|
A |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following documents would
be the most useful in dealing with a vessel oil spill resulting in a discharge
into navigable waters? |
Shipboard oil
pollution emergency plan |
Transfer procedures |
Oil record book |
Declaration of
inspection |
|
D |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type
III Marine Sanitation Device"? |
A device that
produces a fecal coli form bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter. |
A device that
produces a fecal coli form bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids. |
A device that
produces a fecal coli form bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100
milliliters and no visible floating solids. |
A device that
is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage. |
|
C |
As a chief engineer
aboard a vessel that has just been dry-docked and is being connected to
shipyard facilities, what would you consider to be your FIRST priority? |
Ascertain that
the sewage system shorelines are properly connected. |
Make a walkthrough
of the dry hull looking for/at any hull cracks, propeller(s) and rudder. |
Ascertain that
the electrical shore power is connected with proper phasing. |
Ascertain that
the shipyard's cooling waterlines are properly connected. |
|
B |
In a closed-loop
process control system, what is meant by gain? |
The signal in
a controller that is obtained by subtracting the measured value of the controlled
value from the set point. |
The ratio of the
amplitude of the output signal of a component divided by the amplitude of
the input signal. |
The progressive
reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component. |
The undesirable
characteristic in which the error of a control system oscillates with constant
or increasing amplitude. |
|
C |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter D (Tank Vessels), what is the minimum allowable flashpoint
for a fuel to be burned in a steam boiler? |
100°F |
120°F |
140°F |
160°F |
|
A |
How would you
prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the steering system
using the illustrated actuator? Illustration GS-0116 |
secure the valves
in the supply and return lines |
tighten the locking
screws in item "S" |
screw in the locking
pin, item "J" |
tighten the locking
pins, item "H" at each position of item "I" to keep
the rudder from swinging |
|
C |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type
I Marine Sanitation Device"? |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter. |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids. |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100
milliliters and no visible floating solids. |
A device that
is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage. |
|
A |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), it is the duty
of the chief engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received
whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until
__________. |
that particular
supply of oil is exhausted |
return to the
first U.S. port where upon it must be sent ashore for chemical analysis
and the findings submitted to the nearest officer in charge, Marine Inspection |
it can be sent
ashore to the proper oil company personnel for testing and the results entered
in the Oil Record Book, CG-480 |
the voyage is
completed |
|
C |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following statements
is true concerning the signature of the Oil Record Book? |
The officer in
charge of the engineering watch signs each entry occurring on the watch,
and the chief engineer signs each page. |
The officer in
charge of the navigational watch signs each entry occurring on the watch,
and the master signs each page. |
The person in
charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the master signs each page. |
The person in
charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the chief engineer signs
each page. |
|
B |
You are at a shipyard
in dry-dock. New anodes for the impressed current system are being installed.
The yard workers are installing the capastic layer on the hull. What is
the primary function of the capastic epoxy? |
It protects the
anode from impact with foreign objects. |
It prevents shorting
of the anode current to the hull and aids in a wider current distribution
to the hull. |
It raises the
anode off the hull so as to improve the range of the anode current. |
It protects the
hull coating from excessive current. |
|
C |
Which of the fasteners
in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure "C"
in illustration GS-0015? |
figure A |
figure F |
figure K |
figure D |
|
B |
Bridge orders
must be promptly carried out and a record kept. What orders must be recorded? |
Bridge orders
need not be recorded |
Changes in shaft
RPM or direction |
Changes in shaft
RPM only |
Changes in shaft
direction only |
|
D |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter E (Load Lines), an international and coastwise load
line assignment and certificate issued to a vessel by the American Bureau
of Shipping is valid for a period of __________. |
1 year |
2 years |
4 years |
5 years |
|
C |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device
(MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient
air pressure and temperature? |
Type I |
Type II |
Type III |
Type IV |
|
A |
As a root cause
analysis tool, what is the primary disadvantage to the fishbone (also known
as the cause-and-effect) graphical approach to root cause analysis? |
The fishbone diagram
does not show any cause sequences leading to failure. |
The fishbone diagram
does not allow for more than one potential cause to be considered. |
The fishbone diagram
does not attempt to group possible causes into categories. |
The fishbone diagram
does not attempt to identify all the possible causes. |
|
B |
A self-propelled
mobile offshore drilling unit is required to have its emergency storage
batteries tested in accordance with 46 CFR regulations applicable to tests,
drills, and inspections for MODU operations. What are the test criteria? |
The emergency
batteries are to be tested once each 6 months and furnish power to the actual
connected loads for a period of not less than 18 continuous hours. |
The emergency
batteries are to be tested once each 6 months and furnish power to the actual
connected loads for a period of not less than 2 continuous hours. |
The emergency
batteries are to be tested once each 6 months and furnish power to the actual
connected loads for a period of not less than 6 continuous hours. |
The emergency
batteries are to be tested once each month and furnish power to the actual
connected loads for a period of not less than 2 continuous hours. |
|
B |
Which statement
is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime
mover speed control governors? |
Isochronous governors
are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing
temporary speed droop. |
Isochronous governors
are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing
temporary speed droop. |
Isochronous governors
are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing
permanent speed droop. |
Isochronous governors
are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing
permanent speed droop. |
|
C |
A hydraulic cylinder
is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abruptly slows towards the
end of its stroke, and then continues to creep to the completion of its
stroke. Which of the following represents the probable cause? |
The cushion adjustment
needle valve is open too far. |
The rod wiper
is jammed in the cushion spear. |
The cushion adjustment
needle valve is not open sufficiently. |
The exhaust oil
is flowing freely through the cushion nose. |
|
D |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), besides retention of ballast water
onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water treatment equipment, what
is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the ballast
water management regulations? |
Perform a complete
ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. |
Perform a complete
ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. |
Perform a complete
ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. |
Perform a complete
ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. |
|
A |
As shown in the
illustrated D type single furnace boiler, what does item "G" represent?
Illustration SG-0008 |
Superheater tubes |
Generating tubes |
Screening tubes |
Desuperheater
tubes |
|
B |
What is meant
by the phrase "solid flooding"? |
A compartment
completely filled from deck to overhead, with every cubic foot of the compartment
occupied by some solid material. |
A compartment
completely filled from deck to overhead, with every cubic foot of the compartment
occupied by flooding water. |
A compartment
nearly filled from deck to overhead, with nearly every cubic foot of the
compartment occupied by flooding water, the remainder by the trapped air
on the bottom. |
A compartment
nearly filled from deck to overhead, with nearly every cubic foot of the
compartment occupied by flooding water, the remainder by the trapped air
on top. |
|
C |
In which lubrication
application is lubricating oil with demulsibility properties most likely
to be used? |
Crosshead diesel
engine cylinder oil. |
Gas turbine lubricating
oil. |
Steam turbine
lubricating oil. |
Trunk type diesel
engine lubricating oil. |
|
B |
In which of the
following heat related illnesses is it appropriate to reduce the individual's
core temperature by immersion in a tub of cold water or repeatedly sponging
with cold water? |
Heat exhaustion |
Heat stroke |
Heat prostration |
Heat cramps |
|
D |
If a person gets
alkali (such as potassium hydroxide) in their eye when servicing a NiCd
battery, what would be the appropriate eye irrigation solution? |
boric acid solution |
ammonia |
baking soda solution |
water |
|
A |
Which of the following
maintenance procedures would require a tag-out/lock-out to be performed? |
Changing the oil
of an air compressor. |
Shifting and cleaning
a duplex strainer. |
Draining compressed
air system moisture separators of condensation. |
Adding makeup
oil to a main engine while underway. |
|
B |
What statement
is true concerning remote valve position indication at a control station? |
90° rotary valves
generally have valve only open and closed indicators, whereas gate and globe
valves generally have degree of opening indicators. |
90° rotary valves
and gate valves generally have valve only open and closed indicators, whereas
globe valves generally have degree of opening indicators. |
90° rotary valves
and globe valves generally have valve only open and closed indicators, whereas
gate valves generally have degree of opening indicators. |
Gate and globe
valves generally have valve only open and closed indicators, whereas 90°
rotary valves generally have degree of opening indicators. |
|
A |
Which of the listed
valve types is typically used for the intermediate and high pressure stages
of a reciprocating air compressor? |
Ring-plate |
Strip-type |
Sliding |
Rotary |
|
A |
When reviewing
a machinery vibration analysis report, the reports states the vibrational
frequency is 4000 cpm in the Y direction. What does this indicate? |
A vibrational
frequency of 4000 cycles per minute in the Y direction |
A vibrational
frequency of 4000 counts per minute in the Y direction |
A vibrational
frequency of 4000 accelerations per minute in the Y direction |
A vibrational
frequency of 4 mil in the Y direction |
|
B |
In preparation
for conducting a mariner assessment, an assessor must ascertain whether
or not a candidate meets the assessment prerequisites. Which of the following
indicates the prerequisite criteria that should be checked? |
Check whether
the candidate meets prerequisite training, experience and successful completion
of related assessments only. Credentials held are not required to be checked. |
Check whether
the candidate meets prerequisite training, experience, credential, and successful
completion of related assessments. All must be checked. |
Check whether
the candidate meets prerequisite training and successful completion of related
assessments only. Experience and credentials are not required to be checked. |
Check whether
the candidate meets prerequisite successful completion of related assessments
only. Training, experience, and credentials held are not required to be
checked. |
|
C |
A vessel has hydraulic
winches and anchor windlasses powered by a central hydraulic system. One
winch exhibits sluggish operation, poor speed and directional control. Selecting
from the potential suggestions below, consider a most logical and systematic
approach to formulate your answer to troubleshoot this unit?
{{{
1. Disassemble the hydraulic control valve, check "O" rings and
check unit's filter.
2. Inspect unit visually, looking for hydraulic leaks and mechanical function
of the control lever(s), such as looseness, and/or wear.
3. Open and inspect filters on the main hydraulic unit for particulates/cleanliness.
4. Test entire system's fluid for particulates, viscosity and moisture content.}}} |
1-2-3-4 |
1-2-4-3 |
2-1-3-4 |
2-3-1-4 |
|
C |
What system is
represented by the simplified illustration? Illustration SE-0004 |
Hydraulic gland
seal regulator for the turbo-generator turbines. |
Hydraulic throttle
control for the main propulsion turbines. |
Hydraulic gland
seal regulator for the main propulsion turbines. |
Hydraulic throttle
control for the turbo-generator turbines. |
|
A |
What document
lists the maximum pressure that can be carried by a boiler? |
Certificate of
inspection |
Boiler technical
manual |
Engine room operating
guide |
Declaration of
inspection |
|
B |
As it pertains
to task scheduling in project management, what statement is true concerning
the critical path? |
The critical path
is that particular path of relationally dependent tasks which requires the
most in manpower resources and as such that identifies the path with the
highest man-hour requirements. |
The critical path
is that particular path of relationally dependent tasks which requires the
most time and as such determines the overall length of the project. |
The critical path
is that particular path of relationally dependent tasks which requires the
most in financial resources and as such that identifies the path with the
highest budget items. |
The critical path
is that particular path of tasks with no dependencies which requires the
least time and as such determines the overall length of the project. |
|
B |
What statement
is true concerning critical speeds associated with rotating machinery? |
The vibration
amplitude is greatest at the second order critical speed. |
The vibration
amplitude is greatest at the first order (fundamental) critical speed. |
The vibration
amplitude is greatest midway between 0 RPM and the first order (fundamental)
critical speed. |
The vibration
amplitude is greatest midway between the first order and the second order
critical speed. |
|
C |
What statement
is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity sensor
as used for sensing the viscosity of heavy fuel oil? |
The viscosity
sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is inversely
proportional to the oil viscosity. |
The viscosity
sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is proportional
to the oil viscosity. |
The viscosity
sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is proportional
to the oil viscosity. |
The viscosity
sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is inversely
proportional to the oil viscosity. |
|
A |
Four incandescent
lamps are connected in series in a single circuit. If one of the lamp filaments
burns out, what will happen to the other lamps? |
all go out |
become dimmer |
no change in brightness |
become brighter |
|
A |
As a manager conducting
a meeting, what action should you take when an attendee exhibits disruptive
or inappropriate behavior? |
With respect,
respond in a way appropriate to the behavior. |
Immediately expel
the offending attendee from the meeting. |
Ignore the disruptive
or inappropriate behavior. |
Aggressively confront
the offending trainee. |
|
C |
Based on an inspection
of the cables on one of your ship's service generators, you've decided that
the cables need to be replaced. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical
Engineering), the current-carrying capacity of the replacement generator
cables should be what percentage of the continuous generator rating? |
Less than 15 percent |
Less than 100
percent |
Less than 115
percent |
Less than 220
percent |
|
B |
During a yard
period when a tailshaft survey is being performed and where the propeller
shaft has been withdrawn, when is a surveyor attendance required? |
It is normally
required that stern tube bearing assembly be attended by a surveyor. |
It is normally
required that the shaft alignment be carried out in the presence of a surveyor. |
It is normally
required that all shafting measurements be carried out in the presence of
a surveyor. |
It is normally
required epoxy casting be witnessed by a surveyor. |
|
D |
The pump in a
hydraulic system mounted on the unit in the illustration may begin to cavitate
if __________. Illustration GS-0118 |
"A"
is allowed to remain open |
"B"
is over tightened |
"H"
were to be removed and the system operated for thirty minutes without it
being replaced |
"D"
is not kept clean |
|
B |
While recharging
a commercial type refrigerator, with a hermetically sealed compressor with
no pressure gauges, what could you use or do to achieve a proper full charge? |
Charge until you
hear the compressor loading up, check refrigerator temperatures. |
Check nameplate
for compressor's full load amperage and charge until that amperage is reached. |
Charge partially
and observe refrigerator's temperatures. Add more if necessary. |
Overcharge and
observe refrigerator's temperatures, evacuate excess refrigerant until thermostat
control is achieved. |
|
D |
Which of the following
analytical tools can be used for trend analysis?
{{{
I) Lube oil analysis
II) Vibration analysis
III) Performance data analysis
IV) Thermographic analysis}}} |
I and II only. |
III only. |
I, II, and III
only. |
I, II, III, and
IV |
|
D |
The term "oil
foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe what event? |
release of dissolved
lubricant from the refrigerant in the crankcase |
sudden evaporation
of entrapped moisture from the crankcase lubricant |
sudden evaporation
of entrapped air from the refrigerant liquid |
release of miscible
refrigerant from the lubricant in the crankcase |
|
B |
As a chief engineer,
how often are you required to countersign the engine room log book? |
Every 4 hours |
Daily |
Weekly |
Monthly |
|
B |
After unplugging
a suspected damaged printed circuit board from its edge card connector,
what may be revealed by slightly flexing the board? |
A board warped
by excessive heat. |
A board with a
hairline crack. |
A board with corroded
connecting pins. |
A board with a
complete break. |
|
B |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), main propulsion water-tube
boilers are not required to be fitted with a surface blow-off valve if the
design pressure is __________. |
300 psig (2169
kPa) or over |
350 psig (2413
kPa) or over |
500 psig (3548
kPa) or over |
550 psig (3893
kPa) or over |
|
C |
At what point
during the overall assessment process should the assessor provide the candidate
with a copy of the assessment control sheet? |
Record the results
and determine the assessment outcome. |
Preparing for
the assessment. |
Brief the candidate
before the assessment. |
Debrief the candidate
after the assessment |
|
D |
"Arc eye"
can be the result of gazing into an electric arc produced by an electric
arc welder where the eyes are inadequately protected. What is the characteristic
of the onset of symptoms such as pain, watering of the eyes, and gritty
sensation like sand in the eyes? |
The onset of symptoms
may be several days after the exposure depending on the intensity of the
rays and the length of time of the exposure. |
The onset of symptoms
is always immediate after the exposure regardless of the intensity of the
rays and the length of time of the exposure. |
The onset of symptoms
may be several weeks after the exposure depending on the intensity of the
rays and the length of time of the exposure. |
The onset of symptoms
may be several hours after the exposure depending on the intensity of the
rays and the length of time of the exposure. |
|
C |
Which of the following
viscosity scales measures kinematic viscosity? |
Saybolt Universal
Seconds (SSU) |
Furol Seconds |
Centistokes (cSt) |
Society of Automotive
Engineers (SAE) |
|
B |
If an engine lubricating
oil's viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what is the significant
difference between the two lubricating oils? |
The SAE 20W oil
is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature service)
and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service. |
The SAE 20W oil
is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20
oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service. |
The SAE 20W oil
is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature service)
and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service. |
The SAE 20W oil
is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service, and the SAE
20 oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service. |
|
B |
The counterbalance
valve (5) in the winch circuit shown in the illustration __________. Illustration
GS-0161 |
regulates the
amount of oil to the brake release cylinder |
helps prevent
slung loads from dropping prematurely |
aligns the pump's
discharge to the winch's hydraulic motor |
prevents over-travel
of the winch when retrieving |
|
B |
In accordance
with the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), continuing
violations of The Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international
MARPOL regulations may constitute separate violations subject to civil penalties.
Which of the following statements is true? |
Each hour of a
continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. |
Each day of a
continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. |
Each week of a
continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. |
Each month of
a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. |
|
D |
The device shown
in the illustration is which of the following? Illustration GS-0116 |
oil scraper ring
stuffing box for a crosshead engine |
diesel engine
motor mount |
mechanical shaft
seal |
vane type steering
gear |
|
B |
Referring to the
illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? Illustration GS-RA-43 |
A single zone
system |
A dual duct system |
A terminal reheat
system |
A variable air
volume system |
|
D |
Which of the fluids
listed is suitable and commonly used as a secondary refrigerant? |
Cuprous chloride |
Carbon dioxide |
Methyl alcohol |
Brine |
|
D |
A reciprocating
refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping
the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and
then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking,
the high-side pressure gauge will show pressures which react in which way? |
increasing with
each stroke |
decreasing to
a vacuum |
decreasing with
each stroke |
rising and falling
with each stroke |
|
C |
A high-pressure
centrifugal chiller currently charged with R-134a is being evaluated for
the need for leak testing. Using the leak test procedures decision tree
illustrated and the R-134a pressure- temperature chart illustrated, with
the machine idle and the pressures equalized at 10 psig with an ambient
temperature of 60°F, what statement is true? Illustration GS-RA-11 and GS-RA-47 |
The machine definitely
does not have a leak; therefore no attempt at leak detection is necessary. |
The machine has
a suspected leak; therefore nitrogen should be added to bring the pressure
to 70 psig prior to checking for leaks. |
The machine has
a suspected leak; therefore the refrigerant pressure should be raised to
35 psig by adding refrigerant prior to checking for leaks. |
The machine may
or may not have a leak; therefore the machine should be checked for leaks
without any adjustments in pressure. |
|
D |
In an air conditioning
system set up as shown in the illustration, as the room humidistat initiates
the lowering of the humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space, the
actual process is accomplished by what means? Illustration GS-RA-09 |
lowering both
the cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature |
raising both the
cooling coil temperature and the reheater temperature |
raising the cooling
coil temperature and lowering the reheater temperature |
lowering the cooling
coil temperature and raising the reheater temperature |
|
D |
Referring to the
illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning the evaporator? Illustration MP-CW-06 |
The evaporator
uses heat recovered from the jacket water cooler sea water as a heat source
to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket
water cooler. |
The evaporator
uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source
to generate fresh water and is piped in parallel with the jacket water cooler. |
The evaporator
uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source
to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and after the jacket
water cooler. |
The evaporator
uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source
to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket
water cooler. |
|
A |
What system connection
is represented by the labeled item "A" in the illustrated diagram
of a hydraulic turbine gland seal regulator? Illustration SE-0019 |
Gland sealing
steam to the turbine shaft glands. |
Gland exhaust
to the gland exhaust condenser. |
Makeup steam from
the auxiliary steam system. |
Excess dump to
the main condenser via the LP turbine. |
|
C |
What would be
an indication that the vegetable box back pressure regulator is set too
low? |
The vegetable
box is at the correct temperature and the compressor experiences short-
cycling. |
High discharge
pressure on the compressor. |
Vegetable refrigeration
box is holding the correct temperature but the vegetables are dehydrated
and frost is observed on the vegetable box evaporator coil back to the back
pressure regulator. |
Vegetable box
does not pull down to correct temperature and the compressor suction pressure
is low. |
|
B |
In response to
a fire on the main deck or in the accommodation spaces, who would ordinarily
report immediately to the scene of the fire and act as second in command
of the fire team led by the chief mate? |
Chief Engineer |
First Assistant
Engineer |
Second Assistant
Engineer |
Third Assistant
Engineer |
|
C |
Upon joining a
vessel on 28 April 2013 you find the last dry-docking was May 2011. When
is the next date for vessel dry-docking if the vessel is not enrolled in
an underwater survey program in lieu of dry-docking? |
No later than
May 2013. |
No later than
November 2013. |
No later than
May 2014. |
No later than
May 2016. |
|
A |
Vessel special
surveys are conducted how often in the life of a vessel? |
Every 5 years
after the anniversary date of construction or last special survey. |
Every 5 years
after the anniversary date of construction always. |
Every 2 1/2 years
after the anniversary date of construction or last special survey. |
Annually on the
anniversary date of the last survey. |
|
D |
A bunkering plan
requires a list of the tanks to be filled and the order in which they are
to be filled. Why is it preferable that fuel be bunkered into empty tanks,
where possible? |
This helps avoid
the possibility of fuel spills. |
This would cause
less stress on the tank structures. |
This helps avoid
possible undesirable trim angles. |
This helps avoid
possible issues with incompatible fuels. |
|
B |
In the event of
a marine casualty, as a chief engineer what document would be considered
a voyage record and must be made available to investigating officials? |
Machinery technical
manuals |
Vessel engine
room logbook |
Certificate of
Inspection |
International
Safety Management Code |
|
A |
When observing
the candidate's performance while conducting an assessment, what is the
appropriate response from the assessor when a safety condition is being
violated? |
The assessment
must be terminated whenever safety conditions are being violated. |
The assessor should
ask leading questions in an attempt to correct the unsafe condition. |
The assessor should
offer unsolicited assistance in order to correct the unsafe condition. |
For the purposes
of assessment, the safety condition violation should be ignored. |
|
A |
Which of the listed
central operating system types converts continuous analog signals from the
sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can
be understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and
control? |
Digital |
Pneumatic |
Direct connected |
Electric/electronic |
|
C |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), how long must the Oil Record Book
be maintained on board those vessels for which the regulations apply? |
1 year at a minimum. |
2 years at a minimum. |
3 years at a minimum. |
4 years at a minimum. |
|
A |
Which of the following
condition-based maintenance data continuous monitoring techniques has the
greatest value in predicting wear? |
Vibration analysis |
Thermography |
Lubricating oil
analysis |
Acoustic analysis |
|
B |
The air charge
leaving an intercooler or after cooler of an air compressor can be expected
to be which of the following? |
Supercooled. |
At or below the
dew point. |
Superheated. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
A common type
of molded case circuit breaker has both thermal and magnetic trip elements.
If a branch circuit breaker has only thermal or magnetic trip elements (but
not both), it is common to use multiple series-connected protective devices
to provide both short-circuit and overload protection. If a motor branch
circuit is protected with both a thermal trip-type circuit breaker and fuses,
what is the protective purpose of the fuses used in this arrangement? |
sustained overload
protection |
short duration
surge protection |
time-delay protection |
short-circuit
protection |
|
A |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (CFR 33 Part 151), all oceangoing tankships of 150 GT
and above and all other ships of 400 GT and above are required to prepare,
submit, and maintain a USCG approved Oil Record Book and a (an) __________. |
shipboard oil
pollution emergency plan |
synthetic plastic
discharge plan |
oil discharge
plan |
vapor recovery
procedures plan |
|
D |
When planning
for a fire and emergency drill, the crew should be motivated and challenged
to do their very best. What type of simulation promotes this level of motivation
and meeting the challenge? |
Choosing an often-repeated
scenario with which the crew is very familiar. |
Choosing an often-repeated
scenario associated with a low fire risk area. |
Choosing a scenario
representing a low fire risk in terms of flammables. |
Choosing a realistic
scenario representing a high fire risk in terms of flammables. |
|
B |
According to the
46 CFR regulations applicable to tests, drills, and inspections for mobile
offshore drilling unit operations, for a self-propelled MODU, how often
must the steering gear, whistle, general alarm bells, and communications
between the bridge or control room and the engine room be tested while the
MODU is on station? |
At least daily |
At least once
each week |
At least once
each month |
At least once
each quarter |
|
C |
What statement
is true regarding the reading of a liquid filled manometer? |
Water does not
wet the glass; therefore the reading should be taken at the top of the meniscus
on water-filled manometers. |
Mercury wets the
glass; therefore the reading should be taken at the top of the meniscus
of mercury-filled manometers. |
The reading should
be taken at the center of the curved surface of the meniscus, regardless
whether the manometer is water-filled or mercury-filled. |
The reading should
be taken at the edges of glass contact of the curved surface of the meniscus,
regardless whether the manometer is water-filled or mercury-filled. |
|
A |
What type of wound
is generally associated with no bleeding and is very susceptible to infection? |
Puncture |
Abrasion |
Incision |
Laceration |
|
A |
What is used to
keep water leaking from a pump packing gland away from the bearing housing? |
water flinger
rings |
shaft sleeves |
stuffing box gland |
lantern rings |
|
A |
Your vessel requires
the Certificate of Inspection (COI) to be renewed annually. In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), how often must the steering
gear be inspected? |
At each inspection. |
Every other inspection. |
Every 2.5 years. |
Every 5 years. |
|
D |
Your vessel has
a monthly predictive maintenance program for monitoring machinery vibrations
and lubricating oil analysis. What information do the results of the vibration
readings and oil analysis provide to you? |
Immediate possible
machinery failure. |
Predictive data
of eventual machinery failure. |
Definite data
on machinery performance at the time of readings/analysis. |
Comparative data
of machinery operation and condition. |
|
D |
Which of the fresh
water generators listed below is operated without a source of heat? |
Titanium plate
type |
Flash type |
Submerged tube
type |
Reverse osmosis
type |
|
B |
Which of the following
could be a probable cause of abnormal valve wear and breakage? |
Lifting of intercooler
relief valve. |
Faulty operation
of a cylinder unloader. |
Compressor operation
in an area of high relative humidity. |
Carbon build up
in the piston ring belt. |
|
C |
When using a thermal
imager for the purpose of conducting a thermographic analysis of equipment,
what form of energy produces the thermal signature radiating from the object
surface? |
X-ray energy. |
Visible light
energy. |
Infrared energy. |
Ultraviolet energy. |
|
A |
When an electricity
generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of propulsor
would be the most practicable for main propulsion? |
Controllable-pitch
propeller |
Tandem propeller |
Fixed-pitch propeller |
Detachable-blade
(built-up) propeller |
|
A |
What maintenance
management scheme does trend analysis support? |
Predictive maintenance
management. |
Run-to-failure
maintenance management. |
Planned maintenance
management. |
Preventive maintenance
management. |
|
C |
What is the name
of the semiconductor device with the essential characteristic that it decreases
in resistance with an increase in temperature? |
thermistor with
a positive temperature coefficient |
resistance temperature
detector |
thermistor with
a negative temperature coefficient |
thermocouple |
|
B |
What is the functional
purpose of the zener diode "CR1" as shown in section "D"
of the regulated DC power supply? Illustration EL-0085 |
is a temperature
compensator |
aids in output
voltage regulation |
prevents excessive
currents |
corrects power
factor |
|
C |
Release of refrigerant
to the atmosphere during the process of purging of air and non-condensable
gases can be kept to a permissible minimum by what action? |
purging through
the top of the receiver rather than the top of the condenser |
purging through
a dehydrator |
cracking the purge
valve briefly and allowing the refrigerant to re-settle between purges |
purging through
the discharge service valve rather than the top of the condenser |
|
B |
Overcurrent protection
for steering-gear systems circuits that power alternating-current motors
must have an instantaneous trip set at what rating? |
At least 100%
and not more than 175% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear
motor. |
At least 175%
and not more than 200% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear
motor. |
At least 200%
and not more than 275% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear
motor. |
At least 300%
and not more than 375% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear
motor. |
|
D |
One is slated
to be a senior officer of a new vessel and is to participate in the 'Builder's
Sea Trials'. What would you consider your responsibilities when asked to
witness scheduled tests? |
Observe, report
any possible deficiencies to the representatives of the regulatory bodies
present. |
Observe and convey
your comments of any possible deficiencies to the shipyard representative
conducting the test. |
Observe, report
any possible deficiencies to shipyard representatives and regulatory body
representatives. |
Observe, note
any deficiencies you may feel exist and convey them to your vessel owner's
representatives. |
|
C |
In accordance
with Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), what is the inspection interval
between hydrostatic tests of an oil-fired, water-tube, auxiliary boiler
on a passenger vessel? |
1 year. |
2 years. |
2.5 years. |
5 years. |
|
B |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations
under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for oceangoing ships of 400 gross
tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means
for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops? |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is EITHER
required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in
a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to
a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved
oily-water separator. |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator,
but it is NOT required to have a high bilge oil content alarm or a means
to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds
15 ppm. |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator,
and it is required to have a high bilge oil content alarm and a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds
15 ppm. |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required
to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility. |
|
A |
In accordance
with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for U.S.
non- oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution
by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops? |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges
or in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility. |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and
it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception
facility. |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water
separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil content bilge alarm
or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm. |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water
separator, AND it is required to have a high oil content bilge alarm and
a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm. |
|
B |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following
electrical repairs is permitted? |
Splice a flexible
cord or cable with twist-on connectors if smaller than 18 AWG. |
Connect a flexible
cord or cable to a fitting with so that tension is not transmitted to joints
or terminal screws. |
Extend the length
of a circuit with twist-on connectors if in an enclosure and wrapped securely
with insulating tape. |
Splice a damaged
conductor with twist-on connectors if the insulated cap is firmly secured
to prevent loosening due to vibration. |
|
D |
In accordance
with 33 CFR-Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type
III Marine Sanitation Device"? |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter. |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids. |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100
milliliters and no visible floating solids. |
A device that
is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage. |
|
C |
Given that valve "14"
is the king solenoid valve, which of the following statements is true? Illustration
RA-0012 |
Valves "28"
and "36" are both freeze box solenoids. |
Valves "28"
and "36" are both chill box solenoids. |
Valve "28"
is the chill box solenoid, and valve "36" is the freeze box solenoid. |
Valve "36"
is the chill box solenoid, and valve "28" is the freeze box solenoid. |
|
B |
For the power
hacksaw shown in the illustration, how should the teeth point for the blade
being installed? Illustration GS-0187 |
pointing away
from the motor end of the machine |
pointing toward
the motor end of the machine |
pointing either
toward or away from the motor end of the machine |
pointing toward
the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using
a 10 or 14 tooth blade |
|
A |
During a vessel
dry-docking survey which of the following items are typically required by
Class to be surveyed? |
Sea chests, tail
shaft weardown readings and rudder assembly. |
Tail shaft weardown
readings and rudder assembly only. |
Rudder assembly
and sea chests only. |
Sea chests and
tail shaft weardown readings only. |
|
A |
According to 46
CFR Subchapter J, what is true concerning the installation of batteries
used for diesel engine starting? |
be located as
close as possible to the engine |
be located in
a locker on the weather deck |
only be of the
nickel alkaline type |
have sufficient
capacity to provide at least 50 starts consecutively without recharging |
|
D |
A two-stage hydraulic
pump unit is used to __________. |
establish two
individual flows to segregated segments of one system |
produce twice
the flow rate than if only one element were to be used |
supply two individual
flows to the same segments of the system if one of the pump elements were
to fail |
develop the same
flow rate across both pump elements with the discharge pressure of the second
pump element being substantially higher than that of the first stage |
|
A |
Clean low-pressure
steam drains are collected in the __________. |
atmospheric drain
tank |
main condenser
hotwell |
contaminated drain
inspection tank |
deaerating feedwater
heater |
|
D |
Following a grounding,
what action should be performed prior to the use of the main engines? |
Shift to a low
sea suction. |
Shift to a high
fuel oil suction. |
Shift to a low
fuel oil suction. |
Shift to a high
sea suction. |
|
B |
In the diagram
illustrated, the direction of flow through item 3 is __________. Illustration
GS-0125 |
dependent on the
pump's discharge pressure |
in one direction
only |
dependent on the
pump's suction pressure |
in either direction |
|
A |
What is a quick
and effective way of determining whether or not a boiler water gauge glass
is operating properly? |
Quickly opening
and then reclosing the gauge glass drain valve. |
Quickly opening
and then reclosing the gauge glass lower root valve. |
Watching for the
level to fluctuate in the glass corresponding to ship movements such as
pitching. |
Quickly opening
and then reclosing the gauge glass upper root valve. |
|
D |
Which of the following
direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and
displaying the difference between the two? |
Compound gauge |
Duplex gauge |
Simplex gauge |
Differential pressure
gauge |
|
A |
What statement
is true concerning the operation of continuous-level liquid level detectors? |
Continuous-level
detectors produce an analog signal proportional to the liquid level in the
tank. |
Continuous-level
detectors produce a digital signal proportional to the liquid level in the
tank. |
Continuous-level
detectors produce a digital signal inversely proportional to the liquid
level in the tank. |
Continuous-level
detectors produce an analog signal inversely proportional to the liquid
level in the tank. |
|
D |
While paralleling
2 AC generators using synchronizing lamps only, when will both lamps go
dark? |
when the generators
are out of synchronism |
when the generators
are running at the same speed |
when the generators
are running at different speeds |
when the synchroscope
is at approximately 0 degrees |
|
C |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), what is the inspection interval
between hydrostatic tests of an oil-fired, water-tube, auxiliary boiler
on a passenger vessel? |
1 year. |
2 years. |
2.5 years. |
5 years. |
|
C |
Which of the following
refrigerants is normally classified as a low-pressure refrigerant based
on a relatively high boiling point? |
HCFC-22 |
HCFC-123 |
HFC-23 |
HFC-134A |
|
C |
During operating
periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity-controlled
compressor, when all of the evaporators of a four-box plant are actively
being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the
hydraulic relay piston shown in the illustration will be at what value?
Illustration RA-0013 |
the lowest |
at its mid-range |
the highest |
of no consequence
as the lube oil is not used in the operation of the unloader |
|
B |
A box solenoid
valve used in a multi-box refrigeration system is controlled by what switching
device? |
evaporator outlet
temperature actuated thermostat |
box temperature
actuated thermostat |
discharge pressure
actuated pressure switch |
suction pressure
actuated pressure switch |
|
D |
Light and other
forms of radiation can act as a means of transporting heat energy from one
body to another. This radiative transport is different from conduction and
convection in that it does not involve __________. |
direct transfer
of temperature gradient |
indirect transfer
due to friction |
indirect transfer
due to inefficiencies |
direct transfer
of molecular motion |
|
A |
A reciprocating
multi-cylinder air conditioning or refrigeration compressor starts cycling
on/off. What would one do to prevent cycling? |
Adjust compressor's
unloader to reduce operating cylinders. |
Adjust cylinder
unloader to increase system operating refrigerant pressure. |
Stop compressor
and wait until the system stabilizes and restart compressor. |
Adjust system
thermostatic control valve(s) to reduce system refrigerant demand. |
|
A |
Referring to the
illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning the jacket water heater? Illustration MO-0212 |
The jacket water
heater is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm. |
The jacket water
heater is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental
heat for the evaporator. |
The jacket water
heater is used only when the engine is idle for the sole purpose of generating
fresh water at the evaporator. |
The jacket water
heater is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine
heat. |
|
B |
There are three
pieces of information that should be included in delivering a message via
a sound-powered telephone. Which of the following represents the proper
sequence of information delivery? |
First: state the
message. Second: give the name of the station being called. Third: give
the name of the calling station. |
First: give the
name of the station being called. Second: give the name of the calling station.
