1. |
935 foot-tons |
960 foot-tons |
985 foot-tons |
1000 foot-tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1. |
1050 foot-tons |
1065 foot-tons |
1090 foot-tons |
1130 foot-tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-03". Use the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1. |
1050 foot-tons |
1065 foot-tons |
1090 foot-tons |
1130 foot-tons |
|
A weight of 250 tons is loaded on your vessel 95 feet forward of the
tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1000 ft-tons. What is the total
change of trim? |
11.90 inches |
18.75 inches |
23.75 inches |
38.01 inches |
|
A weight of 350 tons is loaded on your vessel 85 feet forward of the
tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1150 foot-tons. What is the total
change of trim? |
12.93 inches |
23.75 inches |
25.87 inches |
38.50 inches |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-09", AFT 28'-03"; and the KG is 22.4
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the
center of gravity is shifted 1.6 feet off the centerline. |
16° |
20° |
24° |
30° |
|
A vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-03", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.3
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the
center of gravity is shifted 2 feet off the centerline. |
12° |
14° |
20° |
22° |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-09", AFT 18'-03"; and the KG is 22.4
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the
center of gravity is shifted 1.5 feet off the centerline. |
14° |
18° |
22° |
26° |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-09", AFT 23'-03"; and the KG is 20.0
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the
center of gravity is shifted 1.9 feet off the centerline. |
9° |
12° |
15° |
19° |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 15'-09"; and the KG is 18.2
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the
center of gravity is shifted 2.0 feet off the centerline. |
9° |
12° |
16° |
19° |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-02"; and the KG is 23.2
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the
center of gravity is shifted 1.0 foot off the centerline. |
9° |
12° |
15° |
17° |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 15'-09", AFT 16'-08"; and the KG is 23.6
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list if the
center of gravity is shifted 0.9 foot off the centerline. |
15° |
18° |
21° |
24° |
|
Your vessel's draft is 16'-00" fwd. and 18'-00" aft. The MT1 is 500
ft-tons. How many tons of water must be shifted from the after peak to
the forepeak, a distance of 250 feet, to bring her to an even draft
forward and aft? |
48 tons |
24 tons |
52 tons |
50 tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-09", AFT 21'-01". Use the information
in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if: (1) 320 tons are loaded 47 feet forward
of amidships; (2) 82 tons are discharged 110 feet forward of amidships;
and (3) 50 tons of fuel are pumped 60 feet forward. |
FWD 21'-06", AFT 21'-02" |
FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-05" |
FWD 21'-05", AFT 21'-00" |
FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-06" |
|
Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00". Use the information
in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if 95 tons of cargo are loaded 76 feet
forward of amidships. |
FWD 21'-01", AFT 22'-11" |
FWD 20'-09", AFT 22'-09" |
FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00" |
FWD 20'-09", AFT 23'-01" |
|
A vessel's drafts are FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-11". Use the information in
Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if: (1) 142 tons are discharged 122 feet
forward of amidships; (2) 321 tons are loaded 82 feet forward of
amidships; and (3) 74 tons are discharged 62 feet aft of amidships. |
FWD 23'-05", AFT 24'-00" |
FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'-02" |
FWD 23'-07", AFT 24'-03" |
FWD 23'-09", AFT 24'-05" |
|
A vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 20'-10". Use the information in
Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet
forward of amidships. |
FWD 19'-07", AFT 20'-10" |
FWD 19'-09", AFT 21'-01" |
FWD 20'-00", AFT 21'-00" |
FWD 20'-01", AFT 21'-05" |
|
Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information
in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if 142 tons of fuel are pumped 86 feet aft. |
FWD 19'-01", AFT 21'-04" |
FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-01" |
FWD 18'-09", AFT 22'-01" |
FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-08" |
|
A vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-02", AFT 23'-10". Use the information in
Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if 98 tons of fuel is pumped 116 feet
forward. |
FWD 19'-04", AFT 23'-06" |
FWD 19'-07", AFT 23'-04" |
FWD 19'-09", AFT 23'-01" |
FWD 19'-09", AFT 23'-06" |
|
Your vessel's drafts are FWD 20'-08", AFT 23'-00". Use the information
in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if 195 tons of cargo are discharged 76 feet
aft of amidships. |
FWD 20'-05", AFT 21'-11" |
FWD 20'-07", AFT 22'-01" |
FWD 20'-11", AFT 22'-00" |
FWD 21'-03", AFT 22'-04" |
|
Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-04". Use the information
in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if 295 tons of cargo are loaded 122 feet aft
of amidships. |
FWD 22'-08", AFT 26'-00" |
FWD 22'-10", AFT 25'-09" |
FWD 23'-04", AFT 26'-03" |
FWD 23'-05", AFT 25'-11" |
|
Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-02", AFT 23'-10". Use the information
in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if 98 tons of fuel is loaded 116 feet forward
of amidships. |
FWD 19'-04", AFT 23'-06" |
FWD 19'-07", AFT 23'-04" |
FWD 19'-09", AFT 23'-01" |
FWD 19'-09", AFT 23'-06" |
|
Your vessel's drafts are FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-07". Use the information
in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if 142 tons of cargo are loaded 86 feet
forward of amidships. |
FWD 18'-09", AFT 21'-04" |
FWD 18'-10", AFT 21'-01" |
FWD 19'-10", AFT 21'-08" |
FWD 19'-11", AFT 21'-04" |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 21'-06". Use the information
in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if: (1) 300 tons are loaded 122 feet forward
of amidships; (2) 225 tons are loaded 150 feet aft of amidships; and 122
tons of fuel are pumped 72 feet aft. |
FWD 23'-02", AFT 23'-01" |
FWD 23'-00", AFT 23'-00" |
FWD 23'-03", AFT 23'-05" |
FWD 22'-11", AFT 22'-09" |
|
Your vessel's drafts are FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-01". Use the information
in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the final drafts if 122 tons are discharged 76 feet aft of
amidships, 128 tons are discharged 54 feet forward of amidships, and 68
tons of fuel is pumped 48 feet aft. |
FWD 24'-02", AFT 26'-11" |
FWD 24'-05", AFT 26'-02" |
FWD 24'-01", AFT 26'-08" |
FWD 24'-04", AFT 26'-08" |
|
You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects
and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability
Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water. |
18'-02" |
18'-06" |
17'-08" |
17'-11" |
|
You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects
and stores and 359 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability
Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water. |
18'-01" |
19'-00" |
18'-04" |
18'-07" |
|
You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects
and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability
Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water. |
17'-00" |
16'-10" |
16'-07" |
16'-04" |
|
You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects
and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability
Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water. |
17'-01" |
17'-00" |
17'-10" |
18'-00" |
|
You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects
and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability
Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water. |
17'-01" |
17'-05" |
17'-10" |
18'-00" |
|
You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects
and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability
Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water. |
19'-00" |
19'-04" |
19'-09" |
20'-01" |
|
You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects
and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability
Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water. |
19'-00" |
19'-03" |
19'-07" |
20'-01" |
|
You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects
and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability
Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water: |
16'-06" |
16'-04" |
16'-09" |
17'-00" |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 16'-08", AFT 17'-06"; and the KG is 23.8
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at
60° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.7 feet off the centerline. |
1.8 feet |
2.1 feet |
3.0 feet |
3.8 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at
60° inclination if the center of gravity is 2.4 feet off the centerline. |
0.2 foot |
2.4 feet |
0.5 foot |
1.8 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37°
inclination if the center of gravity is 1.8 feet off center. |
0.4 foot |
1.4 feet |
1.8 feet |
2.6 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-00", AFT 14'-08"; and the KG is 25.8
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at
30° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.5 feet off the centerline. |
0.6 foot |
1.3 feet |
1.9 feet |
2.9 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-09", AFT 20'-09"; and the KG is 24.6
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at
15° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off the centerline. |
0.0 feet |
0.5 foot |
1.2 feet |
1.7 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 21'-08"; and the KG is 20.6
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at
45° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.2 feet off the centerline. |
3.8 feet |
4.4 feet |
5.2 feet |
5.6 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-01", AFT 24'-05"; and the KG is 22.8
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at
30° inclination if the center of gravity is 1.9 feet off the centerline. |
2.3 feet |
0.7 foot |
1.4 feet |
3.7 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at
30° inclination if the center of gravity is 0.9 foot off the centerline. |
1.5 feet |
2.8 feet |
3.6 feet |
4.3 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 17.8
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the remaining righting arm at
75° inclination if the center of gravity is 2.5 feet off the centerline. |
2.5 feet |
3.3 feet |
5.4 feet |
9.7 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 26°
inclination if the center of gravity is 1.0 foot off center. |
0.0 feet |
0.4 foot |
0.8 foot |
1.7 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-08"; and the KG is 22.9
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 50°
inclination if the center of gravity is 0.5 foot off center. |
2.0 feet |
2.3 feet |
2.6 feet |
3.3 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06"; and the KG is 22.4
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 19°
inclination if the center of gravity is 1.3 feet off center. |
0.2 foot |
0.8 foot |
1.4 feet |
2.2 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 9,000 tons and has a KG of 21.2 feet. What will be
the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of
30° if the center of gravity shifts 2.6 feet transversely? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
3.8 feet |
0.9 foot |
2.2 feet |
1.4 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will
be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination
of 30° if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
0.8 foot |
1.2 feet |
1.8 feet |
2.3 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 10,000 tons and has a KG of 22.6 feet. What will
be the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination
of 45° if the center of gravity shifts 2.0 feet transversely? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
3.8 feet |
2.7 feet |
0.9 foot |
1.9 feet |
|
A vessel displaces 12,000 tons and has a KG of 22.8 feet. What will be
the length of the remaining righting arm at an angle of inclination of
60° if the center of gravity shifts 1.8 feet transversely? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
-1.6 feet |
-0.1 foot |
1.2 feet |
1.9 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 23.1
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 60°
inclination. |
0.9 foot |
1.8 feet |
2.7 feet |
4.5 feet |
|
The sailing drafts are: FWD 25'-03", AFT 26'-03" and the GM is 3.5 feet.
Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 25°
inclination. |
0.8 foot |
1.4 feet |
2.0 feet |
2.6 feet |
|
The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-06", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.3 feet.
Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 22°
inclination. |
1.2 feet |
1.8 feet |
2.4 feet |
3.0 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 27'-06", AFT 28'-02"; and the KG is 21.3
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15°
inclination. |
0.3 foot |
1.3 feet |
1.5 feet |
1.8 feet |
|
The sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-08", AFT 23'-04" and the GM is 4.6 feet.
Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 20°
inclination. |
2.1 feet |
2.4 feet |
2.8 feet |
3.2 feet |
|
The sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-03", AFT 25'-03" and the GM is 5.5 feet.
Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages of the Stability Data
Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 30°
inclination. |
2.6 feet |
2.9 feet |
3.2 feet |
3.5 feet |
|
The sailing drafts are: FWD 16'-06", AFT 17'-04" and the GM is 2.6 feet.
Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 15°
inclination. |
0.4 foot |
0.8 foot |
1.2 feet |
1.9 feet |
|
The sailing drafts are: FWD 23'-02", AFT 24'-06" and the GM is 2.8 feet.
Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the available righting arm at 30°
inclination. |
1.3 feet |
2.5 feet |
3.2 feet |
3.7 feet |
|
The sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-08", AFT 15'-06" and the GM is 4.8 feet.
Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 40°
inclination. |
5.4 feet |
4.3 feet |
3.3 feet |
3.7 feet |
|
The sailing drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 25'-02" and the GM is 5.3 feet.
Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book, to determine the available righting arm at 18°
inclination. |
0.8 feet |
1.1 feet |
1.5 feet |
1.9 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-09", AFT 23'-07"; and the KG is 24.2
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 18°
inclination. |
0.7 foot |
1.3 feet |
2.0 feet |
2.3 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 22.6
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 45°
inclination. |
1.8 feet |
2.6 feet |
2.9 feet |
3.6 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-04"; and the KG is 22.2
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 20°
inclination. |
0.5 foot |
0.8 foot |
1.4 feet |
2.2 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-06", AFT 19'-01"; and the KG is 18.2
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 35°
inclination. |
1.8 feet |
3.0 feet |
4.7 feet |
5.8 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 24.8
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15°
inclination. |
0.7 foot |
1.2 feet |
1.9 feet |
4.8 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30°
inclination. |
0.9 feet |
2.1 feet |
4.0 feet |
5.9 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-05"; and the KG is 23.8
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 15°
inclination. |
0.7 foot |
1.0 feet |
1.7 feet |
3.8 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 16'-09"; and the KG is 21.5
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30°
inclination. |
0.8 foot |
1.5 feet |
2.7 feet |
3.6 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 22'-10"; and the KG is 18.4
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 30°
inclination. |
1.6 feet |
2.9 feet |
3.8 feet |
4.6 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-04", AFT 25'-10"; and the KG is 23.5
feet. Use the selected stability curves in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the righting arm at 37°
inclination. |
1.9 feet |
2.1 feet |
3.5 feet |
4.2 feet |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-05", AFT 20'-01"; and the KG is 25.6
feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 45°?
(Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book) |
18,294 foot-tons |
19,709 foot-tons |
21,137 foot-tons |
22,002 foot-tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 23.2
feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 45°?
(Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book) |
27,008 foot-tons |
29,778 foot-tons |
32,428 foot-tons |
34,663 foot-tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 17'-05", AFT 20'-01"; and the KG is 22.4
feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°?
(Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book) |
10,656 foot-tons |
12,340 foot-tons |
13,980 foot-tons |
17,520 foot-tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 24.4
feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30°?
(Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book) |
24,960 foot-tons |
22,870 foot-tons |
20,360 foot-tons |
18,240 foot-tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 23.2
feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 30°?
(Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book) |
20,790 foot-tons |
23,780 foot-tons |
25,520 foot-tons |
27,260 foot-tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-11", AFT 16'-01"; and the KG is 23.2
feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°?
(Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book) |
5,800 foot-tons |
7,600 foot-tons |
9,272 foot-tons |
11,200 foot-tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 22'-03", AFT 22'-09"; and the KG is 24.4
feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°?
(Use the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book) |
4,176 foot-tons |
5,916 foot-tons |
7,076 foot-tons |
9,003 foot-tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 24'-07", AFT 25'-09"; and the KG is 24.0
feet. What is the righting moment when the vessel is inclined to 15°?