Third: state the message. |
First: give the
name of the calling station. Second: give the name of the station being
called. Third: state the message. |
First: state the
message. Second: give the name of the calling station. Third: give the name
of the station being called. |
|
D |
What type of eye
protection affords the best protection from dust and airborne abrasives? |
Side-shielded
safety glasses |
Full-face shield |
Standard safety
glasses |
Eyecup safety
goggles |
|
D |
When changing
fuses, what safety precaution should be taken after ensuring that the circuit
is dead? |
wear safety glasses |
wear rubber boots |
stand on a rubber
mat |
use a fuse puller |
|
B |
Besides extreme
exertion in a hot environment such as an engine room, what causes heat cramps
which is pain and spasms associated with the abdomen, leg, and arm muscles? |
Taking in excessive
amounts of salt and water in an attempt to rehydrate. |
Failure to replace
salt lost as a result of profuse sweating. |
Failure to replace
water lost as a result of profuse sweating. |
Taking in excessive
amounts of salt in an attempt to restore electrolyte balance. |
|
D |
How is the emergency
bilge suction valve typically used? |
when the main
condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation |
to connect the
rose box to the independent bilge suction |
to inject cleaning
additives when the bilges are extremely dirty |
if the bilges
become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means |
|
B |
When a rescuer
discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment
or wiring, his first step is to __________. |
remove the patient
from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment or wiring |
shutdown electrical
power in the area |
apply ointment
to the burned areas on the patient |
flush water over
any burned area of the patient |
|
C |
How is accidental
flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system prevented? |
by installing
a swing check before each bilge valve |
by using a positive
displacement reciprocating bilge pump |
by stop-check
valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds |
by installing
eductors in all bilge rose boxes |
|
D |
If you hear a
continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented
by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10
seconds, what does this indicate? |
Abandon ship. |
Man overboard. |
Dismissal from
a boat drill. |
Fire and emergency. |
|
A |
If you hear the
general alarm sounded 3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle,
what does this indicate? |
Dismissal from
fire and emergency. |
Fire and emergency. |
Abandon ship. |
Dismissal from
a boat drill. |
|
C |
According to 33
CFR, which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the
storage of sewage and flushwater at ambient air pressure and temperature? |
Type I |
Type II |
Type III |
Type IV |
|
A |
Item 4 shown in
the illustration represents a __________. Illustration GS-0125 |
manifold |
suction line |
bilge system |
vacuum branch
line |
|
B |
Of the choices
provided, which type of pump does the suction force principle primarily
apply to? |
centrifugal pumps |
reciprocating
pumps |
propeller pumps |
jet pumps |
|
B |
Spring reinforced
oil seals for retention of lubricant, are installed with the lip of the
seal facing __________. Illustration GS-0152 |
away from the
bearing housing recess |
toward the oil
pressure being sealed |
away from the
oil pressure being sealed |
toward the bearing
preload washer |
|
C |
The designation
'schedule 80' refers to __________. |
weight of steel
plate |
tubing bursting
strength |
piping wall thickness |
tensile strength
of bolts |
|
D |
When renewing
spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, the packing gland nuts
should be __________. |
left in that position |
loosened until
the gland clears the stuffing box |
tightened an additional
10% to compress the packing |
first tightened,
and then backed off, start pump, and while running under normal conditions;
tighten evenly and slightly, over time |
|
B |
When securing
a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open
until the cylinder is drained? |
Steam exhaust
valve |
Steam cylinder
drain valve |
Steam supply valve |
Water cylinder
drain valve |
|
C |
What is the color-coding
for a storage container of R-134a refrigerant? |
grey |
green |
light blue |
purple |
|
B |
What is the whistle
signal for stop lowering boats? |
1 short blast
of the whistle. |
2 short blasts
of the whistle. |
3 short blasts
of the whistle. |
Continuous blast
of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds. |
|
B |
Which health hazard
term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to indicate that contact with
the substance will freeze body tissue on contact? |
Cyanosis |
Cryogenic |
Freeze hazard |
Freon hazard |
|
B |
Which of the following
thermometers provides a remote display of temperature on a rotary dial scale
and works on the principle of thermal expansion? |
Bimetallic thermometer |
Bourdon tube thermometer |
Liquid-in-glass
thermometer |
Thermocouple pyrometer |
|
C |
With regard to
the relative flow patterns through the tubes and the shell of single pass
shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what statement is true? |
In a parallel-flow
heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell
are in opposite directions. |
In a cross-flow
heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell
are in opposite directions. |
In a counterflow
heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell
are in opposite directions. |
In a counterflow
heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell
are in the same direction. |
|
D |
What is the drive
arrangement of refrigeration compressor shown in figure "B" of
the illustration? Illustration RA-0041 |
serviceable, bolted,
accessible semi-hermetic |
open |
external-drive |
welded, fully
hermetic |
|
D |
When testing the
low pressure cut out switch, assuming the compressor is running, what should
be done to initiate the test? |
stop the circulating
pump |
stop the compressor |
secure the condenser |
close the compressor
suction valve |
|
B |
A "hygroscopic"
lubricant used in refrigeration compressors would have what characteristic? |
losing its lubrication
qualities at higher temperatures |
having a high
affinity for moisture which requires it to be kept in a sealed container |
decreasing in
viscosity at low temperatures |
being highly toxic |
|
D |
As shown in the
illustration, what is the diaphragm orifice labeled "H" used for?
Illustration GS-0155 |
injector |
pressure reducer |
check valve |
time delay |
|
C |
Hydraulic cranes
must be properly warmed-up before being operated because __________. |
warm-up allows
the hydraulic system to become charged with oil |
hydraulic strainers
operate only during the warm-up period |
warm-up allows
the hydraulic fluid to reach proper viscosity |
warm-up allows
the relief valves to be properly tested |
|
C |
Some "hot
gas" defrost systems reheat the refrigerant just prior to its returning
to the compressor for what purpose? |
to prevent chill
shocking the compressor suction valves |
to increase the
circulation of liquid refrigerant |
to prevent the
damaging effects of liquid slugging |
to improve the
efficiency of the expansion valve |
|
D |
The illustrated
valve, figure "A", needs to be repaired due to a leak across the
valve disk. To disassemble the valve you should __________. Illustration
GS-0140 |
first fully loosen
part 8, then turn the handwheel counter-clockwise to separate the bonnet
from the body |
tighten part 4 |
turn the handwheel
clockwise as viewed from the top, using a pipe wrench for assistance |
first fully loosen
part 8, then turn the handwheel clockwise to separate the bonnet from the
body |
|
C |
To find the relative
humidity of an accommodation space, you would use a __________. |
Enthalpy Chart |
Entropy Chart |
Psychrometric
Chart |
Mollier Chart |
|
A |
What device on
the bridge shows the rudder's position? |
rudder angle indicator |
follow-up gear |
telemotor position |
Rapson slide indicator |
|
C |
What differentiates "system-dependent"
and "self-contained" recovery devices in refrigeration systems? |
self-contained
recovery devices can only be used on large CFC and HCFC units |
the system compressor
must be working to use system-dependent devices, the system compressor may
or may not be operational when self-contained devices are used |
self-contained
recovery devices usually contain a compressor, system-dependent recovery
devices do not |
there is no difference
between the devices |
|
C |
When checking
the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, under what conditions would
the most accurate reading be obtained? |
immediately after
start-up |
after being shut
down for 3 hours with the crankcase heater secured |
several minutes
after shutdown following a prolonged period of operation |
immediately after
adding oil |
|
B |
When drilling
a hole in a piece of work chucked in a lathe, you should mount the drill
chuck in the __________. |
compound rest |
tailstock |
headstock |
cross feed |
|
C |
When internal
threading for bolts, where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through,
you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________. |
finishing tap |
plug tap |
taper tap |
bottoming tap |
|
A |
When the compressed
air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor and is used as an
aftercooler, what must be done with the reservoir? |
It must be frequently
drained of condensed water. |
It must be fitted
with a sight glass. |
It must be fitted
with a moisture trap at the inlet. |
It must be fitted
with a manhole. |
|
C |
Which of the drill
sets listed would commonly be referred to as a "Jobbers Set"? |
A set of numbered
size drills from 1 to 60. |
A set of lettered
size drills from A to Z. |
A set of fractional
size drills from 1/16" to 1/2" |
A set of fractional
size drills from 1/2" to 2" |
|
B |
Which of the following
could be the cause of leaking valves in an air compressor? |
irregular compression
strokes |
abrasion, dust,
and dirt |
excessive discharge
pressure |
excessive compressor
speed |
|
C |
Which of the listed
devices would be installed in the air compressor discharge line between
the compressor and receiver of a control air system? |
Vacuum breaker |
Lubricator |
Moisture separator |
P-I converter |
|
A |
Your ship has
run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment
has flooded. Therefore, you should __________. |
tap the bulkhead
with a hammer to check for a water level |
open the watertight
door and take a quick look |
open the hatch
dogs on the side away from the hinges |
feel the bulkhead
to see if it is hot |
|
A |
Which of the following
compressors would be used for a dead ship start-up of a ship's service diesel
generator on a motor ship? |
Emergency air
compressor |
Topping air compressor |
Ship's service
air compressor |
Starting air compressor |
|
D |
What statement
represents the policy that should be implemented in terms of watch officers
entering notes while maintaining the engine room logbook? |
Notes should be
entered for routine occurrences and the actual time of occurrence should
be noted. |
Notes should be
entered for routine occurrences and the general time frame of occurrence
should be noted (within 4 hours). |
Notes should be
entered for non-routine occurrences and the general time frame of occurrence
should be noted (within 4 hours). |
Notes should be
entered for non-routine occurrences and the actual time of occurrence should
be noted. |
|
A |
You are on a ship
with a large slow speed main engine that operates an Unattended Machinery
Space. When entering the main machinery space to conduct maintenance or
a machinery space round, what should be done? |
The navigational
watch officer should be telephoned at agreed to intervals. |
The master should
be telephoned at agreed to intervals. |
The chief engineer
should be telephoned at agreed to intervals. |
The first assistant
engineer should be telephoned at agreed to intervals. |
|
B |
When responding
to a "right rudder" command from the amidships position, which
part/parts of the steering cylinders illustrated will be subjected to the
highest hydraulic pressure? Illustration GS-0137 |
"C"
and "I" |
"F"
and "L" |
"F"
only |
"C"
only |
|
B |
You are briefing
the electrician on the specifics of a job you are expecting the electrician
to perform. What technique should you use to make sure the electrician understands
what is expected? |
Ask the electrician, "Do
you have any questions?" |
Tell the electrician, "Just
to make sure you understand, repeat the instructions back to me." |
Tell the electrician, "OK.
Now you are ready to proceed." |
Ask the electrician, "Is
there anything I left out that needs to be clarified?" |
|
A |
An important component
of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. What type
of drawings are generally furnished in the fire control plan? |
Top plan views
(for each deck) |
Side elevation
views (from port and starboard) |
Perspective view
(overall) |
End elevation
views (from bow and stern) |
|
C |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), which of the following pressure
vessels listed on the ship's Certificate of Inspection (COI) would be required
to be inspected every 5 years, assuming that the ship is inspected annually? |
Tubular heat exchanger. |
Hydraulic accumulator. |
Starting air tank. |
Refrigeration
system receiver tank. |
|
A |
Suppose the illustrated
pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve is used to control
the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater
by controlling the steam flow. What would be the result if the control diaphragm
became ruptured? Illustration GS-0051 |
The valve would
fail in the fully open position, most likely resulting in a high fuel oil
temperature alarm condition. |
The valve would
fail in the exact position just before the control diaphragm ruptured. The
fuel temperature will fluctuate with changes in fuel demand. |
The valve would
fail in the fully closed position, most likely resulting in a low fuel oil
temperature alarm condition. |
It is not possible
to predict how the valve would respond to a ruptured diaphragm. |
|
B |
Under the federal
regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), if a vessel equipped with
a Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge
of untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing
the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is UNACCEPTABLE? |
Closing each valve
leading to an overboard discharge and removing the handle. |
Closing and tagging
each valve leading to an overboard discharge. |
Padlocking each
valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed position. |
Using a non-releasable
wire-tire to hold each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed
position. |
|
A |
In the illustrated
schematic, which component is the device that was used to replace the six-way
valve, as found on many older type steering gears? Illustration GS-0123 |
"A" |
"B" |
"F" |
"H" |
|
D |
With regards to
a reverse osmosis unit, what is the BEST indication that the membrane module
is damaged and is no longer semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass
through? |
Low fresh water
outlet salinity. |
Higher than normal
brine overboard back pressure. |
Lower than normal
fresh water production. |
High fresh water
outlet salinity. |
|
A |
While securing
the air conditioning compressor you close the suction valve and the compressor
stops after a short period of time. Subsequent attempts to start it produce
no result. What control component would you suspect is preventing the compressor
from starting? |
The low-pressure
cutout switch. |
The high-pressure
cutout switch. |
The lube oil differential
pressure switch. |
The water regulating
valve. |
|
C |
Which of the drill
sizes listed represents the largest size drill? |
A |
X |
Z |
XX |
|
D |
If outside air
at 80 degrees F and 70 percent relative humidity is conditioned, what will
be the resulting dew point temperature of the air just before it comes into
contact with the cooling coil? Illustration GS-RA-22 |
67 degrees F |
73 degrees F |
64 degrees F |
70 degrees F |
|
C |
In a two stage
centrifugal air conditioning system, the liquid refrigerant passes through
the condenser directly to what component? |
chiller |
expansion valve |
economizer |
evaporator |
|
A |
What is one benefit
of maintenance of proper air circulation in an air conditioned cargo space? |
reduced slime
and mold |
increased moisture
content |
increased density
of the air |
more temperature
differential |
|
A |
In general, the
thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning
system is usually charged with what substance? |
the same refrigerant
as the system |
bees wax |
distilled water |
mercuric sulfate |
|
B |
Which of the processes
listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity
of the air being circulated by an air conditioning system? |
Cooling the air
to a temperature just above dew point. |
Cooling the air
to a point below dew point, and then reheating it. |
Heating the air
to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it. |
Heating the air
and then cooling it to a point below dew point. |
|
A |
To add small amounts
of refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the refrigerant
should be introduced through a particular valve and in a particular state.
What valve and state combination is correct? |
suction service
valve as a vapor |
discharge service
valve as a vapor |
discharge service
valve as a liquid |
suction service
valve as a liquid |
|
A |
When pumping down
an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cut-out switch, assuming
that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test? |
close the "king"
valve |
stop the circulating
pump |
secure the condenser |
stop the compressor |
|
B |
The compressor
used in a water-cooled air conditioning system is short cycling. A service
check determines that the suction pressure remains above the normal cut-in
point during cycling and that the discharge pressure rapidly builds up to
the cut-out point while running and gradually falls to the cut-in point
during the off cycle. What is likely the cause? |
back seated discharge
service valve |
reduction in condenser
water flow (scaled condenser) |
front seated liquid
line service valve |
loosely fitted
compressor drive belt |
|
D |
Concerning the
arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration,
what statement is true? Illustration GS-RA-58 |
When recovering
refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it is possible
to achieve the recovery levels required by law without any further recovery. |
When recovering
refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, the vent hose
connection should be closed. |
When recovering
refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it is permissible
to exceed 90% of the weight capacity of the refrigerant drum. |
When recovering
refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it minimizes
the risk of chiller tube freeze-up. |
|
D |
The surging that
occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of what
conditions? |
low pressure in
the condenser at low load |
low pressure in
the condenser at high load |
low pressure in
the evaporator at high load |
low pressure in
the evaporator at low load |
|
A |
In an air conditioning
system, low discharge head pressure associated with a reciprocating compressor
can be the result of what condition? |
leaky suction
valves |
air in the evaporator
coils |
air in the condenser |
insufficient cooling
water to the condenser |
|
B |
The air temperature
associated with a direct reciprocating air conditioning plant is found to
be too warm, and the compressor is not operating. A service check determines
the compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in point, with
a normal head pressure, and high evaporator superheat. Which of the following
could be the cause of this problem? |
Cooling water
flow to the condenser is excessive. |
The low pressure
control contacts are stuck open. |
A liquid line
solenoid valve has failed closed. |
A liquid line
solenoid valve is stuck open. |
|
D |
Sludge may form
in the crankcase of an air conditioning compressor as a result of what condition? |
lowered compressor
operating temperatures |
excessive foaming
of the oil in the crankcase |
reducing the cloud
or floc point of the oil |
overheating and
carbonization of the oil in the crankcase |
|
A |
As shown in the
illustrated LP centrifugal chiller high efficiency purge recovery unit piping
schematic, what statement is true concerning the vacuum pump? Illustration
GS-RA-55 |
The vacuum pump
is designed to remove refrigerant vapor from the carbon filter tank and
transfer these vapors to the evaporator to minimize the loss of refrigerant
to the atmosphere. |
The vacuum pump
is designed to remove air and non-condensable gases from the evaporator
and transfer these gases to the carbon filter tank for eventual venting
to the atmosphere. |
The vacuum pump
is designed to remove refrigerant vapor from the carbon filter tank and
transfer these vapors to the purge chamber to blow the float valve clear. |
The vacuum pump
is designed to perform a dehydration evacuation on the system prior to charging
with refrigerant. |
|
C |
Which of the following
filled thermal systems used as a temperature transmitting/receiving system
usually is associated with a display with a non-uniform scale? |
Mercury-filled
systems |
Liquid-filled
systems |
Vapor-pressure
systems |
Gas-filled systems |
|
B |
Suppose that a
standard remote reading bourdon tube thermometer has a scale of 40 to 240°F.
If the accuracy of the thermometer is plus or minus 1% of the span, what
would the range of measured temperature be if the thermometer indicates
180°F? |
177.6 to 182.4⁰F |
178 to 182⁰F |
178.2 to 181.8⁰F |
179 to 181⁰F |
|
B |
In what electrical
temperature transmitting system is the system voltage generated by the magnitude
of temperature difference between hot and cold junctions? |
Bimetallic sensor |
Thermocouple |
Thermistor |
Resistance temperature
detector |
|
A |
If it is desired
to determine the average temperature across a large duct, what thermocouple
wiring technique can be used to generate an emf proportional to the average
temperature? |
Multiple thermocouples
can be used if they are wired in parallel, where the sum of the individual
voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples. |
Multiple thermocouples
can be used if they are wired series-opposing, where the sum of the individual
voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples. |
Multiple thermocouples
can be used if they are wired series-aiding, where the sum of the individual
voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples. |
Only one thermocouple
can be used, and the hot junction must be strategically located to get an
effective average temperature. |
|
A |
If it is desired
to determine the temperature difference between two locations using thermocouples,
what wiring technique can be used to accomplish this? |
The two thermocouples
would be wired in series-opposing to measure the difference between the
two temperatures. |
The two thermocouples
would be wired in parallel to measure the differences between the two temperatures. |
The two thermocouples
would be wired in series-aiding to measure the difference between the two
temperatures. |
It is not possible
to measure a temperature difference using two thermocouples. |
|
C |
Which of the listed
temperature sensors consists of finely coiled wire, such as platinum, where
the resistance varies directly with temperature? |
Thermistor |
Bimetallic device |
Resistance temperature
detector |
Thermocouple |
|
D |
Which of the listed
temperature sensors is made of heat-treated metallic oxides and generally
has a negative coefficient of resistance? |
Bimetallic device |
Resistance temperature
detector |
Thermocouple |
Thermistor |
|
D |
What is the application
for a temperature measuring device known as a pyrometer? |
Moderate to high
temperature applications such as engine cooling and lubrication. |
Extremely low
temperature applications such as cryogenics. |
Low to moderate
temperature applications such as refrigeration and air conditioning. |
Extremely high
temperature applications such as boiler or engine exhaust temperatures. |
|
D |
A radiation pyrometer
is sensitive to what form of radiation? |
Infraviolet radiation |
Ultrared radiation |
Ultraviolet radiation |
Infrared radiation |
|
B |
For a pneumatic
transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic temperature
indicator has a calibrated scale of -40 to +40 ⁰F, what would be the
actual measured temperature if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure
to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig
is used for instrument air? |
-10⁰F |
0⁰F |
+10⁰F |
+25⁰F |
|
A |
Which of the following
direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for measuring
pressures very close to atmospheric pressure such as boiler furnace draft
pressure? |
Diaphragm type
pressure gauge |
Bellows type pressure
gauge |
Spiral or helical
type pressure gauge |
Bourdon tube pressure
gauge |
|
B |
Which of the following
direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for measuring
most pressures, typically above 10 psig and is by far the most common type? |
Diaphragm type
pressure gauge |
Bourdon tube pressure
gauge |
Spiral or helical
type pressure gauge |
Bellows type pressure
gauge |
|
C |
Suppose that a
standard bourdon tube pressure gauge has a scale of 0 to 1000 psig. If the
accuracy of the gauge is plus or minus .5% of the span, what would the range
of measured pressure be if the gauge indicates 690 psig? |
640 to 740 psig |
680 to 700 psig |
685 to 695 psig |
686.55 to 693.45
psig |
|
D |
What is used to
protect a direct sensing steam pressure gauge from damage from contact with
steam? |
The installation
of a damping needle valve in the entrance to the gauge. |
The installation
of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented horizontally in the entrance to the
gauge. |
The installation
of thermal insulation on the gauge. |
The installation
of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented vertically in the entrance to the gauge. |
|
B |
For a pneumatic
transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic pressure
indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 psig, what would be the actual
measured pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator
is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument
air? |
300 psig |
500 psig |
600 psig |
750 psig |
|
C |
For an analog
electronic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if an analog
pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 30 psig, what would be
the actual measured pressure if the transmitted analog signal current to
the indicator is 12 mA, assuming the industry standard of 4 to 20 mA is
used for instrument current? |
8 psig |
12 psig |
15 psig |
24 psig |
|
B |
For a pneumatic
transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic pressure
indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 5000 psig, what would be the actual
measured pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator
is 6 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument
air? |
1000 psig |
1250 psig |
1500 psig |
1800 psig |
|
C |
Which of the following
pressure sensing mechanisms in a linear-scaled pneumatic indicator is generally
used to sense pneumatic pressure as received from a pneumatic pressure transmitter? |
Diaphragm |
Bourdon tube |
Bellows |
Spiral or helical
coil |
|
D |
In which of the
following applications would a mechanical pressure seal be used with a pressure
measuring instrument? |
Isolation of high-temperature
products from the measuring element. |
Isolation of high-pressure
products from the measuring element. |
Isolation of non-viscous
products from the measuring element. |
Isolation of corrosive
products from the measuring element. |
|
C |
Which of the following
direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for measuring
extremely high pressures up to 80,000 psig? |
Bellows type pressure
gauge |
Diaphragm type
pressure gauge |
Helical type pressure
gauge |
Bourdon tube pressure
gauge |
|
A |
What statement
is true concerning the operating principle of a liquid level sensing and
transmitting system of the capacitance type? |
The capacitance
method is generally used with non-conductive liquids and works on the principle
of the substantial difference between the dielectric constant of air and
that of the liquid in the tank. |
The capacitance
method is generally used with conductive liquids and works on the principle
of the substantial difference between the dielectric constant of air and
that of the liquid in the tank. |
The capacitance
method is generally used with conductive liquids and works on the principle
of the substantial difference between the specific gravity of air and that
of the liquid in the tank. |
The capacitance
method is generally used with non-conductive liquids and works on the principle
of the substantial difference between the specific gravity of air and that
of the liquid in the tank. |
|
B |
For an analog
electronic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if an electronic
level indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1800 mm, what would be the
actual measured liquid level of the tank if the transmitted signal current
is 12 mA, assuming the industry standard of 4 to 20 mA is used for instrument
current? |
800 mm |
900 mm |
1000 mm |
1080 mm |
|
D |
What type of liquid
level indicator which senses head or pressure requires a supply of compressed
air? |
Differential pressure
transmitter |
Float type |
Diaphragm box |
Bubble tube system |
|
C |
Which of the following
level indicating system sensor types is ideally suited for discrete-level
detection as opposed to continuous-level detection? |
Capacitance probes |
Float operated
potentiometer |
Float actuated
limit switches |
Differential pressure
transmitter |
|
C |
What type of flow
measuring device would measure totalized flow volume as opposed to an instantaneous
flow rate? |
Variable area
type, such as a rotameter |
Constriction type,
differential head such as a venturi tube |
Positive displacement
meter, such as nutating disk |
Velocity flowmeter
such as a turbine type |
|
D |
With a constriction
type, differential head flow meter, which of the following would be an example
of a primary device? |
Pneumatic or electronic
transmitter |
Diaphragm or bellows
meter |
Mercury manometer |
Orifice plate
or venturi tube |
|
C |
Which of the following
flow meter primary devices works on the constriction type, differential
head principle? |
Turbine |
Vortex |
Venturi tube |
Magnetic |
|
D |
What is the operating
principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter? |
The float or rotor
is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow. |
The float or rotor
is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow. |
The float or rotor
is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow. |
The float or rotor
is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow. |
|
B |
For a pneumatic
transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic instantaneous
flow indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 gpm, what would be the
actual measured instantaneous flow rate if the transmitted pneumatic signal
pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3
to 15 psig is used for instrument air? |
375 gpm |
500 gpm |
625 gpm |
750 gpm |
|
B |
Which of the following
speed tachometers produces an analog signal proportional to the shaft speed? |
Toothed-rotor
Hall-effect tachometer |
Direct current
tachometer |
Optical tachometer |
Toothed-rotor
variable-reluctance tachometer |
|
C |
Suppose the photo
detector of an optical tachometer detects a time interval of 0.05 seconds
between the leading edges of the pulses created by the reflective stripe
during shaft rotation. What is the rpm of the shaft? |
900 rpm |
1000 rpm |
1200 rpm |
1800 rpm |
|
D |
What statement
is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity
sensor as used for sensing the viscosity of heavy fuel oil? |
The viscosity
sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is inversely
proportional to the oil
viscosity. |
The viscosity
sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is proportional
to the oil viscosity. |
The viscosity
sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is inversely
proportional to the oil
viscosity. |
The viscosity
sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary
tube which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is proportional
to the oil viscosity. |
|
A |
What statement
is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity transmitter
as used for indicating the viscosity of heavy fuel oil? |
The viscosity
transmitter is a differential pressure transmitter receiving both capillary
tube inlet and outlet pressures from the viscosity sensor and delivering
a single viscosity signal to the viscosity indicator. |
The viscosity
transmitter is a differential temperature transmitter receiving both capillary
tube inlet and outlet temperatures from the viscosity sensor and delivering
a single viscosity signal to the viscosity indicator. |
The viscosity
transmitter is a single temperature transmitter receiving capillary tube
inlet temperature from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single viscosity
signal to the viscosity indicator. |
The viscosity
transmitter is a single pressure transmitter receiving capillary tube inlet
pressure from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single viscosity signal
to the viscosity indicator. |
|
A |
What is the operating
principle upon which a salinometer is based? |
Conductance of
water |
Specific gravity
of water |
Optical transparency
of water |
Capacitance of
water |
|
D |
What statement
is true concerning the operation of a distilling plant or boiler feed water
salinometer?
|
The greater the
salt content of water, the greater the conductivity of the water, and temperature
correction is unnecessary because conductivity does not change with changes
in temperature. |
The greater the
salt content of water, the lower the conductivity of the water, and temperature
correction is necessary because conductivity decreases with a rise in temperature. |
The greater the
salt content of water, the lower the conductivity of the water, and temperature
correction is necessary because conductivity increases with a rise in temperature. |
The greater the
salt content of water, the greater the conductivity of the water, and temperature
correction is necessary because conductivity increases with a rise in temperature. |
|
B |
If an oil-in-water
content monitor uses a lamp emitting light in the visible spectra in conjunction
with a reference photo-cell and a sampling photocell, what is the operating
principle upon which this oil-in-water content monitor works? |
The monitor works
on the fluorescence principle where the greater the oil content, the less
the amount of ultra-violet light detected by the sampling photo-electric
cell as compared to the reference photo-electric cell. |
The monitor works
on the absorption/scattering principle where the greater the oil content,
the less the amount of visible light detected by the sampling photo-electric
cell as compared to the reference photo-electric cell. |
The monitor works
on the fluorescence principle where the greater the oil content, the greater
the amount of ultra-violet light detected by the sampling photo-electric
cell as compared to the reference photo-electric cell. |
The monitor works
on the absorption/scattering principle where the greater the oil content,
the greater the amount of visible light detected by the sampling photo-electric
cell as compared to the reference photo-electric cell. |
|
B |
For a pneumatic
transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what is a
common industry standard for pneumatic signal pressure range? |
0 to 100 psig |
3 to 15 psig |
0 to 10 psig |
3 to 150 psig |
|
C |
For an analog
electronic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes,
what is a common industry standard for electronic signal current range? |
4 to 20 A |
1 to 10 A |
4 to 20mA |
0 to 10 mA |
|
D |
Vibration characteristics
to establish a baseline signature or to check the mechanical condition of
machinery are measured under which of the following operative conditions? |
Low torque |
High torque |
Abnormal |
Normal |
|
C |
Which of the following
statements is NOT a function of an effective vibration analysis program? |
To verify that
proper repairs have been accomplished. |
To check machinery
condition. |
To verify equipment
alignment. |
To troubleshoot
suspected problems. |
|
B |
A reading taken
with a portable hand-held vibration meter is capable of indicating which
of the following conditions? |
The unit being
tested has bad bearings. |
The unit being
tested is operating normally. |
The unit being
tested has a bad stator. |
The unit being
tested has a bad rotor. |
|
C |
Which of the following
technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation device? |
Biological treatment
plant |
Chemical treatment
plant |
Sewage holding
tank |
Direct overboard
sewage discharge |
|
A |
Which of the following
sewage handling technologies would be associated with maintaining a culture
of aerobic bacteria? |
Biological sewage
plant |
Sewage holding
tank |
Direct overboard
sewage discharge |
Chemical treatment
plant |
|
C |
By what means
is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge
overboard? |
Disinfection
is not required on biological sewage treatment plants. |
Ultraviolet light
irradiation is the only approved means of disinfection. |
Hypochlorite tablets
or liquid solution and ultraviolet irradiation are both approved means of
disinfection. |
Hypochlorite tablets
or liquid solution is the only approved means of disinfection. |
|
C |
If a biological
sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential
order of treatment chambers within the plant? |
Sedimentation,
disinfection, aeration |
Disinfection,
aeration, sedimentation |
Aeration, sedimentation,
disinfection |
Sedimentation,
aeration, disinfection |
|
B |
Auxiliary boilers
are divided into several classifications, one of which is __________. |
water-tube supercritical
circulation |
water-tube forced
circulation |
fire-tube controlled
circulation |
fire-tube express
circulation |
|
C |
The primary function
of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary
boiler, is to prevent __________. |
accidental dry
firing and overpressure |
uncontrolled fires
in the furnace |
explosions in
the boiler furnace |
overheating of
the pressure parts |
|
A |
A photoelectric
cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management
system __________. |
opens the burner
circuit upon sensing a flame failure |
detects a flame
failure by monitoring radiant heat from glowing refractory |
requires mechanical
linkage to secure the burner fuel supply |
must be bypassed
at low firing rates |
|
A |
In a coil-type
forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler,__________. |
steam demand response
is comparatively rapid |
steam is recirculated
through heating coils in the boiler |
unevaporated feed
water is discharged through the skim tube |
steam demand response
is slow |
|
D |
Bottom blow valves
are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to __________. |
completely drain
the boiler in an emergency |
prevent sludge
from forming in the steam drum |
remove floating
impurities from the boiler water surface |
remove settled
solids from the water drum |
|
A |
The purpose of
try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________. |
provide an alternate
means of determining the water level, if the gage glass fails |
provide a means
of adding chemical feed to the boiler water |
provide a means
for blowing down the gage glass |
act as a steam
sentinel valve, if any of the fusible plugs should melt |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct? |
Combustion gases
flow through the tubes. |
Flames impinge
on the tubes. |
Combustion occurs
in the tubes. |
Water flows through
the tubes. |
|
B |
The boiler shown
in the illustration would be classed as __________. Illustration MO-0064 |
forced circulation,
coil-type |
single-pass, fire-tube,
scotch marine |
two-pass, scotch
marine |
two-pass, water-tube |
|
B |
The tube sheets
installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by __________. |
girder stays |
fire-tubes and
stay-tubes |
external boiler
plating |
separate crown
sheets |
|
B |
Fusible plugs
are installed in fire-tube boilers to __________. |
provide a means
of draining the boiler |
warn the engineer
of low water level |
cool the crown
sheet at high firing rates |
open the burners'
electrical firing circuits |
|
D |
Constant capacity,
pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming
loads on an auxiliary boiler, are __________. |
automatically
supplied with warmer air on demand |
automatically
supplied with more fuel on demand |
equipped with
standard variable capacity atomizers |
cycled on and
off in response to steam demand |
|
D |
The control of
exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How
this temperature is normally controlled? |
The exhaust temperature
is controlled by regulating by the admission of combustion air into the
combustion chamber. |
The exhaust temperature
is controlled by regulating the admission of auxiliary fuel to the burner. |
The exhaust temperature
is controlled by regulating the exhaust gas flow. |
The exhaust temperature
is controlled by regulating the admission of relatively cool ambient air
into the exhaust stream. |
|
C |
How is solid trash
and garbage generally admitted to a solid-waste incinerator on most ships? |
The trash is admitted
via a ram feed system. |
The trash is admitted
via screw feed system. |
The trash is admitted
manually via a loading door. |
The trash is admitted
via a chute. |
|
B |
In burning oily-waste
sludge in a solid-waste/sludge incinerator, what statement is true? |
Cooling of the
sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is
required if the water content of the sludge is too low to support combustion
on sludge alone. |
Heating of the
sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is
required if the water content of the sludge is too high to support combustion
on sludge alone. |
Cooling of the
sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is
required if the water content of the sludge is too high to support combustion
on sludge alone. |
Heating of the
sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is
required if the water content of the sludge is too low to support combustion
on sludge alone. |
|
D |
Besides promoting
mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is
the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment
plant? |
The air provides
an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps promote settling in the aeration chamber. |
The air provides
an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and
it helps promote settling in the aeration chamber. |
The air provides
an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and
it helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber. |
The air provides
an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber. |
|
C |
The usual method
of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start-up is accomplished by
__________. |
temporarily discharging
to the air receiver |
the use of a precharged
accumulator |
holding the suction
valve open |
holding the discharge
valve open |
|
D |
Back injuries
are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What
is the proper technique for lifting an object? |
Bend over and
grasp the object firmly. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object
by straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep
object away from the body. |
Bend the knees
and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the back straight, lift the
object by straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and
keep object away from the body. |
Bend over and
grasp the object loosely. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object
by straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep
object close to the body. |
Bend the knees
and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the back straight, lift the object
by straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep
object close to the body. |
|
C |
What statement
is true concerning portable power tools? |
A power tool fitted
with a three conductor cable and three-prong plug may be safely used with
an ungrounded outlet as long as a three prong receptacle to two prong plug
adapter is used. |
Power tools other
than those as approved as double-insulated require the use of two conductor
cables, two-prong plugs, and ungrounded receptacles. |
Unless the power
tool is an approved double-insulated type, an ungrounded power tool has
the potential to cause a fatal accident due to electrical shock. |
Double-insulated
power tools require the use of three conductor cables, three-prong plugs,
and grounded receptacles. |
|
B |
What is the best
protection against hand injuries from pinch points associated with being
required to perform maintenance or repairs on rotating machinery? |
Donning the appropriate
head protection such as a hard hat. |
Properly locking
out and tagging out the machine before work begins. |
Donning the appropriate
hand protection such as work gloves. |
Donning the appropriate
foot protection such as steel-toed safety shoes. |
|
D |
Steel-toed safety
shoes are recommended for many types of work. What type of work activity
would be an exception to the rule and where steel-toed shoes would NOT be
recommended? |
Welding fabrications
work |
Rigging and hoisting
work |
Machine shop work |
Electrical maintenance
work |
|
D |
What type of eye
protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne
impact hazards? |
Full-face shield |
Side-shielded
safety glasses |
Eyecup or cover-type
safety goggles |
Full-face shield
and safety goggles |
|
D |
What type of respiratory
protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory
hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but
has time constraints associated with its use? |
Emergency escape
breathing apparatus |
Powered air-purifying
respirator |
Reusable full-mask
respirator |
Self-contained
breathing apparatus |
|
C |
What statement
is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to manipulate
threaded fasteners? |
When extra leverage
is needed for wrenches and drive tools, the use of a cheater bar is recommended. |
Push wrenches
and drive tool handles rather than pull them for greater control and balance
and to avoid injury. |
Six point sockets
are less prone to slippage than twelve point sockets. |
For initial breaking
loose and final tightening of fasteners, the use of open end wrenches isrecommended.recommended. |
|
B |
When installing
DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation
for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags? |
Orange |
Red |
Yellow |
Green |
|
D |
Under what circumstances
could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags? |
Whenever you feel
that it is safe to do so. |
Whenever permission
is granted by your supervisor. |
Whenever there
is a break in the actual maintenance activity. |
Under NO circumstances
should the equipment be operated when tagged. |
|
B |
When installing
CAUTION tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation
for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags? |
Red |
Yellow |
Orange |
Green |
|
A |
Under what conditions
is a DANGER tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for
performing maintenance or repairs? |
When operation
of the equipment will endanger personnel OR harm the equipment. |
When operation
of the equipment requires unusual caution to be exercised. |
When operation
of the equipment will harm the equipment ONLY. |
When operation
of the equipment will endanger personnel ONLY. |
|
D |
Under what conditions
is a CAUTION tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation
for performing maintenance or repairs? |
When operation
of the equipment will harm the equipment ONLY. |
When operation
of the equipment will endanger personnel ONLY. |
When operation
of the equipment will endanger personnel OR harm the equipment. |
When operation
of the equipment requires temporary special instructions to be provided. |
|
C |
Under what circumstances
could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags? |
Whenever there
is a break in the actual maintenance activity. |
Whenever you feel
that it is safe to do so. |
Only when the
tags have been removed by an authorized person. |
Whenever permission
is granted by your supervisor. |
|
C |
The size of ball
and roller bearings can be identified by the __________. |
rolling member
size |
inner race cone
width |
manufacturer's
numerical code |
outer ring width |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller
bearings? |
They have a relatively
high power loss due to friction. |
They are not capable
of maintaining alignment over long periods of time. |
Their lubrication
is complicated and requires constant attention. |
They are well
adapted to variable speed operation. |
|
C |
Which of the listed
types of bearings is an example of a half bearing? |
Thrust bearing |
Piston pin bushing |
Spring bearing |
All of the above. |
|
D |
An example of
an anti-friction bearing is a __________. |
line shaft or
spring bearing |
Kingsbury thrust
bearing |
rubber cutlass
strut bearing |
ball bearing |
|
A |
Which bearing
will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other? |
Ball |
Roller |
Tapered roller |
Needle |
|
C |
Why do roller
bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings? |
They have a greater
tolerance for high speed applications. |
They are subject
to less pitting and metal fatigue. |
They have a greater
contact area. |
They are installed
with tighter clearances. |
|
D |
Machinery with
ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug
temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain
out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to
ensure that __________. |
all air pockets
are vented from the grease |
dirt and grit
are flushed from the bearing housing |
the grease is
properly distributed within the bearing |
a path of expansion
is provided for the grease |
|
C |
When replacing
ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________. |
apply even pressure
to the outer race |
apply pressure
evenly to both the inner and outer races |
apply even force
to the inner race |
tap the outer
race with a mallet |
|
A |
In a compression
type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________. |
spring force |
a pressure gun |
a zerk fitting |
gravity flow |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps? |
The inner race
should be free to turn on the shaft. |
The outer race
should be free to turn in its housing. |
Alignment is not
a critical factor in their installation. |
They are usually
pressed onto their shafts. |
|
D |
Which of the listed
tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft? |
An acetylene torch
and hammer |
A tapered 'come-a-long' |
A steel drift
pin and hammer |
An arbor press |
|
D |
To ensure adequate
lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended
amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately
__________. |
75-95% of the
original void space in the bearing |
10-25% of the
original void space in the bearing |
50-75% of the
original void space in the bearing |
25-50% of the
original void space in the bearing |
|
B |
Packing extremely
soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________. |
excessive channeling
of the grease |
high temperatures
to develop as result of churning |
emulsification
of the thickener additive |
gelling of the
base oil |
|
C |
A ball bearing
will overheat if __________. |
filled with grease
to 65% of the total open spaces within the bearing |
operated at designed
high speed |
completely packed
full of grease |
in use for a long
time |
|
C |
The size of ball
and roller bearings can be identified by the __________. |
inner race cone
width |
outer ring width |
manufacturer's
numerical code |
rolling member
size |
|
D |
Which of the following
roller bearing types would be limited to radial thrust load applications? |
single row spherical
roller bearing |
single row tapered
roller bearing |
double row spherical
roller bearing |
single row cylindrical
roller bearing |
|
A |
What statement
is true concerning the hydrostatic lubrication of plain bearings? |
An outside pressure
source is required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present
at any shaft speed. |
An outside pressure
source is not required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present
only at operational speed. |
An outside pressure
source is required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present
only at operational speed. |
An outside pressure
source is not required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present
at any shaft speed. |
|
A |
With respect to
shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is
meant by a radial load? |
A radial load
is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft. |
A radial load
is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft. |
A radial load
is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft. |
A radial load
is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft. |
|
A |
With respect to
shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is
meant by an axial load? |
An axial load
is a load applied parallel to the axis of the shaft. |
An axial load
is a load applied tangent to the circumference of the shaft. |
An axial load
is a load applied perpendicular and parallel to the axis of the shaft. |
An axial load
is a load applied perpendicular to the axis of the shaft. |
|
B |
Concerning the
start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic lubrication,
what is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to
operational speed? |
First full-film
lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication. |
First boundary
lubrication, followed by mixed-film lubrication, then finally full-film
lubrication. |
First boundary
lubrication, followed by full-film lubrication, then finally mixed-film
lubrication. |
First mixed-film
lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication. |
|
C |
Which of the following
bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing which substitutes
fluid friction for rolling contact friction? |
a sleeve bearing |
a plain bearing |
a ball bearing |
a journal bearing |
|
A |
Which of the following
bearing types would be an example of a plain bearing which substitutes fluid
friction for sliding friction? |
a journal bearing |
a roller bearing |
a needle bearing |
a ball bearing |
|
B |
After adding grease
to a ball bearing with a hand-held grease gun, you should __________. |
close the bearing
housing drain and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets
in
the bearing |
run the machine
with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while |
save the used
grease for chemical analysis |
remove the grease
fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape |
|
D |
What is the primary
indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in terms
of the quantity of grease in the housing? |
The bearing temperature
would tend to produce unusual vibrations. |
The bearing temperature
would tend to run cooler than normal for the load. |
The bearing would
tend to produce a noticeable change in sound. |
The bearing temperature
would tend to run hotter than normal for the load. |
|
C |
Which of the following
statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is true? |
The outer race
should be free to turn its housing. |
Alignment is not
a critical factor in their installation. |
They are usually
pressed on to their shafts. |
The inner race
should be free to turn on the shaft. |
|
C |
In a compression
type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________. |
a pressure gun |
a zerk fitting |
spring force |
gravity flow |
|
B |
Antifriction bearings
can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel
puller with a __________. |
split die |
split washer or
backup ring |
jack screw |
ring gage |
|
B |
A roller bearing
should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity? |
Less than 1/4 |
1/3 to 1/2 |
1/2 to 3/4 |
More than 3/4 |
|
C |
A dented race
in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________. |
water in the bearing |
dirt in the bearing |
vibration while
the bearing is not in operation |
abrasives in the
lubricant |
|
B |
A ball or roller
bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of
the press be applied? |
the shaft |
the inner race |
the outer race |
the housing |
|
D |
A ball or roller
bearing has an interference fit with the housing in which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of
the press be applied? |
the shaft |
the housing |
the inner race |
the outer race |
|
A |
A roller bearing
has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed.
What thermal method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate? |
Heating the bearing
in an oil-bath bearing heater. |
Cooling the bearing
with dry ice. |
Cooling the shaft
with liquid refrigerant. |
Heating the bearing
with an oxyacetylene torch. |
|
D |
Rolling element
bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What
is the first evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure? |
Discoloration
of the races or rolling elements. |
The presence of
metallic particles in the lubricant. |
The presence of
small cracks in the rolling elements. |
The presence of
small cracks in the races. |
|
D |
Which bearing
will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other? |
Needle |
Tapered roller |
Roller |
Ball |
|
B |
The size of ball
and roller bearings can be identified by the __________. |
inner race cone
width |
manufacturer's
numerical code |
outer ring width |
rolling member
size |
|
B |
Which bearing
will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other? |
Tapered roller |
Ball |
Needle |
Roller |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller
bearings? |
They are well
adapted to variable speed operation. |
They are not capable
of maintaining alignment over long periods of time. |
Their lubrication
is complicated and requires constant attention. |
They have a relatively
high power loss due to friction. |
|
B |
Which of the listed
types of bearings is an example of a half bearing? |
Piston pin bushing |
Spring bearing |
Thrust bearing |
All of the above. |
|
D |
When removing
roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied
to the bearing __________. |
outer race |
retainer plate |
raceway |
inner race |
|
D |
Packing extremely
soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________. |
excessive channeling
of the grease |
gelling of the
base oil |
emulsification
of the thickener additive |
high temperatures
to develop as result of churning |
|
A |
As the speed of
an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning,
generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________. |
reducing the quantity
of lubricant until only a mist of oil is present on the ball bearings |
installing oil
rings on the ball bearings |
adding more lubricant
until the ball bearings are completely covered with a layer of oil |
maintaining a
continuous fluid film of oil on the bearings |
|
A |
A dented race
in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________. |
vibration while
the bearing is not in operation |
abrasives in the
lubricant |
dirt in the bearing |
water in the bearing |
|
B |
In a compression
type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________. |
a zerk fitting |
spring force |
gravity flow |
a pressure gun |
|
C |
Antifriction bearings
can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel
puller with a __________. |
jack screw |
ring gage |
split washer or
backup ring |
split die |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements concerning the operation of a lube oil purifier is correct? |
They should be
operated at maximum design speed and recommended operating capacity. |
They should be
operated as slowly as possible to ensure a long service life. |
They should not
be primed with water when operated as a separator. |
They should be
operated as clarifiers for optimum moisture removal. |
|
D |
The water seal
in a centrifuge, operating at normal speed, prevents the lube oil from discharging
from the water outlet. Another function of the seal is to __________. |
provide a means
of 'washing' the oil as it passes through the bowl |
keep the bowl
at a temperature below that of the lube oil input |
develop permanent
emulsions with the lube oil |
provide an area
for separated water to pass and create a path to remove the water from the
bowl |
|
D |
Accidental flooding
of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by __________. |
installing a swing
check before each bilge valve |
using a positive
displacement reciprocating bilge pump |
installing eductors
in all bilge rose boxes |
stop-check valves
installed in the bilge suction manifolds |
|
D |
The emergency
bilge suction valve is typically used __________. |
to inject cleaning
additives when the bilges are extremely dirty |
when the main
condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation |
to connect the
rose box to the independent bilge suction |
if the bilges
become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means |
|
B |
In order to take
suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in
the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration
GS-0042 |
One |
Two |
Three |
Four |
|
C |
Salt water ballast
is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination
of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed?
Illustration GS-0139 |
3, 4, 7 and 9
open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed. |
1, 2, 7 and 9
open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed. |
1, 3, 5, 6, 8
and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed. |
1, 2, 5 and 6
open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed. |
|
D |
One of the consequences
in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve
closed, is that the __________. |
motor overload
will open |
motor will overheat |
relief valve will
open |
pump will overheat |
|
D |
One of the consequences
in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve
closed, is that the __________. |
motor overload
will open |
relief valve will
open |
motor will overheat |
pump will overheat |
|
B |
In order to take
suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in
the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration
GS-0042 |
One |
Two |
Three |
Four |
|
D |
The emergency
bilge suction valve is typically used __________. |
to inject cleaning
additives when the bilges are extremely dirty |
when the main
condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation |
to connect the
rose box to the independent bilge suction |
if the bilges
become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means |
|
A |
Accidental flooding
of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by __________. |
stop-check valves
installed in the bilge suction manifolds |
using a positive
displacement reciprocating bilge pump |
installing eductors
in all bilge rose boxes |
installing a swing
check before each bilge valve |
|
B |
Under what conditions
is it permissible to pump machinery space bilges directly overboard without
processing by an oily water separator? |
When the bilge
water holding tank is full. |
When presented
with a flooding emergency. |
When operating
in international waters beyond the 200 mile limit. |
When, by visual
inspection, the bilges appear to be free of oil. |
|
B |
What is meant
by the term independent bilge suction? |
The means by which
the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a
bilge pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. |
The means by which
the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge
pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. |
The means by which
a cargo hold bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge pump
but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. |
The means by which
a cargo hold bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge
pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. |
|
B |
What is meant
by the term emergency bilge suction? |
The means by which
the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds
or automatic bilge suction valves. |
The means by which
the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any
bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. |
The means by which
the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge
pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge
manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves. |
The means by which
the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge
pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or
automatic bilge suction valves. |
|
D |
Which of the following
bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated centrifugal
pump under manual supervision? |
Shaft alley bilges |
Machinery space
bilges |
Engine room bilges |
Dry cargo hold
bilges |
|
C |
Salt water ballast
is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination
of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed?
Illustration GS-0139 |
3, 4, 7 and 9
open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed. |
1, 2, 7 and 9
open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed. |
1, 3, 5, 6, 8
and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed. |
1, 2, 5 and 6
open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed. |
|
A |
What is the primary
reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as applicable
to vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters? |
Prevent invasion
of non-indigenous foreign marine species into U.S. waters. |
Prevent oil pollution
of environmentally sensitive areas within U.S. waters. |
Prevent changes
in salinity or salt content of coastal U.S. waters. |
Prevent sedimentary
deposits in ports and harbor areas of U.S. waters. |
|
D |
Which of the following
ballasting operations performed in conjunction with off-loading cargo could
be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump? |
Filling a salt
water ballast tank located above the waterline. |
Draining a salt
water ballast tank located above the waterline. |
Draining a salt
water ballast tank located below the waterline. |
Filling a salt
water ballast tank located below the waterline. |
|
A |
Which of the following
deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading cargo could
be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump? |
Draining a salt
water ballast tank located above the waterline. |
Filling a salt
water ballast tank located below the waterline. |
Filling a salt
water ballast tank located above the waterline. |
Draining a salt
water ballast tank located below the waterline. |
|
B |
With regard to
a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose
of the forepeak and aft peak tanks? |
Adjusting the
overall draft of the vessel. |
Adjusting the
trim of the vessel. |
Correcting a list
condition on the vessel. |
Correcting a condition
of hogging or sagging of the vessel. |
|
A |
With regard to
a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose
of the double-bottom ballast tanks? |
Adjusting the
overall draft of the vessel or correcting a condition of list. |
Adjusting the
trim of the vessel. |
Correcting a condition
of sagging of the vessel. |
Correcting a condition
of hogging of the vessel. |
|
C |
With regard to
ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "ballasting"? |
Ballasting
is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for
loading cargo. |
Ballasting is
the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for
a condition of list. |
Ballasting is
the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo. |
Ballasting is
the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for
a condition of hogging or sagging. |
|
B |
With regard to
ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "deballasting"? |
Ballasting is
the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for
a condition of hogging or sagging. |
Ballasting is
the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading
cargo. |
Ballasting is
the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo. |
Ballasting is
the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for
a condition of list. |
|
B |
With regards to
a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term "segregated"
ballast? |
Segregated ballast
is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from engine room bilge systems. |
Segregated ballast
is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from cargo or fuel oil systems. |
Segregated ballast
is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from sea water circulating or fire main systems. |
Segregated ballast
is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from clean bilge systems. |
|
D |
Besides retention
of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water treatment
equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance
with the ballast water management regulations? |
Perform a complete
ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. |
Perform a complete
ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. |
Perform a complete
ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. |
Perform a complete
ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters. |
|
C |
Salt water ballast
is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination
of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed?
Illustration GS-0139 |
3, 4, 7 and 9
open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed. |
1, 2, 7 and 9
open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed. |
1, 3, 5, 6, 8
and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed. |
1, 2, 5 and 6
open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed. |
|
B |
In order to take
suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in
the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration
GS-0042 |
One |
Two |
Three |
Four |
|
A |
One of the consequences
in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve
closed, is that the __________. |
pump will overheat |
relief valve will
open |
motor overload
will open |
motor will overheat |
|
A |
The emergency
bilge suction valve is typically used __________. |
if the bilges
become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means |
to connect the
rose box to the independent bilge suction |
when the main
condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water circulation |
to inject cleaning
additives when the bilges are extremely dirty |
|
D |
Accidental flooding
of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by __________. |
using a positive
displacement reciprocating bilge pump |
installing a swing
check before each bilge valve |
installing eductors
in all bilge rose boxes |
stop-check valves
installed in the bilge suction manifolds |
|
D |
As routine maintenance,
the bilge manifold valves are periodically removed and examined. Prior to
resecuring the valve bonnets, the valve __________. |
disks and seats
should be checked and lapped if necessary |
bonnet flange
gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn |
stem packing should
be renewed if the packing has hardened |
All of the above. |
|
C |
The aft starboard
bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not been successful. The next
practical solution would be to __________. |
place
20 gallons ( 75.7 L) of fuel oil tank wash into the affected bilge well
to clear the blockage
|
change the trim
of the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of
the
voyage |
properly and safely
empty the well with a portable pump then manually muck it out |
All of the above. |
|
B |
The bilge system
has been performing well; however, the aft starboard engine room bilge-well
suddenly fails to be pumped out. Which of the following should be done first
to determine the cause? |
Open the bilge
pump for inspection. |
Attempt to pump
out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected. |
Remove each of
the manifold valves. |
Remove only the
manifold valve to the affected bilge-well. |
|
D |
You are unable
to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well that is fouled, with
one foot of water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be
carried out? |
Simultaneously
operate all available bilge pumps. |
It is only necessary
to transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well. |
Send the wiper
into the well with only a scoop and pail. |
Remove the bilge
manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line. |
|
C |
If one of the
bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the __________. |
bilge well connected
to that valve, plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely
emptied |
bilge well aft
connected to that valve will siphon its contents to the forward bilge wells |
bilge system will
lose vacuum and prevent the other bilges from being pumped out |
All of the above. |
|
C |
If an operating
bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any water,
which of the following problems is the most probable cause? |
The discharge
valve is clogged. |
The wearing rings
are excessively worn. |
The suction strainer
is clogged. |
The shaft is worn. |
|
A |
If a bilge pump
is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges,
you would check for all of the following EXCEPT __________. |
the circuit breaker |
for leaks in the
suction piping |
the suction strainer |
relief valve is
not properly seated |
|
D |
In a closed-loop
process control system, what is meant by the proportional mode of control? |
It is a control
mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain. |
It is a control
mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at
which the error is changing. |
It
is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to
the accumulation of
error over time. |
It is a control
mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error. |
|
B |
Suppose a temperature
transmitter has an input range from 0 to 100 degrees Celsius and an output
range of 4 to 20 milliamps. Assuming that the transmitter has a linear response
pattern, what is the output current in milliamps if the input temperature
is 40 degrees Celsius? |
16.00 mA |
10.40 mA |
13.60 mA |
6.40 mA |
|
A |
What process control
system control mode is most likely to have steady-state error (also known
as offset or residual error)? |
Proportional mode |
Proportional +
Derivative mode |
Proportional +
Integral + Derivative mode |
Proportional +
Integral mode |
|
C |
For a process
control system using the proportional control mode, what statement is true? |
Increasing
the proportional gain without limit will always decrease the steady-state
error.
o |
Increasing the
proportional gain without limit will always increase the steady-state error. |
Increasing the
proportional gain within limits will decrease the steady-state error, but
too much gain may cause instability. |
Decreasing the
proportional gain within limits will decrease the steady-state error, but
too little gain may cause instability. |
|
B |
As a result of
a load or setpoint change, in addition to minimizing the maximum value of
the error, what are the two additional objectives of a closed-loop control
system? |
The closed-loop
control system should maximize the settling time and maximize the residual
error. |
The closed-loop
control system should minimize the settling time and minimize the residual
error. |
The closed-loop
control system should minimize the settling time and maximize the residual
error. |
The closed-loop
control system should maximize the settling time and minimize the residual
error. |
|
B |
For any given
volume of compressed air produced by a multi-stage air compressor, interstage
cooling will __________. |
allow isothermal
compression of the air charge |
decrease the power
required for compression |
increase the power
required for compression |
allow the compressed
air volume to remain constant |
|
D |
The unloading
system on an air compressor will __________. |
reduce the compressor
frictional load when starting |
increase compressor
discharge pressure on demand |
increase compressor
operating speed as necessary |
allow the motor
to turn the compressor opposed only by friction |
|
A |
The primary function
of the device illustrated is to __________. Illustration GS-0029 |
remove all but
the frictional load of an air compressor at start-up |
intensify the
pressure developed by an air compressor during its normal running operation |
pre-charge the
cylinders of an air compressor prior to the start-up of the unit |
open the discharge
valves during the compressors operation to supply compressed air |
|
C |
Which one of the
following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety
valve? |
The
actuator closing spring on a relief valve is in a compressed state whereas
the actuator closing spring on a safety valve acts in tension. |
Relief valves
are capable of being gagged whereas safety valves are not. |
A relief valve
gradually opens as pressure increases above set point pressure whereas a
safety valve fully opens at the set point pressure. |
The blow down
of a relief valve is greater than the blow down of a safety valve. |
|
C |
One of the functions
of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to
__________. Illustration GS-0119 |
act as a cyclonic
oil separator |
act solely as
a heat exchanger |
act as a lube
oil sump |
provide storage
for compressed cryogenic gases |
|
D |
One of the functions
of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to
__________. Illustration GS-0119 |
act solely as
a heat exchanger |
act as a cyclonic
pneumatic dehydrator |
provide storage
for compressed cryogenic gases |
act as a lube
oil sump |
|
D |
The air compressor
shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically operated
as __________. Illustration GS-0119 |
a diesel engine
air start unit only |
a constant pressure
unit while operating under all load conditions |
an on-off cycle
unit |
a constant capacity
unit |
|
C |
An air compressor
is equipped with an intercooler and an aftercooler to __________. |
inject water vapor
into the compressed air |
prevent overheating
of first stage valves |
increase compressor
efficiency and economy |
reduce the compressed
air charge density |
|
A |
The cylinders
and intercoolers of most low-pressure air compressors are cooled by __________. |
air |
CO2 |
oil |
water |
|
A |
For any given
volume of compressed air produced by a multi-stage air compressor, interstage
cooling will __________. |
decrease the power
required for compression |
allow the compressed
air volume to remain constant |
allow isothermal
compression of the air charge |
increase the power
required for compression |
|
D |
The unloading
system on an air compressor will __________. |
reduce the compressor
frictional load when starting |
increase compressor
discharge pressure on demand |
increase compressor
operating speed as necessary |
allow the motor
to turn the compressor opposed only by friction |
|
D |
The usual method
of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start-up is accomplished by
__________. |
the use of a precharged
accumulator |
temporarily discharging
to the air receiver |
holding the discharge
valve open |
holding the suction
valve open |
|
D |
Which of the listed
devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station? |
Non-return valve |
Vacuum breaker |
Lubricator |
Moisture separator |
|
A |
If an air compressor
is used to supply air primarily to the combustion control system and other
pneumatic controllers, the entire system is known as the __________. |
control air system |
ships service
air system |
forced draft air
system |
supply air system |
|
C |
One function of
the air receiver in a compressed air system is to __________. |
remove all traces
of oil from the air |
dry the air discharged
from the intercooler |
minimize the system's
line pulsations |
receive exhaust
air from pneumatic accessories |
|
B |
When the compressed
air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor and is used as an
after cooler, the reservoir must be __________. |
fitted with a
moisture trap at the inlet |
frequently drained
of condensed water |
fitted with a
manhole |
fitted with a
sight glass |
|
C |
The device shown
in the illustration is commonly used to __________. Illustration GS-0120 |
generate electricity |
pump heavy liquids |
compress air |
pump refrigerant |
|
C |
One of the functions
of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to
__________. Illustration GS-0119 |
act solely as
a heat exchanger |
provide storage
for compressed cryogenic gases |
act as a lube
oil sump |
act as a cyclonic
pneumatic dehydrator |
|
B |
As demand on the
device shown in the illustration fluctuates in the pressure range of 100
to 110 psi, the output of the unit is controlled by __________. Illustration
GS-0119 |
proportional modulation
of the compressor speed |
the modulation
of the opening of a butterfly valve located in the air intake |
change in control
pressure to modulate the discharge of compressed air to the atmosphere |
complete shut
down until the lower pressure limit is reached causing it to restart |
|
C |
A viscous film
of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low pressure reciprocating
air compressor will __________. |
prevent the valve
from wire drawing |
have no effect
on compressor operation |
retard the opening
and closing of the valve |
provide quieter
valve operation |
|
C |
Operating a reciprocating
air compressor without an air filter will cause __________. |
carbon deposits
on valves and pistons |
excessive compressor
discharge pressure |
excessive wear
on valves and cylinder liners |
a clogged air
intake |
|
C |
Carbon deposits
forming on the discharge valves of an air compressor are caused by oil deterioration
under high pressure. The first step in reducing these deposits would be
to __________. |
increase the oil
volatility |
use a high viscosity
oil |
reduce the discharge
temperatures with intercoolers |
increase the compression
ratio |
|
D |
Excessively low
air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor
is caused by __________. |
insufficient intercooler
cooling |
low ambient air
pressure |
leaky discharge
valves on the HP cylinder |
leaky discharge
valves on the LP cylinder |
|
D |
After coolers
are used with air compressors to __________. |
dampen pressure
pulses in the discharge air |
ensure complete
expansion of the compressed air |
decrease the density
of compressed air |
reduce the temperature
of compressed air |
|
A |
If an air compressor
is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement concerning
operation is true? |
In the hand mode,
the compressor will run continuously with unloading. |
In the hand mode,
the compressor will cycle on and off. |
In the auto mode,
the compressor will run continuously with unloading. |
In the off mode,
the compressor will cycle on and off. |
|
D |
The device shown
in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration GS-0029 |
reduce the pressure
in the ship's service air system |
maintain correct
tension on the drive belts while the compressor is in operation |
grind sewage prior
to entering the sewage treatment plant |
unload the cylinders
of an air compressor |
|
A |
If all of the
air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor
mechanical unloading system will __________. |
fail to function
as designed, but the compressor having no load will start with little or
no difficulty |
still function
normally at start-up |
fail to work,
and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the compressor will
be overloaded |
Still function
normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive motor |
|
B |
Over pressurization
of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by the __________. |
first-stage unloader |
intercooler relief
valve |
last-stage unloader |
after cooler relief
valve |
|
A |
The air charge
leaving an intercooler, or after cooler of an air compressor can be expected
to be __________. |
at or below the
dew point |
superheated |
super cooled |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Which of the listed
valve types is typically used for suction and discharge valves on modern
low pressure air compressors? |
Sliding |
Rotary |
Reed |
Poppet |
|
C |
In order to distribute
the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners, which
of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low pressure air compressors? |
Barrel |
Valve-in-head |
Trunk |
Differential |
|
D |
Which of the following
compressors would be used for a cold-ship start-up of a ship's service diesel
generator on a motor ship? |
Ship's service
air compressor |
Starting air compressor |
Topping air compressor |
Emergency air
compressor |
|
D |
Which of the following
compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at approximately 100
psig? |
Starting air compressor |
Topping air compressor |
Emergency air
compressor |
Ship's service
air compressor |
|
C |
If the drive belts
on an air compressor were squealing during startup, you should __________. |
check for a defective
high pressure cut-out switch |
check the air
filter |
check the operation
of the unloaders |
check for a receiver
outlet valve which may be partially closed |
|
D |
In a twin-tower
desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is
the procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant
becomes saturated with moisture? |
The towers are
shifted, and the off-going tower is refrigerated. |
Heat is applied
to the tower on service and it remains on service while heating. |
The tower on service
is refrigerated and it remains on service while cooling. |
The towers are
shifted, and heat is applied to the off-going tower. |
|
D |
If one drive belt
on an air compressor is found to be worn you should __________. |
replace that belt
only |
adjust belt tension |
dress the worn
belt |
replace all of
the belts |
|
A |
The main bearings
of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When mounted,
these bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to __________. |
allow for longitudinal
expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up |
reduce torsional
vibration in the crankshaft |
prevent longitudinal
thrust in the crankshaft |
allow for crank
web deflection |
|
B |
After disassembly,
the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet and discharge
valves is to use __________. |
gasoline |
diesel oil |
naphtha |
ammonia |
|
C |
How often should
the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture and
emulsions? |
Quarterly |
Weekly |
Daily |
Monthly |
|
D |
When checking
the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick,
under what conditions should the oil level be checked? |
With the compressor
running at speed and unloaded. |
With the compressor
running at speed and loaded. |
With the compressor
in the auto mode and currently not running. |
With the compressor
in the off mode incapable of starting. |
|
C |
As an indication
that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned,
what statement is true? |
For
a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the
air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet
would be more negative than with a clean filter. |
For a given air
demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake pressure
as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative
than with a clean filter. |
For a given air
demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake pressure
as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative
than with a clean filter. |
For a given air
demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be
less negative than with a clean filter. |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements represents the proper procedural sequence for adjusting the metering
rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose
station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set. |
Establish normal
air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip
rate or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate. |
Establish normal
air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip
rate or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate. |
Temporarily shut-off
air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip
rate or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate.
Re-establish normal air flow. |
Temporarily shut-off
air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip
rate or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate.
Re-establish normal air flow. |
|
C |
Which of the following
statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a filter/moisture
separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station? |
The bowl should
be drained daily with no need to check the moisture level. |
The bowl should
be drained whenever moisture droplets appear in the bowl. |
The bowl should
be drained before the moisture level reaches the lower baffle. |
The bowl should
be drained after the bowl completely fills with moisture. |
|
C |
A viscous film
of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low pressure reciprocating
air compressor will __________. |
prevent the valve
from wire drawing |
provide quieter
valve operation |
retard the opening
and closing of the valve |
have no effect
on compressor operation |
|
A |
What statement
is true concerning carbon deposit formation on reciprocating compressor
cylinder valves? |
The rate of carbon
deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures. |
The rate of carbon
deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures. |
The rate of carbon
deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures. |
The rate of carbon
deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures. |
|
C |
Operating a reciprocating
air compressor without an air filter will cause __________. |
a clogged air
intake |
carbon deposits
on valves and pistons |
excessive wear
on valves and cylinder liners |
excessive compressor
discharge pressure |
|
B |
Excessively low
air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor
is caused by __________. |
leaky discharge
valves on the HP cylinder |
leaky discharge
valves on the LP cylinder |
low ambient air
pressure |
insufficient intercooler
cooling |
|
D |
Which of the following
problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a reciprocating
air compressor suction valve? |
Carbon build up
in the piston ring belt. |
Lifting of intercooler
relief valve. |
compressor operation
in an area of high relative humidity. |
Faulty operation
of a cylinder unloader. |
|
A |
In a low pressure
air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from
__________. |
heating of the
air leaving the cylinders |
constant enlargement
of the clearance expansion volume |
adiabatic compression
in the intercooler |
inaccurate valve
timing |
|
A |
Which of the following
causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven reciprocating
air compressor drive motor running current draw? |
Excessive drive
belt tension. |
Insufficient drive
belt tension. |
Excessive internal
running clearances. |
Clogged air intake
filter. |
|
A |
If a reciprocating
air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its design
parameters, what would be the effect? |
Higher than normal
discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity. |
Lower than normal
discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity. |
Higher than normal
discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity. |
Lower than normal
discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity. |
|
A |
If a belt-driven
reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design displacement
capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause? |
Insufficiently
tensioned drive belts. |
Misalignment between
the compressor and its driver. |
Improperly lubricated
bearings. |
Excessively tensioned
drive belts. |
|
D |
If a reciprocating
air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to properly
seat, what statement is true concerning the result? |
The compressor
would have longer running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles. |
The compressor
would have shorter running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles. |
The compressor
would have shorter running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles. |
The compressor
would have longer running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles. |
|
B |
Which of the listed
central operating system types requires conversion of continuous analog
signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information
that can be understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing
and control. |
Pneumatic |
Digital |
Electric/electronic |
Direct connected |
|
A |
As shown in the
illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement
is true concerning the workstations labeled "LOS" associated with
the port power management system? Illustration EL-0096 |
These are local
operating system workstations that allow local control of processes related
to the operation and control of the port switchboard and its associated
generators. |
These are local
oil system workstations that allow local control of processes related to
the lubrication of the port generators. |
These are local
operating system workstations that allow local control of processes related
to the lubrication of all machinery within the engineering plant. |
These are local
operating system workstations that allow local control of processes related
to the operation and control of all functions within the engineering plant. |
|
B |
As shown in the
illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement
is true concerning the data communication pathways labeled "Dual CAN"?
Illustration EL-0096 |
These are control
area networks providing supply and return pathways for communication. |
These are control
area networks providing redundancy so as to maintain communications despite
a bus failure. |
These are communication
access nodes providing redundancy so as to maintain communications despite
a node failure. |
These are communication
access nodes providing supply and return pathways for communication. |
|
D |
As shown in the
illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement
is true concerning the units labeled "WCU" in the accommodations?
Illustration EL-0096 |
These are watch
cabin units extending the alarm system to engineer staterooms vessels with
engine rooms requiring 24-hour manning of watches. |
These are watch
control units extending remote operating system functionality to engineer
staterooms vessels with periodically unmanned engine rooms. |
These are watch
control units extending remote operating system functionality to engineer
staterooms vessels with engine rooms requiring 24-hour manning of watches. |
These are watch
cabin units extending the alarm system to engineer staterooms vessels with
periodically unmanned engine rooms. |
|
A |
As shown in the
illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement
is true concerning the units labeled "ROS" which are remote operating
system workstations? Illustration EL-0096 |
Operator access
to control functions among the various ROS locations differ depending on
system configuration and need. |
The ROS located
in the ship's office is designated as the master ROS. |
The ROS located
in the wheelhouse is designated as the master ROS. |
Operator access
to control functions among the various ROS locations are all identical. |
|
C |
As shown in figure "B"
of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured
for supervisory control, which statement is true concerning the block "COMPUTER"
with respect to closed-loop control processes? Illustration EL-0094 |
The
computer normally has no role in the various closed-loop control processes.