(Use the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book) |
5,202 foot-tons |
8,666 foot-tons |
10,876 foot-tons |
11,424 foot-tons |
|
You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The
water level forward is at the top of the 8, and the mean water level aft
is at the top of the 8. What is the mean draft? |
8'03" |
8'00" |
8'06" |
7'06" |
|
You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The
water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of the number 11. What is
the draft? |
10'-08" |
10'-10" |
11'-04" |
11'-08" |
|
You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The
water level forward is 4 inches below the 11, and the water level aft is
2 inches below the top of the 11. What is the mean draft? |
11'-00" |
11'-04" |
11'-06" |
11'-08" |
|
You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The
water level is at the top of number 8. What is the draft? |
8'-00" |
7'-09" |
8'-06" |
8'-03" |
|
You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The top
2 inches of the 9 forward is visible above the water level, and the
water level is four inches below the 10 aft. What is the mean draft? |
9'-10" |
9'-06" |
9'-04" |
9'-02" |
|
You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The
water level is at the bottom of number 11. What is the draft? |
11'-06" |
11'-00" |
10'-09" |
10'-06" |
|
You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The
water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of 10. What is the draft? |
9'-04" |
10'-02" |
10'-04" |
9'-08" |
|
You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The top
2 inches of number "9" are visible above the waterline. What is the
draft? |
8'-10" |
9'-02" |
9'-04" |
9'-08" |
|
You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The
water level forward leaves about 4 inches of the 11 visible, and the
water level aft is at the top of the 10. What is the mean draft? |
10'-06" |
10'-08" |
10'-10" |
11'-02" |
|
You are reading draft marks on a vessel. The water level is halfway
between the bottom of the number 5 and the top of the number 5. What is
the draft of the vessel? |
4'-09" |
5'-09" |
5'-03" |
5'-06" |
|
A vessel's light displacement is 12,000 tons. Its heavy displacement is
28,000 tons. When fully loaded it carries 200 tons of fuel and 100 tons
of water and stores. What is the cargo carrying capacity in tons? |
11,700 tons |
15,700 tons |
16,000 tons |
27,700 tons |
|
A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter
the summer zone six days after departing the loading port. She will burn
off 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may
she load over that allowed by her summer load line? |
270 |
278 |
291 |
318 |
|
A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter
the summer zone five days after departing the loading port. She will
burn off about 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How
many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line? |
225 |
235 |
245 |
265 |
|
A vessel's tropical load line is 6 in. above her summer load line. Her
TPI is 127 tons. She will arrive in the summer zone 8 days after
departure. She will burn off about 47 tons/day fuel and water
consumption is 12 tons/day. How many tons may she load above her summer
load line if she loads in the tropical zone? |
376 |
1016 |
762 |
472 |
|
Your vessel has a forward draft of 26'-11" and an after draft of
29'-07". How many tons of cargo can be loaded before the vessel reaches
a mean draft of 28'-06" if the TPI is 69? |
204 tons |
207 tons |
210 tons |
213 tons |
|
A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The
mean draft after loading 1360 tons will be __________. |
29'-09" |
29'-11" |
30'-04" |
30'-07" |
|
A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane
coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How
many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"? |
81.6 tons |
64.3 tons |
69.6 tons |
116 tons |
|
A vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-08". How much more cargo can
be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
7280 tons |
7879 tons |
8004 tons |
8104 tons |
|
A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane
coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How
many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"? |
65.1 |
69.6 |
74.3 |
76.8 |
|
A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 17'-02". How much more cargo can
be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
5928 tons |
6016 tons |
6149 tons |
6242 tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 12'-08". How much more cargo
can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
6500 tons |
7001 tons |
7415 tons |
8699 tons |
|
In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is
necessary to divide the area of the waterplane by __________. |
35 |
120 |
240 |
420 |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 11'-09". How much more cargo
can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
9069 tons |
9172 tons |
9207 tons |
9244 tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo
can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
4521 tons |
5349 tons |
7242 tons |
9750 tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 19'-01". How much more cargo
can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
5333 tons |
5420 tons |
5649 tons |
5775 tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 16'-05". How much more cargo
can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
7109 tons |
7316 tons |
7432 tons |
7779 tons |
|
A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 21'-10". How much more cargo can
be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the
information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
4819 tons |
4982 tons |
5012 tons |
5099 tons |
|
A tanker's mean draft is 32'-05". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The
mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________. |
33'-00" |
33'-04" |
33'-08" |
33'-11" |
|
The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives
the number of tons __________. |
pressure per square inch on the vessel's hull at a given draft |
necessary to change the angle of list 1° at a given draft |
necessary to further immerse the vessel 1 inch at a given draft |
necessary to change trim 1 inch at a given draft |
|
A vessel has a maximum allowable draft of 28 feet in salt water and a
fresh water allowance of 8 inches. At the loading berth, the water
density is 1.011. To what draft can she load in order to be at her marks
when she reaches the sea? (The salt water density is 1.025.) |
27' 07.5" |
27' 08.5" |
28' 03.5" |
28' 04.5" |
|
Your vessel is floating in water of density 1.010. The fresh water
allowance is 8 inches. How far below her marks may she be loaded so as
to float at her mark in saltwater of density 1.025? |
4.8 inches |
8.0 inches |
3.2 inches |
6.4 inches |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know
that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded.
There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more
tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trim?
See illustration D037DG below. |
10 tons |
5
tons |
none |
20 tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 6'-2", AFT 6'-8". From past experience, you know
that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded.
There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more
tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? See
illustration D037DG below. |
24 tons |
18 tons |
12 tons |
6
tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know
that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded.
There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more
tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trim?
See illustration D037DG below. |
35 tons |
10 tons |
20 tons |
None |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know
that the vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons
loaded. There is rig water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many
more tons of cargo can be loaded while maintaining the same trim? See
illustration D037DG below. |
none |
10.5 tons |
14.0 tons |
17.5 tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 6'-00", AFT 6'-06". From past experience, you know
that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded.
There is rig water on board and 17 tons of deck cargo. How many more
tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? See
illustration D037DG below. |
14 tons |
18 tons |
24 tons |
33 tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know
that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded.
There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more
tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? See
illustration D037DG below. |
14.8 tons |
18.0 tons |
32.0 tons |
25.0 tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-10". From past experience, you know
that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded.
There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more
tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? See
illustration D037DG below. |
6
tons |
12 tons |
18 tons |
24 tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 5'-11", AFT 6'-11". From past experience, you know
that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded.
There is rig water on board and 16 tons of deck cargo. How many more
tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? See
illustration D037DG below. |
8
tons |
12 tons |
10 tons |
14 tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-02". From past experience, you know
that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded.
There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more
tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? See
illustration D037DG below. |
None |
10 tons |
18 tons |
24 tons |
|
Your drafts are: FWD 6'-02", AFT 6'-08". From past experience, you know
that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded.