It is only used for backup control purposes. |
The computer has
no role in the various closed-loop control processes regardless of the control
mode. |
The computer provides
the set point input data to the analog controllers, but the analog controllers
actually control the closed-loop processes. |
The computer provides
the set point input data to the process control loop, as well as the measured
variable data. The analog controllers are only used for manual backup control. |
|
A |
As shown in figure "B"
in the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured
for supervisory control, what is the function of the block "ANALOG
(A-D MUX)"? Illustration EL-0094 |
A high speed solid-state
switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large number
of analog sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals
to digital values for processing by the CPU. |
A low speed solid-state
switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small number
of analog sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals
to digital values for processing by the CPU. |
A low speed solid-state
switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small number
of digital sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals
to analog values for processing by the CPU. |
A high speed solid-state
switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large number
of digital sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals
to analog values for processing by the CPU. |
|
C |
As shown in figure "B"
of the illustrated block diagram for a central operating system configured
for supervisory control, what is becoming the industry standard for transmission
of analog signals for a measured variable? Illustration EL-0094 |
-10 volts to +10
volts |
1 volt to 5 volts |
4 milliamps to
20 milliamps |
10 milliamps to
50 milliamps |
|
A |
As shown in figure "A"
of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured
for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL
OUTPUT" represent? Illustration EL-0095 |
It receives digital
outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators. |
It receives analog
outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators. |
It receives digital
outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission
to the analog actuators. |
It receives analog
outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for transmission
to the analog actuators. |
|
A |
As shown in figure "A"
of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured
for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG
A/D" represent? Illustration EL-0095 |
It receives analog
outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals
for CPU processing. |
It receives digital
outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital signals
for CPU processing. |
It receives digital
outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals
for CPU processing. |
It receives analog
outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog signals
for CPU processing. |
|
D |
As shown in figure "A"
of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured
for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL
CONTACT" represent? Illustration EL-0095 |
It receives analog
outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog signals
for CPU processing. |
It receives digital
outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals
for CPU processing. |
It receives analog
outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals
for CPU processing. |
It receives digital
outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital signals
for CPU processing. |
|
B |
As shown in the
illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement
is true concerning the area networks? Illustration EL-0096 |
The LAN is a dual
redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant network,
with no interconnectivity between the two networks. |
The LAN is a dual
redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant network,
with both networks being interconnected. |
The LAN is a single
non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant network,
with both networks being interconnected. |
The LAN is a single
non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant network,
with no interconnectivity between the two networks. |
|
B |
Which of the following
liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the liquid level
in a pressure vessel such a water-tube boiler steam drum? |
Capacitance probe |
Differential pressure
sensor |
Static pressure
sensor |
Displacement float
level sensor |
|
A |
Which of the following
illustrations represents the proper method of circuit grounding for a low
level analog signal cable? Illustration EL-0124 |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
C |
As shown in figure "A"
of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured
for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG
D/A" represent? Illustration EL-0095 |
It
receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals
for transmission to the digital actuators. |
It receives analog
outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for transmission
to the analog actuators. |
It receives digital
outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission
to the analog actuators. |
It receives digital
outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators. |
|
C |
As shown in figure "A"
of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured
for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG
D/A" represent? Illustration EL-0095 |
It
receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals
for transmission to the digital actuators. |
It receives analog
outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for transmission
to the analog actuators. |
It receives digital
outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission
to the analog actuators. |
It receives digital
outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators. |
|
B |
As shown in figure "A"
of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the voltage sensing
unit? Illustration EL-0066 |
The voltage sensor
delivers an AC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output
voltage to the comparator. |
The voltage sensor
delivers a relatively low value of DC signal voltage proportional to the
alternator output voltage to the comparator. |
The voltage sensor
delivers a relatively low value of single phase AC signal voltage proportional
to the alternator output voltage to the comparator. |
The voltage sensor
delivers a DC signal voltage equal in magnitude to the alternator output
voltage to the comparator. |
|
B |
What type of temperature
transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear bearing temperatures
in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing? |
Thermistor probe |
Radiation pyrometer |
Resistance temperature
detector |
Thermocouple pyrometer |
|
D |
What type of temperature
transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine exhaust and
boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force? |
Thermistor probe |
Resistance temperature
detector |
Radiation pyrometer |
Thermocouple pyrometer |
|
D |
What is another
name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses two-point
control? |
Integral control |
Derivative control |
Proportional control |
On-off control |
|
B |
In a closed-loop
process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring
the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using
that difference to drive the actual result toward the desired result? |
Gain |
Feedback |
Instability |
Dead band |
|
C |
In a closed-loop
process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it
relates to stability and the direction of error displacement? |
Negative
feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same
direction as the error displacement.
o |
Positive feedback
is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction
as the error displacement. |
Negative feedback
is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite direction
as the error displacement. |
Positive feedback
is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite direction
as the error displacement. |
|
C |
In a closed-loop
process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function
of the error detector within the controller? |
The
error detector computes the sum of the measured value of the controlled
variable and the desired value (set point). |
The error detector
computes the quotient of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point). |
The error detector
computes the difference between the measured value of the controlled variable
and the desired value (set point). |
The error detector
computes the product of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point). |
|
B |
What type of primary
element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for measuring
oil-fired boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures? |
Bellows pressure
sensor |
Diaphragm pressure
sensor |
Bourdon tube pressure
sensor |
Strain gage pressure
sensor |
|
A |
Which of the following
rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal? |
Optical tachometer |
Brush-type DC
tachometer |
Brushless DC tachometer |
AC tachometer |
|
B |
In a closed-loop
process control system, what term is used to describe the progressive reduction
or suppression of oscillation in a component? |
Saturation |
Damping |
Hysteresis |
Dead band |
|
C |
In a closed-loop
process control system, what is meant by error? |
The progressive
reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component. |
The criterion
of good control that permits no overshoot when the set point is changed. |
The signal in
a controller that is obtained by subtracting the measured value of the controlled
value from the set point. |
The ratio of the
amplitude of the output signal of a component divided by the amplitude of
the input signal. |
|
D |
When tuning a
proportional-integral-derivative (PID) controller/loop, one should know/understand
the influence of each action component on the loop. Which description of
a component is correct? |
Integral -component
in which the input is proportional to the output. |
Proportional -component
in which there is a linear relationship between set point and input. |
Derivative -component
in which the input is proportional to the rate of change of the output. |
Proportional -component
in which there is a linear relationship between output and input. |
|
C |
Control system
diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function required
for the system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols
are used to allow engineers to describe the logic and component functions.
Define the function of symbol "I" as shown in the illustration
__________. Illustration GS-0180 |
High Select Signal
Processor. |
Integral Processor. |
Low Select Signal
Processor. |
Difference Signal
Processor. |
|
A |
As the engineer,
it is necessary to tune a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) control
loop. If the PID incorporates all three functions, which function(s) is/are
dominant in the controllers performance? |
Proportional. |
Derivative and
Proportional. |
Integral and Derivative. |
All are equally
important. |
|
B |
While calibrating
a 4-20 mA electronic, or a 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, with a process
output of 50-250 PSI, what is the controller span/range you are dealing
with? |
Output process
range is 0-250 PSI. |
Output process
span is 200 PSI. |
Controller input
ranges are 0-40 mA and 0-15 PSI. |
Controller process
output span is 0-250 PSI. |
|
D |
While calibrating
an electronic 4 -20 mA or 3 -15 PSI pneumatic controller, what is the value
of 'Live Zero'? |
0' for input span
and another value for output range. |
4 mA or 3 PSI
for process output range. |
0' for span and
range. |
4 mA or 3 PSI. |
|
C |
A 'Proportional
Only' controlled automatic process loop is oscillating continually, above
and below the set point. To stabilize this controller and loop using the
'gain' adjustment, what controller/loop response would you expect upon process
changes vs. set point? |
By
decreasing reset, the system's oscillations should subside vs. set point
after an upset.
|
By decreasing
gain, the process should return to a straight line response vs. set point
after an upset. |
By decreasing
gain gradually, the process should stabilize in a 'quarter wave' response
to system's upsets vs. the set point. |
By increasing
gain, the system's oscillations should subside vs. set point after an upset. |
|
A |
On deep-draft
ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for machinery
space sea water cooling systems? |
A high sea suction
is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a low sea suction is located near the bottom
of the ship and is used primarily while underway. |
A low sea suction
is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a high sea suction is located near the bottom
of the ship and is used primarily while underway. |
A high sea suction
is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used
primarily in port or when operating in shallow water. |
A low sea suction
is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used
primarily in port or when operating in shallow water. |
|
A |
Referring to illustrated
steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning
main circulating to auxiliary circulating seawater system cross-connect
capability? Illustration SP-SW-01 |
It is possible
to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating
pump(s), and it is possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement
the auxiliary circulating pump. |
In the event of
multiple seawater service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating sea water,
and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. |
While it may be
possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary
circulating pump, it is not possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump
to supplement the main circulating pump(s). |
While it may be
possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating
pump(s), it is not possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement
the auxiliary circulating pump. |
|
A |
Referring to the
illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning main circulating to auxiliary circulating sea water system
cross-connect capability? Illustration SP-SW-01 |
It is possible
to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating
pump(s), and it is possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement
the auxiliary circulating pump. |
In the event of
multiple sea water service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea
water, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. |
While it may be
possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary
circulating pump, it is not possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump
to supplement the main circulating pump(s). |
While it may be
possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating
pump(s), it is not possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement
the auxiliary circulating pump. |
|
D |
Classification
society requirements stipulate that main sea water cooling pumps be furnished
with redundancy with either two dedicated pumps or with one dedicated pump
and one standby pump available for other seawater services. Referring to
the illustrated motor ship seawater cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning meeting these classification society requirements? (MP-CW-01) |
The standby main
seawater cooling pump may also function as a fire pump. |
Both main seawater
cooling pumps are dedicated to main engine cooling only. |
The standby main
seawater cooling pump may also function as a clean bilge pump. |
The standby main
seawater cooling pump may also function as a ballast pump. |
|
B |
What provision
is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest of
a machinery space sea water cooling system? |
The air may be
continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges. |
The air may be
continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load
line. |
The air may be
continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges. |
The air may be
continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load
line. |
|
A |
What operating
condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea suction
to a low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system? |
Underway operations
or encountering rough seas. |
Increasing the
number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. |
Reducing the total
number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. |
Entering port
or shallow water. |
|
D |
What operating
condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea suction
to a high sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system? |
Reducing the total
number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. |
Increasing the
number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. |
Underway operations
or encountering rough seas. |
Entering port
or shallow water. |
|
B |
What provision
is made for sea chests for removal of solid debris restricting the entry
grating into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?
|
The debris is
continuously removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed
air or steam by cracking open the blow valve, as appropriate. |
The debris may
be removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed air or
steam, as appropriate. |
The debris may
be removed by draining the sea chest clear by opening a drain valve located
at the bottom of the sea chest. |
The debris is
continuously removed by draining the sea chest clear by cracking open a
drain valve located at the bottom of the sea chest. |
|
C |
What provision
is made for sea chests for removal of ice from within the sea chest of a
machinery space sea water cooling system during operation in icy waters? |
The ice may be
removed by using the chemical de-icing anti-freeze connection, if provided. |
The ice may be
removed by using the fire main flushing connection, if provided. |
The ice may be
removed by using the steaming out sea chest blow connection, if provided. |
The ice may be
removed by using the compressed air sea chest blow connection, if provided. |
|
A |
Referring to the
illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, which pump can
be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergency?
Illustration SP-SW-01 |
The two-speed
main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. |
The single-speed
main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. |
Any of the sea
water service pumps can be used for this purpose. |
The auxiliary
sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. |
|
D |
Referring to the
illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, which pump is considered
a high-head pump operating with the highest discharge pressure? Illustration
SP-SW-01 |
The auxiliary
sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump. |
The two-speed
main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump. |
The single-speed
main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump. |
Any of the sea
water service pumps are considered high-head pumps. |
|
A |
Referring to illustrated
steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning
seawater service system to auxiliary circulating seawater system cross-connect
capability? Illustration SP-SW-01 |
In the event of
auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may
be used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary circulating
sea water system heat exchangers. |
In the event of
auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may
be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating seawater, and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers. |
In the event of
multiple seawater service system pump failures, the auxiliary circulating
pump may be used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers. |
In the event of
multiple seawater service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating sea water,
and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. |
|
A |
Referring to the
illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling temperature control
system? Illustration MP-CW-06 |
The main engine
jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is
used to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature. |
The main engine
jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and
is used to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature. |
The main engine
jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is
used to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature. |
The main engine
jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and
is used to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature. |
|
B |
Referring to the
illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, which cooling
system tanks are MOST likely to have oil separation capability? Illustration
MP-CW-06 |
SSDG fresh water
expansion tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank. |
Injector cooling
water tank and piston cooling water drain tank. |
Piston cooling
water drain tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank. |
Injector cooling
water tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank. |
|
D |
Referring to the
illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling system heat recovery
capability as associated with generating fresh water? Illustration MP-CW-06 |
The main engine
jacket water heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use
in generating fresh water at the evaporator. |
The main engine
jacket water cooler is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use
in generating fresh water at the evaporator. |
The evaporator
standby heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in
generating fresh water at the evaporator. |
The evaporator
itself is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating
fresh water at the evaporator. |
|
A |
Referring to the
illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning the jacket water heater? Illustration MP-CW-06 |
The jacket water
heater is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm. |
The jacket water
heater is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental
heat for the evaporator. |
The jacket water
heater is used only when the engine is idle for the sole purpose of generating
fresh water at the evaporator. |
The jacket water
heater is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine
heat. |
|
C |
Referring to the
illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning the standby heating coil? Illustration MP-CW-06 |
The
standby heating coil is used under high engine load conditions to supplement
the jacket water cooler.
|
The standby heating
coil is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm. |
The standby heating
coil is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental heat
for the evaporator. |
The standby heating
coil is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine
heat. |
|
A |
For a typical
diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be generally
used to introduce water treatment chemicals? |
Jacket water expansion
tank. |
Jacket water outlet
header |
Jacket water inlet
header. |
Jacket water pump
vent. |
|
C |
Referring to the
illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning the evaporator? Illustration MP-CW-06 |
The
evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat
source to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and after the
jacket water cooler.
o |
The evaporator
uses heat recovered from the jacket water cooler seawater as a heat source
to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket
water cooler. |
The evaporator
uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source
to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket
water cooler. |
The evaporator
uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source
to generate fresh water and is piped in parallel with the jacket water cooler. |
|
C |
Referring to the
illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket
water cooling system? Illustration MP-CW-06 |
The
turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions
the cooling water flow so that the turbocharger receives a greater flow
rate of cooling water as compared to the main engine cooling water jackets.
|
The turbocharger
cooling water bypass line with the control orifice works in conjunction
with the deaerator to remove entrained air from the jacket water outlet. |
The turbocharger
cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives a lesser flow rate of cooling
water as compared to the main engine cooling water jackets. |
The turbocharger
cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives the same flow rate of cooling
water as does the main engine cooling water jackets. |
|
B |
Referring to the
illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, which set of cooling
water pumps would MOST likely require a priming maintenance system or the
use of deep well pumps? Illustration MP-CW-06 |
The main engine
jacket cooling fresh water pumps. |
The main engine
piston cooling fresh water pumps. |
The main engine
injector cooling fresh water pumps. |
The ship's service
diesel generator fresh water cooling pumps. |
|
A |
Referring to the
illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning sea water service system to auxiliary circulating sea
water system cross-connect capability? Illustration SP-SW-01 |
In the event of
auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple sea water service pumps may
be used to supply both the sea water service system and auxiliary circulating
sea water system heat exchangers. |
In the event of
auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple sea water service pumps may
be used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea water, and
auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. |
In the event of
multiple sea water service system pump failures, the auxiliary circulating
pump may be used to supply both the sea water service system and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers. |
In the event of
multiple sea water service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the sea water service, main circulating sea
water, and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. |
|
C |
Referring to the
illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, which cooling
system has cooling water passing through passages within components that
are continuously undergoing motion? Illustration MP-CW-06 |
The main engine
jacket water cooling system. |
The SSDG cooling
water systems |
The main engine
piston cooling water system. |
The main engine
injector cooling water system. |
|
B |
On deep-draft
ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for machinery
space sea water cooling systems? |
A low sea suction
is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a high sea suction is located near the bottom
of the ship and is used primarily while underway. |
A high sea suction
is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a low sea suction is located near the bottom
of the ship and is used primarily while underway. |
A high sea suction
is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used
primarily in port or when operating in shallow water. |
A low sea suction
is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used
primarily in port or when operating in shallow water. |
|
D |
What operating
condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea suction
to a high sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system? |
Increasing the
number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. |
Reducing the total
number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service. |
Underway operations
or encountering rough seas. |
Entering port
or shallow water. |
|
D |
What provision
is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest of
a machinery space sea water cooling system? |
The air may be
continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load
line. |
The air may be
continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges. |
The air may be
continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges. |
The air may be
continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load
line. |
|
C |
Referring to the
illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump can
be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergency?
Illustration SP- SW-01 |
The single-speed
main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. |
The auxiliary
sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. |
The two-speed
main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose. |
Any of the sea
water service pumps can be used for this purpose. |
|
B |
Referring to illustrated
steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning
seawater service system to auxiliary circulating seawater system cross-connect
capability? Illustration SP-SW-01 |
In the event of
multiple seawater service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating sea water,
and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat exchangers. |
In the event of
auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may
be used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary circulating
sea water system heat exchangers. |
In the event of
auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may
be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating seawater, and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers. |
In the event of
multiple seawater service system pump failures, the auxiliary circulating
pump may be used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers. |
|
D |
Referring to the
illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning the jacket water heater? Illustration MP-CW-06 |
The jacket water
heater is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental
heat for the evaporator. |
The jacket water
heater is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine
heat. |
The
jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle for the sole purpose
of generating
fresh water at the evaporator. |
The jacket water
heater is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm. |
|
C |
While riding at
anchor, the anchor chain should be secured by the __________. |
riding spindle |
windlass brake
only |
chain stopper
or riding pawl |
anchor shackle |
|
D |
The part of the
anchor windlass that engages the anchor chain for lifting is called the
__________. |
capstan |
fairlead |
warping head |
wildcat |
|
B |
What color is
used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain? |
Yellow |
Red |
Blue |
White |
|
C |
A shot of anchor
chain has a length of __________. |
12 fathoms |
6 fathoms |
15 fathoms |
45 fathoms |
|
D |
A shot of anchor
chain is equal to __________. |
90 fathoms |
one -15 foot segment |
one chain link |
one -90 foot segment |
|
D |
All of the links
in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted __________. |
red |
orange |
white |
yellow |
|
D |
All of the links
in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __________. |
white |
orange |
yellow |
red |
|
C |
In the hydraulic
anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main pressure
piping is provided by __________. Illustration GS-0160 |
D |
E |
L |
M |
|
C |
A mooring winch
should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________. |
half the breaking
strength of the mooring line |
50% over the working
tension of the mooring line |
the full breaking
strength of the mooring line |
the maximum expected
tension of the mooring line |
|
C |
When the hydraulic
control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position,
the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________. |
opened hydraulically
and held open by spring action whenever the electrical supply is secured |
engaged by spring
action plus hydraulic pressure |
engaged by spring
action and only released by hydraulic pressure |
released by spring
action and hydraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating |
|
C |
The clutch band
of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive
the winch drum and should slip only when __________. |
automatic operation
of the winch is desired |
minimum pull is
being exerted by the winch |
excessive loads
are placed on the winch |
wire is being
retrieved at the maximum rate |
|
B |
The best method
of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is
to __________. |
apply a light
oil to the bearing housing |
replace the bearing
with a new one |
allow the winch
to run at slower speeds only |
add grease through
the zerk fitting |
|
D |
If you are given
the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch, and are not certain
as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________. |
add any oil that
has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid |
add fluid that
is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir |
add turbine oil
because it is always a good substitute |
check the winch
manufacturer's instruction book |
|
B |
Winch gears must
be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________. |
wear on the braking
system |
damage to the
teeth |
over speeding
of the motor |
overheating of
the lube oil |
|
B |
The hydraulic
pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may begin
to cavitate if __________. Illustration GS-0118 |
"A"
is allowed to remain open |
"D"
is not kept clean |
"H"
were to be removed and the system operated for thirty minutes without it
being replaced |
"B"
is over tightened |
|
A |
If a lifeboat
winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you
should __________. |
adjust the centrifugal
brake mechanism |
engage the motor
friction clutch bands |
adjust the davit
mounted limit switches |
remove unnecessary
weight from the boat |
|
C |
Which problems
can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively
worn? |
The anchor will
immediately drop. |
The clutch will
overheat. |
The brake's effectiveness
will be reduced. |
The driving engine
will over speed. |
|
C |
The hydraulic
system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic
fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch
is started would indicate __________. |
the fluid level
in the reservoir is too high |
clogged suction
line fluid filters |
air trapped in
the system |
abrasive matter
circulating in the oil |
|
B |
Overheating of
the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result from
a/an __________. |
low fluid viscosity
around the shaft seal |
low fluid level
in the reservoir |
high oil level
in the sump |
overload on the
pump motor |
|
B |
In the hydraulic
anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is
on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being
applied, and nearly normal pressure is indicated on the high side of the
system, the probable cause is the __________. Illustration GS-0160 |
manual transfer
valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated |
relief valve "L"
is not closing |
replenishing pump
coupling is broken |
pressure from "E"
has failed to bleed off when "J" is placed in the operating position |
|
C |
In the hydraulic
anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is
on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side
of the system increases to half of the normal operating pressure regardless
of the direction of movement in which the servo control is placed, the probable
cause is the __________. Illustration GS-0160 |
replenishing pump
coupling is broken |
relief valve is
not opening |
manual transfer
valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated |
spring set point
for "I" is too high |
|
A |
In the hydraulic
anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve opens
as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the
__________. Illustration GS-0160 |
manual transfer
valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated |
replenishing pump
discharge check valves are continuously open |
spring set point "I"
is set too high for normal loads |
relief valve control
shuttle has shifted to the wrong position during windlass operation |
|
B |
As it pertains
to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor
windlass, what statement is true? |
The brake is hydraulically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the pump
is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. |
The brake is spring
set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic
pressure. |
The brake is spring
set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic
pressure. |
The brake is hydraulically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the pump
is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. |
|
B |
As it pertains
to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical anchor
windlass, what statement is true? |
The brake is electrically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when power
is removed from the electric drive motor. |
The brake is spring
set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when electric
power is removed from the electric drive motor. |
The brake is spring
set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. |
The brake is electrically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when electric
power is removed from the electric drive motor. |
|
A |
A horizontal electro-mechanical
anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual
brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated
pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the
operation of the windlass clutch control levers? |
The clutch control
levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only. They have no
control over the warping heads. |
The clutch control
levers are used to engage and disengage the warping heads only. They have
no control over the wildcats. |
The clutch control
levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping heads and the wildcats. |
The clutch control
levers are used to either engage and disengage the warping heads or the
wildcats, depending upon the windlass design. |
|
B |
A horizontal electro-mechanical
anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual
brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated
pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the
operation of the pedestal-mounted controller? |
The pedestal-mounted
controller allows the wildcats to rotate in either direction of rotation,
but the warping heads in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds
from zero to maximum. |
The pedestal-mounted
controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in either
direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum. |
The pedestal-mounted
controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in only
one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum. |
The pedestal-mounted
controller allows the warping heads to rotate in either direction of rotation,
but the wildcats in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from
zero to maximum. |
|
C |
A horizontal electro-mechanical
anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual
brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated,
pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the
operation of the manual brake hand wheels? |
The
manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both
the wildcats and the warping heads.
o |
The manual brake
hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping
heads only. |
The manual brake
hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only. |
The manual brake
hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the wildcats
or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design. |
|
C |
A horizontal electro-mechanical
anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual
brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated,
pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the
operation of the warping heads and wildcats? |
The
warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating
the wildcats by disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power
is applied to the electric drive motor, the wildcats will rotate.
|
The wildcats can
be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping
heads by disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power
is applied to the electric drive motor, the wildcats will rotate. |
The warping heads
can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats
by disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied
to the electric drive motor, the warping heads will rotate. |
The wildcats can
be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping
heads by disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power
is applied to the electric drive motor, the warping heads will rotate. |
|
A |
In attempting
to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic
anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting? |
Failure to start
could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic
pump stroke control being in other than the neutral position. |
Failure to start
could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat
clutches being disengaged. |
Failure to start
could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with hand wheel
operated wildcat band brakes being set. |
Failure to start
could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic
pump stroke control being in the neutral position. |
|
D |
As it pertains
to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or
electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true? |
The anchor can
be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling
the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
engaged. |
The anchor can
only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by disengaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling
the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
engaged. |
The anchor can
only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling
the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
disengaged. |
The anchor can
be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the
anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
disengaged. |
|
C |
As it pertains
to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true? |
The
brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically
releases when power is removed from the electric drive motor.
|
The brake is spring
set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. |
The brake is spring
set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when electric
power is removed from the electric drive motor. |
The brake is electrically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when electric
power is removed from the electric drive motor. |
|
C |
What statement
is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a winding
drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship? |
Platform
interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard
emergency when elevators are required to be used.
|
Platform interlocks
are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when elevators
are not to be used. |
Platform interlocks
are used to prevent door operation if the platform is at other than a deck
level and only allow door operation when the platform is proved at a deck
level. |
Platform interlocks
are used to prevent door operation if the platform is proved at a deck level
and only allow door operation when the platform is at a position other than
a deck level. |
|
C |
Which capstan
drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction gear
output shaft and the capstan head input shaft? |
The
drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and
capstan head are all located on the weather deck.
o |
The drive arrangement
where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are hung from the underside
of the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather
deck. |
The drive arrangement
where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are mounted on the deck
below the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather
deck. |
A flexible coupling
is required on all three drive arrangements listed above. |
|
A |
Concerning a conventional
mooring winch, what statement is true? |
A high capacity
brake is required to hold a load approaching the breaking strength of the
mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring
line breakage. |
A high capacity
brake is required to hold a load equal to the breaking strength of the mooring
line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted. |
A high capacity
brake is required to hold a load exceeding the breaking strength of the
mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted. |
A low capacity
brake is required to hold a load far below the breaking strength of the
mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring
line breakage. |
|
D |
As it pertains
to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true? |
A constant-tension
mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies above a certain
preset tension. |
A constant-tension
mooring winch is set to automatically recover, but not render, mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies below a certain
preset tension. |
A constant-tension
mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line
using the brake when the mooring line tension varies above certain preset
tension. |
A constant-tension
mooring winch is set to automatically render and recover mooring line using
the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies outside of narrow preset
adjustable tension limits. |
|
B |
As it pertains
to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling
pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true? |
The brake is hydraulically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the hoist
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic
pressure. |
The brake is spring
set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic
pressure. |
The brake is hydraulically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the hoist
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic
pressure. |
The brake is spring
set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure. |
|
C |
As it pertains
to the luffing motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling
pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true? |
When
the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to
the boom, the luffing pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch
brake released.
o |
When the hoist
block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to the boom,
the luffing pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake set. |
When the boom
is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible
height, the luffing pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch
brake set. |
When the boom
is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible
height, the luffing pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch
brake released. |
|
C |
As it pertains
to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling
pedestal-type deck crane, which statement is true? |
When
the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the hoist pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist
winch brake released.
|
When the hoist
cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block
is raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist
pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake released. |
When the hoist
cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block
is raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist
pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake set. |
When the boom
is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible
height, the hoist pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake
set. |
|
C |
For an electro-hydraulic
cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would result in an immediate
stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing? |
All motions are
stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and minimum outreach
limit switches. |
All motions are
stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches. |
All motions are
stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane. |
All motions are
stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or the slack
wire limit switch. |
|
A |
What statement
is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding
drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship? |
Door interlocks
are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still open and only
allow elevator operation if the doors are proved closed. |
Door interlocks
are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still closed and
only allow elevator operation if the doors are proved open. |
Door interlocks
are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when elevators
are not to be used. |
Door interlocks
are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used. |
|
D |
As it pertains
to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor
windlass, what statement is true? |
The brake is spring
set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic
pressure. |
The brake is hydraulically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the pump
is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. |
The brake is hydraulically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the pump
is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure. |
The brake is spring
set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic
pressure. |
|
B |
A horizontal electro-mechanical
anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual
brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated
pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the
operation of the windlass clutch control levers? |
The clutch control
levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping heads and the wildcats. |
The clutch control
levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only. They have no
control over the warping heads.
|
D. The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage either the
warping heads or the wildcats, depending upon the windlass design. |
The clutch control
levers are used to engage and disengage the warping heads only. They have
no control over the wildcats. |
|
C |
A horizontal electro-mechanical
anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual
brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated,
pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the
operation of the manual brake hand wheels? |
The
manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both
the wildcats and the warping heads.
o |
The manual brake
hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping
heads only. |
The manual brake
hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only. |
The manual brake
hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the wildcats
or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design. |
|
C |
In attempting
to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic
anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting? |
Failure
to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with
hand wheel operated wildcat band brakes being set.
o |
Failure to start
could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic
pump stroke control being in the neutral position. |
Failure to start
could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic
pump stroke control being in other than the neutral position. |
Failure to start
could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat
clutches being disengaged. |
|
D |
As it pertains
to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or
electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true? |
The anchor can
be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling
the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
engaged. |
The anchor can
only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling
the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
disengaged. |
The anchor can
only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by disengaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling
the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
engaged. |
The anchor can
be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the
anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch
disengaged. |
|
C |
As it pertains
to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true? |
The
brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically
releases when power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o |
The brake is spring
set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor. |
The brake is spring
set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when electric
power is removed from the electric drive motor. |
The brake is electrically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when electric
power is removed from the electric drive motor. |
|
A |
Concerning a conventional
mooring winch, what statement is true? |
A high capacity
brake is required to hold a load approaching the breaking strength of the
mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring
line breakage. |
A high capacity
brake is required to hold a load equal to the breaking strength of the mooring
line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted. |
A high capacity
brake is required to hold a load exceeding the breaking strength of the
mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted. |
A low capacity
brake is required to hold a load far below the breaking strength of the
mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring
line breakage. |
|
A |
As it pertains
to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling
pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true? |
The brake is spring
set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic
pressure. |
The brake is hydraulically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the hoist
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic
pressure. |
The brake is hydraulically
set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the hoist
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic
pressure. |
The brake is spring
set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power
hydraulic pressure. |
|
D |
As it pertains
to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling
pedestal-type deck crane, which statement is true? |
When the boom
is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible
height, the hoist pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake
set. |
When the boom
is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum permissible
height, the hoist pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake
released. |
When the hoist
cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block
is raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist
pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake released. |
When the hoist
cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block
is raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist
pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake set. |
|
B |
For an electro-hydraulic
cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would result in an immediate
stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing? |
All motions are
stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches. |
All motions are
stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane. |
All motions are
stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or the slack
wire limit switch. |
All motions are
stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and minimum outreach
limit switches. |
|
B |
What statement
is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding
drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship? |
Door interlocks
are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when elevators
are not to be used. |
Door interlocks
are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still open and only
allow elevator operation if the doors are proved closed. |
Door interlocks
are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still closed and
only allow elevator operation if the doors are proved open. |
Door interlocks
are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used. |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements is correct relative to distillation plant operation? |
Distillation is
the process of boiling seawater to produce vapor which is condensed into
fresh water. |
Evaporation is
the second part of the distillation process where brine is removed. |
Distillate is
the product resulting from the evaporation of fresh water vapor. |
Brine is the result
of condensed sea water vapor. |
|
A |
The primary reason
low pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and with less
scale formation, than high pressure evaporators is __________. |
evaporation is
accomplished in a vacuum |
evaporation in
a submerged medium produces more distillate |
due to the higher
temperature of the incoming feed |
due to the latent
heat of evaporation principle |
|
D |
The process of
boiling seawater in order to separate it into freshwater vapor and brine
is usually defined as __________. |
dehydration |
dissolution |
condensation |
evaporation |
|
B |
In the production
of freshwater from sea water through a process of heating and cooling, the
cooling phase of production is usually called __________. |
dehydration |
condensation |
evaporation |
distillation |
|
C |
When any low pressure
distilling plant is operated with less than the designed vacuum, the __________. |
scale formation
decreases |
heat level drops |
heat level rises |
capacity increases |
|
B |
The efficiency
of a flash type evaporator can be increased by __________. |
increasing the
saltwater feed heater temperature |
decreasing the
absolute pressure of each stage |
lowering brine
discharge density |
increasing the
pressure at the spray pipe |
|
A |
Why would a flash
type distilling unit be more efficient when operated in cooler seawater
temperatures? |
Evaporator vacuum
is increased. |
Steam carryover
between stages is reduced. |
Feed water flow
from the feed water heater is increased. |
The amount of
available flash steam is decreased. |
|
D |
In a two-stage
flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is increased as it passes
through the __________. |
first-stage distilling
condenser |
second-stage distilling
condenser |
salt water feed
heater |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Which of the following
descriptions best identifies the operating principal of a flash-type evaporator? |
Sea water is heated
to boiling temperature while under a vacuum. |
Sea water is passed
over heated plates in a thin film. |
Heated sea water
is injected into a vacuum chamber. |
Sea water is forced
through a heated eductor. |
|
A |
In a flash evaporator,
heated water under pressure is converted into vapor by suddenly __________. |
decreasing its
pressure |
increasing its
velocity |
decreasing its
density |
increasing its
temperature |
|
B |
Diesel engine
jacket water is used in the fresh water distillation process as the __________. |
primary means
of producing a vacuum within the distiller |
means of heating
the feed water |
coolant for the
brine cooler |
coolant for the
distillate |
|
D |
What is the function
of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
It aids in removing
condenser tube bundles. |
It provides a
conduit for incoming feed water. |
It is only used
as a lifting beam during installation. |
It serves as a
hinge for ease of opening the shell. |
|
C |
Which of the following
represents the motivating power fluid used in conjunction with the ejector
pumps on plate type evaporators? |
The ejectors do
not require a motive power. |
The motive power
is the jacket water flowing through the ejectors. |
The motive power
is the feed water supply. |
The motive power
is the brine pump output, prior to being discharged overboard. |
|
A |
The primary function
of line 'J' shown in the illustration is to __________. Illustration MO-0110 |
remove air and
non-condensable gases from the unit |
remove condensable
gases from the unit |
allow for removal
of produced distillate |
prevent backflow
of eductor discharge |
|
D |
The function of
device "O" shown in the illustration is to __________. Illustration
MO-0110 |
provide a positive
suction head for the brine pump |
regulate the amount
of brine entering the unit |
control the amount
of brine exiting the evaporator |
control the amount
of feed water entering the evaporator |
|
A |
In which of the
following fresh water generators would an air ejector be unnecessary? |
Reverse-osmosis
unit |
Submerged tube
unit |
Titanium plate
unit |
Flash type unit |
|
B |
Which of the following
fresh water generators has an operating principle that evaporates preheated
sea water by causing it to undergo a pressure drop into a vacuum? |
Submerged tube
unit |
Flash type unit |
Titanium plate
unit |
Reverse osmosis
unit |
|
C |
Which of the following
freshwater generators has an operating principle that requires it to run
under a substantially positive pressure? |
Submerged tube
unit |
Titanium plate
unit |
Reverse-osmosis
unit |
Flash type unit |
|
C |
Which of the freshwater
generators listed below is operated without a source of heat? |
Titanium plate
type |
Flash type |
Reverse-osmosis
type |
Submerged tube
type |
|
D |
Which of the freshwater
generators listed below requires a source of heat and evaporates sea water
at a location other than a heat exchanger surface? |
Submerged tube
type |
Reverse-osmosis
type |
Titanium plate
type |
Flash type |
|
B |
With regard to
fresh water generators, what statement concerning brine is true? |
Brine is the cooling
medium used for chill-shocking as a means for scale removal. |
Brine is the unevaporated
sea water of a fresh water generator as the result of distillation. |
Brine is the cooling
medium used for cooling the distillate before distribution. |
Brine is the incoming
sea water feed to the fresh water generator and destined for distillation. |
|
D |
What is the function
of device 'C' shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
The division plate
creates a pressure drop between the two stages. |
It allows for
access into section 'F'. |
It controls the
amount of vapor produced in section 'F'. |
It removes moisture
entrained in the vapors produced in section 'G'. |
|
C |
Which of the following
is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in
the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
It supplies feed
water to evaporator. |
It supplies the
operating medium used in the removal of the brine. |
It supplies the
operating medium used in the removal of the distillate. |
It supplies the
operating medium used in the removal of air and non-condensable gases. |
|
A |
The heat exchanger
plates, used in the device shown in the illustration, are produced from
which of the listed materials? Illustration MO-0110 |
Titanium |
Copper |
Anodized aluminum |
Phosphor bronze |
|
B |
What is the function
of item 'D' shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
It condenses the
distillate. |
It heats the entering
feed water. |
It causes the
jacket water to evaporate. |
It heats the jacket
water entering the device. |
|
D |
Which of the following
conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown
in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
Non-condensable
vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated. |
The sea water
flowing through device "I" is cooled. |
The jacket water
flowing through device "I" is heated. |
The vapors produced
in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are
removed. |
|
B |
What occurs in
the space labeled "G" of the device shown in the illustration?
Illustration MO-0110 |
Jacket water is
heated in the boiling chamber. |
The feed water
enters the device and vaporizes under vacuum conditions. |
The feed water
is cooled prior to being pumped into section "F". |
Scale accumulates
at position "E". |
|
C |
What is the function
of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
It provides a
conduit for incoming feed water. |
It aids in removing
condenser tube bundles. |
It serves as a
hinge for ease of opening the shell. |
It is only used
as a lifting beam during installation. |
|
C |
Which of the tools
listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat exchangers used
in the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
Torque wrench |
Pneumatic impact
wrench |
Steel ruler or
tape measure |
Cantilever wrench |
|
D |
Which of the following
conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea water leakage
in the illustrated device. Illustration MO-0110 |
Improper venting
during start-up. |
Improper venting
during operation. |
Failure to properly
tighten the bolts of the evaporator heat exchanger. |
Failure to properly
tighten the bolts of the condenser heat exchanger. |
|
B |
Failure to establish
sufficient vacuum when starting up the unit shown in the illustration may
be the result of __________. Illustration MO-0110 |
improper operation
of the brine pump |
neglecting to
close the vent shell |
improper operation
of the distillate pump |
neglecting to
latch the dump valve |
|
A |
When tightening
the plate type heat exchangers shown in the illustration, care must be taken
to __________. Illustration MO-0110 |
use a specific
opposing pattern while measuring the distance to which the plates have been
compressed |
avoid fracturing
the backing plate |
avoid using a
torque wrench that has not been recently calibrated |
prevent damage
to the aluminum plates |
|
D |
What is a function
of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustration? Illustration
MO-0111 |
It provides a
low pressure point for combustion air filtration. |
It relieves the
excessive pressure developed in the jacket water cooler. |
It aids in the
removal of combustible gases formed in the crankcase. |
It provides a
low pressure point for adding chemicals into the jacket water system. |
|
B |
What is the function
of the device labeled "3" shown in the illustration? Illustration
MO-0111 |
The heat exchanger
serves to heat the jacket water during cold water operation. |
The cooler removes
sensible heat from the jacket water. |
The jacket water
cooler is used to raise the temperature of the sea water flowing through
it. |
The device specifically
serves to remove the latent heat of vaporization from the jacket water. |
|
A |
Item "10"
shown in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration MO-0111 |
direct the flow
from the distillate pump |
regulate flow
from the drain pump |
prevent damage
to device "9" by reducing turbulence |
cancel the effects
of improper regulation developed by device "11" |
|
A |
The operation
of the lube oil cooler, shown in the illustration as item #4, will be characterized
by which of the following statements? Illustration MO-0111 |
The temperature
of the sea water entering the cooler will be higher when operating with
the distiller on line. |
The pressure of
the lube oil to the cooler will increase whenever the distiller is on line. |
The pressure of
the sea water to the lube oil cooler will increase with the distiller on
line. |
The temperature
of the lube oil entering the cooler will decrease whenever the distiller
is on line. |
|
C |
Device '27' shown
in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration MO-0111 |
relieve excess
pressure |
add de-scaling
chemicals as needed |
regulate maximum
vacuum during normal operation |
purge the unit
of non-condensable gases |
|
C |
What occurs within
the tubes of the device labeled "23" shown in the illustration?
Illustration MO-0111 |
The
heat being transferred is subliminal; therefore expansion is taking place
within the tubes. |
The heat from
the jacket water passing within the tubes is being transferred to the feed
water on the outside of the tubes. |
The feed water
flowing through the inside of the tubes is being heated by the jacket water
on the outside of the tubes. |
The heat of combustion
from the engine is being transferred azeotropically, adding latent heat
to the entering jacket water. |
|
C |
When securing
a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended period of
time, you should __________. |
fill the unit
with saltwater |
fill the unit
with descaling compound |
completely drain
the unit |
tightly seal the
unit to exclude air |
|
B |
Which of the following
acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale removal from the heating
surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator? |
Concentrated hydrochloric
acid |
Citric or sulfuric
acid |
Concentrated sulfuric
acid |
Muriatic acid |
|
D |
What would be
the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"?
Illustration MO-0111 |
The level in area "3"
would decrease. |
The level in area "3"
would increase. |
The level in area "1"
would increase. |
The level in area "1"
would decrease. |
|
B |
If valve "D"
is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the illustration,
which of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111 |
The jacket water
cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm. |
The amount of
vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease. |
The output of
pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure. |
The amount of
vapor formed in the evaporator will increase. |
|
B |
A vacuum is initially
created in a flash type distilling plant by __________. |
the flashing of
the feed water |
air ejectors,
eductors, or a separate vacuum pump |
the condensation
of the saltwater feed |
condensation of
the distillate |
|
D |
In the unit illustrated,
the feed water temperature is required to be increased to 165°F or greater
and must exist at this temperature when leaving __________. Illustration
GS-0053 |
HX1 |
FC1 |
HX4 |
HX5 |
|
B |
Early models of
the flash-type evaporators used a separate shell-and-tube heat exchanger
as the air ejector condenser. More recent models use a combined air ejector
condenser with the __________. |
flash chamber |
salt water feed
heater |
distillate cooler |
distilling condenser |
|
B |
Small droplets
of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type evaporator
are removed by the __________. |
condensers |
demisters |
splash baffles |
spray pipes |
|
A |
The brine level
in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by
the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________. |
throughput of
the brine overboard pump |
steam flow rate
to the air ejectors |
float controlled
level of the feed heater |
capacity of the
distillate pump |
|
B |
The absolute pressure
maintained in the shell of the salt water feed heater on most flash evaporators
used on steam propelled vessels is __________. |
slightly less
than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing valve outlet |
slightly less
than the absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction |
slightly lower
than the first stage vacuum |
slightly higher
than the second stage vacuum |
|
B |
When should mechanical
cleaning of feed water heater tubes be accomplished? |
Any time when
increased steam flow to the feed water heater shell is required to maintain
distillate production capacity. |
Only when chemical
cleaning fails to restore distillate production capacity to normal. |
During regularly
scheduled maintenance. |
Any time there
is a drop-off on distillate production capacity. |
|
D |
Other than taking
a scale thickness through a zinc plug opening of the water box of a feed
water heater of a flash evaporator, what would be the BEST indication for
a need to remove scale build-up? |
A drop in the
feed water heater shell temperature and a rise in the feed water heater
shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum). |
A rise in the
feed water heater shell temperature and a drop in the feed water heater
shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum). |
A drop in the
feed water heater shell temperature and a drop in the feed water heater
shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum). |
A rise in the
feed water heater shell temperature and a rise in the feed water heater
shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum). |
|
C |
What procedure
can be used to reduce the rate of scale formation on the heating surfaces
of a flash evaporator while still maintaining the desired rate of distillate
production? |
Decreasing the
feed water heater shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum). |
Increasing the
feed water heater shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum). |
Chemically treating
the incoming feed water. |
Chemically treating
the outgoing brine. |
|
B |
While circulating
heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for
the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of successful
removal of the scale? |
No change in color
(remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas. |
No change in color
(remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas. |
Change in color
(turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas. |
Change in color
(turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas. |
|
D |
While circulating
heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for
the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of the continued
presence of scale? |
Change in color
(turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas. |
No change in color
(remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas. |
No change in color
(remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas. |
Change in color
(turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas. |
|
C |
A high reading
is only indicated at the salinity cells labeled "W" and "6"
shown in the illustration. This would be the probable result of __________.
Illustration GS-0053 |
a tube leak in
item 'IV', which contributes to a surging absolute pressure in "III" |
carryover from "III" |
a faulty cell
at location "6" and a tube leak in item "I" |
erosion of item "3"
or the valve opened too wide if used |
|
C |
Scale formation
in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the __________. |
flash chamber
walls |
tubes of the distiller
condenser |
tubes of the salt
water feed heater |
tubes of the air
ejector condenser |
|
B |
If the distilling
plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the second
stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due
to __________. |
priming in the
second stage |
an air leak through
a vacuum gage line in the first stage |
loss of the distillate
loop seal between the stages |
failure of the
brine pump |
|
A |
On which of the
following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more likely
to find soft scale formation? |
Feed water heater
internal tube surfaces. |
Internal distillate
cooler tubes. |
Flash chamber
vertical surfaces. |
Distilling condenser
tubes. |
|
C |
Indicated high
salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type distilling plant
will be a result of __________. |
carrying the brine
level below normal |
reduced feed water
heater temperatures |
leaks in the demister
baffles |
operating at reduced
vacuum conditions |
|
A |
Regarding a freshwater
generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true? |
The solute is
salt and the solvent is fresh water. |
The solute is
fresh water and the solvent is salt. |
The solute is
saltwater and the solvent is salt. |
The solute is
salt and the solvent is saltwater. |
|
C |
To ensure potable
water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse-osmosis
freshwater generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment? |
Chemical
pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the sea
water inlet to the unit to prevent fouling of the membrane modules.
o |
Chemical pre-treatment
removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the freshwater leaving
the unit prior to distribution to the various freshwater storage tanks. |
Chemical pre-treatment
sterilizes the sea water entering the unit to prevent bacteria from becoming
resident in the reverse-osmosis unit filters and membrane modules. |
Chemical pre-treatment
sterilizes the freshwater leaving the unit prior to distribution to the
various freshwater storage tanks. |
|
D |
Regarding the
operating principle of a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator, what
statement is true? |
External pressure
is applied to the side of strong concentration forcing salt through the
semipermeable membrane to the side of weak concentration. |
External pressure
is applied to the side of weak concentration forcing salt through the semipermeable
membrane to the side of strong concentration. |
External pressure
is applied to the side of weak concentration forcing freshwater through
the semi-permeable membrane to the side of strong concentration. |
External pressure
is applied to the side of strong concentration forcing freshwater through
the semi-permeable membrane to the side of weak concentration. |
|
B |
Regarding a reverse-osmosis
type freshwater generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules,
what statement is true? |
Modules may be
piped in series to increase the freshwater throughput. |
Modules may be
piped in series to increase the freshwater purity. |
Modules may be
piped in parallel to increase the freshwater purity. |
Modules may be
piped in series to decrease the likelihood of fouling. |
|
C |
For the successful
operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high pressure
pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure? |
To overcome the
pore size of the semi-permeable membrane. |
To successfully
force the salt water through the chemical pre-treatment device. |
To overcome the
osmotic pressure generated by the difference in solution concentrations. |
To successfully
force the salt water through the pre-filter (or pre-filters). |
|
B |
Reverse-osmosis
freshwater generators usually feature multiple membrane modules, typically
of the spiral-wound membrane type. How are these multiple membrane modules
piped? |
The multiple membrane
modules are always connected in parallel. |
The multiple membranes
may be connected in series, parallel, or in some combination of series and
parallel. |
The multiple membrane
modules are always connected in series. |
The multiple membranes
may be connected in series or parallel, but never in some combination of
series and parallel. |
|
C |
Regarding the
high-pressure pump of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, what statement
is true? |
The
high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage centrifugal pump, but may be
a two-stage rotary pump.
o |
The high-pressure
pump is typically a single-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a single-stage
centrifugal pump. |
The high-pressure
pump is typically a multiple-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a multi-stage
centrifugal pump. |
The high-pressure
pump is typically a two-stage rotary pump, but may be a two-stage centrifugal
pump. |
|
A |
When a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be accomplished? |
The unit must
be flushed with freshwater and treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor. |
The unit must
be flushed with freshwater if anti-bacterial growth inhibitor is unavailable. |
The unit is left
filled with saltwater and treated with anti-bacterial growth inhibitor. |
The unit must
be treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor if the unit is not flushed
with freshwater. |
|
A |
For the successful
operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, the setting of the
brine back pressure regulator is critical. What statement regarding the
set point of this regulator is true? |
If the regulator
setting is set too high, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the regulator
setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low. |
If the regulator
setting is set too low, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the regulator
setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low. |
If the regulator
setting is set too high, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the
regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low. |
If the regulator
setting is set too low, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the regulator
setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low. |
|
C |
What is the BEST
indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement? |
An insufficient
freshwater production by the unit. |
An excessive pressure
drop across the membrane modules. |
An excessive pressure
drop across the pre-treatment filter. |
An excessive salinity
of the freshwater output. |
|
C |
What is the BEST
indication that the membrane modules of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator
must be serviced by flushing or cleaning? |
A lower than normal
feed pressure. |
An insufficient
pressure drop across the membrane modules. |
An excessive pressure
drop across the membrane modules. |
An excessive pressure
drop across the pre-treatment filter. |
|
D |
What is the BEST
indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer semi-permeable
and allowing the solute to pass through? |
Higher than normal
brine overboard back pressure. |
Lower than normal
freshwater production. |
Low freshwater
outlet salinity. |
High freshwater
outlet salinity. |
|
B |
Under what conditions
would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator
MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally
be avoided? |
Entering open
seas. |
Entering harbors. |
Entering high
temperature seas. |
Entering low temperature
seas. |
|
D |
If a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated with the
freshwater outlet, what should be done? |
The pre-filters
should be serviced by cleaning or replacement. |
The post-treatment
sterilizer should be serviced. |
The pre-treatment
chemical doser should be serviced. |
The membrane modules
should be flushed and cleaned. |
|
B |
What component
of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator could be isolated and replaced
with the unit remaining in service? |
A series-connected
membrane module. |
A parallel-connected
membrane module. |
The secondary
pre-treatment filter. |
The primary pre-treatment
filter. |
|
D |
The primary reason
low pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and with less
scale formation, than high pressure evaporators is __________. |
due to the higher
temperature of the incoming feed |
due to the latent
heat of evaporation principle |
evaporation in
a submerged medium produces more distillate |
evaporation is
accomplished in a vacuum |
|
B |
In the production
of freshwater from sea water through a process of heating and cooling, the
cooling phase of production is usually called __________. |
dehydration |
condensation |
distillation |
evaporation |
|
B |
The pipe identified
by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is __________. Illustration
MO-0110 |
directly connected
to the jacket water supply line |
attached to the
air ejector |
attached to the
outlet of the brine ejector |
directly connected
to the feed water supply line |
|
A |
For the operation
of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the connection
labeled "I"? Illustration MO-0110 |
The sea water
used for condensing the water vapor. |
Main engine jacket
water. |
The salt water
feed. |
The distillate
discharge. |
|
D |
If the demister
used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which
of the following will occur? Illustration MO-0110 |
The temperature
of the device will decrease. |
Interstage leakage
will cause a decrease in output. |
The vacuum of
the device will increase. |
There will be
an increase of chlorides measured at the distillate pump salinity cell. |
|
C |
Which device is
used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distiller? Illustration
MO-0111 |
"19" |
"12" |
"26" |
"13" |
|
D |
Where is the latent
heat obtained to create vapor from the feed water in the illustrated distiller?
Illustration MO-0111 |
While it is in
contact with device "24". |
During its contact
period with heat exchanger "3". |
Only as it passes
through device "20". |
From having passed
through "23". |
|
C |
Excess brine accumulated
in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during normal operation
by __________. Illustration MO-0111 |
the hydrokineter
labeled "21" |
opening the drain
valve located to the left of orifice "19" |
the continuous
action of ejector "22" |
orifice "19"
regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing
excess brine accumulation |
|
C |
Which of the following
statements describes what will occur to the volume of water vapor as it
is exposed to the lower temperatures existing in the device labeled "24"
shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 |
The volume is
increased as condensation occurs at the tube surfaces. |
The
volume will increase if the valve labeled "J" is opened excessively,
resulting in an
increase of the distiller absolute
pressure. |
The volume is
greatly reduced, contributing to condensation within the condenser. |
The latent heat
of condensation is removed causing the volume to increase. |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements describes the approximate relation between the feed water entering
the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration
MO-0111 |
Seventy-five percent
of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine. |
The brine will
be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility
of flooding. |
Twenty-five percent
of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine. |
The amount of
feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7",
while the amount of brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21". |
|
D |
In a jacket-water
heated submerged tube evaporator, what is the primary factor that determines
the rate of scale build-up on the submerged tube bundle? |
The chemical composition
of the jacket water coolant additive package. |
The sea water
inlet temperature to the evaporator section. |
The salt content
of the sea water inlet to the evaporator section. |
The jacket water
inlet temperature to the submerged tube bundle. |
|
A |
What would happen
if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the
unit in operation? Illustration MO-0111 |
The absolute pressure
of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output. |
The unit would
automatically shut down due to the closing of the low pressure contacts. |
Jacket water would
be automatically by-passed around the distiller. |
The unit would
continue to operate with no adverse effects. |
|
D |
In the unit illustrated,
the feed water temperature is required to be increased to 165°F or greater
and must exist at this temperature when leaving __________. Illustration
GS-0053 |
HX1 |
FC1 |
HX4 |
HX5 |
|
B |
In a two stage
flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is vented to the shell
of the second stage in order to remove vapor from the pump suction? |
Feed water heater
drain pump |
Distillate pump |
Air ejector condenser
drain pump |
Condenser circulating
water pump |
|
D |
In a flash evaporator,
scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur
in the __________. |
second stage vapor
separator |
distillate cooler |
second stage feed
heater |
saltwater feed
heater |
|
C |
When securing
a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should __________. |
fill the unit
with saltwater |
fill the unit
with descaling compound |
completely drain
the unit |
tightly seal the
unit to exclude air |
|
C |
Indicated high
salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type distilling plant
will be a result of __________. |
carrying the brine
level below normal |
reduced feed water
heater temperatures |
leaks in the demister
baffles |
operating at reduced
vacuum conditions |
|
C |
If a higher than
normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator,
you should suspect __________. |
a leak in the
feed water heater |
a clogged desuperheater
water strainer |
a malfunctioning
brine pump |
improper vacuum |
|
D |
While standing
watch in the engine room, you notice a high reading at a salinity cell located
in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator. This would
indicate __________. |
chill shocking
is necessary to remove scale |
leakage at the
second- stage condenser |
faulty operation
of the brine overboard pump |
carryover in the
first- stage |
|
D |
In order for a
reverse-osmosis freshwater generator to be able to overcome the osmotic
pressure without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure
must be controlled. What is the location of the pressure regulator? |
Suction side of
the high-pressure pump. |
Discharge side
of the high-pressure pump. |
Fresh water outlet
from the membrane modules. |
Brine outlet from
the membrane modules. |
|
B |
What is the function
of device "B" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
It serves to boil
off incoming feed water. |
It condenses the
vapors formed in section "G". |
It removes sensible
heat from the jacket water. |
It serves to cool
incoming feed water. |
|
A |
The final heating
of the feed water in a flash type distilling plant is carried out by __________. |
low pressure steam
admitted to the feed water heater |
heat exchange
in the first-stage feedbox |
heat exchange
in each stage distiller condenser |
vaporization in
the first-stage flash chamber |
|
D |
Under normal operating
conditions, the highest temperature and pressure conditions existing for
flash-type evaporators will occur in the __________. |
second stage |
first stage |
brine pump discharge |
salt water feed
heater |
|
D |
Feed water supplied
to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the first-stage
due to __________. |
temperature being
higher than the evaporation temperature of the supplied feed water |
heat exchange
surfaces being directly in the path of the entering feed water |
orifices finely
atomizing the heated feed water entering the flash chamber |
flash chamber
pressure being lower than the saturation pressure corresponding to the feed
water temperature |
|
B |
The brine level
in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by
the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________. |
steam flow rate
to the air ejectors |
throughput of
the brine overboard pump |
capacity of the
distillate pump |
float controlled
level of the feed heater |
|
C |
Where a two-stage
air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator, the first-stage
air ejector takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator, and the
second stage air ejector __________. |
takes suction
from the first stage of the evaporator |
takes suction
from the second stage of the evaporator as well |
takes suction
from the first stage ejector discharge |
is normally idle
and used mainly as a standby unit |
|
A |
Steam supply for
the operation of the low pressure evaporators may be obtained directly from
the __________. |
turbine extraction
line |
turbo-generator
steam supply line |
main steam line |
air ejector exhaust
line |
|
C |
The temperature
of the steam flow to the saltwater feed heater, in a flash type evaporator
can be manipulated by a/an __________. |
sensor wired in
with the three-way salinity dump valve |
pressure regulator
within the supply orifice |
attemporator in
the steam supply piping |
thermally actuated
bypass valve |
|
B |
The second stage
feed water temperature and shell absolute pressure in a multistage, flash
type, distilling plant is __________. |
not related to
the feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure |
lower than the
first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure |
the same as the
first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure |
higher than the
first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure |
|
D |
Regarding the
low pressure evaporator steam control orifice in the live steam supply line,
the steam at the outlet of the orifice if not properly conditioned will
be developed as __________. |
poor quality steam |
desuperheated
steam |
saturated steam |
superheated steam |
|
D |
A fixed orifice
plate is generally installed in the live steam supply to a flash evaporator.
One of the functions of this orifice is to control the quantity of the supplied
steam. A second function is to __________. |
produce a low
salt water feed heater shell absolute pressure |
guarantee that
the steam supply will remain saturated |
produce more useful
desuperheated supply steam |
reduce pressure
fluctuations of the steam supply in the salt water feed heater |
|
C |
The vacuum maintained
in the salt water feed heater shell of a flash-type evaporator is generally
accomplished by __________. |
the fixed orifice
provided in the steam supply line |
a direct unimpeded
connection between second stage and salt water feed heater |
by an external
line from the first stage via a fixed orifice |
a separate air
ejector unit |
|
B |
The thickest deposit
of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the
__________. |
distillate cooler |
saltwater feed
heater |
flash chamber |
first stage condenser |
|
A |
Sacrificial zinc
anodes are used on the saltwater side of heat exchangers to __________. |
reduce electrolytic
action on heat exchanger metals |
keep heat transfer
surfaces shiny and clean |
prevent rapid
accumulation of marine growth |
provide a protective
coating on heat exchanger surfaces |
|
A |
The floating end
of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to __________. |
prevent leakage
past the floating end tube sheet |
modify to a mixer
type cooler |
dissipate heat |
baffle cooling
water so it can be directed on a multiple pass |
|
D |
In the operation
of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of scale formation
is greatly reduced by __________. |
maintaining a
relatively high feed water temperature |
the fact that
the first-stage regulator keeps the heater shell at a constant pressure |
operating the
unit at its rated capacity |
the fact that
no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces anywhere in the unit |
|
B |
When conducting
a hydrostatic test on the distillate cooler shell of a flash type evaporator,
liquid appears well inside one of the tubes. In order to correct this, you
should __________. |
reroll the tube |
plug the tube |
seal weld the
tube |
All of the above. |
|
B |
The purpose of
chill shocking an evaporator is to __________. |
prepare for a
hydrostatic test |
break loose scale
deposits formed on the tubes |
stress relieve
the tubes |
test for leaks
in the tubes |
|
A |
When performing
a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to determine the source
of suspected air leaks you should use. |
fresh water at
or above the ambient temperature |
air and a soap
solution to test all joints |
phosphorescent
hydrazine bisodium solution visible under a black light source |
circulated cold
fresh water, while maintaining all normal unit operating pressures |
|
D |
Scale accumulation
on evaporator heat exchange surfaces __________. |
increases brine
density |
increases distillate
salinity |
reduces metal
corrosion |
reduces heat transfer |
|
D |
In a flash evaporator,
scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur
in the __________. |
second stage vapor
separator |
distillate cooler |
second stage feed
heater |
saltwater feed
heater |
|
C |
If a higher than
normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator,
you should suspect __________. |
a leak in the
feed water heater |
a clogged desuperheater
water strainer |
a malfunctioning
brine pump |
improper vacuum |
|
B |
While operating
a two-stage flash-type evaporator, designed to operate in sea water of 70°F,
the current seawater temperature is 50°F, while the salt water feed temperature
is maintained at 170°F. The three-way solenoid valve trips, directing the
distillate pump discharge to the bilge. Which of the following conditions
is the probable cause for this occurrence? |
Insufficient brine
density being maintained in the second stage. |
Excessive and
violent flashing in each stage. |
Insufficient vacuum
developed as a result of the sea temperature. |
Excessive amount
of feed water being supplied to the first stage. |
|
A |
The efficiency
and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be reduced if
the last effect shell __________. |
brine density
is too low |
pressure does
not fluctuate rapidly |
pressure remains
steady and unchanged |
brine density
does not exceed 1.5/32nd |
|
D |
Air leaking into
a flash type distilling plant could occur through __________. |
valve stems |
gage glass packing |
gasketed joints |
All of the above. |
|
B |
Which of the listed
problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash type evaporator? |
seawater feed
temperature below 165°F |
a cracked distillate
pump vent line |
production of
high salinity distillate |
a leak in the
first stage demister |
|
A |
The thickest deposit
of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the
__________. |
saltwater feed
heater |
distillate cooler |
first stage condenser |
flash chamber |
|
B |
Carryover in a
flash type distilling plant can be a result of __________. |
low distillate
conductivity |
faulty operation
of the brine overboard pump |
high distillate
conductivity |
a pressure drop
through the loop seal |
|
D |
A high reading
at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash
type evaporator would indicate __________. |
faulty operation
of the brine overboard pump |
chill shocking
is necessary to remove scale |
leakage at the
second-stage condenser |
carryover in the
first-stage |
|
A |
A high reading
is indicated at the salinity cells labeled "Y", "Q",
and "6" shown in the illustration. This would be the probable
result of __________. Illustration GS-0053 |
carryover from "III" |
faulty cells at
each location |
a leak in item"I" |
erosion of item "2" |
|
A |
The quantity and
density of brine discharged from the last effect of a flash type evaporator
should be kept at a constant value so as to __________. |
ensure distillate
quality and distilling plant efficiency |
maintain a constant
distillate outlet temperature |
prevent scale
accumulation in the first effect heat exchanger surfaces |
prevent any salinity
in the distillate produced |
|
A |
While the illustrated
system is operated using the steam supply through "F" the strainer
in line "4" becomes fouled, this will result in __________. Illustration
GS-0053 |
a reduction in
distillate production |
the temperature
regulated by "L" difficult to maintain |
nothing unusual
for the type of operation indicated as this line was unnecessary in the
installation |
pump "K"
becoming vapor bound |
|
A |
While operating
a two-stage flash-type evaporator, designed to operate in sea water of 70°F,
the current seawater temperature is 50°F, while the salt water feed temperature
is maintained at 170°F. The three-way solenoid valve trips, directing the
distillate pump discharge to the bilge. Which of the following conditions
is the probable cause for this occurrence? |
Excessive and
violent flashing in each stage. |
Excessive amount
of feed water being supplied to the first stage. |
Insufficient vacuum
developed as a result of the sea temperature. |
Insufficient brine
density being maintained in the second stage. |
|
B |
The efficiency
and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be reduced if
the last effect shell __________. |
pressure remains
steady and unchanged |
brine density
is too low |
brine density
does not exceed 1.5/32nd |
pressure does
not fluctuate rapidly |
|
B |
While the illustrated
system is operated using the steam supply through "F" the strainer
in line "4" becomes fouled, this will result in __________. Illustration
GS-0053 |
pump "K"
becoming vapor bound |
a reduction in
distillate production |
the temperature
regulated by "L" difficult to maintain |
nothing unusual
for the type of operation indicated as this line was unnecessary in the
installation |
|
B |
In a flash type
evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent cocks
to the __________. |
saltwater heater
shell |
atmosphere |
second-stage condenser |
second-stage flash
chamber |
|
A |
What is the function
of device "B" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
It condenses the
vapors formed in section "G". |
It serves to cool
incoming feed water. |
It removes sensible
heat from the jacket water. |
It serves to boil
off incoming feed water. |
|
A |
Which of the following
conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown
in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
The vapors produced
in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are
removed. |
The jacket water
flowing through device "I" is heated. |
The sea water
flowing through device "I" is cooled. |
Non-condensable
vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated. |
|
D |
What is the function
of device "A" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
It aids in removing
condenser tube bundles. |
It provides a
conduit for incoming feed water. |
It is only used
as a lifting beam during installation. |
It serves as a
hinge for ease of opening the shell. |
|
A |
For the operation
of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the connection
labeled "I"? Illustration MO-0110 |
The sea water
used for condensing the water vapor. |
Main engine jacket
water. |
The salt water
feed. |
The distillate
discharge. |
|
D |
Item "M"
shown in the illustration is the __________. Illustration MO-0110 |
salt water inlet |
brine water outlet |
feed water inlet |
jacket water inlet |
|
B |
Which of the following
is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in
the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
It supplies feed
water to evaporator. |
It supplies the
operating medium used in the removal of the distillate. |
It supplies the
operating medium used in the removal of the brine. |
It supplies the
operating medium used in the removal of air and non-condensable gases. |
|
B |
The pipe identified
by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is __________. Illustration
MO-0110 |
directly connected
to the jacket water supply line |
attached to the
air ejector |
attached to the
outlet of the brine ejector |
directly connected
to the feed water supply line |
|
D |
When tightening
the plate type heat exchangers shown in the illustration, care must be taken
to __________. Illustration MO-0110 |
avoid fracturing
the backing plate |
avoid using a
torque wrench that has not been recently calibrated |
prevent damage
to the aluminum plates |
use a specific
opposing pattern while measuring the distance to which the plates have been
compressed |
|
A |
Which of the tools
listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat exchangers used
in the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110 |
Steel ruler or
tape measure |
Pneumatic impact
wrench |
Cantilever wrench |
Torque wrench |
|
D |
If the demister
used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which
of the following will occur? Illustration MO-0110 |
The temperature
of the device will decrease. |
Interstage leakage
will cause a decrease in output. |
The vacuum of
the device will increase. |
There will be
an increase of chlorides measured at the distillate pump salinity cell. |
|
D |
Which of the following
conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea water leakage
in the illustrated device. Illustration MO-0110 |
Improper venting
during operation. |
Improper venting
during start-up. |
Failure to properly
tighten the bolts of the evaporator heat exchanger. |
Failure to properly
tighten the bolts of the condenser heat exchanger. |
|
C |
Device '27' shown
in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration MO-0111 |
add de-scaling
chemicals as needed |
relieve excess
pressure |
regulate maximum
vacuum during normal operation |
purge the unit
of non-condensable gases |
|
A |
During operation
which device listed removes air and non-condensable gases from the unit
shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 |
"21" |
"22" |
"25" |
"27" |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements describes the approximate relation between the feed water entering
the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration
MO-0111 |
Seventy-five percent
of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine. |
The amount of
feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7",
while the amount of brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21". |
Twenty-five percent
of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine. |
The brine will
be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility
of flooding. |
|
A |
Excess brine accumulated
in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during normal operation
by __________. Illustration MO-0111 |
the continuous
action of ejector "22" |
orifice "19"
regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing
excess brine accumulation |
the hydrokineter
labeled "21" |
opening the drain
valve located to the left of orifice "19" |
|
B |
What is the function
of the item "7" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 |
This jacket water
pump circulates salt water through the jacket water cooling system to provide
engine cooling. |
This jacket water
pump circulates fresh water throughout the engine cooling and distiller
heating systems. |
This jacket water
pump supplies the distiller with sea water feed while also powering the
eductors. |
This circulating
salt water pump will supply feed water for the operation of the distiller. |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements represents the two major functions provided by the item labeled "20"
shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 |
The pump supplies
the motive force to the ejectors and removes the excess distillate. |
The pump is used
to drain the shell when the unit is secured, in addition to powering the
ejectors. |
The pump provides
for venting of associated equipment while also powering the ejectors. |
The pump supplies
the motive fluid to the ejectors in addition to supplying the feed water
to the distiller. |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements concerning the systems shown in the illustration is correct?
Illustration MO-0111
|
The jacket water
primarily loses its heat at the cooler and is further heated in the evaporator
section. |
The feed water
gains heat in section "23", while the vapor gives up heat in section "24". |
The jacket water
absorbs heat in the evaporator section, while giving up its heat in the
distiller section. |
The feed water
acquires heat passing through devices "2"and "23". |
|
C |
When securing
a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended period of
time, you should __________. |
fill the unit
with descaling compound |
tightly seal the
unit to exclude air |
completely drain
the unit |
fill the unit
with saltwater |
|
D |
Which of the following
acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale removal from the heating
surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator? |
Concentrated sulfuric
acid |
Concentrated hydrochloric
acid |
Muriatic acid |
Citric or sulfuric
acid |
|
B |
In a jacket-water
heated submerged tube evaporator, what is the primary factor that determines
the rate of scale build-up on the submerged tube bundle? |
The chemical composition
of the jacket water coolant additive package. |
The jacket water
inlet temperature to the submerged tube bundle. |
The sea water
inlet temperature to the evaporator section. |
The salt content
of the sea water inlet to the evaporator section. |
|
B |
What would be
the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"?