There is rig water on board and 23 tons of deck cargo. How many more
tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim? See
illustration D037DG below. |
6
tons |
12 tons |
18 tons |
24 tons |
|
Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent
permeability, and holds 1 and 2 flood, the vessel will sink if the
permeability exceeds what percent? |
19 (%) |
24 (%) |
32 (%) |
39 (%) |
|
Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent
permeability, and holds 2 and 3 flood, the vessel will sink if the
permeability exceeds what percent? |
23 (%) |
31 (%) |
37 (%) |
26 (%) |
|
Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent
permeability and holds 4 and 5 flood, the vessel will sink if the
permeability exceeds what percent? |
22 (%) |
28 (%) |
34 (%) |
39 (%) |
|
Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent
permeability and number 5 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the
permeability exceeds what percent? |
66 (%) |
70 (%) |
74 (%) |
79 (%) |
|
Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent
permeability and number 4 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the
permeability exceeds what percent? |
40 (%) |
48 (%) |
53 (%) |
60 (%) |
|
Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent
permeability and number 3 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the
permeability exceeds what percent? |
64 (%) |
68 (%) |
72 (%) |
78 (%) |
|
Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent
permeability and number 2 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the
permeability exceeds what percent? |
76 (%) |
60 (%) |
67 (%) |
52 (%) |
|
Use the floodable length curve in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book. If the curve represents 45 percent
permeability and number 1 hold floods, the vessel will sink if the
permeability exceeds what percent? |
63 (%) |
66 (%) |
71 (%) |
77 (%) |
|
Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book. If the KG is 24.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 28'-01",
AFT 28'-06"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? |
64° |
71° |
77° |
82° |
|
Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book. If the KG is 25.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11",
AFT 28'-09"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? |
54° |
59° |
65° |
71° |
|
Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book. If the KG is 25.8 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-02",
AFT 15'-10"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? |
73° |
79° |
87° |
98° |
|
Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book. If the KG is 24.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 22'-04",
AFT 23'-00"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? |
72° |
78° |
86° |
92° |
|
Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book. If the KG is 25.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 22'-03",
AFT 23'-01"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? |
92° |
77° |
68° |
61° |
|
Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book. If the KG is 22.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06",
AFT 24'-03"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? |
76° |
84° |
89° |
98° |
|
Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book. If the KG is 23.0 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03",
AFT 15'-09"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? |
57° |
72° |
81° |
90° |
|
Use the material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book. If the KG is 24.2 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 23'-04",
AFT 24'-05"; at what angle will the vessel lose positive stability? |
67° |
71° |
75° |
79° |
|
Determine the free surface constant for a fuel oil tank 30 ft. long by
40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep. The specific gravity of the fuel oil is .85
and the ship is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). |
0.83 |
42.7 |
3787 |
4571 |
|
On a vessel of 34,000 tons displacement, a tank 80 ft. long, 60 ft. wide
and 30 ft. deep is half filled with fresh water (SG 1.000) while the
vessel is floating in saltwater (SG 1.026). What is the free surface
constant for this tank? |
2819 |
2661 |
42213 |
40100 |
|
On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 30 ft. long, 32 ft. wide
and 15 ft. deep is half filled with oil cargo (S.G. 0.948) while the
vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface
constant for this tank? |
1336 |
2162 |
2731 |
3240 |
|
On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide
and 46 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 0.923) while the
vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface
constant for this tank? |
2731 |
2390 |
2024 |
3240 |
|
On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 30 ft. long, 32 ft. wide
and 18 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 1.048) while the
vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface
constant for this tank? |
1152 |
1336 |
2390 |
2731 |
|
On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 25 ft. wide,
and 8 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 1.053) while the
vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface
constant for this tank? |
1371 |
1336 |
1152 |
16036 |
|
On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide
and 4 ft. deep is half filled with fuel oil (S.G. 0.962) while the
vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface
constant for this tank? |
2109 |
25974 |
31328 |
909090 |
|
What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a
tank 60 feet long and 30 feet wide is partially filled with salt water,
and is fitted with a centerline bulkhead? (The vessel has a displacement
of 10,000 tons.) |
0.1 foot |
0.8 foot |
1.0 foot |
1.2 feet |
|
On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on
the tank tops. The hold is 20 feet long and 30 feet wide. What is the
reduction in metacentric height? |
.09 feet |
.12 feet |
.14 feet |
.16 feet |
|
On a vessel of 12,500 tons displacement, compute the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on
the tank top. The hold is 35 feet long and 50 feet wide. What is the
reduction in metacentric height? |
.14 ft |
.45 ft |
.55 ft |
.83 ft |
|
A cargo vessel of 9,000 tons displacement is carrying a slack deep tank
of molasses (SG 1.4). The tank measures 20 feet long and 30 feet wide.
What will be the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface,
with the vessel floating in sea water (SG 1.026)? |
.142 ft. |
.177 ft. |
.195 ft. |
.212 ft. |
|
A vessel has a cargo hold divided by a shaft alley into two tanks, each
35 feet long and 20 feet wide. Each tank is half filled with sea water.
The vessel displaces 5,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free
surface effect? |
.27 foot |
.30 foot |
.31 foot |
.33 foot |
|
Your vessel displaces 747 tons and measures 136'L by 34'B. You ship a
large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free
surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures
56'L x 34'B and the weight of the water is 58.6 tons? |
6.04 feet |
6.23 feet |
6.51 feet |
6.76 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 840 tons and measures 146'L x 38'B. You ship a
large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free
surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures
65'L x 38'B and the weight of the water is 76 tons? |
8.76 feet |
8.93 feet |
9.04 feet |
9.27 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 562 tons and measures 121'L x 29'B. You ship a
large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free
surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures
46'L x 29'B and the weight of the water is 41 tons? |
4.43 feet |
4.61 feet |
4.86 feet |
5.12 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 368 tons and measures 96'L x 28'B. You ship a
large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free
surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures
42'L x 28'B and the weight of the water is 36 tons? |
4.98 feet |
5.21 feet |
5.43 feet |
5.67 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 477 tons and measures 116'L x 31'B. You ship a
large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free
surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures
54'L x 31'B and the weight of the water is 51.5 tons? |
6.43 feet |
6.75 feet |
6.99 feet |
7.25 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 968 tons and measures 158'L x 40'B. You ship a
large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free
surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures
65'L x 40'B and the weight of the water is 80 tons? |
9.14 feet |
9.45 feet |
9.68 feet |
9.87 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 869 tons and measures 136'L x33'B. You ship a
large wave on the after deck which measures 52'Lx 33'B. The weight of
the water is estimated at 52.8 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to
free surface before the water drains overboard? |
4.83 feet |
5.12 feet |
5.46 feet |
5.85 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 689 tons and measures 123'L x 31'B. You ship a
large wave on the after deck which measures 65'Lx 31'B. The weight of
the water is estimated at 62 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to
free surface before the water drains overboard? |
5.51 feet |
5.67 feet |
5.89 feet |
6.14 feet |
|
On a vessel of 15,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in
the tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 60 feet wide. What is the
reduction in metacentric height? |
1.54 feet |
1.59 feet |
1.63 feet |
1.71 feet |
|
On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on
the tank top. The hold is 40 feet long and 50 feet wide. What is the
reduction in metacentric height? |
1.1 feet |
1.2 feet |
1.3 feet |
1.5 feet |
|
On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, a tank 60 feet long, 50 feet
wide, and 20 feet deep is half filled with fresh water (SG 1.000) while
the vessel is floating in saltwater (SG 1.026) What is the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface? |
0.97 ft. |
1.01 ft. |
1.35 ft. |
1.44 ft. |
|
A 7,000 ton displacement tankship carries two slack tanks of alcohol
with a S.G. of 0.8. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 30 ft. wide. What is
the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea
water, S.G. is 1.026? |
.36 ft |
.46 ft |
.72 ft |
.82 ft |
|
What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a
tank 60 ft. wide and 60 ft. long is partially filled with saltwater?
(The vessel's displacement is 10,000 tons.) |
3.00 feet |
3.09 feet |
3.15 feet |
3.20 feet |
|
A vessel carries three slack tanks of gasoline (SG .68). The vessel's
displacement is 8,000 tons. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 20 ft. wide.
What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating
in sea water (SG 1.026)? |
.20 feet |
.24 feet |
.28 feet |
.30 feet |
|
A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 25 ft.
wide by 50 ft. long. Each tank is filled with salt water below the level
of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 6,000 tons. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface effect? |
.56 foot |
.58 foot |
.62 foot |
.66 foot |
|
A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 20 ft.