Illustration MO-0111 |
The level in area "3"
would decrease. |
The level in area "1"
would decrease. |
The level in area "3"
would increase. |
The level in area "1"
would increase. |
|
B |
Which of the conditions
listed would indicate a large condenser tube leak within the distiller shown
in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111 |
A slow continuous
rise in the lube oil cooler outlet temperature indicated at device "4". |
The activation
of the salinity monitoring equipment's annunciator circuit. |
A decrease in
the level of the main engine expansion tank as indicated by a low level
alarm. |
An increase in
distiller output resulting from the combination of jacket water and the
distillate produced. |
|
D |
If valve "H"
shown in the illustration is opened wide while the distiller is in operation,
__________. Illustration MO-0111 |
the absolute pressure
of the unit will increase with an associated decrease in shell temperature. |
the absolute pressure
of the unit will increase due to the increased affect of the air ejector. |
the absolute pressure
of the unit will not be affected, but the rate of condensation will be decreased. |
the absolute pressure
of the unit will increase with an associated increase in shell temperature. |
|
A |
If the wearing
rings of device "7" shown in the illustration become worn, how
will the evaporation rate in "23" be affected? Illustration MO-0111 |
The rate of evaporation
will decrease. |
Device "7"
does not use wearing rings, as these are normally positive displacement
pumps. |
The rate of evaporation
is dependent on the level of vacuum maintained within the unit, and not
the flow of water to the unit. |
The rate of evaporation
will not be affected as the standby pump, labeled "8" will be
used instead. |
|
A |
What would happen
if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the
unit in operation? Illustration MO-0111 |
The absolute pressure
of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output. |
The unit would
automatically shut down due to the closing of the low pressure contacts. |
Jacket water would
be automatically by-passed around the distiller. |
The unit would
continue to operate with no adverse effects. |
|
C |
If valve "D"
is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the illustration,
which of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111 |
The jacket water
cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm. |
The amount of
vapor formed in the evaporator will increase. |
The amount of
vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease. |
The output of
pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure. |
|
B |
Regarding a reverse-osmosis
type freshwater generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules,
what statement is true? |
Modules may be
piped in series to increase the freshwater throughput. |
Modules may be
piped in series to increase the freshwater purity. |
Modules may be
piped in parallel to increase the freshwater purity. |
Modules may be
piped in series to decrease the likelihood of fouling. |
|
D |
For the successful
operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high pressure
pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure? |
To successfully
force the salt water through the pre-filter (or pre-filters). |
To successfully
force the salt water through the chemical pre-treatment device. |
To overcome the
pore size of the semi-permeable membrane. |
To overcome the
osmotic pressure generated by the difference in solution concentrations. |
|
A |
Regarding the
high-pressure pump of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, what statement
is true? |
The high-pressure
pump is typically a multiple-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a multi-stage
centrifugal pump. |
The high-pressure
pump is typically a two-stage rotary pump, but may be a two-stage centrifugal
pump. |
The high-pressure
pump is typically a two-stage centrifugal pump, but may be a two-stage rotary
pump. |
The high-pressure
pump is typically a single-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a single-stage
centrifugal pump. |
|
B |
In order for a
reverse-osmosis freshwater generator to be able to overcome the osmotic
pressure without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure
must be controlled. What is the location of the pressure regulator? |
Freshwater outlet
from the membrane modules. |
Brine outlet from
the membrane modules. |
Discharge side
of the high-pressure pump. |
Suction side of
the high-pressure pump. |
|
A |
Regarding a freshwater
generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true? |
The solute is
salt and the solvent is fresh water. |
The solute is
fresh water and the solvent is salt. |
The solute is
salt and the solvent is saltwater. |
The solute is
saltwater and the solvent is salt. |
|
B |
When a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be accomplished? |
The unit is left
filled with saltwater and treated with anti-bacterial growth inhibitor. |
The unit must
be flushed with freshwater and treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor. |
The unit must
be flushed with freshwater if anti-bacterial growth inhibitor is unavailable. |
The unit must
be treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor if the unit is not flushed
with freshwater. |
|
B |
What component
of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator could be isolated and replaced
with the unit remaining in service? |
The primary pre-treatment
filter. |
A parallel-connected
membrane module. |
The secondary
pre-treatment filter. |
A series-connected
membrane module. |
|
A |
For the successful
operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, the setting of the
brine back pressure regulator is critical. What statement regarding the
set point of this regulator is true? |
If the regulator
setting is set too high, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the regulator
setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low. |
If the regulator
setting is set too low, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the regulator
setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low. |
If the regulator
setting is set too low, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the regulator
setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low. |
If the regulator
setting is set too high, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the
regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low. |
|
A |
What is the BEST
indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement? |
An excessive pressure
drop across the pre-treatment filter. |
An excessive salinity
of the freshwater output. |
An insufficient
freshwater production by the unit. |
An excessive pressure
drop across the membrane modules. |
|
C |
If a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generator has fouled membrane modules, what statement is true? |
The
freshwater production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure
would be higher than normal.
o |
The freshwater
production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure would
be lower than normal. |
The freshwater
production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would
be higher than normal. |
The freshwater
production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would
be lower than normal. |
|
C |
What is the BEST
indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer semi-permeable
and allowing the solute to pass through? |
Lower than normal
freshwater production. |
Higher than normal
brine overboard back pressure. |
High freshwater
outlet salinity. |
Low freshwater
outlet salinity. |
|
B |
Under what conditions
would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator
MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally
be avoided? |
Entering low temperature
seas. |
Entering harbors. |
Entering high
temperature seas. |
Entering open
seas. |
|
B |
If a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated with the
freshwater outlet, what should be done? |
The pre-filters
should be serviced by cleaning or replacement. |
The membrane modules
should be flushed and cleaned. |
The pre-treatment
chemical doser should be serviced. |
The post-treatment
sterilizer should be serviced. |
|
D |
A salinity indicator
is used to determine the __________. |
level of alkalinity
in condensate |
chemical makeup
of feed water |
cause of salt
contamination |
location of salt
water contamination |
|
D |
A salinity indicating
system functions on the basic principle of measuring the __________. |
hydrogen ion concentration
of water |
specific gravity
of water |
electrical inductance
of water |
electrical conductivity
of water |
|
A |
The instrument
always used in conjunction with a salinometer is a __________. |
thermometer |
pyrometer |
hygrometer |
hydrometer |
|
D |
In a flash-type
evaporator, an electrical salinity cell would be installed in the __________. |
distillate outlet
from the distillate cooler |
distillate inlet
to the distillate cooler |
condensate drains
from the distiller feed water heater |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Which of the following
statements represents the basic principle of operation of an electrical
salinity indicator? |
Measures the hydrogen
ion concentration. |
Measures the voltage
of the chloride ions. |
Measures the electrical
resistance of the water. |
Determines the
conductivity of the dissolved oxygen. |
|
A |
A solenoid-operated
distillate three-way valve is installed in the discharge line between the
distilling plant and the potable water tanks. This valve will trip and dump
the distillate discharge if the __________. |
distillate salinity
is excessive |
potable water
tank has become contaminated |
potable water
tank has been filled with raw water |
distillate temperature
is excessive |
|
D |
Distilled water
from an evaporator may be discharged into a potable water tank __________. |
after chemical
analysis shows it is fit for consumption |
after passing
through an activated charcoal filter |
through a detachable
hose connection |
through a solenoid
operated three-way valve |
|
A |
An automatic solenoid
dump valve should be set to trip if the evaporator produces distillate with
salt content exceeding __________. |
.25 gpg |
.05 gpg |
.15 gpg |
.20 gpg |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements describes the proper operation of a three-way solenoid trip/dump
valve on a two stage flash-type evaporator? |
The valve normally
requires a manual reset. |
The valve will
trip if the distillate is too warm. |
The valve is interlocked
to trip only on de-energization of the solenoid. |
The valve will
trip if the sea water feed temperature drops below 175°F. |
|
B |
What is used to
prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture
such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains? |
Location of the
potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink. |
Location of the
potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink. |
A "P"
trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink. |
Check valves in
the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink. |
|
A |
Suppose the pressure
switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at
45 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would
be an appropriate setting for the "lag" potable water pump? |
40 psig cut-in
for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. |
45 psig cut-in
for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop. |
45 psig cut-in
for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop. |
50 psig cut-in
for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop. |
|
C |
What type of disinfection
system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide residual disinfectant
in the potable water? |
A chlorinator
located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line. |
A brominator located
at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank. |
An ultraviolet
irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank. |
A chlorinator
located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage
tank. |
|
C |
Which of the following
desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water
to a potable water system? |
Submerged tube
type unit |
Titanium plate
type unit |
Reverse-osmosis
type unit |
Multi-stage flash
type unit |
|
C |
Which of the following
statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water system is true? |
Potable
water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located above the potable water storage tanks. |
Potable water
pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located below the potable water storage tanks. |
Potable water
pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located above the potable water storage tanks. |
Potable water
pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located below the potable water storage tanks. |
|
D |
On most commercial
cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the potable
water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained? |
Cycling the potable
water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level
switches in response to system demand changes. |
Allowing the potable
water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero
demand for potable water. |
Allowing the potable
water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of
zero demand for potable water. |
Cycling the potable
water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro pneumatic
tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes. |
|
B |
What is used to
prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture
such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains? |
Check valves in
the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink. |
Location of the
potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink. |
A "P"
trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink. |
Location of the
potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink. |
|
A |
Suppose the pressure
switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at
45 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would
be an appropriate setting for the "lag" potable water pump? |
40 psig cut-in
for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. |
45 psig cut-in
for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop. |
45 psig cut-in
for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop. |
50 psig cut-in
for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop. |
|
C |
What type of disinfection
system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide residual disinfectant
in the potable water? |
A chlorinator
located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage
tank. |
A chlorinator
located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line. |
An ultraviolet
irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank. |
A brominator located
at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank. |
|
D |
Which of the following
desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water
to a potable water system? |
Titanium plate
type unit |
Multi-stage flash
type unit |
Submerged tube
type unit |
Reverse-osmosis
type unit |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water system is true? |
Potable water
pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located above the potable water storage tanks. |
Potable water
pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located above the potable water storage tanks. |
Potable water
pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located below the potable water storage tanks. |
Potable water
pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located below the potable water storage tanks. |
|
A |
What is the primary
purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water pumps supporting
a typical potable water system? |
Enabling the lead
pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the
lag pump to assist the lead pump only when the demand is high. |
Enabling the lead
pump to pump against a shut-off head during periods of relatively low demand
and the lag pump to recirculate when the demand is high. |
Enabling the lag
pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the
lead pump to assist the lag pump only when the demand is high. |
Enabling both
potable water pumps to cycle on and off together in response to system demand
changes. |
|
A |
What design feature
is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution
piping for a potable water system? |
Use of hot water
recirculation loops. |
Use of instantaneous
type hot water heaters only. |
Use of storage
type hot water heaters only. |
Use of hot water
heaters with multiple heat sources. |
|
D |
Hot water heaters
used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such as an
electric heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is
the primary purpose of such an arrangement? |
Allow the designated
backup heat source to be used in the event of failure of the designated
primary heat source, whether in port or underway. |
Allow jacket water
to be used in port and electricity to be used while underway. |
Allow
both the heat sources to be used when the demand for hot water is high,
whether in port
or underway. |
Allow electricity
to be used in port and jacket water to be used while underway. |
|
C |
What are the operating
characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro
pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air? |
Failure of the
potable water pump to start with demand on the system. |
Extremely long
running and idle periods for the potable water pump. |
Very short and
frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump. |
Failure of the
potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system. |
|
D |
What is used to
prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture
such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains? |
Location of the
potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink. |
Check valves in
the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink. |
A "P"
trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink. |
Location of the
potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink. |
|
A |
Which of the following
desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water
to a potable water system? |
Reverse-osmosis
type unit |
Titanium plate
type unit |
Submerged tube
type unit |
Multi-stage flash
type unit |
|
A |
On most commercial
cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the potable
water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained? |
Cycling the potable
water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro pneumatic
tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes. |
Allowing the potable
water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of
zero demand for potable water. |
Allowing the potable
water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero
demand for potable water. |
Cycling the potable
water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level
switches in response to system demand changes. |
|
B |
What design feature
is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution
piping for a potable water system? |
Use of storage
type hot water heaters only. |
Use of hot water
recirculation loops. |
Use of hot water
heaters with multiple heat sources. |
Use of instantaneous
type hot water heaters only. |
|
C |
What are the operating
characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro
pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air? |
Failure of the
potable water pump to start with demand on the system. |
Extremely long
running and idle periods for the potable water pump. |
Very short and
frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump. |
Failure of the
potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system. |
|
B |
Which of the listed
pumps, shown in the illustration, discharges directly to the fuel oil settling
tanks of a diesel engine main propulsion plant? Illustration MO-0058 |
Booster pump |
Transfer pump |
Auxiliary bilge
pump |
Centrifuge transfer
and discharge pumps |
|
D |
Fuel oil is regularly
transferred to the day tank in order to __________. |
make fuel available
for immediate use |
allow for decanting
of water |
allow impurities
to settle out of the fuel |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Fuel oil day tanks
for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned at regular intervals in order
to remove __________. |
sludge |
water |
micro-organism
growth |
All of the above. |
|
D |
The depth of fuel
oil in a tank is normally measured through the __________. |
vent line |
overflow line |
feed line |
sounding tube |
|
C |
Standby or emergency
diesel generator day tanks should always be kept full to reduce the possibility
of __________. |
sediment contamination |
fuel filter clogging |
moisture formation
from condensation |
inadequate transfer
pump suction head |
|
A |
Which of the listed
substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging? |
Sludge |
Gasoline |
Fuel oil |
Lube oil |
|
B |
Whether using
a centrifuge or a simple filter, oil cleaning and filtration will be the
most effective when the oil is at a __________. |
high temperature
and a high viscosity |
high temperature
and a low viscosity |
low temperature
and a high viscosity |
low temperature
and a low viscosity |
|
A |
For optimum results,
centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the
fuel at the lowest practicable __________. |
throughput |
additive percent |
cetane number |
TBN number |
|
C |
Which factor determines
the size of the ring dam for a fuel oil centrifugal purifier? |
The viscosity
of the fuel. |
The quantity of
water to be removed from the fuel. |
The specific gravity
of the fuel. |
The quantity of
dirt to be removed from the fuel. |
|
C |
In order for microbiological
growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is necessary for __________. |
vanadium to be
present |
low temperatures
to exist |
moisture or water
to be present |
electrolysis to
be occurring |
|
D |
Why are heavy
fuels not usually prone to the problems of microbiological infection? |
Heavy fuels are
subjected to better refining processes which prevent the formation of these
growths. |
Most heavy fuels
contain chemicals which prevent the growth of fungi and other bacteria. |
Microbiological
infection does not affect marine fuel but rather the personnel who are involved
with the handling, storage and purification of the fuel. |
The necessary
nutrients that the organisms feed on are in a more complex form and not
available for microbial degradation. |
|
D |
Fuels as produced
in a refinery are generally sterile; however, contamination can occur as
fuels are __________. |
stored at the
refinery |
stored on the
vessel |
transported to
the distribution sites |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Most type(s) of
microbiological growths in fuel are __________. |
bacteria |
fungi |
yeasts |
All of the above. |
|
B |
The microbiological
growths that affect fuel supplies can easily be transported from one location
to another by __________. |
roaches and other
insects |
air, solids, or
liquids |
other non-hydrocarbon
fuels |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Which of the following
speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime
mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover? |
Over speed governor |
Speed-limiting
governor |
Over speed trip |
Under speed trip |
|
C |
What is statement
is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime
mover speed control governors? |
Isochronous
governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed
by employing temporary speed droop.
o |
Isochronous governors
are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing
permanent speed droop. |
Isochronous governors
are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing
temporary speed droop. |
Isochronous governors
are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing
permanent speed droop. |
|
B |
Suppose a prime
mover rotates at a steady speed of 900 rpm at rated full load and rotates
at a steady speed of 1000 rpm at no load. Assuming that no adjustments have
been made to the governor speed control setting, what is the speed regulation
of the prime mover expressed in percent? |
10 (%) |
11.1 (%) |
88.9 (%) |
90 (%) |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor? |
An isochronous
governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving
through a fixed pitch propeller. |
An isochronous
governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining
a constant pump discharge pressure. |
An isochronous
governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct-reversible propulsion drive
driving through a fixed pitch propeller. |
An isochronous
governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated
with maintaining a constant system frequency. |
|
B |
Concerning governor
speed-droop, what statement is true? |
If speed droop
is temporary, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount
of loading. |
If speed droop
is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount
of loading. |
If speed droop
is temporary, there will be no transient speed changes associated with load
changes. |
If speed droop
is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is constant regardless of the
load. |
|
B |
Which term represents
the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without
hunting? |
Dead band |
Stability |
Promptness |
Sensitivity |
|
D |
Which term represents
the change in speed required before a speed control governor will initiate
corrective action as the load changes? |
Promptness |
Power |
Sensitivity |
Dead band |
|
C |
Which term represents
how rapidly a speed control governor will complete a corrective action as
the result of a load change? |
Sensitivity |
Power |
Promptness |
Dead band |
|
A |
What is meant
by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors? |
Hunting is the
repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over control by
the governor. |
Hunting is the
result of the transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor responds
to load changes. |
Hunting is the
change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective
action as the result of a load change. |
Hunting is the
repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack
of governor power. |
|
B |
What is meant
by the term "deadband" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors? |
Dead band is the
repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack
of governor power. |
Dead band is the
change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective
action as the result of a load change. |
Dead band is the
repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed to over control by the
governor. |
Dead band is the
result of transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor responds
to load changes. |
|
A |
Which of the following
speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime
mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover? |
Over speed trip |
Speed-limiting
governor |
Under speed trip |
Over speed governor |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor? |
An isochronous
governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving
through a fixed pitch propeller. |
An isochronous
governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining
a constant pump discharge pressure. |
An isochronous
governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct-reversible propulsion drive
driving through a fixed pitch propeller. |
An isochronous
governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated
with maintaining a constant system frequency. |
|
B |
Which term represents
the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without
hunting? |
Sensitivity |
Stability |
Dead band |
Promptness |
|
C |
What is meant
by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors? |
Hunting
is the repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor
and a lack of governor power. |
Hunting is the
result of the transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor responds
to load changes. |
Hunting is the
repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over control by
the governor. |
Hunting is the
change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective
action as the result of a load change. |
|
C |
What is statement
is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime
mover speed control governors? |
Isochronous
governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of
load by employing permanent speed droop.
|
Isochronous governors
are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing
permanent speed droop. |
Isochronous governors
are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by employing
temporary speed droop. |
Isochronous governors
are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by employing
temporary speed droop. |
|
D |
If both the shell-and-tube
lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine
are sea water-cooled, what statement is true? |
Seawater flows
through the shells of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers. |
Seawater flows
through the tubes of the lube-oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket-water
cooler. |
Seawater
flows through the tubes of the jacket-water cooler and through the shell
of the lube-
oil cooler. |
Seawater flows
through the tubes of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers. |
|
C |
The general purpose
of a heat exchanger is to __________. |
maintain steady
pressure in a system |
eliminate hot
air from the condenser |
heat, or cool
one fluid by means of another fluid |
reduce the engine
room temperature in tropical climates |
|
C |
If a heat exchanger
is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water
as a condensing medium, what statement is true? |
The refrigerant
vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat. |
The refrigerant
vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent
heat. |
The refrigerant
vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible
heat. |
The refrigerant
vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible
heat. |
|
D |
What type of flow
pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger
such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler? |
Counter flow |
Series flow |
Parallel flow |
Cross flow |
|
C |
If a seawater-cooled
shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the seawater inlet and outlet
connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes,
what statement is true? |
The number of
fluid passes cannot be determined. |
The tube-side
fluid flow pattern is four-pass. |
The tube-side
fluid flow pattern is single-pass. |
The tube-side
fluid flow pattern is two-pass. |
|
B |
The general purpose
of a heat exchanger is to __________. |
reduce the engine
room temperature in tropical climates |
heat, or cool
one fluid by means of another fluid |
maintain steady
pressure in a system |
eliminate hot
air from the condenser |
|
C |
If both the shell-and-tube
lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine
are sea water-cooled, what statement is true? |
Seawater
flows through the shells of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers. |
Seawater flows
through the tubes of the lube-oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket-
water cooler. |
Seawater flows
through the tubes of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers. |
Seawater flows
through the tubes of the jacket-water cooler and through the shell of the
lube-oil cooler. |
|
A |
With regard to
the relative flow patterns through the tubes and the shell of shell-and-tube
heat exchangers, what statement is true? |
In a counter-flow
heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell
are in opposite directions. |
In a counter-flow
heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell
are in the same direction. |
In a parallel-flow
heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell
are in opposite directions. |
In a cross-flow
heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell
are in opposite directions. |
|
D |
With regard to
the number of passes through the tubes of shell-and-tube heat exchangers,
what statement is true? |
In two-pass and
four-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at opposite ends. |
In single-pass
and two-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at opposite ends. |
In single-pass
and two-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at the same end. |
In two-pass and
four-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at the same end. |
|
B |
If a heat exchanger
is designed to cool lubricating oil using sea water as a cooling medium,
what statement is true? |
The lubricating
oil loses sensible heat, and the sea water loses sensible heat. |
The lubricating
oil loses sensible heat, and the sea water gains sensible heat. |
The lubricating
oil loses latent heat, and the sea water gains latent heat. |
The lubricating
oil gains sensible heat, and the sea water loses sensible heat. |
|
A |
If a heat exchanger
is designed to heat heavy fuel oil using steam as a heating medium, what
statement is true? |
The heavy fuel
oil gains sensible heat, and the steam loses latent heat. |
The heavy fuel
oil loses sensible heat, and the steam gains latent heat. |
The heavy fuel
oil gains latent heat, and the steam loses sensible heat. |
The heavy fuel
oil gains sensible heat, and the steam loses sensible heat. |
|
D |
If a heat exchanger
is designed to evaporate sea water using diesel engine jacket water as an
evaporating medium, what statement is true? |
The sea water
gains latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses latent heat. |
The sea water
loses latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water gains sensible heat. |
The sea water
gains sensible heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses latent heat. |
The sea water
gains latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses sensible heat. |
|
B |
If a heat exchanger
is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water
as a condensing medium, what statement is true? |
The refrigerant
vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat. |
The refrigerant
vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible
heat. |
The refrigerant
vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent
heat. |
The refrigerant
vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible
heat. |
|
D |
What type of flow
pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger
such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler? |
Parallel flow |
Series flow |
Counter flow |
Cross flow |
|
B |
If a seawater-cooled
shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the seawater inlet and outlet
connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes,
what statement is true? |
The number of
fluid passes cannot be determined. |
The tube-side
fluid flow pattern is single-pass. |
The tube-side
fluid flow pattern is four-pass. |
The tube-side
fluid flow pattern is two-pass. |
|
B |
Which of the following
provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat exchangers only
requires a single tube sheet located at one end? |
A shell-and-tube
heat exchanger featuring a floating tube sheet. |
A shell-and-tube
heat exchanger featuring U-tube type tubes. |
A shell-and-tube
heat exchanger featuring a packed tube sheet. |
A shell-and-tube
heat exchanger featuring bayonet type tubes. |
|
B |
What is the most
common arrangement for a compact heat exchanger such as that used on an
air conditioning cooling coil located in a ventilation supply duct? |
Plate-fin set
up as a serpentine plate. |
Finned-tube set
up as a serpentine coil. |
Finned-tube set
up as a spiral coil. |
Finned-tube set
up as a helical coil. |
|
C |
Which of the following
provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat exchangers has
a tube arrangement featuring a "tube-within-a-tube"? |
A shell-and tube
heat exchanger featuring a packed tube sheet. |
A shell-and-tube
heat exchanger featuring a floating tube sheet. |
A shell-and-tube
heat exchanger featuring bayonet type tubes. |
A shell-and-tube
heat exchanger featuring U-tube type tubes. |
|
C |
In a shell-and-tube
heat exchanger, which of the following tube types would be LEAST susceptible
to tube-side fouling? |
Coated-surface
tubes |
Corrugated tubes |
Plain tubes |
Finned tubes |
|
C |
For a given shell
diameter and tube sizes for a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which tube
pitch pattern would be the most compact design allowing for the most tubes? |
Rotated triangular
tube pitch |
Rotated square
tube pitch |
Triangular tube
pitch |
Square tube pitch |
|
B |
For a shell-and-tube
heat exchanger, which tube pitch pattern would feature "see-through"
lanes and would most easily allow external mechanical cleaning of the tubes? |
Rotated triangular
tube pitch |
Square tube pitch |
Triangular tube
pitch |
Rotated square
tube pitch |
|
C |
Concerning the
baffles of a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, what statement is true? |
The
baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and decrease the velocity
of the fluid flowing through the shell.
o |
The baffles are
used to support the tubes, guide flow, and increase the velocity of the
fluid flowing through the tubes. |
The baffles are
used to support the tubes, guide flow, and increase the velocity of the
fluid flowing through the shell. |
The baffles are
used to support the tubes, guide flow, and decrease the velocity of the
fluid flowing through the tubes. |
|
A |
For marine-type
shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what is the most common arrangement for
baffles? |
Segmental |
Disc |
Doughnut |
Solid |
|
D |
What prevents
the two fluids in a plate type heat exchanger from coming into direct contact
with each other and mixing? |
The chevrons and
corrugations between the individual heat transfer plates. |
The metal-to-metal
seal between the individual heat transfer plates. |
The metal-to-metal
seal between the covers (pressure plates). |
The gasket to
groove seals between the individual heat transfer plates. |
|
C |
With regard to
the flow patterns associated with plate type heat exchangers, which flow
pattern is able to achieve counter-flow on opposite sides of each heat exchange
plate? |
The flow pattern
where one fluid makes a single pass and the other makes multiple passes
through the heat exchanger. |
The flow pattern
where each fluid makes multiple passes through the heat exchanger. |
The flow pattern
where each fluid makes a single pass through the heat exchanger. |
It is not possible
for each heat exchanger plate to achieve counter flow on opposite sides. |
|
D |
When placing a
shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube
heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to avoid thermal shock what
statement represents the correct operating procedure? |
Introduce the
heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously establishing full flow of both fluids
immediately to avoid thermal shock. |
Introduce both
the heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal
shock. |
Introduce the
steam first, then gradually introduce the heavy fuel oil until full flow
is established to avoid thermal shock. |
Introduce the
heavy fuel oil first, then gradually introduce the steam until full flow
is established to avoid thermal shock. |
|
D |
What is the primary
indication of fouling of a heat exchanger? |
A decreased pressure
drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and a decreased temperature
differential between the two fluids exchanging heat. |
A decreased pressure
drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and an increased
temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat. |
An increased pressure
drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and a decreased temperature
differential between the two fluids exchanging heat. |
An increased pressure
drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and an increased
temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat. |
|
D |
When placing a
shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube
heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to prevent water hammer what
statement represents the correct operating procedure? |
Crack open the
condensate drains first. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the condensate
drains when no longer draining condensate and issuing dry steam. Finally,
introduce the heavy fuel oil. |
Introduce the
heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually introduce
the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam
and draining condensate. |
Crack open the
condensate drains first. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the condensate
drains when no longer issuing dry steam and draining condensate. Finally,
introduce the heavy fuel oil. |
Introduce the
heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually introduce
the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate
and issuing dry steam. |
|
D |
When taking a
shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube
type heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to avoid thermal shock
what statement represents the correct operating procedure? |
Secure both the
steam and heavy fuel oil simultaneously and immediately to avoid thermal
shock. |
Secure the heavy
fuel oil first, then gradually secure the steam to avoid thermal shock. |
Secure the steam
and heavy fuel oil simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal shock. |
Gradually secure
the steam first, then secure the heavy fuel oil to avoid thermal shock. |
|
C |
When taking a
shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube
heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to prevent water hammer what
statement represents the correct operating procedure? |
Open
wide the condensate drains first. Gradually close down and secure the steam,
then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam. Finally,
secure the heavy fuel oil.
o |
Secure the heavy
fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually close down
and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing
dry steam. |
Crack open the
condensate drains first. Gradually close down and secure the steam, then
close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate. Finally,
secure the heavy fuel oil. |
Secure the heavy
fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually close down
and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining
condensate. |
|
C |
When placing a
shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a non-removable tube bundle such as a
lube oil cooler with fixed tube sheets into service, to avoid thermal shock
what statement represents the correct operating procedure? |
Introduce
the cooling water first, then gradually introduce the lube oil until full
flow is established to avoid thermal shock.
o |
Introduce the
lubricating oil first, then gradually introduce the cooling water until
full flow is established to avoid thermal shock. |
Introduce both
the cooling water and the lubricating oil simultaneously and gradually to
avoid thermal shock. |
Introduce both
the cooling water and the lubricating oil simultaneously establishing full
flow of both fluids immediately to avoid thermal shock. |
|
A |
When placing a
shell-and-tube heat exchanger such as a jacket water cooler into service,
to insure optimal heat transfer what statement represents the correct operating
procedure? |
Both the water
box and shell vent valves should be opened to expel any entrapped air and
then reclosed. |
Both the water
box and shell drain valves should be opened to expel any entrapped air and
then reclosed. |
Both the water
box and shell vent valves should be opened to expel any entrapped sediment
and then reclosed. |
Both the water
box and shell drain valves should be opened to expel any entrapped sediment
and then reclosed. |
|
D |
When securing
a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube heat exchanger for an extended period of
time, what statement represents the recommended operating procedure? |
The seawater side
of the heat exchanger should be drained, then flushed with freshwater and
left completely filled with freshwater. |
The seawater side
of the heat exchanger should be drained by opening the drain valves, while
insuring that the vent valves remain closed while draining. |
The seawater side
of the heat exchanger should be left completely filled with seawater. |
The seawater side
of the heat exchanger should be drained by opening the drain valves, while
insuring that the vent valves remain open while draining. |
|
C |
When shifting
heat exchangers such as main engine lube-oil coolers, what statement represents
the recommended operating procedure if the shift is to occur during engine
operation? |
First,
secure cooling water to the off-going cooler, then secure lube oil to the
off-going cooler. Next, introduce lube oil to the on-coming cooler, then
introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler.
o |
First, introduce
lube oil to the on-coming cooler, then introduce cooling water to the on-coming
cooler. Next, secure cooling water to the off-going cooler, then secure
lube oil to the off-going cooler. |
First, introduce
cooling water to the on-coming cooler, then introduce lube oil to the on-coming
cooler. Next, secure lube oil to the off-going cooler, then secure cooling
water to the off-going cooler. |
First, secure
lube oil to the off-going cooler, then secure cooling water to the off-going
cooler. Next, introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler, then introduce
lube oil to the on-coming cooler. |
|
D |
Suppose a diesel
engine is fitted with seawater-cooled lube oil and jacket water coolers.
What statement is true concerning the system operating pressures? |
The jacket water
pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the jacket water
cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained higher than the sea water
pressure in the lube oil cooler. |
The jacket water
pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the jacket water
cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained lower than the sea water
pressure in the lube oil cooler. |
The jacket water
pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the jacket
water cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained lower than the sea
water pressure in the lube oil cooler. |
The jacket water
pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the jacket
water cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained higher than the sea
water pressure in the lube oil cooler. |
|
B |
For soft scale
deposits on the inside of the tubes of a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube
heat exchanger, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning? |
Blowing out with
compressed air or a steam lance. |
Mechanical cleaning
with specially designed brushes and/or flushing with hot freshwater. |
Chemical cleaning
with descaling compounds |
Mechanical cleaning
with specially designed reamers or cutting tools. |
|
A |
If a fluorescent
dye penetrant and ultra-violet light are used for leak detection on a heat
exchanger, what would be the indication of a confirmed leak? |
A bright green
glow at the site of leakage. |
A bright orange
glow at the site of leakage. |
A bright purple
glow at the site of leakage. |
A bright red glow
at the site of leakage. |
|
D |
For stubborn,
hard scale deposits on the inside of the tubes of a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube
heat exchanger, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning? |
Mechanical cleaning
with specially designed brushes. |
Flushing with
hot fresh-water. |
Mechanical cleaning
with specially designed reamers. |
Chemically cleaning
with descaling compounds. |
|
A |
For removal of
sludge from in the inside of the shell of a fuel oil heater or lube oil
cooler, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning? |
Circulating hot
distillate oil. |
Blowing out with
compressed air or a steam lance. |
Chemical cleaning
with descaling compounds. |
Mechanical cleaning
with specially designed brushes. |
|
D |
What would be
the most likely indication that a plate type jacket water cooler had an
internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids? |
Rising level and
overflowing of the jacket water expansion tank. |
Drop in concentration
of corrosion inhibitor package of jacket water. |
Excessive scale
build-up on the various cylinder jacket surfaces. |
Dropping level
and frequent need to top off jacket water expansion tank. |
|
B |
Which saltwater-cooled
heat exchanger arrangement and location would be MOST problematic in terms
of keeping the seawater side filled? |
Vertically arranged
cooler located below the water line. |
Horizontally arranged
cooler located above the water line. |
Horizontally arranged
cooler located below the water line. |
Vertically arranged
cooler located above the water line. |
|
A |
Which saltwater-cooled
heat exchanger arrangement and location would be the LEAST likely to become
air-bound on the seawater side? |
Vertically arranged
cooler located below the water line. |
Horizontally arranged
cooler located above the water line. |
Vertically arranged
cooler located above the water line. |
Horizontally arranged
cooler located below the water line. |
|
A |
How may a suspected
tube leak on a shell-and-tube jacket water cooler most easily be located? |
Isolate, drain,
and dry the salt water side of the heat exchanger. Remove the water box
inspection plates. Visually inspect the tube sheets for signs of seepage
at each of the tube ends. |
Isolate, drain,
and dry the salt water side of the heat exchanger. Pressurize the seawater
side with compressed air. Visually inspect the jacket water expansion tank
for bubbles. |
Isolate, drain,
and dry both the salt water and jacket water sides of the heat exchanger.
Remove the water box inspection plates. Visually inspect the tube sheets
for signs of seepage at each of the tube ends. |
Isolate, drain,
and dry the jacket water side of the heat exchanger. Remove the shell inspection
plates. Visually inspect the tubes along the tube lengths for seepage. |
|
A |
What would be
the most likely indication that a shell-and-tube lube oil cooler had in
internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids? |
Dropping level
and frequent need to add make-up oil to engine sump. |
Corrosion of engine
internal parts in contact with lube oil. |
Rising level in
engine lube oil sump. |
Drop in viscosity
of engine lube oil. |
|
C |
Besides a visual
inspection upon disassembly, what method can be used to check for suspected
leakage through a heat transfer plate of a plate type heat exchanger? |
One
side of the plate is cleaned and coated with a water-seeking paste, and
the other side is sprayed with water. |
One side of the
plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an infra-red heat source. |
One side of the
plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an ultra-violet light. |
One side of the
plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an ordinary flashlight. |
|
D |
Expansion tanks
when used in a ships hot water heating system may be of the open or closed
type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature range
of the water? |
260°F to 280°F |
320°F to 360°F |
180°F to 212°F |
220°F to 240°F |
|
A |
Which of the following
guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for shipboard
steam heating systems? |
Provide a dirt
pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater return. |
Wherever possible
install vertical runs for condensate piping. |
Provide all units
with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a check valve on the return. |
Provide orifice-type
bypasses for all traps and automatic valves. |
|
B |
Water hammer in
a steam heating system can be caused by __________. |
filling the auxiliary
boiler with cold water |
steam admitted
to a cold pipe |
filling the auxiliary
boiler with hot water |
draining a soot
blower line before cracking the steam supply valve |
|
B |
Pressure in an
operating hydraulic system is developed __________. |
solely by the
charge applied by the accumulators |
by resistance
to the fluid flow through the system |
only by the pump
as its primary function |
by the thermal
input to the system's fluid |
|
B |
In the system
illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the
pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area
(y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq. cm)? Illustration GS-0062 |
80 psi (5.63 kg/cm2) |
800 psi (56.31
kg/cm2) |
8,000 psi (563.1
kg/cm2) |
80,000 psi (5631
kg/cm2) |
|
A |
Which characteristic
or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's
viscosity? |
Pressure |
Pour point |
Cloud point |
Vacuum |
|
C |
The by-products
of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally
__________. |
harmless and have
no effect on system components |
always neutralized
by oil additives |
gums, varnishes,
and acids |
removed by cellulose
type filters |
|
C |
Energy losses
occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________. |
reservoir expansion
chamber |
hydraulic piping
flexibility |
atmosphere as
heat |
fluid as friction |
|
D |
The illustrated
hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________. Illustration
GS-0097 |
combined pump
unit |
series-flow pump
unit |
two-stage pump
unit |
double pump unit |
|
B |
The illustrated
hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________. Illustration
GS-0098 |
two-stage, pump
unit |
combined, pump
unit |
duplex, pump unit |
parallel, pump
unit |
|
C |
An arrow superimposed
on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated
figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________. Illustration GS-0068 |
is pilot controlled |
allows flow in
one direction only |
can be adjusted
or varied |
is pressure compensated |
|
A |
Item "B"
shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________. Illustration
GS-0103 |
shut down the
remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has
closed |
act as a power
source to operate the pumps indicated as "F" |
act as a power
source to operate the pump indicated as "E" |
shut down the
operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed |
|
D |
Item "F"
shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________.