wide by 60 ft. long. Each tank is filled with saltwater below the level
of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 7,000 tons. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface effect? |
.29 feet |
.33 feet |
.38 feet |
.42 feet |
|
On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on
tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 50 feet wide. What is the
reduction in metacentric height? |
1.2 feet |
1.1 feet |
1.3 feet |
1.5 feet |
|
On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, what is the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 feet long and 60
feet wide is partially filled with water? |
2.30 feet |
2.43 feet |
2.48 feet |
2.57 feet |
|
On a vessel of 6,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of
carbon tetrachloride (SG 1.6). Each tank is 40 feet long and 25 feet
wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface
with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)? |
.39 ft |
.77 ft |
.88 ft |
.95 ft |
|
On a vessel of 5,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of acid
(SG 1.8). Each tank is 30 feet long and 20 feet wide. What is the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in
sea water (SG 1.025)? |
.11 ft |
.21 ft |
.40 ft |
.82 ft |
|
On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement there are two slack deep tanks of
palm oil (SG .86). Each tank is 40 feet long and 30 feet wide. What is
the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel
in sea water (SG 1.025)? |
.27 ft |
.48 ft |
.57 ft |
.74 ft |
|
On a vessel displacing 8,000 tons, what is the reduction in metacentric
height due to free surface when a tank 45 feet long and 45 feet wide is
partly filled with salt water? |
1.22 feet |
1.16 feet |
1.13 feet |
1.10 feet |
|
On a vessel of 8,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in
the tank tops. The hold is 40 feet long and 20 feet wide. What is the
reduction in metacentric height? |
0.1 ft |
0.3 ft |
0.5 ft |
0.9 ft |
|
Your vessel displaces 696 tons and measures 135'L by 34'B. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by
9'D) is filled with 2.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5
tons) |
1.96 feet |
2.04 feet |
2.25 feet |
2.48 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 740 tons and measures 141'L by 34'B. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (41'L by 30'B by
9'D) is filled with 2.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 35.1
tons) |
2.14 feet |
2.75 feet |
2.96 feet |
3.18 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 645 tons and measures 132'L by 34'B. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 26'B by
8'D) is filled with 3.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 22.3
tons) |
1.76 feet |
1.94 feet |
2.10 feet |
2.44 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 728 tons and measures 138'L by 31'B. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (36'L by 29'B by
9'D) is filled with 3.6 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 29.8
tons) |
2.35 feet |
2.50 feet |
2.72 feet |
2.96 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 750 tons and measures 151'L by 35'B. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (60'L by 31'B by
10'D) is filled with 3.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 53.1
tons) |
4.14 feet |
4.38 feet |
4.55 feet |
4.94 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 930 tons and measures 156'L by 38'B. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (46'L by 28'B by
8'D) is filled with 1.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 36.8
tons) |
2.16 feet |
2.44 feet |
2.75 feet |
2.99 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 585 tons and measures 128'L by 26'B. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 18'B by
9'D) is filled with 2.8 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 15.4
tons) |
0.66 foot |
1.12 feet |
1.37 feet |
1.58 feet |
|
Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by
9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5
tons) |
2.17 feet |
2.32 feet |
2.52 feet |
3.01 feet |
|
The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The
vessel's displacement in fresh water is 864 tons and the specific
gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of
these tanks being slack? |
.32 foot |
.80 foot |
.96 foot |
1.12 feet |
|
The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 22'L by 16'B by 7'D. The
vessel's displacement is 568 T and the specific gravity of the mud is
1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? |
0.56 foot |
0.96 foot |
1.18 feet |
1.43 feet |
|
The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 40'L by 20'B by 8'D. The
vessel's displacement is 996 T and the specific gravity of the mud is
1.7. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? |
0.95 foot |
1.26 feet |
2.10 feet |
2.54 feet |
|
The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 32'L by 15'B by 8'D. The
vessel's displacement is 640 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is
1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? |
0.74 foot |
1.24 feet |
1.41 feet |
1.66 feet |
|
The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The
vessel's displacement is 986 T and the specific gravity of the mud is
1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? |
.09 foot |
.45 foot |
.88 foot |
1.35 feet |
|
The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The
vessel's displacement in salt water (specific gravity 1.025) is 864 T
and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM
due to 2 of these tanks being slack? |
0.32 foot |
0.78 foot |
0.96 foot |
1.12 feet |
|
The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 30'L by 15'B by 6'D. The
vessel's displacement is 968 T and the specific gravity of the mud is
1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? |
.19 foot |
.42 foot |
.64 foot |
.87 foot |
|
The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 18'L by 10'B by 6'D. The
vessel's displacement is 944 T and the specific gravity of the mud is
1.9. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of the tanks being slack? |
.08 foot |
.16 foot |
.45 foot |
.90 foot |
|
The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The
vessel's displacement is 866 T and the specific gravity of the mud is
1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack? |
0.24 foot |
0.56 foot |
0.95 foot |
1.12 feet |
|
To check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom,
whose head is 35 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a
list of 7.0° with the weight suspended. Displacement including the
weight is 14,000 tons. What would the length of GM in this condition? |
0.71 foot |
0.95 foot |
1.26 feet |
2.01 feet |
|
To check stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom,
whose head is 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a
list of 6.5° with the weight suspended. Displacement including weight is
16,000 tons. What would be the GM while in this condition? |
0.21 foot |
0.43 foot |
0.88 foot |
1.02 feet |
|
To check stability, a weight of 10 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom
whose head is 45 ft. from the ship's centerline. The clinometer show's a
list of 5.0° with weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is
9,000 tons. What would be the GM in this condition? |
0.57 foot |
0.72 foot |
0.96 foot |
1.25 feet |
|
In order to check your vessel's stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted
with the jumbo boom, the boom head being 50 feet from the ship's
centerline. The clinometer is then carefully read and shows a list of
5°. The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons including the suspended
weight. What will be the metacentric height of the vessel at this time? |
2.74 feet |
2.80 feet |
2.86 feet |
2.93 feet |
|
Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-05" and the GM is 3.4
feet. What will be the angle of list if #4 port double bottom (capacity
140 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 26 feet off the centerline) is filled with
saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book) |
Less than 1° |
3° |
6° |
9° |
|
A cargo of 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 40 feet from the
ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo
is 8,000 tons and the GM is 2 feet with cargo suspended. What will the
list of the vessel be with the cargo suspended? |
4.9° |
5.2° |
5.7° |
6.0° |
|
Your sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.2
feet. What will be the angle of list if #3 starboard double bottom
(capacity 97 tons, VCG 2.5 feet and 23 feet off the centerline) is
filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of
the Stability Data Reference Book) |
Less than 1° |
3° |
7° |
11° |
|
Your sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-10" and the GM is 4.6
feet. What will be the angle of list if #6 starboard double bottom
(capacity 95 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 21 feet off the centerline) is
filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of
the Stability Data Reference Book) |
Less than 1° |
2° |
4° |
7° |
|
A cargo of 75 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 50 feet from the
ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo
is 6,000 tons and GM is 6 feet. The list of the ship with the cargo
suspended from the boom will be __________. |
5.00° |
5.40° |
5.94° |
6.50° |
|
Your vessel is preparing to lift a weight of 30 tons with a boom whose
head is 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement not
including the weight lifted is 8,790 tons. KM is 21.5 ft, KG is 20.5 ft.
What would be the angle of list when the weight is lifted? |
1.4° |
2.8° |
3.4° |
5.8° |
|
Your sailing drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 19'-07" and the GM is 4.3
feet. What will be the angle of list if #2 starboard double bottom
(capacity 78 tons, VCG 2.7 feet, and 24.5 feet off the centerline) is
filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of
the Stability Data Reference Book) |
3° |
5° |
7° |
9° |
|
Your sailing drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-10" and the GM is 3.3
feet. What will be the angle of list if the #2 starboard deep tank
(capacity 100 tons, VCG 19.1 feet, and 24 feet off the centerline) is
filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book) |
Less than 1° |
2° |
4° |
6° |
|
Your sailing drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 22'-04" and the GM is 3.2
feet. What will be the angle of list if the #6 port deep tank (capacity
201 tons, VCG 11.4 feet, and 25.5 feet off the centerline) is filled?
(Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
2° |
4° |
6° |
8° |
|
A cargo of 50 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's
centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 50 ton cargo will be
3,000 tons and the GM three feet. What would be the list of the vessel
after loading the cargo? |
5.35° |
5.80° |
6.10° |
6.35° |
|
Your sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 16'-02" and the GM is 3.0
feet. What will be the angle of list if #5 port double bottom (capacity
195 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 18.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with
saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book) |
4° |
8° |
13° |
16° |
|
A cargo of 100 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's
centerline. The ship's displacement including the 100 tons of cargo will
be 10,000 tons and the GM two feet. What would be the list of the vessel
after loading the cargo? |
5.4° |
5.7° |
5.9° |
6.1° |
|
Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-03" and the GM is 2.8
feet. What will be the angle of list if the #4 starboard double bottom
(capacity 141 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 23.8 feet off the centerline) is
filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of
the Stability Data Reference Book) |
6° |
8° |
10° |
12° |
|
A cargo of 30 tons is to be loaded on deck 30 feet from the ship's
centerline. The ship's displacement including the 30 tons cargo will be
9,000 tons and the GM will be 5 feet. What would be the list of the
vessel after loading this cargo? |
1.14° |
2.05° |
2.31° |
3.40° |
|
A cargo of 60 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's
centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 60 ton cargo will be
6,000 tons and the GM two feet. What would be the list of the vessel
after loading this cargo? |
5.4° |
5.72° |
6.12° |
6.4° |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.9 feet and
drafts of: FWD 17'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the white pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast
to increase the GM to 3.9 feet. |
Tanks: DB4, DT6 |
Tanks: DB2, DT1, DT6 |
Tanks: DB6, DT7 |
Tanks: DB3, DB5, DT8 |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1 feet and
drafts of: FWD 19'-06", AFT 21'-04". Use the white pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tank(s) you should
ballast to increase the GM to 3.7 feet. |
Tanks: DB5 |
Tanks: DT1 |
Tanks: DB2, DB7 |
Tanks: DB3, DT8 |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1 feet and
drafts of: FWD 16'-00", AFT 18'-04". Use the white pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tank(s) you should
ballast to increase the GM to 3.6 feet. |
Tank: DB3 |
Tank: DT8 |
Tanks: DT6, DT7 |
Tanks: DB1, DT1A |
|
The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.6 feet and
drafts of: FWD 13'-07", AFT 15'-01". Use the white pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine what tanks you should ballast
to increase the GM to 3.4 feet. |
Tanks: DB6, DB7, DT7 |
Tanks: DB1, DB3 |
Tanks: DB5, DT1A |
Tanks: DB4, DT8 |
|
You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 17'-04",
AFT 19'-04". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 3.0' to 4.2'.
What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability
Data Reference Book.) |
Tanks: DB6, DB3 |
Tanks: DT7, DT8, DB3 |
Tanks: DB3, DB4 |
Tanks: DB2, DB6 |
|
You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 26'-06",
AFT 28'-02". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 2.7' to 2.9'.
What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability
Data Reference Book.) |
Tanks: DB2 |
Tanks: DB1, DT1, DT6 |
Tanks: DB1, DT1 |
Tanks: DB1 |
|
You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 21'-04",
AFT 23'-04". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.8'.
What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability
Data Reference Book.) |
Tanks: DB2, DB5 |
Tanks: DB6, DT7 |
Tanks: DB4, DB7 |
Tanks: DB2, DB6 |
|
You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 22'-06",
AFT 25'-06". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 4.8' to 5.9'.
What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability
Data Reference Book.) |
Tanks: DB2, DB6, DB7 |
Tanks: DB5, DT6 |
Tanks: DB2, DB5 |
Tanks: DB3, DB4 |
|
You are on a Mariner class cargo vessel. Your drafts are: FWD 24'-00",
AFT 25'-08". You wish to increase the calculated GM of 3.0' to 4.1'.
What tanks should you ballast? (Use the white pages in the Stability
Data Reference Book.) |
Tanks: DB4, DT6 |
Tanks: DB3, FB7, DT1 |
Tanks: DB2, DB6, DT6 |
Tanks: DB3, DT1A |
|
You have 260 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your
existing deck cargo is 150 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.2 feet.
What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load?
See illustration D036DG below. |
110 tons |
140 tons |
180 tons |
210 tons |
|
You have 640 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard.
If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of
3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck
cargo that is permitted? See illustration D036DG below. |
1.24 feet |
1.65 feet |
1.98 feet |
2.46 feet |
|
You have 600 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard.
If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of
2.8 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck
cargo that is permitted? See illustration D036DG below. |
1.96 feet |
2.25 feet |
3.20 feet |
3.55 feet |
|
You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard.
If you have 225 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of
3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck
cargo that is permitted? See illustration D036DG below. |
1.96 feet |
2.28 feet |
2.65 feet |
2.93 feet |
|
You have 710 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard.
If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of
3.1 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck
cargo that is permitted? See illustration D036DG below. |
1.84 feet |
2.13 feet |
2.43 feet |
2.78 feet |
|
You have 200 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard.
If you have 140 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of
4.2 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck
cargo that is permitted? See illustration D036DG below. |
0.56 foot |
0.87 foot |
1.04 feet |
2.44 feet |
|
You have 590 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard.
If you have 84 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.7
feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo
that is permitted? See illustration D036DG below. |
2.54 feet |
2.85 feet |
3.11 feet |
3.55 feet |
|
You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard.
If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of
2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck
cargo that is permitted? See illustration D036DG below. |
1.35 feet |
1.86 feet |
2.56 feet |
3.60 feet |
|
You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud. If you
have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.2, what
is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is
permitted? See illustration D036DG below. |
1.43 feet |
2.79 feet |
3.10 feet |
3.64 feet |
|
You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 150 tons of above deck cargo
on board. You must load 135 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more
deck cargo can you load? See illustration D036DG below. |
90 tons |
140 tons |
155 tons |
240 tons |
|
You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 180 tons of above deck cargo
on board. You must load 140 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more
deck cargo can you load? See illustration D036DG below. |
60 tons |
100 tons |
180 tons |
240 tons |
|
You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your
existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet.
What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load?
See illustration D036DG below. |
20 tons |
60 tons |
100 tons |
400 tons |
|
You have 550 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your
existing deck cargo is 120 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.6 feet.
What is the maximum additional deck cargo tonnage you are permitted to
load? See illustration D036DG below. |
20 tons |
60 tons |
120 tons |
240 tons |
|
You have 700 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your
existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet.
What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load?
See illustration D036DG below. |
20 tons |
50 tons |
80 tons |
210 tons |
|
You have 650 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your
existing deck cargo is 140 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.5 feet.
What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load?
See illustration D036DG below. |
15 tons |
48 tons |
83 tons |
140 tons |
|
You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your
existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet.
What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load?
See illustration D036DG below. |
34 tons |
62 tons |
134 tons |
186 tons |
|
You have 300 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your
existing deck cargo is 180 tons with a VCG above the deck of 1.9 feet.
What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load?
See illustration D036DG below. |
108 tons |
124 tons |
162 tons |
342 tons |
|
You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo
on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more
deck cargo can you load? See illustration D036DG below. |
22 tons |
48 tons |
94 tons |
239 tons |
|
You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 230 tons of above deck cargo
on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more
deck cargo can you load? See illustration D036DG below. |
180 tons |
60 tons |
240 tons |
none |
|
You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo
on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more
deck cargo can you load? See illustration D036DG below. |
55 tons |
99 tons |
140 tons |
360 tons |
|
You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 210 tons of above deck cargo
on board. You must load 100 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more
deck cargo can you load? See illustration D036DG below. |
25 tons |
65 tons |
95 tons |
175 tons |
|
You have 60 tons of below deck tonnage and 220 tons of above deck cargo
on board. You must load 240 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more
deck cargo can you load? See illustration D036DG below. |
65 tons |
85 tons |
110 tons |
125 tons |
|
You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 100 tons of above deck cargo
on board. You must load 160 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more
deck cargo can you load? See illustration D036DG below. |
85 tons |
135 tons |
195 tons |
245 tons |
|
You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your
existing deck cargo is 160 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet.