Illustration GS-0103 |
motor operated
with one pump located in the engine room at the shaft alley door and the
other in a common passage way |
manually operated
with one pump located at the shaft alley door and the other in a common
passage way |
motor operated
with one pump located on the engine room side and the other on the shaft
alley side of the water tight door |
manually operated
with one located in the engine room and the other in the shaft alley of
the water tight door |
|
D |
Energy imparted
to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the
__________. |
ram |
actuator |
reservoir |
accumulator |
|
C |
Return lines in
a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well
below the fluid surface level to __________. |
prevent moisture
accumulation |
prevent vacuum
formation |
prevent foaming |
accommodate thermal
expansion |
|
B |
In a hydraulic
system using the device illustrated, the high pressure return is provided
by __________. Illustration GS-0118 |
C |
A |
B |
D |
|
D |
The component
which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate
contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________. |
accumulator |
separator |
strainer |
filter |
|
A |
Of the hydraulic
tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high pressure use is
represented by figure __________. Illustration GS-0100 |
A or B |
A or C |
B or C |
C or D |
|
D |
The portion of
a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the __________. |
inner tube |
outer cover |
outer armor |
braided inner
layer(s) |
|
B |
The discharge
capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration,
is __________. Illustration GS-0058 |
increased by adding
a shorter cylinder block |
fixed by the pump
housing angle |
decreased by adding
a longer cylinder block |
increased by adding
a longer cylinder block |
|
B |
To convert a vane
type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have
to be done? |
Provide one additional
slot and vane. |
Provide small
springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots. |
Install an enlarged
control ring around the rotor. |
Double the casing
thickness. |
|
C |
The component
used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of hydraulic
fluid under pressure, is the __________. |
ram |
pump |
accumulator |
piping |
|
A |
Which of the listed
components of a hydraulic system would enable the pump to be temporarily
shutdown, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force? |
Accumulator |
Modulator |
Pressure compensator
valve |
Sump actuator |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements describes the functions of a reservoir used in a hydraulic system? |
Separate air from
the oil |
Trap foreign matter |
Dissipate heat |
All of the above. |
|
D |
The baffle plate
used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to __________. |
minimize the amount
of contamination deposited from return lines entering the system |
reduce fluid turbulence
at the pump suction |
minimize the entrance
of entrained air through the pump inlet line |
All of the above. |
|
D |
A reservoir, as
used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to store hydraulic oil. Another
function is to __________. |
eliminate pressure
surges in the system |
maintain the stored
oil under pressure |
act as a shock
absorber |
act as a base
or foundation for the power unit |
|
D |
In a hydraulic
system using the device illustrated, the high pressure return is provided
by __________. Illustration GS-0118 |
C |
D |
B |
A |
|
D |
A precharged bladder-type
accumulator used in a hydraulic system, can be potentially dangerous if
__________. |
the bladder contacts
the top of the poppet |
the inert gas
is exposed to hydraulic oil |
it is precharged
with dry nitrogen |
the charging valve
stem breaks while at normal working pressure |
|
D |
The pressure of
an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a pressure gauge, is a result
of the fluid flow overcoming __________. |
the load applied
to the system |
resistance of
the internal components |
internal resistance
to flow |
All of the above. |
|
D |
In a shell-and-tube
type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic
fluid to the cooling water depends upon __________. |
the temperature
of the hydraulic fluid |
the flow rate
of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid |
the temperature
of the cooling water |
All of the above. |
|
A |
If a hydraulic
system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled heat
exchanger, the fan should __________. |
be in continuous
operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation |
come on only after
the main pump prime mover is secured |
be controlled
by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at less than 190°F (87.8°C) |
never be needed,
except when the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32.2°C) |
|
D |
In which of the
listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be necessary? |
Hatch cover system |
Watertight door
system |
Internal combustion
engine hydraulic starter system |
Constant tension
mooring winch system |
|
A |
With an increase
in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid __________. |
increases |
contracts |
remains constant
if pressure decreases |
remains the same |
|
C |
If you attempt
to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you
will __________. |
dislodge any scale
in the tubing, and it will damage the system |
cause the system
to vibrate |
find that the
pressure will prevent the components from being tightened |
be successful
every time |
|
C |
To charge a bladder
type hydraulic accumulator __________. |
remove
all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system's
design pressure
o |
increase the pneumatic
pressure until the hydraulic system reaches its design pressure |
remove all hydraulic
system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator preload
pressure |
allow the accumulator
to completely fill with gas charge at atmospheric pressure, shut off the
air chamber, and add hydraulic fluid until proper pressure is reached |
|
C |
How can the chance
of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working on hydraulic
systems? |
Place drip pans
under leaky fittings. |
Coat all threads
with graphite oil. |
Clean the fittings
before they are disconnected. |
Seal any cracks
in lines with Permatex. |
|
A |
When normal operating
pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the
oil __________. |
viscosity will
increase |
viscosity will
decrease |
volume will increase |
floc point will
increase |
|
D |
Purging air from
a hydraulic system is necessary when __________. |
the system has
been idle for a long period of time |
adding small amounts
of oil to the system |
the system has
been overheated |
the system has
been drained and then filled with new oil |
|
D |
New piping and
tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by
using __________. |
alcohol |
carbon tetrachloride |
a water-based
detergent |
a special petroleum
solvent |
|
D |
When renewing
sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the nominal pipe size of the piping
always indicates the __________. |
actual inside
diameter |
actual outside
diameter |
wall thickness |
size for threaded
connections |
|
B |
Which characteristic
or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's
viscosity? |
Vacuum |
Pressure |
Cloud point |
Pour point |
|
A |
If a hydraulic
pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be __________. |
an air leak in
the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir |
due to the wrong
direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor |
low viscosity
in the hydraulic fluid |
an oil leak across
the pump shaft packing |
|
A |
You press start
button on the hydraulic power unit shown in the illustration, and the motor
does not start. The first thing you should check is the __________. Illustration
GS-0161 |
controller circuit
breaker |
controller contactor
operating coil |
pump discharge
relief valve setting is too low |
suction strainer
condition |
|
B |
Energy losses
occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________. |
reservoir expansion
chamber |
atmosphere as
heat |
hydraulic piping
flexibility |
fluid as friction |
|
C |
The illustrated
hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________. Illustration
GS-0097 |
combined pump
unit |
series-flow pump
unit |
double pump unit |
two-stage pump
unit |
|
D |
An arrow superimposed
on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated
figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________. Illustration GS-0068 |
is pilot controlled |
allows flow in
one direction only |
is pressure compensated |
can be adjusted
or varied |
|
D |
Item "B"
shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________. Illustration
GS-0103 |
act as a power
source to operate the pump indicated as "E" |
shut down the
operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed |
act as a power
source to operate the pumps indicated as "F" |
shut down the
remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has
closed |
|
B |
Item "E"
shown in the illustration is used in the hydraulic circuit as __________.
Illustration GS-0103 |
one of two motor
driven remotely operated pumps to open and close the water tight door |
the manually operated
pump located in a common passage way to close the water tight door in an
emergency |
the manually operated
pump used to open or close the water tight door from the engine room side |
motor driven pump
used to close the water tight door from the navigation bridge in an emergency |
|
B |
Of the hydraulic
tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high pressure use is
represented by figure __________. Illustration GS-0100 |
A or C |
A or B |
B or C |
C or D |
|
C |
For the various
sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the inside
diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter
equals the outside diameter less __________. |
the wall thickness |
1.5 times the
wall thickness |
2 times the wall
thickness |
2.5 times the
wall thickness |
|
B |
The determining
factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the __________. |
Teflon sleeve |
braided layer |
synthetic rubber
inner tube |
external cover |
|
C |
The hydraulic
tubing installation shown as figure "D" is INCORRECT and will
probably leak when in operation because the tubing __________. Illustration
GS-0065 |
will contract
in diameter and expand in length under pressure |
will stretch and
overstress the male threads on the fitting |
and its fittings
cannot be properly installed and tightened |
cannot flex at
right angles to the pressure applied by the fluid because it is not properly
twisted |
|
A |
A flare-type tubing
connector is used in the hydraulic hatch cover system and has developed
a slight leak. To stop the leak you should __________. |
shut down the
power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when tightening |
replace both the
tubing sections and the fitting |
keep the system
in operation and tighten the flare nut |
stop the system
and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut |
|
C |
An internal bypass
is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainers to help reduce the
possibility of __________. |
spongy actuator
movements |
aeration of the
oil |
pump cavitation |
contamination
of the oil |
|
B |
An improperly
maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can __________. |
rupture the pump
discharge piping |
reduce or stop
the output action of the actuator |
cause leaking
of the flexible line connections |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Strainers are
commonly used in hydraulic systems to __________. |
prevent solid
particles from entering the filter |
protect the pump
from fine soluble contaminants |
protect the directional
control valves |
prevent solid
particles from entering the pump |
|
C |
The device shown
in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________. Illustration GS-0071 |
soft-packing seal |
quad seal |
mechanical seal |
spring seal |
|
C |
In application,
which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring? |
V-ring |
U-ring |
Quad ring |
Cup seal |
|
A |
Which of the following
components listed is shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0041 |
Filter |
Variable displacement
pump |
Heat exchanger |
All of the above. |
|
C |
A two stage hydraulic
pump unit is used to __________. |
produce
twice the flow rate than if only one element were to be used |
supply two individual
flows to the same segments of the system if one of the pump elements were
to fail |
develop the same
flow rate across both pump elements with the discharge pressure of the second
pump element being substantially higher than that of the first stage |
establish two
individual flows to segregated segments of one system |
|
D |
The device illustrated
would be best used as a __________. Illustration GS-0058 |
power take-off
driven lube oil pump |
variable capacity
pump |
hydraulic hatch
supply pump |
variable or constant
speed motor |
|
A |
To convert a vane
type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have
to be done? |
Provide small
springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots. |
Provide one additional
slot and vane. |
Double the casing
thickness. |
Install an enlarged
control ring around the rotor. |
|
B |
If the flow rate
and pressurized oil from a variable capacity pump were supplied to the device
illustrated, the __________. Illustration GS-0058 |
speed would decrease,
horsepower and torque would increase |
horsepower, torque,
and speed would increase proportionally |
horsepower, torque,
and speed would decrease proportionally |
speed would increase,
horsepower and torque would decrease |
|
B |
Both the direction
of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston pump
are determined by the relative positions of the __________. |
pump shaft and
central valve |
floating ring
and cylinder body |
floating ring
and pump shaft |
pump shaft and
horizontal ports |
|
B |
A hydraulic fluid
flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension,
with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________. |
metered-out circuit |
metered-in circuit |
bleed-in circuit |
bleed-off circuit |
|
B |
A hydraulic system
flow-control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________.
Illustration GS-0105 |
bleed-off circuit |
metered-in circuit |
bleed-in circuit |
metered-out circuit |
|
D |
A hydraulic fluid
flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during retraction,
with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________. |
bleed-off circuit |
metered-in circuit |
bleed-in circuit |
metered-out circuit |
|
B |
If the device
shown in the illustration is being used to control the output of an axial
piston pump, when part "A" is moved to the right, then part "B"
__________. Illustration GS-0039 |
will move to the
right, and "C" will move to the left, but lagging behind "B" |
will move to the
left, and "C" will move to the right, but will lag behind the
movement of "A" |
will move to the
right, as will "C" |
will move to the
left, as will "C" |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements will be true if the position of the manual control lever, shown
in the illustration, remains unchanged after the pump is placed on stroke.
Illustration GS-0039 |
Although oil will
leak past part 'B,' the amount of pump stroke will be maintained until the
control handle position is changed. |
Although the control
handle position was set, the pump displacement will fluctuate from zero
to maximum flow rate until the handle is placed in its neutral position. |
Regardless of
the control handle position, the pump will gradually move to full stroke. |
Regardless of
the control handle position, the pump will gradually return to neutral stroke. |
|
B |
A variable displacement
pump is fitted with the illustrated device, the discharge flow rate will
be reduced as described by which of the following statements? Illustration
GS-0040 |
When part "D"
rotates counterclockwise, part "E" will rotate clockwise allowing
part "G" to slide towards the set point spring 'F.' |
Part "H"
will move to block the replenishing pump oil flow across part "G"
as flow across hydraulic motor decreases. |
The increase in
high side pressure will gradually increase the tilting box angle of the
variable displacement pump. |
As high side pressure
increases part "A", "B", and "C" will work
together to reestablish the original tilting box angle. |
|
B |
One function of
a replenishing pump installed in many pressure-closed hydraulic systems,
is to supply fluid flow to __________. |
the main system
accumulators under all operating conditions |
a servo control
circuit |
position a manually
controlled valve |
the reservoir |
|
A |
Plug valves installed
in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as __________. |
two position flow
control valves |
main supply line
throttle valves |
variable flow
control valves |
check and choke
valves |
|
D |
The purpose of
a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system, is
to __________. |
prevent oil backflow
to the actuators |
prevent the hydraulic
pump from overheating |
restrict the oil
supply to the hatch covers not in use |
control the speed
of the hatch cover movement while closing |
|
B |
Compensated flow
control, or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to __________. |
assure constant
fluid temperature |
allow for changes
in pressure and temperature within the system |
compensate for
major leaks in the system |
maintain the original
fluid viscosity |
|
A |
Which of the valves
listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve? |
Counterbalance
valve |
Two-position valve |
Three-position
valve |
Detented-position
valve |
|
B |
Which of the listed
pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of one action
of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted? |
Unloading valve |
Sequence valve |
Counterbalance
valve |
Pressure-reducing
valve |
|
B |
Which of the listed
pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to temporarily
divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was
required? |
compound, pressure-relief
valve |
unloading valve |
counterbalance
valve |
sequence valve |
|
D |
Which of the statements
is true concerning the illustrated hydraulic circuit when the directional
control valve is centered? Illustration GS-0105 |
Oil pressure to
both sides of the actuator will be equal as the pump discharge flow is directed
across the relief valve. |
A pressure differential
will exist between the two ends of the actuator, with pump discharge lower
than normal due to flow across the unloading valve. |
The oil pressure
will equalize at both ends of the actuator and the pump will discharge through
the reducing valve to the sump. |
The load on the
actuator may cause a difference in pressure to exist between the rod and
cap end, and oil discharging to the sump across the relief valve with the
pump operating. |
|
C |
The counterbalance
valve (5) in the winch circuit shown in the illustration __________. Illustration
GS-0161 |
regulates the
amount of oil to the brake release cylinder |
aligns the pump's
discharge to the winch's hydraulic motor |
helps prevent
slung loads from dropping prematurely |
prevents over-travel
of the winch when retrieving |
|
C |
If solenoid "A"
illustrated is energized, the __________. Illustration GS-0041 |
cylinder should
retract |
pump should discharge
directly to the reservoir |
cylinder should
extend |
pump should reverse
the direction of flow |
|
B |
For which of the
following reasons is a linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device? |
To allow the pump
to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting
without lifting the relief valve. |
To slow the action
of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects. |
To regulate actuator
speed through the entire stroke length. |
All of the above. |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements concerning the operation of a single-acting hydraulic ram is
correct? |
Hydraulic force
is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram by directional
ports. |
The single-acting
ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force. |
The single-acting
ram is both extended and retracted by means of hydraulic force. |
Hydraulic force
applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling motion. |
|
C |
Overheating of
a hydraulic system may be a result of __________. |
changing pump
discharge pressure in response to normal load variations |
a high oil level |
incorrect fluid
viscosity |
continued slow
recirculation of the oil |
|
A |
Overheating of
the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by __________. |
continuous leakage
through the pressure relief valve |
an increase in
the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers |
insufficient external
pump slippage |
fluctuating pump
discharge pressure in response to normal load variations |
|
A |
While starting
a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that hydraulic pressure does not
develop in spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which
of the following actions should you take FIRST to restore pressure? |
Make certain that
the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level. |
Inspect the disc
brake on the electric motor for proper operation. |
Check the electric
motor for an open overload relay contact. |
Check for full
voltage supply to the electric motor. |
|
C |
In order for the
hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain adequate
flow, the pump suction should __________. |
be taken directly
off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or strainers |
be provided with
three to five 1/2 inch holes in the vertical, suction line to prevent pump
starvation should the strainer become fouled |
be arranged to
develop a maximum vacuum of approximately 10" of mercury |
be arranged to
develop the theoretically maximum attainable vacuum |
|
C |
A hydraulic flow
control circuit is shown in the illustration, and is known as a __________.
Illustration GS-0107 |
bleed-in circuit |
metered-in circuit |
bleed-off circuit |
metered-out circuit |
|
A |
A hydraulic fluid
flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed, with the pump operating
below maximum operating pressure is known as the __________. |
bleed-off circuit |
bleed-in circuit |
metered-out circuit |
metered-in circuit |
|
D |
A hydraulic fluid
flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension,
with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________. |
metered-out circuit |
bleed-in circuit |
bleed-off circuit |
metered-in circuit |
|
B |
A hydraulic system
flow-control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________.
Illustration GS-0105 |
metered-out circuit |
metered-in circuit |
bleed-off circuit |
bleed-in circuit |
|
B |
When new piping
sections have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system, prior
to installation the piping should be __________. |
cleaned using
a water-based detergent |
descaled by using
a pickling solution |
hydrostatically
tested to 100% of maximum working pressure |
All of the above. |
|
D |
New piping and
tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by
using __________. |
alcohol |
a water-based
detergent |
carbon tetrachloride |
a special petroleum
solvent |
|
B |
Before doing any
work on a hydraulic system equipped with accumulators, you should __________. |
completely charge
the accumulators to prevent system energy loss |
bleed off all
stored energy from the accumulators |
drain the accumulators
and purge with oxygen |
pump the hydraulic
fluid into the accumulators to prevent fluid loss |
|
C |
How can the chance
of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working on hydraulic
systems? |
Seal any cracks
in lines with Permatex. |
Place drip pans
under leaky fittings. |
Clean the fittings
before they are disconnected. |
Coat all threads
with graphite oil. |
|
B |
Purging air from
a hydraulic system is necessary when __________. |
the system has
been idle for a long period of time |
the system has
been drained and then filled with new oil |
the system has
been overheated |
adding small amounts
of oil to the system |
|
B |
Increased internal
leakage, in addition to poor hydraulic system response, and inadequate lubrication,
is the result of __________. |
excessively worn
actuator-piston packing |
low hydraulic
oil viscosity |
pump bearings
in poor condition |
broken directional
control valve centering springs |
|
D |
If the pump in
a hydraulic system produces a low rumbling noise while in operation, this
is a probable indication of __________. |
strained hydraulic
fluid |
internal system
fluid leakage |
excess internal
slippage |
air passing through
the pump |
|
C |
If a hydraulic
pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be __________. |
an oil leak across
the pump shaft packing |
due to the wrong
direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor |
an air leak in
the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir |
low viscosity
in the hydraulic fluid |
|
D |
If the operating
pressure is determined to be normal in the system shown in the illustration,
yet the crane does not swing (slew) in either direction when the directional
control valve is operated, the problem could be __________. Illustration
GS-0161 |
double check valve
(14) ball jammed to the left |
relief valve (12)
set to open at too high a pressure |
oil cooler partially
obstructed |
an obstruction
in the brake release cylinder line (2) |
|
B |
Cavitation in
a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation and can be caused
by a/an __________. |
hydraulic fluid
low floc point |
clogged suction
strainer in the reservoir |
excessive discharge
pressure from the pump |
high fluid level
in the reservoir |
|
A |
If a hydraulic
pump sounds like it is pumping rocks when in operation, the problem is most
likely______. |
cavitation |
slippage |
galvanic action |
None of the above |
|
D |
If a hydraulic
pump is overheating, the cause may be __________. |
operation of the
pump at 100% efficiency |
excessive fluid
level in the hydraulic reservoir |
low discharge
pressure and fluid flow |
excessive internal
slippage in the pump |
|
D |
Hydraulic machinery
failures are commonly caused by misalignment of the system components and
by __________. |
turbulent fluid
flow |
excessive fluid
friction |
fluid pressure
surges |
hydraulic fluid
contamination |
|
D |
A solenoid direct-acting
three-position spring-centered directional control valve is used in a hydraulic
system to control a linear actuator. When the remote push button is depressed
to extend the actuator it fails to move, even though the pump is in operation.
Which of the following statements represents the cause? |
The pump coupling
is damaged and pump is unable to turn at its required speed. |
A spring at one
spool end has broken and jammed, preventing the spool from shifting. |
The 'extend' solenoid
coil has developed an open. |
Any one of the
above will cause the actuator to not move. |
|
B |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, for vessels of 400 gross tons and above which are all
required to carry an oily-water separator to process bilge slops, what is
the design criteria in terms of maximum oil content of the overboard discharge? |
3 parts per million |
15 parts per million |
100 parts per
million |
150 parts per
million |
|
A |
In accordance
with the federal regulation in 33 CFR Subchapter O, which discharge of oil
or oily mixture to sea is permissible? |
When the discharge
is necessary to for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving
life at sea. |
When the oil content
of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per million. |
When the oil or
oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges. |
When the oil or
oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues. |
|
A |
In accordance
with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for U.S non-oceangoing
ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it
pertains to handling bilge slops? |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges
or in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility. |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water
separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm
or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm. |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and
it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception
facility. |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water
separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and
a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm. |
|
C |
In accordance
with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships
of less than 400 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution
by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops? |
The
oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with
an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required
to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop
the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
o |
The oceangoing
ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a
high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water
discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. |
The oceangoing
ship of less than 400 gross tons is EITHER required to retain onboard all
oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be
equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship
is required to be equipped with an approved oily-water separator. |
The oceangoing
ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge
these mixtures to a reception facility. |
|
D |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but
less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution
by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops? |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required
to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility. |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator,
AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds
15 ppm. |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is EITHER
required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in
a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to
a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved
oily-water separator. |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator,
but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means
to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds
15 ppm. |
|
D |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 10,000 gross tons and above,
what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains
to handling bilge slops? |
The oceangoing
ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have
a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water
discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. |
The oceangoing
ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge
these mixtures to a reception facility. |
The oceangoing
ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is EITHER required to retain onboard
all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to
be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR the
ship is required to be equipped with an approved oily-water separator. |
The oceangoing
ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a
high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water
discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm. |
|
B |
In what part of
33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery
space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than
a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record Book? |
33CFR Part 151.15 |
33CFR Part 151.25 |
33CFR Part 151.55 |
33CFR Part 151.2070 |
|
B |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations
in 33 CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all
ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented
in an Oil Record Book. This includes disposal of oil residues and overboard
discharge of bilge water that has accumulated in machinery spaces, as well
as other operations. Who is responsible for signing the Oil Record Book
entry for the specific operation? |
The Master of
the vessel |
The officer in
charge of the operation |
The Chief Engineer |
The First Assistant
Engineer |
|
D |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations
in 33 CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all
ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented
in an Oil Record Book. Which of the listed machinery space operations must
be documented in the Oil Record Book? |
Discharge overboard
of bilge water that has accumulated in the dry cargo holds. |
Taking on ballast
water into double-bottom sea water ballast tanks. |
Discharge of ballast
from double-bottom sea water ballast tanks. |
Discharge of waste
oil or sludge to a reception facility. |
|
D |
In accordance
with the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, continuing violations
of The Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international MARPOL regulations
may constitute separate violations subject to civil penalties. Which of
the following statements is true? |
Each week of a
continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. |
Each month of
a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. |
Each hour of a
continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. |
Each day of a
continuing violation constitutes a separate violation. |
|
C |
Under the federal
regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of the term "sewage"? |
Victual
or food wastes collected from galley sinks.
|
Various deck drains
situated within the vessel's superstructure. |
Human body wastes
and the wastes from toilets and other receptacles intended to receive or
retain body waste. |
Drains collected
from sinks and showers from the various heads onboard ship. |
|
C |
Under the federal
regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type
I Marine Sanitation Device"? |
A
device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200
per 100 milliliters and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams
per liter.
o |
A device that
is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage. |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100
milliliters and no visible floating solids. |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids. |
|
D |
Under the federal
regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type
II Marine Sanitation Device"? |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100
milliliters and no visible floating solids. |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids. |
A device that
is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage. |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter. |
|
B |
Under the federal
regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type
III Marine Sanitation Device"?
|
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids. |
A device that
is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage. |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter. |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100
milliliters and no visible floating solids. |
|
C |
Under the federal
regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type III
Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of untreated
sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device
to prevent the discharge of sewage is UNACCEPTABLE? |
Using a non-releasable
wire-tire to hold each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed
position. |
Closing each valve
leading to an overboard discharge and removing the handle. |
Closing and tagging
each valve leading to an overboard discharge. |
Padlocking each
valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed position. |
|
C |
Under the federal
regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type II
Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated
or untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing
the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical
to close the seacock and prevent its opening? |
Making
an announcement over the public address system advising all concerned that
the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone". |
Placing a warning
sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising all concerned
that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone". |
Locking the door
to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door handle key lock
to prevent entry when the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone". |
Placing of tape
forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all concerned
that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone". |
|
D |
Under the international
MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less than 3 nautical miles
from the nearest land, what statement is true? |
The discharge
of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage
is permitted. |
The discharge
of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted. |
The
discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted
sewage is
permitted. |
The discharge
of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited. |
|
A |
Under the international
MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more than 3, but less
than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true? |
The discharge
of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted. |
The discharge
of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage
is permitted. |
The discharge
of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage
is permitted. |
The discharge
of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited. |
|
B |
Under the international
MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more than 12 nautical
miles from the nearest land, what statement is true? |
The discharge
of comminuted and disinfected sewage is prohibited. |
The discharge
of any sewage, treated or untreated, is permitted. |
The discharge
of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage
is permitted. |
The discharge
of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage
is permitted. |
|
D |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited
in any waters? |
Ground paper products,
rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery. |
Unground paper
products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery. |
Floating dunnage,
lining, or packing material. |
Plastic or garbage
mixed with plastic. |
|
A |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of all garbage applies
to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land? |
3 nautical miles |
12 nautical miles |
25 nautical miles |
200 nautical miles |
|
C |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of dunnage, lining,
and packing materials that float applies to a vessel operating within how
many nautical miles of the nearest land? |
3 nautical miles |
12 nautical miles |
25 nautical miles |
200 nautical miles |
|
B |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground paper
products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel
operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land? |
3 nautical miles |
12 nautical miles |
25 nautical miles |
200 nautical miles |
|
A |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of ground paper products,
rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating
within how many nautical miles of the nearest land? |
3 nautical miles |
12 nautical miles |
25 nautical miles |
200 nautical miles |
|
D |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of plastics into the sea or the navigable
waters of the United States is strictly prohibited. Which of following statements
is true concerning the legal disposal of plastics? |
The garbage containing
plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved reception facility. Incineration
onboard the ship is not permitted. |
The garbage containing
plastics must be incinerated onboard ship. Discharge ashore to an approved
reception facility is not permitted. |
The garbage containing
plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved plastics recycling facility. |
The garbage containing
plastics must be either discharged ashore to an approved reception facility
or incinerated onboard the ship. |
|
B |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge or disposal of garbage on vessels of
400 gross tons and above engaged in commerce requires recordkeeping. Which
of the following discharge or disposal operations requires a detailed description
of the contents of the garbage? |
Incineration on
the ship. |
Discharge overboard
to sea. |
Discharge to a
reception facility. |
Discharge to another
ship. |
|
B |
Which of the following
fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is designated as
an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances
that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result? |
CO2 |
Halon 1301 |
Cartridge-operated
dry chemical |
Cartridge-operated
dry powder |
|
A |
Which of the following
refrigerants which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-depleting
substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete
the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result? |
R-12 |
R-134a |
R-404A |
R-410A |
|
A |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous oxide (NOx)
emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate
under certain acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications
would the NOx emission regulations apply? |
Diesel engines
with a power output of more than 130kW. |
Diesel engines
with a power output not greater than 130kW. |
Diesel engines
powering emergency diesel-generator sets. |
Diesel engines
powering lifeboats. |
|
C |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulfur content of
any fuel oil used onboard ships shall not exceed what percentage by weight? |
1.5 (%) |
3.0 (%) |
4.5 (%) |
6.0 (%) |
|
C |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulphur content
of any fuel oil used on board ships shall not exceed what percentage by
weight? |
1.5 (%) |
3 (%) |
4.5 (%) |
6 (%) |
|
A |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence of an
exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable sulphur content
for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control
area? |
1.5 (%) |
3 (%) |
4.5 (%) |
6 (%) |
|
A |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed
substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator? |
Polychlorinated
biphenyls (PCBs) |
Oil residue sludges |
Unground garbage |
Sewage waste sludges |
|
D |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed
substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator? |
Refined petroleum
products containing detergent additives. |
Garbage containing
trace amounts of heavy metals. |
Oil residue and
sewage waste sludges. |
Refined petroleum
products containing halogen compounds. |
|
C |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is the minimum
allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator
while in operation? |
450°C |
650°F |
850°F |
1050°F |
|
A |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is a
permissible alternative to burning oil residue sludge in an appropriate
incinerator? |
The oil sludge
residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned only in
unrestricted waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries). |
The oil sludge
residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned without
restriction in terms of vessel location. |
The oil sludge
residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned only in unrestricted
waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries). |
The oil sludge
residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned without restriction
in terms of vessel location. |
|
A |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is a permissible
alternative to burning oil residue sludge in an appropriate incinerator? |
The oil sludge
residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, and it AND may be burned only
in unrestricted waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries). |
The oil sludge
residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned without
restriction in terms of vessel location. |
The oil sludge
residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned only in unrestricted
waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries). |
The oil sludge
residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned without restriction
in terms of vessel location. |
|
C |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL AnnexVI regulations, what is the minimum allowable
flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while
in operation? |
450⁰C |
650⁰F |
850⁰F |
1050⁰F |
|
B |
Where would you
find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel? |
Muster List ("Station
Bill") |
Certificate of
Inspection |
Official logbook |
In the captain's
desk |
|
A |
The duties of
a chief engineer upon taking charge of the department include __________. |
determining if
any vital engine room equipment is inoperative |
preparing a list
of engine department personnel for the Master's signature |
taking a complete
personal inventory of all engine room spare parts |
obtaining a valid
Certification of Inspection from the Coast Guard |
|
B |
A Coast Guard
engineer's license can be suspended or revoked for __________. |
having your wages
garnished |
being responsible
for an oil spill ashore |
failure to attend
safety meetings |
conviction of
any misdemeanor ashore |
|
C |
Who is responsible
for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an
emergency? |
Coast Guard |
Chief Engineer |
Master of the
vessel |
Chief Mate |
|
C |
Oil sprays on
to a hot piece of machinery, catches fire and causes $35,000 damage to your
vessel. By law this must be reported to the __________. |
U.S. Salvage Association
Survey at the next U.S. port |
principal surveyor
of the American Bureau of Shipping at the next U.S. port |
Officer in Charge,
Marine Inspection at the first port of arrival |
nearest Coast
Guard unit |
|
A |
In accordance
with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), it is the duty of the Chief Engineer
to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers
are taken. This sample must be preserved until __________. |
that particular
supply of oil is exhausted |
return to the
first U.S. port where upon it must be sent ashore for chemical analysis
and the findings submitted to the nearest Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection |
it can be sent
ashore to the proper oil company personnel for testing and the results entered
in the Oil Record Book, CG-480 |
the voyage is
completed |
|
C |
Who is responsible
for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an
emergency? |
Coast Guard |
Chief Mate |
Master of the
vessel |
Chief Engineer |
|
C |
An international
and coastwise load line assignment and certificate has been issued to a
vessel by the American Bureau of Shipping, under the authority of Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR), for a period of __________. |
4 years |
1 year |
5 years |
2 years |
|
D |
The unlicensed
crew requirements listed on the Certificate of Inspection reads as follows:
3 firemen/watertenders; 3 oilers. The vessel is about to depart on a foreign
voyage, and has in the crew: 3 firemen/watertenders, 2 oilers, and one man,
whose merchant mariner's document is endorsed QMED, any rating. you should
__________. |
call the port
captain and request another oiler |
request a waiver
from the Coast Guard |
check if any of
the firemen have enough time for an oiler's endorsement |
sail because your
crew requirements are filled |
|
D |
The minimum number
of crew members permitted by law to operate your vessel can be determined
by checking the __________. |
Master's crew
list |
Muster List ("Station
Bill") |
A. B. S. Certificate |
Certificate of
Inspection |
|
B |
The Certificate
of Inspection for your vessel was issued in January. In March of the same
year you need to replace a cooling water pump for the refrigeration system.