What is the maximum cargo tonnage you are permitted to load? See
illustration D036DG below. |
84 tons |
160 tons |
244 tons |
317 tons |
|
You have 50 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 4'B by 3'H
and weighing 0.4 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the
maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig
water and load to maximum capacity? See illustration D037DG below. |
1.50 feet |
2.25 feet |
2.66 feet |
2.91 feet |
|
You have 8 containers of steward's supplies each measuring 6'L by 6'B by
6'H and weighing 1.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What
is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying
rig water and load to maximum capacity? See illustration D037DG below. |
1.00 foot |
1.33 feet |
1.48 feet |
2.00 feet |
|
You have 38 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 5'H
and weighing 0.6 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the
maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig
water and load to maximum capacity? See illustration D037DG below. |
0.54 foot (0.16 meter) |
1.06 feet (0.32 meter) |
1.35 feet (0.41 meter) |
1.64 feet (0.50 meter) |
|
You have 6 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 3'H
and weighing 1.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is
the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig
water and load to maximum capacity? See illustration D037DG below. |
0.4 foot |
0.9 foot |
1.75 feet |
2.18 feet |
|
You have 12 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 4'B by 5'H
and weighing 2.0 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is
the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig
water and load to maximum capacity? See illustration D037DG below. |
0.5 foot |
0.9 foot |
1.1 feet |
1.6 feet |
|
You have 4 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 8'B by 8'H
and weighing 1.2 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is
the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig
water and load to maximum capacity? See illustration D037DG below. |
1.33 feet |
1.68 feet |
1.96 feet |
2.16 feet |
|
You have 10 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 6'B by 6'H
and weighing 1.8 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is
the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig
water and load to maximum capacity? See illustration D037DG below. |
0.94 foot |
1.36 feet |
1.78 feet |
1.96 feet |
|
You have 6 containers of ship stores each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 6'H
and weighing 0.5 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the
maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig
water and load to maximum capacity? See illustration D037DG below. |
1.06 feet |
1.32 feet |
1.65 feet |
1.90 feet |
|
You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 50 feet, and you calculate
the period of roll to be 22 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric
height? |
0.8 ft |
1.0 ft |
1.2 ft |
1.4 ft |
|
Your vessel measures 114 feet long by 16 feet in beam. If the natural
rolling period at a draft of 5'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM? |
1.38 feet |
1.53 feet |
1.76 feet |
1.98 feet |
|
Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural
rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5 seconds, what is the GM? |
1.96 feet |
2.68 feet |
2.24 feet |
2.45 feet |
|
Your vessel measures 131 feet long by 20 feet in beam. If the natural
rolling period at a draft of 8'-03" is 6 seconds, what is the GM? |
2.15 feet |
1.93 feet |
1.26 feet |
1.74 feet |
|
Your vessel measures 126 feet (38.41 meters) long by 21 feet (6.4
meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet
(2.44 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM? |
3.0 feet (0.90 meters) |
2.4 feet (0.70 meters) |
3.2 feet (0.98 meters) |
2.8 feet (0.85 meters) |
|
Your vessel measures 122 feet long by 18 feet in beam. If the natural
rolling period at a draft of 6'-09" is 5 seconds, what is the GM? |
1.4 feet |
2.1 feet |
2.5 feet |
2.9 feet |
|
Your vessel measures 125 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural
rolling period at a draft of 7'-09" is 6 seconds, what is the GM? |
0.95 foot |
1.25 feet |
1.55 feet |
1.78 feet |
|
Your vessel measures 128 feet long by 21 feet in beam. If the natural
rolling period at a draft of 7'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM? |
1.56 feet |
2.37 feet |
2.55 feet |
2.74 feet |
|
Your vessel measures 119 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural
rolling period at a draft of 5'-05" is 6 seconds, what is the GM? |
1.14 feet |
1.36 feet |
1.55 feet |
1.96 feet |
|
The period of roll is the time difference between __________. |
full inclination on one side to the next full inclination on the same
side |
full inclination on one side to full inclination on the other side |
zero inclination to full inclination on one side |
zero inclination to the next zero inclination |
|
When the wave period and the apparent rolling period are the same
__________. |
roll period increases |
roll amplitude is dampened |
synchronous rolling occurs |
roll period decreases |
|
You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 4 feet, and a beam
of 50 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be? |
11.5 seconds |
11.0 seconds |
10.0 seconds |
10.5 seconds |
|
If your vessel has a GM of one foot and a breadth of 50 feet, what is
your vessel's estimated rolling period? |
20 seconds |
11 seconds |
22 seconds |
15 seconds |
|
Your vessel has a metacentric height of 1.12 feet and a beam of 60 feet.
What will your average rolling period be? |
25 seconds |
35 seconds |
23 seconds |
20 seconds |
|
You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 1.0 foot and a beam
of 40 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be? |
15.2 seconds |
17.6 seconds |
15.9 seconds |
17.0 seconds |
|
Your vessel has a displacement of 19,800 tons. It is 464 feet long, and
has a beam of 64 feet. You have timed its rolling period to be 21.0
seconds in still water. What is your vessel's approximate GM? |
1.1 ft |
1.3 ft |
1.6 ft |
1.8 ft |
|
Your vessel's has a beam of 60 feet, and you observe a still water
rolling period of 25 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height? |
0.8 ft |
1.1 ft |
1.4 ft |
1.6 ft |
|
Your vessel's has a beam of 40 feet, and you observe a still water
rolling period of 20 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height? |
0.3 ft. |
0.5 ft. |
0.8 ft. |
1.1 ft. |
|
You are loading cargo on deck aboard a vessel whose beam is 60 feet and
full period of roll is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric
height of the vessel? |
1.3 ft |
1.5 ft |
1.7 ft |
1.9 ft |
|
Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350 feet long and
has a beam of 55 feet. You have timed its rolling period to be 15.0
seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM? |
1.18 feet |
1.83 feet |
2.60 feet |
3.36 feet |
|
Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and
has a beam of 71 feet. You have timed your vessel's rolling period to be
25.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM? |
1.25 feet |
1.56 feet |
1.98 feet |
2.43 feet |
|
You have approximately 6 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in
the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a
vertical distance of 7 feet? (total displacement is 422 tons) |
0.1 foot |
0.9 foot |
0.5 foot |
0.3 foot |
|
You have approximately 15 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift
in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a
vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 300 tons) |
0.4 foot |
0.1 foot |
0.3 foot |
0.2 foot |
|
You have approximately 29 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift
in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a
vertical distance of 5 feet? (total displacement is 483 tons) |
0.5 foot |
0.4 foot |
0.6 foot |
0.3 foot |
|
You have approximately 60 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift
in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a
vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 960 tons) |
0.6 foot |
0.5 foot |
0.3 foot |
0.4 foot |
|
You have approximately 16 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift
in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a
vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 640 tons) |
0.1 foot |
0.4 foot |
0.3 foot |
0.2 foot |
|
You have approximately 24 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift
in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a
vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 540 tons) |
0.44 foot |
0.23 foot |
0.14 foot |
0.36 foot |
|
You have approximately 34 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift
in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a
vertical distance of 7.5 feet? (total displacement is 638 tons) |
0.2 foot |
0.1 foot |
0.3 foot |
0.4 foot |
|
You have approximately 14 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift
in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a
vertical distance of 6 feet? (total displacement is 210 tons) |
0.2 foot |
0.4 foot |
0.3 foot |
0.5 foot |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the
forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must
be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 15 inches? (Use
the selected stability curves in Section 1, the blue pages, of the
Stability Data Reference Book) |
72 tons |
77 tons |
82 tons |
87 tons |
|
Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 27'-06". The present drafts
are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 26'-00". How much more cargo can be loaded and
where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the
reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
1250 tons 4.3 feet forward of amidships |
950 tons 2.5 feet forward of the tipping center |
1250 tons 1.4 feet aft of the tipping center |
950 tons 5.6 feet aft of amidships |
|
Your vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts
are: FWD 22'-10", AFT 23'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded and
where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the
reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
875 tons 6 feet aft of amidships |
950 tons 8 feet forward of the tipping center |
1323 tons 7 feet aft of the tipping center |
1452 tons 7 feet aft of the tipping center |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the
forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must
be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the
reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
61 tons |
72 tons |
79 tons |
86 tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 24'-02". The LCG of the
forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must
be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use
the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book) |
53 tons |
57 tons |
61 tons |
65 tons |
|
A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 26'-03". The present drafts
are: FWD 21'-04", AFT 24'-06". How much more cargo can be loaded and
where should it be located if a drag of 1 foot is desired? (Use the
reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
1676 tons 18 feet forward of amidships |
1676 tons 18 feet forward of the tipping center |
1972 tons 16 feet forward of amidships |
1972 tons 16 feet forward of the tipping center |
|
A vessel is limited to a maximum draft of 25'-11". The present drafts
are: FWD 24'-10", AFT 23'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded and
where should it be located if a drag of 18 inches is desired? (Use the
reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
345 tons 124 feet aft of the tipping center |
690 tons 62 feet aft of the tipping center |
640 tons 74 feet aft of the tipping center |
525 tons 18 feet forward of the tipping center |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 23'-10", AFT 26'-00". The LCG of the
forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must
be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use
the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book) |
34 tons |
45 tons |
55 tons |
61 tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the
forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must
be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use
the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book) |
27 tons |
31 tons |
34 tons |
37 tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-03", AFT 21'-03". The LCG of the
forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must
be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 1 foot? (Use the
reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
62 tons |
68 tons |
74 tons |
78 tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the
forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must
be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 18 inches? (Use
the reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability
Data Reference Book) |
98 tons |
86 tons |
110 tons |
105 tons |
|
Your vessel's draft is 24'-06" forward and aft. The MT1 of your vessel
is 1000 ft-tons. How many tons of cargo must be loaded in number 4 hold,
which is 100 feet abaft the tipping center, if she is to have a 2 foot
drag? |
120 tons |
240 tons |
300 tons |
480 tons |
|
Your vessel is on an even keel. The MT1 of your vessel is 1000 ft-tons.
How many tons of cargo must be loaded in number 4 hold which is 100 feet
abaft the tipping center, if she is to have a 2 foot drag? |
240 tons |
100 tons |
130 tons |
90 tons |
|
Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 17'-08". The LCG of the
forepeak is 200 feet forward of amidships. How many tons of ballast must
be pumped into the forepeak in order to have a drag of 2 feet? (Use the
reference material in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data
Reference Book) |
62 tons |
65 tons |
72 tons |
75 tons |
|
You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces
8560 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to
starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 95' above the base
line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be
55' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship
lists to 5.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed? |
3.74 ft. |
3.96 ft. |
4.16 ft. |
4.35 ft. |
|
You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces
5230 T. The 35-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to
starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 105' above the base
line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be
42' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship
lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed? |
4.11 |
4.54 |
4.98 |
5.13 |
|
You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces
8390 T. The 40 ton weight is on the pier and its center is 55' to
starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base
line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be
45' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship
lists to 3.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed? |
4.58 feet |
4.27 feet |
3.93 feet |
3.68 feet |
|
You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces
8530 T. The 40-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to
starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 115' above the base
line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be
50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship
lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed? |
2.96 ft |
3.18 ft |
3.46 ft |
3.77 ft |
|
You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces
7940 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to
starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base
line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be
50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship
lists to 4.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed? |
4.82 |
4.64 |
4.3 |
3.97 |
|
You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces
18,000 T. The 50-ton weight is on the pier, and its center is 75 feet to
starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 112 feet above the
base line, and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck
will be 56 feet above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain,
the ship lists 3.5°. What is the GM when the cargo is stowed? |
3.19 feet |
3.24 feet |
3.40 feet |
3.56 feet |
You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and
bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter
the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter
zone after a total of eight days. You will consume 36 tons of fuel,
water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is
1.002, and the TPI is 47. What is the minimum freeboard required at the
start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0005 below. |
71.0 inches |
72.7 inches |
79.5 inches |
81.0 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and
bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter
the summer zone after steaming eleven days, and you will enter the
winter zone after a total of fourteen days. You will consume 36 tons of
fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading
pier is 1.025, and the average TPI is 51. What is the minimum freeboard
required at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0006 below. |
75.0 inches |
76.0 inches |
79.5 inches |
81.0 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound
for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the
summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical
zone after a total of seven days. You will consume 38 tons of fuel,
water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is
1.004, and the average TPI is 72. What is the minimum freeboard required
at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0007 below. |
85 inches |
90 inches |
92 inches |
94 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and
bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter
the summer zone after steaming one and one-half days, and you will enter
the winter zone after a total of six days. You will consume 29 tons of
fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading
pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 43. What is the minimum freeboard
required at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0008 below. |
79.5 inches |
76.5 inches |
75.0 inches |
72.5 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound
for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the
summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical
zone after a total of twelve days. You will consume 39 tons of fuel,
water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is
1.025, and the average TPI is 49. What is the minimum freeboard required
at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0010 below. |
90 inches |
87 inches |
80 inches |
77 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and
bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter
the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter
zone after a total of eleven days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel,
water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is
1.004, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required
at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0011 below. |
85 inches |
82 inches |
80 inches |
78 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and
bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter
the summer zone after steaming six days. You will enter the winter zone
after an additional three days. You will consume 28 tons of fuel, water,
and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.020,
and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the
start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0012 below. |
61.4 inches |
64.5 inches |
70.6 inches |
77.5 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound
for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the
summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical
zone after a total of twelve days. You will consume 31 tons of fuel,
water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is
1.000, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required
at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0013 below. |
78 inches |
74 inches |
70 inches |
68 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and
bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter
the summer zone after steaming eight days, and you will enter the winter
zone after a total of ten days. You will consume 31 tons of fuel, water,
and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.016,
and the average TPI is 41. What is the minimum freeboard required at the
start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0015 below. |
72 inches |
70 inches |
68 inches |
64 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and
bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter
the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the winter
zone after a total of nine days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel,
water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is
1.008, and the average TPI is 53. What is the minimum freeboard required
at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0016 below. |
72.5 inches |
75.0 inches |
77.0 inches |
80.0 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and
bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter
the summer zone after steaming ten days. You will consume 33 tons of
fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading
pier is 1.021, and the average TPI is 51. What is the minimum freeboard
required at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0017 below. |
76 inches |
74 inches |
73 inches |
72 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound
for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the
winter zone after steaming four days. You will consume 35 tons of fuel,
water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is
1.0083, and the average TPI is 65. What is the minimum freeboard
required at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0018 below. |
74 inches |
78 inches |
80 inches |
86 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and
bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter
the summer zone after steaming four days. You will consume 41 tons of
fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading
pier is 1.000 and the average TPI is 55. What is the minimum freeboard
required at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0019 below. |
55 inches |
49 inches |
44 inches |
41 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound
for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the
summer zone after steaming six days. You will consume 32 tons of fuel,
water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is
1.005, and the average TPI is 65. What is the minimum freeboard required
at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0020 below. |
93 inches |
90 inches |
81 inches |
70 inches |
|
You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and
bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter
the summer zone after steaming two days. You will consume 28 tons of
fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading
pier is 1.020, and the average TPI is 55. What is the minimum freeboard
required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0021 below. |
62 inches |
66 inches |
70 inches |
74 inches |
You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound
for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the
tropical zone after steaming four days. You will consume 33 tons of
fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading
pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 66. What is the minimum freeboard
required at the start of the voyage?
Reference Table BL-0022 below. |
78 inches |
82 inches |
86 inches |
88 inches |