What action would be appropriate? |
Defer informing
the Coast Guard of the pump's replacement until the mid-period inspection. |
Replace the pump,
as the Coast Guard need not be informed of the pump replacement. |
Inform the Coast
Guard if the replacement will involve welding or burning. |
Inform the nearest
Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection of the pump replacement. |
|
D |
The minimum firefighting
equipment to be maintained onboard a tank vessel, can be determined from
the __________. |
U.S.C.G. Firefighting
Manual for Tank Vessels |
U.S.C.G. Equipment
List |
vessel's current
articles |
vessel's Certificate
of Inspection |
|
A |
The assessment
of a trainee's practical demonstration of skills should be conducted __________. |
within the normal
routine of vessel's operation |
at any time of
the day, particularly outside normal operations |
within the last
six hours that the trainee will be on board the vessel |
only when the
trainee first arrives on board, and preferably within the first few days |
|
D |
A water line ruptures
under pressure and floods the engine room causing $(USA)30,000 damage to
the machinery. By law, this must be reported to the __________. |
insurance underwriter |
engine manufacturer |
owner or his agent |
U.S. Coast Guard |
|
A |
A trainee is on
board your vessel and will need to be assessed in the demonstration of practical
skills. Ideally you should assess their skill __________. |
after they have
received training and personally practiced the skill |
immediately after
they have received training |
after they have
observed the skill demonstrated once |
before they have
received training |
|
C |
One important
objective of a practical skill demonstration for mariner certification is
to __________. |
institute busy
work for both the trainee and assessor |
establish if the
trainee can perform certain tasks at a later time |
determine the
degree of competence of the trainee during the assessment |
subjectively prevent
trainee's from being licensed or certified |
|
D |
In order to assess
each trainee in the performance of a practical demonstration, the assessor
should __________. |
sign off the remaining
half of all skills to be demonstrated based upon the success of the first
half of the skill demonstration |
create a unique
set of subjective questions for each trainee |
evaluate
according to their discretion, simply by their ability to "tell"
when a candidate is
performing well |
refer to a checklist
that represents the skill process as required on board the vessel |
|
A |
When a ships officer
signs off a trainee's successful completion of one or more practical demonstrations,
they are attesting to the trainee's____________. |
ability to perform
the practical demonstration only at the time the skill was assessed |
overall competency |
knowledge of how
to perform the task and nothing more |
ability to perform
the specific task not only at the time of demonstration, but also for the
future |
|
C |
A licensed officer
designated to certify a trainee's performance of a practical demonstration
should sign off when __________. |
another
license officer has witnessed the performance of the demonstration
|
the pre-brief
with the trainee has been completed |
the entire practical
demonstration has been successfully completed and personally observed by
the licensed officer |
the majority of
any portion of the skill has been demonstrated |
|
B |
In which lubrication
application is a detergent type oil most likely to be used? |
Air compressor
lubricating oil. |
Trunk type diesel
engine lubricating oil. |
Steam turbine
lubricating oil. |
Crosshead diesel
engine bearing lubricating oil. |
|
A |
What is the operating
principle of detergent type lubricating oil that provides the oil with its
unique properties? |
Detergent and
dispersant additives are able to hold solids in suspension. |
Detergent and
dispersant additives chemically dissolve the solids. |
Detergent and
dispersant additives convert the solids into a soap-like substance. |
Detergent and
dispersant additives cause the solids to settle out. |
|
A |
With respect to
lubricating oils, what statement is true concerning viscosity and viscosity
index? |
Viscosity is a
measure of an oil's internal resistance to flow and viscosity index is a
measure of an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature
changes. |
Viscosity is a
measure of an oil's resistance to emulsification and viscosity is a measure
of an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes. |
Viscosity is a
measure of an oil's lubricity and viscosity index is a measure of an oil's
ability to resist change in lubricity as the pressure changes. |
Viscosity is a
measure of an oil's ability to resist oxidation and viscosity index is a
measure of an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature
changes. |
|
D |
Which statement
is true concerning alkaline reserve as it applies to a lubricating oil? |
Alkaline reserve
represents the ability of an oil to maintain the oil in an alkaline condition. |
Alkaline reserve
represents the ability of an oil to neutralize bases as they are formed. |
Alkaline reserve
represents the ability of an oil to maintain the oil in an acidic condition. |
Alkaline reserve
represents the ability of an oil to neutralize acids as they are formed. |
|
A |
In which lubrication
application is a lubricating oil with an alkaline reserve most likely to
be used? |
Trunk type diesel
engine lubricating oil. |
Stern tube bearing
lubricating oil. |
Steam turbine
lubricating oil. |
Crosshead diesel
engine bearing lubricating oil. |
|
C |
With respect to
a lubricating oil's viscosity and the bearing loading characteristics at
the points of lubrication, what statement is true? |
The
viscosity should be low enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque
load and low enough to minimize power losses. |
The viscosity
should be high enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque load
and high enough to minimize power losses. |
The viscosity
should be high enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque load,
but the viscosity should be low enough to minimize power losses. |
The viscosity
should be low enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque load,
but the viscosity should be high enough to minimize power losses. |
|
B |
Which statement
concerning a lubricating oils viscosity and bearing loading characteristics
is true? |
Shaft bearings
associated with relatively low torque loads and high rotational speeds require
a lubricating oil with a relatively high viscosity. |
Shaft bearings
associated with relatively high torque loads and low rotational speeds require
a lubricating oil with a relatively high viscosity. |
The viscosity
requirements of a lubricating oil are not dependent on the relative torque
load or rotational speed of a shaft bearing. |
Shaft bearings
associated with relatively high torque loads and low rotational speeds require
a lubricating oil with a relatively low viscosity. |
|
B |
Greases used for
most marine applications would have what National Lubricating Grease Institute
(NLGI) grade? |
0 |
2 |
4 |
6 |
|
D |
A bearing using
an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced
by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished? |
Changing the filter
element. |
Rotating the handle
of the lube oil strainer. |
Draining the bottom
of the strainer housing. |
Draining the bottom
of the bearing lube oil sump. |
|
D |
On a bearing using
an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would
indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a
minimum? |
Weekly |
Quarterly |
Monthly |
Annually |
|
D |
For any piece
of equipment requiring lubrication, what is the single most important lubricating
oil property in meeting the operating conditions? |
Total base number |
Flash point |
Pour point |
Viscosity |
|
D |
For a lubricating
oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature? |
As the temperature
of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil may
increase or decrease, depending upon the lubricant. |
As the temperature
of a lubricating oil varies in either direction, the viscosity of the lubricating
oil remains constant. |
As
the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating
oil also
increases. |
As the temperature
of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil decreases. |
|
B |
What statement
is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?
|
An oil with a
high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity
as the pressure changes. |
An oil with a
high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity
as the temperature changes. |
An oil with a
high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity
as the pressure changes. |
An oil with a
high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity
as the temperature changes. |
|
B |
What type of grease
is the most commonly used aboard ship? |
Lime-based grease |
Lithium-based
grease |
Calcium-based
grease |
Aluminum-based
grease |
|
A |
If an engine lubricating
oil's viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean? |
The oil is formulated
to meet the low temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the 100⁰C
(high) temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round
oil. |
The oil is formulated
to meet the 100⁰C (high) temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and
the low temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round
oil. |
The oil is a mixture
of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil. |
The oil is a mixture
of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50W oil and as such is a year-round
oil. |
|
A |
A bearing using
an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced
by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished? |
Draining the bottom
of the bearing lube oil sump. |
Rotating the handle
of the lube oil strainer. |
Draining the bottom
of the strainer housing. |
Changing the filter
element. |
|
B |
In a forced-feed
lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump
residence time? |
The lower the
oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be
delivered by the pump. |
The lower the
oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be
as delivered by the pump. |
The lower the
oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be
as delivered by the pump. |
The lower the
oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be
as delivered by the pump. |
|
D |
On a bearing using
an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, at what oil level is the bearing
maintained? |
The bearing is
maintained at a level where the shaft is half-submerged in oil. |
The bearing is
maintained at any level that guarantees that the shaft is partially submerged
in oil. |
The bearing is
maintained in a flooded state where the shaft is completely submerged in
oil. |
The bearing is
maintained at a level below the shaft, but high enough so that the ring
dips into the oil. |
|
D |
On a bearing using
an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the bottom
of the bearing sump be drained of impurities? |
Annually |
Every round |
Daily |
Bimonthly |
|
D |
If the bearings
of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil system,
what statement is true? |
The lube oil pump
draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity
tank. |
The lube oil pump
draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity
tank which overflows to the lube oil reservoir/sump. |
The lube oil pump
draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump. |
The lube oil pump
draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube
oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return
oil drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump. |
|
C |
If the bearings
of a piece of machinery are force-fed by a pressure feed lubricating oil
system, which statement is true? |
The
lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges
directly to the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube
oil gravity tank which overflows to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
o |
The lube oil sump
draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube
oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return
oil drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump. |
The lube oil pump
draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump. |
The lube oil pump
draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity
tank. |
|
C |
If the bearings
of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil system,
what statement is true concerning the vertical arrangement of the lube oil
tanks? |
The
lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both below the
points of lubrication.
o |
The lube oil gravity
tank is below the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump
is above the points of lubrication. |
The lube oil gravity
tank is above the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump
is below the points of lubrication. |
The lube oil gravity
tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both above the points of lubrication. |
|
C |
On a bearing using
an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would
indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a
minimum? |
Weekly |
Monthly |
Annually |
Quarterly |
|
C |
Which type of
lubricating oil method is LEAST likely to have a lube oil strainer or filter? |
Gravity-feed |
Pressure-feed |
Static-feed |
Force-feed |
|
B |
In a forced-feed
lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump
residence time? |
The higher the
oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be
as delivered by the pump. |
The higher the
oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be
as delivered by the pump. |
The higher the
oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be
as delivered by the pump. |
The higher the
oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be
as delivered by the pump. |
|
B |
Adsorption filters
are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine lubricating systems
because they __________. |
are only effective
at temperatures below 100°F |
remove additives
from the lube oil |
can adsorb no
more than five times their weight in water |
utilize exotic
and expensive filtering media making them too costly for use. |
|
C |
What is the BEST
indication that a diesel engine full-flow lubricating oil filter must be
serviced? |
Abnormally high
lubricating oil pump discharge pressure. |
Insufficient pressure
drop across the filter. |
Excessive pressure
drop across the filter. |
Abnormally low
lubricating oil supply manifold pressure. |
|
A |
The greatest difference
between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that absorbent filters __________. |
soak up liquid
contaminants directly into the filter media |
will remove additives
from the lube oil |
do not create
pressure drops in the lube oil system |
attract or have
liquid contaminants stick to the surface of the filter media |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements best describes the straining ability of a fine mesh metal lube
oil strainer? |
A 100 wire mesh
screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than 200 wire mesh screen. |
A 200 wire mesh
screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 wire mesh screen. |
A 200 wire mesh
screen and a 100 wire mesh screen both prevent passage of the same size
particles, but each allows a different number of particles to pass through. |
A 200 mesh screen
has larger wires than a 100 mesh screen. |
|
A |
Which of the following
lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with today's high
detergent additive type oils? |
Cotton waste packed
in perforated metal containers or cylindrical cartridges. |
Foamed polyurethane
of the impingement type supported on perforated metal rings. |
Cylindrical elements
containing fuller's earth combined with cellulose. |
Chemically treated
paper and waste in cartridges. |
|
D |
Which of the filter/strainer
units listed permits you to replace or clean the element while leaving the
system on the line? |
Simplex |
Bypass |
Canister |
Duplex |
|
C |
Which of the following
types of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration schemes must be equipped
with a bypass relief valve to insure that the engine bearings are not starved
of oil if the filter element should become severely restricted or blocked? |
Batch filter |
Shunt filter |
Full-flow filter |
Bypass filter |
|
B |
Which of the following
types of lubricating oil filters is not fitted with a replaceable filter
element and is serviced by cleaning? |
Cartridge filter |
Centrifugal filter |
Spin-on filter |
Canister filter |
|
B |
What type of diesel
engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters the entire output of the
lubricating oil pump prior to delivery to the lubricating oil supply manifold
of the engine? |
Bypass filter |
Full-flow filter |
Shunt filter |
Batch filter |
|
A |
What type of diesel
engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters a small portion of the
output of the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery back to the sump via
a fine filter? |
Bypass filter |
Batch filter |
Full-flow filter |
Shunt filter |
|
D |
A bearing using
an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced
by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished? |
Draining the bottom
of the strainer housing. |
Rotating the handle
of the lube oil strainer. |
Changing the filter
element. |
Draining the bottom
of the bearing lube oil sump. |
|
C |
On a bearing using
an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the bottom
of the bearing sump be drained of impurities? |
Every round |
Annually |
Bimonthly |
Daily |
|
D |
On a bearing using
an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would
indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a
minimum? |
Monthly |
Quarterly |
Weekly |
Annually |
|
C |
In a forced-feed
lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump
residence time? |
The
higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the
oil will be as delivered by the pump.
|
The higher the
oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be
as delivered by the pump. |
The higher the
oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be
as delivered by the pump. |
The higher the
oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be
as delivered by the pump. |
|
A |
Adsorption filters
are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine lubricating systems
because they __________. |
remove additives
from the lube oil |
are only effective
at temperatures below 100°F |
utilize exotic
and expensive filtering media making them too costly for use. |
can absorb no
more than five times their weight in water |
|
B |
The greatest difference
between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that absorbent filters __________. |
will remove additives
from the lube oil |
soak up liquid
contaminants directly into the filter media |
do not create
pressure drops in the lube oil system |
attract or have
liquid contaminants stick to the surface of the filter media |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements best describes the filtering ability of a fine mesh metal lube
oil strainer? |
A 200 wire mesh
screen and a 100 wire mesh screen both prevent passage of the same size
particles, but each allows a different number of particles to pass through. |
A 100 wire mesh
screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than 200 wire mesh screen. |
A 200 mesh screen
has larger wires than a 100 mesh screen. |
A 200 wire mesh
screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 wire mesh screen. |
|
D |
Which of the following
lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with today's high
detergent additive type oils? |
Chemically treated
paper and waste in cartridges. |
Cylindrical elements
containing fuller's earth combined with cellulose. |
Foamed polyurethane
of the impingement type supported on perforated metal rings. |
Cotton waste packed
in perforated metal containers or cylindrical cartridges. |
|
C |
Which of the filter/strainer
units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on
the line? |
Bypass |
Canister |
Duplex |
Simplex |
|
D |
When arc welding,
the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________. |
control penetration |
reduce metal fatigue
and warpage |
increase heat
transfer |
reduce oxidation |
|
C |
In certain circumstances,
weldments are preheated before each pass to __________. |
increase the temperature
gradient in the weld area |
allow the use
of smaller welding rods |
reduce internal
stresses |
eliminate the
need for post heating |
|
D |
A weld with triangular
cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles to each other,
and is called a __________. |
seam weld |
tack weld |
plug weld |
fillet weld |
|
D |
The root opening
dimension shown in the illustration is used to indicate the __________.
Illustration GS-0076 |
width across the
bottom of the weldment |
penetration depth
of the desired weld |
maximum thickness
of the completed weld |
distance across
the bottom of the "V" groove |
|
D |
In the illustration,
the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a __________.
Illustration GS-0078 |
double fillet
weld only |
U-weld over a
backing ring |
plug and slot weld |
V-weld over a
backing ring |
|
C |
Setting up a welding
job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is the negative
pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________. |
inert-arc welding
circuit |
reverse polarity
welding circuit |
straight polarity
welding circuit |
shielded-arc welding
circuit |
|
B |
The welding process
using an electric arc developed between a flux covered electrode and the
metal being welded is known as __________. |
flux cored arc
welding |
shielded metal
arc welding |
submerged arc
welding |
resistance spot
welding |
|
D |
The welding symbol
reference line using the inverted "V", indicates __________. Illustration
GS-0076 |
the first pass
of the weld is to be back gouged |
the arrow side
of the weld is to be surface finished |
the opposite side
of the weld is to be surface finished |
a "V"
groove weld is to be made |
|
D |
The designation
E7028-A1 is typically located on an arc welding electrode. Which of the
listed letters and/or digits correctly identifies the welding position for
which the electrode is recommended? |
E |
70 |
A1 |
2 |
|
B |
Which illustration
correctly depicts a double bevel groove weld? Illustration GS-0077 |
4A |
3B |
4B |
6B |
|
C |
With reference
to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the
welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed
a/an __________. |
nitriding fusion |
neutral flame |
carburizing flame |
oxidizing flame |
|
D |
Which of the following
is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxyacetylene regulators
and torches? |
The torch oxygen
inlet hose thread connection is "left handed". |
The acetylene
regulator hose outlet thread connection is "right handed". |
The oxygen regulator
hose outlet thread connection is "left handed". |
The torch acetylene
inlet hose thread connection is "left handed". |
|
A |
Which of the following
procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an oxyacetylene torch? |
Open the acetylene
valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the oxygen valve. |
Open the oxygen
valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the acetylene
valve. |
Open the acetylene
valve very slightly and the oxygen valve the same amount to light-off. |
Open the oxygen
valve wide open and the acetylene valve slightly to light-off. |
|
A |
When securing
an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should close
the __________. |
cylinder valves
and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and regulators is zero |
cylinder valves
and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hoses |
cylinder valves
only |
hand valves on
the torch only |
|
D |
When welding with
an oxy-acetylene outfit, __________. |
open the acetylene
valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG |
a flashback of
flame into the hose is normal |
a leaking hose
must be repaired by binding with tape |
open the acetylene
cylinder valve only 1/4 to 1/2 turn and leave the wrench on the valve stem |
|
C |
Which of the following
practices is considered to be safe for the handling and use of compressed
gas cylinders? |
Using oxygen as
a substitute for compressed air for pneumatic tools. |
Cracking the valve
on a hydrogen cylinder to clear dust and dirt. |
The storage of
the cylinders in a well ventilated compartment. |
Routinely greasing
or lubricating the valves on oxygen cylinders. |
|
A |
Protective equipment
to be used while carrying out oxy-acetylene welding should always include
__________. |
goggles |
ear plugs |
steel toe safety
shoes |
non-sparking tools |
|
A |
Solder used for
joining metal surfaces should have a __________. |
melting point
lower than that of the metals being joined |
coating of Borax
flux to raise the melting point |
composition of
lead and tin if the solder is the 'hard' type |
fusing point much
higher than that of the metals being joined |
|
C |
Tinning a soldering
iron will __________. |
add extra weight
to the tip |
prevent the tip
from overheating |
prevent tip oxidation
when heated |
protect the tip
from scratches |
|
D |
Flux is used when
soldering, in order to __________. |
ensure proper
tinning |
make the solder "flow" |
decrease the melting
point of the solder |
clean the joint
area |
|
C |
SOLAS requires
Emergency Instructions be posted in conspicuous places throughout the vessel.
On a passenger vessel what language shall these instructions be posted in? |
English, Spanish,
French and German |
English because
it is the international language |
The language required
by the ship's flag State and in English |
The principal
language of the passengers and in English |
|
C |
What material
is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing
the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron? |
Bronze |
Platinum |
Zinc |
Brass |
|
A |
When an aluminum
plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to
minimize bimetallic corrosion? |
The plates should
be electrically insulated from one another by use of non-conductive gaskets
and non-conductive ferrule sleeves with the bolts. |
The plates should
be bonded together electrically by joining the plates by a bonding strap
in addition to bolting together. |
Steel and aluminum
are so close together on the Noble series that no particular provision need
be made for bolting steel and aluminum plates together. |
The plates should
be bolted together in such a way as to ensure good electrical contact between
the plates. |
|
C |
Before primers
and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be
properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation? |
Dirt, oil and
grease must be removed. Rust and mill scale may remain. |
All dirt, rust
and mill scale must be removed. Oil and grease can remain. |
All dirt, oil,
grease, rust, mill scale, and loose paint must be removed. |
All previous paint
must be removed. |
|
C |
In preparing the
surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of
the listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting? |
Chipping hammer |
Sandpaper |
Wire brush |
Hand scraper |
|
A |
What is meant
by the term "boxing" paint? |
Thoroughly mixing
paint by pouring paint back and forth between two cans. |
Thoroughly mixing
paint by using a mechanical stirrer. |
Removing the "skin"
that has formed on the surface of the paint in the can. |
Stacking paint
cans within a suitable box. |
|
D |
When applying
paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are recommended? |
Brushes should
be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and
the paint should be applied in parallel strokes only. |
Brushes should
be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the
paint should be applied in cross strokes only. |
Brushes should
be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and
the paint should be applied in cross strokes only. |
Brushes should
be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the
paint should be applied in parallel strokes only. |
|
D |
Engineering departments
may experience a barrier to free and open communication vertically upward
from subordinates to managers. What is the primary reason for this barrier
to communication? |
The very fact
that managers are more technically proficient than their subordinates often
creates a barrier to open and free communication vertically upward. |
The very fact
that managers are usually older than their subordinates often creates a
barrier to open and free communication vertically upward. |
The very fact
that managers are more knowledgeable than their subordinates often creates
a barrier to open and free communication vertically upward. |
The very fact
that managers have authority, status and power over their subordinates often
creates a barrier to open and free communication vertically upward. |
|
A |
You are enthusiastically
telling one of your 3rd Assistant Engineers, "You did a great job on
that overhaul." What forms of non-verbal communication would do the
most to reinforce and complement your verbal message? |
Smiling, maintaining
eye contact, and providing an appreciative pat on the back. |
Neutral expression,
maintaining eye contact, and providing an appreciative pat on the back. |
Smiling, maintaining
eye contact, and avoiding touching contact. |
Smiling, avoiding
eye contact, and providing an appreciative pat on the back. |
|
A |
Attitudes, biases,
and prejudices towards certain groups (nationalities, races, religions,
and sexes) can pose formidable challenges to communication. This is because
an individual is judged by group association rather than by getting to know
the individual and recognizing individual differences. What is the tendency
called? |
Stereotyping |
Stereo graphing |
Individualizing |
Monotyping |
|
B |
What form of communication
provides the greatest information richness, which is the amount of verbal
and non-verbal information that a communication channel carries? |
Large-group meeting |
One-on-one, face-to-face |
Small-group meeting |
Telephone conversation |
|
D |
In order to establish
a good climate for communication it is important to establish mutual trust
between the employee and the manager. Which of the following facilitates
the trust of employees in managers? |
Disciplining fairly
and consistently, showing contempt for your employee's abilities, and advocating
on their behalf. |
Disciplining unfairly
and inconsistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and advocating
on their behalf. |
Disciplining fairly
and consistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and requiring them
to advocating on their own behalf. |
Disciplining fairly
and consistently, respecting your employee's abilities, and advocating on
their behalf. |
|
D |
In order to establish
a good climate for communication it is important to minimize status barriers.
Which of the following techniques would be the best way to minimize status
barriers on a one-on-one, face-to-face conversation of a sensitive nature
with an employee? |
Conversing with
the employee in your office with the employee sitting on the opposite side
of the desk from you. |
Conversing with
the employee in the ship's office with the employee sitting on the opposite
side of the desk from you. |
Conversing
with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area without regard
to being
interrupted. |
Conversing with
the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area with privacy assured. |
|
C |
An important communication
tool for managers is known as active listening. It helps better insure that
managers understand employees and that feedback is encouraged. What is active
listening? |
Active
listening is when you allow the employee to finish what they are saying
before speaking.
o |
Active listening
is when you maintain eye contact with the employee the whole time they are
speaking. |
Active listening
is when you make a response that states what you have heard from the employee. |
Active listening
is when you listen to an employee with undivided attention and not be distracted. |
|
D |
The design of
a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating.
One of the characteristics of a job design is skill variety, which is the
extent to which a job requires a worker to use a broad range of skills and
talents to perform the job successfully. What is true about skill variety? |
Generally, the
greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the lower the level
of intrinsic motivation. |
Generally, the
greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the greater the level
of extrinsic motivation. |
Generally, the
greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the lower the level
of extrinsic motivation. |
Generally, the
greater the variety of the skills that are performed, the greater the level
of intrinsic motivation. |
|
A |
The design of
a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating.
One of the characteristics of a job design is task significance, which is
the extent to which the job substantially impacts the work or lives of others.
What is true about task significance? |
Generally, the
greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the greater the level
of intrinsic motivation. |
Generally, the
greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the greater the level
of extrinsic motivation. |
Generally, the
greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the lower the level
of intrinsic motivation. |
Generally, the
greater the significance of tasks that are performed, the lower the level
of extrinsic motivation. |
|
D |
The design of
a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating.
One of the characteristics of a job design is autonomy, which is the extent
to which the job entails substantial freedom and decision making in carrying
it out. What is true about autonomy? |
Generally, the
greater the level of autonomy, the greater the level of extrinsic motivation. |
Generally, the
greater the level of autonomy, the lower the level of intrinsic motivation. |
Generally, the
greater the level of autonomy, the lower the level of extrinsic motivation. |
Generally, the
greater the level of autonomy, the greater the level of intrinsic motivation. |
|
C |
It has long been
established that employee performance is linked to motivation. Which of
the following levels of motivation would be considered to be at the highest
level? |
The
level of effort or how much energy the employee puts into a job task.
|
Attempted behavior
or whether or not the employee undertakes a job task. |
The level of persistence
or how hard an employee will pursue a job task when faced with obstacles. |
The direction
of behavior or what job tasks the employee chooses to perform. |
|
A |
When it comes
to motivating employees, it is important to distinguish between intrinsic
and extrinsic motivation. What statement best represents the difference? |
Intrinsic motivation
is derived from doing the job itself (such as enjoyment), where extrinsic
motivation is derived from the consequences of doing the job (such as pay). |
Intrinsic motivation
is derived from the consequences of doing the job (such as pay), where extrinsic
motivation is derived from doing the job itself (such as enjoyment). |
Intrinsic motivation
is derived from the consequences of doing the job (such as pay), where extrinsic
motivation is derived from the fear of the consequences of not doing the
job (such as getting fired). |
Intrinsic motivation
is derived from doing the job itself (such as enjoyment), where extrinsic
motivation is derived from the fear of the consequences of not doing the
job (such as getting fired). |
|
A |
A system of rewards
and punishments that follow a person's behavior as a way to shape that individual's
future behavior is consistent with what motivational theory? |
Reinforcement
theory |
Equity theory |
Goal-setting theory |
Expectancy theory |
|
C |
Which of the following
actions would motivate employees by making their job intrinsically more
rewarding? |
Providing clear
performance objectives and setting of concrete, specific, challenging goals. |
Providing timely
performance feedback and acknowledging progress on a daily, regular basis. |
Changing the job
routine to instill a feeling being challenged or achieving an accomplishment. |
Rewarding employee
performance through the reward system available to you as a manager. |
|
B |
Leadership style
sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of
the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for
adopting a structuring and telling leadership style? |
Where the employees
are able but unwilling or insecure. |
Where the employees
are unable and unwilling or insecure. |
Where the employees
are unable but willing or confident. |
Where the employees
are able and willing or confident. |
|
C |
Leadership style
sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of
the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for
adopting a delegating leadership style? |
Where the employees
are able but unwilling or insecure. |
Where the employees
are unable and unwilling or insecure. |
Where the employees
are able and willing or confident. |
Where the employees
are unable but willing or confident. |
|
B |
What leadership
style tends to extrinsically motivate employees on a contingent reward system
where the focus is on outcomes? |
Adaptive leadership |
Transactional
leadership |
Transformational
leadership |
Developmental
leadership |
|
C |
Some managers
think that the average person has a dislike for work, avoids responsibility,
and cannot be trusted. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely
to adopt? |
Supportive, participative
leadership style. |
Developmental
leadership style. |
Structured, autocratic
leadership style |
Transformational
leadership style |
|
D |
Some managers
think the average person likes work, willingly assumes responsibility, and
is trustworthy. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to
adopt? |
Transactional
leadership style |
Structured, autocratic
leadership style. |
Hierarchical,
dictatorial leadership style |
Supportive, participative
leadership style. |
|
C |
Leadership style
sometimes must change with the situation faced by the manager. Which of
the following situations would be best suited for adopting a structured,
autocratic leadership style? |
The supervision
of daily operations. |
The supervision
of a training session. |
The supervision
of an emergency procedure. |
The supervision
of routine maintenance. |
|
A |
Which of the following
shipboard groups would be an example of an informal group? |
Those officers
and crew assigned to a maintenance task on a ship. |
Those officers
and crew assigned to the safety committee of a ship. |
Those officers
and crew assigned to a particular ship. |
Those officers
and crew assigned to the engineering department of a ship. |
|
C |
During the "storming"
phase of group development, conflicts generally arise over goals, task behaviors,
and leadership roles. If these conflicts are not successfully resolved,
what may result? |
The
group will nevertheless successfully develop teamwork, group cohesion, mutual
trust and cooperation, resulting in successful accomplishment of the group's
mission.
o |
The group will
nevertheless successfully develop teamwork, group cohesion, mutual trust
and cooperation, but this probably will interfere with successful accomplishment
of the group's mission. |
The group may
not successfully develop teamwork, group cohesion, mutual trust and cooperation,
and this probably will interfere with successful accomplishment of the group's
mission. |
The group may
not successfully develop teamwork, group cohesion, mutual trust and cooperation,
but this should not interfere with successful accomplishment of the group's
mission. |
|
C |
During the "forming"
stage of group development, members are trying to determine the task of
the group and their role expectations of one another. As a manager, what
should be done to help facilitate the "forming" process? |
The group members
should be similar in background regardless of the degree of complexity of
the task. |
The group should
not have a designated leader to promote equality. |
The group should
have a designated leader to provide structure and guidance. |
The group members
should be widely differing in background regardless of the degree of complexity
of the task. |
|
D |
As a manager considering
which approach to use at a meeting, what type of meeting is most likely
to be one that is most appropriate to use a leader-controlled approach as
opposed to a group-centered approach? |
Problem-solving
meeting |
Information exchange
meeting |
Fact-finding meeting |
Information-giving
meeting |
|
A |
What type of meeting
is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use group consensus
as a process? |
Problem-solving
meeting |
Information-giving
meeting |
Fact-finding meeting |
Information exchange
meeting |
|
D |
In conducting
a group-centered meeting, it is important to encourage participation and
two-way communication. In addition to being an alert listener, what specific
technique is particularly helpful in getting non-contributors to participate? |
Aggressively coerce
participation so that all contribute. |
Demand participation
from all participants. |
Encourage participation
by focusing only on the contributors. |
Utilize questioning
techniques to encourage participation. |
|
D |
If a problem confronts
an entire work group, what is the best technique for communication of the
issues and concerns? |
Communicate with
everyone in pairs on a one-on-two basis. |
No communication
is necessary as the problem will eventually resolve itself. |
Communicate with
everyone individually on a one-on-one basis. |
Conduct a meeting
with the entire workgroup. |
|
B |
What statement
is true concerning leader-controlled and group-centered meetings? |
Leader-controlled
meetings allow for less interaction between attendees and are generally
longer in duration than group-centered meetings. |
Leader-controlled
meetings allow for less interaction between attendees and are generally
shorter in duration than group-centered meetings. |
Leader-controlled
meetings allow for more interaction between attendees and are generally
longer in duration than group-centered meetings. |
Leader-controlled
meetings allow for more interaction between attendees and are generally
shorter in duration than group-centered meetings. |
|
A |
As managers conducting
a meeting, what action should you take when an attendee exhibits disruptive
or inappropriate behavior? |
With respect,
respond in a way appropriate to the behavior. |
Immediately expel
the offending attendee from the meeting. |
Ignore the disruptive
or inappropriate behavior. |
Aggressively confront
the offending trainee. |
|
C |
Which of the following
conflict resolution techniques represents a strategy where everyone wins? |
Struggle and victory
of one side over the other. |
Voluntary submission
of one side. |
Joint problem
solving by both sides. |
Compromise by
both sides. |
|
A |
As a manager,
which of the following conflict management styles is considered the most
appropriate for resolving conflict and is considered both an assertive and
a cooperative approach? |
Collaborating |
Forcing |
Avoiding |
Accommodating |
|
D |
As a manager,
one of the practices of positive confrontation reduction skills essential
to conflict resolution involves a type of listening. What type of listening
would be most effective in resolving a conflict? |
Passive listening |
Defensive listening |
Reactive listening |
Active listening |
|
C |
What statement
is true concerning stress and personal psychological makeup of managers
and supervisors? |
Managers
and supervisors are more likely to exhibit type "B" behavior,
and this behavior is more likely to subject them to stress over long periods.
|
Managers and supervisors
are more likely to exhibit type "A" behavior, and this behavior
is less likely to subject them to stress over long periods. |
Managers and supervisors
are more likely to exhibit type "A" behavior, and this behavior
is more likely to subject them to stress over long periods. |
Managers and supervisors
are more likely to exhibit type "B" behavior, and this behavior
is less likely to subject them to stress over long periods. |
|
A |
An important component
of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. Which statement
is true concerning the fire control plan for a vessel? |
The fire control
plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information
on vessel arrangements and fire suppression systems and locations of firefighting
equipment. |
The fire control
plan is a set of written descriptions for each deck of the vessel and contains
information on vessel arrangement and fire suppression systems and locations
of firefighting equipment. |
The fire control
plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information
for how to extinguish a fire in a particular space. |
The fire control
plan is a set of written instructions and contains information for how to
extinguish a fire in a particular space. |
|
C |
An important component
of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. What types
of drawings are generally furnished in the fire control plan? |
End elevation
views (from bow and stern) |
Perspective view
(overall) |
Top plan views
(for each deck) |
Side elevation
views (from port and starboard) |
|
A |
An important component
of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the general arrangement drawing.
What type of drawing is the general arrangement drawing? |
Side elevation
view |
Top plan view |
Perspective view |
End elevation
view |
|
A |
Pre-fire survey
forms are particularly useful for collecting information pertaining to fire
emergency response efforts. On what basis is this information collected? |
Each form gives
all the pertinent information relevant to a particular space. |
Each form gives
all the pertinent information relevant to a particular fire extinguishing
agent. |
Each form gives
all the pertinent information relevant to a particular combustible material. |
Each form gives
all the pertinent information relevant to a particular deck. |
|
C |
Of all the individual
components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information
pertaining to general instructions, fire and emergency instructions and
signals, abandon ship instructions and signals, and assigns individual emergency
response duties and responsibilities for each crew member by position? |
Pre-fire plan |
Fire control plan |
Station bill |
Muster list |
|
D |
Of all the individual
components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information
about emergency duty station locations and responsibilities for each crew
member by position AND name? |
Pre-fire plan |
Station bill |
Fire control plan |
Muster list |
|
B |
Of the individual
components of a pre-fire planning package, which component when used with
stability charts would be particularly useful in decision-making as it applies
to the effect of water accumulated during firefighting efforts and the free
surface effect? |
General arrangement
plan |
Deadweight and
capacity plan |
Fire control plan |
Pre-fire plan |
|
B |
Fire and emergency
training has three major components: knowledge sessions, skills sessions,
and drills. What is the essential difference between skills sessions and
drills if applicable? |
Skills sessions
and drills both provide crew members an opportunity to engage in a practical
exercise in a realistic setting. |
Skills sessions
provide crew members an opportunity to practice skills in a convenient training
location, whereas drills provide crew members an opportunity to engage in
a practical exercise in a realistic setting. |
Skills sessions
and drills both provide crew members an opportunity to practice skills in
a convenient training location. |
Skills sessions
provide crew members an opportunity to engage in a practical exercise in
a realistic setting, whereas drills provide crew members an opportunity
to practice skills in a convenient training location. |
|
B |
Once a fire and
emergency drill is conducted, the drill ideally should be critiqued. What
of the following statements best describes the essential characteristics
of an effective critique? |
Determining what
went right and what went wrong and identifying areas where change and improvements
are necessary to the fire control plan or to the general arrangement plan. |
Determining what
went right and what went wrong and identifying areas where change and improvements
are necessary to the pre-fire plan or to the emergency skills training plan. |
Determining what
went right only and focusing only on the positive to reinforce effective
and productive behavior that promoted team functionality. |
Determining what
went wrong only and focusing only on the negative in an attempt to extinguish
ineffective or counter-productive behavior that worked against team functionality. |
|
C |
What are the necessary
components of a fire and emergency training program onboard ship? |
Classroom knowledge
sessions and specific practical skills make up the fire and emergency training
program. Fire and emergency drill exercises are not considered training. |
Fire and emergency
drill exercises and specific practical skills sessions make up the fire
and emergency training program. Classroom knowledge sessions are not considered
training. |
Classroom knowledge
sessions, specific practical skills sessions, and fire and emergency drill
exercises all makeup the fire and emergency training program. |
Fire and emergency
drill exercises only make up the fire and emergency training program. Classroom
knowledge sessions and specific practical skills sessions are not considered
training. |
|
C |
In planning for
a fire and emergency drill, to insure drill success within the context of
a comprehensive fire and emergency training program, what should be planned
for? |
The fire drill
should be a simulated outbreak in a low fire risk area and for each fire
drill the location should remain the same. |
The fire drill
should be a simulated outbreak in a low fire risk area and for each fire
drill the location should be changed. |
The fire drill
should be a simulated outbreak in a high fire risk area and for each fire
drill the location should be changed. |
The fire drill
should be a simulated outbreak in a high fire risk area and for each fire
drill the location should remain the same. |
|
C |
In response to
a fire in the engine room, who would ordinarily report immediately to the
engine control room and assume command of the engine room? |
Second Assistant
Engineer |
First Assistant
Engineer |
Chief Engineer |
Chief Mate |
|
A |
Automatic fire,
smoke, and heat detectors are crucial in sizing-up a fire. Which of the
following statements about the number of zones reporting is true? |
The number of
zones reporting gives an indication of the size of the fire or the extent
to which it has spread. |
The number of
zones reporting gives an indication of the rate of development of the fire. |
The number of
zones reporting gives an indication of the intensity of the fire. |
The number of
zones reporting gives an indication of the stage of development of the fire. |
|
A |
Which of the following
represents the visual factors that an officer in charge of a fire scene
would use to size-up a fire? |
Observing smoke,
flame, and visibly hot bulkheads. |
Evaluating information
from initial reports of the fire. |
Consulting the
pre-fire plan and related sources. |
Determining the
location, type, and number of alarms reporting. |
|
A |
When preparing/writing
shipyard items for your vessel's upcoming dry-docking period, what would
you consider as an item regarding CuNi salt water cooling systems/piping? |
Identify in your
item all steel waster piece pipe spools in the CuNi systems and require
them to be removed and replaced. |
This item should
be of no concern since you have not experienced system piping degradation/leaks. |
Remove certain
designated CuNi piping sections for inspection. |
Replace all bonding
pieces/wires between all CuNi system flanges. |
|
D |
In new construction
or during significant steel plate replacements, what is the procedure of
'line heating'? |
Pre-heating steel
plate edges prior to welding. |
Re-heating steel
plating welds to eliminate welding stresses. |
Pre-stressing
steel plates prior to welding. |
Heating and cooling
of steel plating to remove distortions. |
|
D |
What responsibilities
does a Senior Officer have while on Builder's Sea Trials of a new vessel
to which one will be assigned? |
Be involved operationally
with shipyard operators/crew, and report any possible deficiencies to the
owner's representatives. |
Be involved operationally
with the shipyard operating personnel, and assist in operations. |
Witness/observe
operations and tests, report any perceived discrepancies to regulatory bodies
on board. |
None operationally,
observe/witness tests and document any possible discrepancies to owners'
representatives. |
|
C |
Dry-docking for
a vessel not enrolled in an underwater survey program in lieu of dry-docking
is due at what interval? |
1 time in 5 years. |
2 times in years
with the interval at the discretion of the vessel owner. |
2 times in 5 years,
with the interval between dry dockings not to exceed 3 years. |
2 times in 5 years,
with an interval not to exceed 30 months. |
|
A |
During the Special
Survey the propeller is removed and shaft pulled into the vessel. Which
of the following tests must be performed on the propeller shaft prior to
refitting? |
The tapered section
must be checked for cracks using non destructive testing. |
The entire shaft
must be checked for cracks using non destructive testing. |
The propeller
flange must be checked for cracks using non destructive testing. |
The shaft weight
must be checked prior to refitting. |
|
B |
As it pertains
to graphical tools used to visualize task scheduling in project management,
what statement best represents the difference between a Gantt chart and
a PERT chart? |
The Gantt chart
makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and milestones, whereas the
PERT chart makes it easy to visualize progress with respect to an actual
calendar. Both are bar charts. |
The PERT chart
(which is a line diagram) makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and
milestones, whereas the Gantt chart (which is a bar chart) makes it easy
to visualize progress with respect to an actual calendar. |
The PERT chart
(which is a bar chart) makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and
milestones, whereas the Gantt chart (which is a line diagram) makes it easy
to visualize progress with respect to an actual calendar. |
The Gantt chart
makes it easy to visualize task dependencies and milestones, whereas the
PERT chart makes it easy to visualize progress with respect to an actual
calendar. Both are line diagrams. |
|
B |
Overhaul of a
ship at a shipyard represents an example of a large-scale project executed
under contract. What characteristics best describe the terms of the project
deliverables? |
The shipyard repairs
contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is cost-defined,
and is very general in terms of repairs contracted for. |
The shipyard repairs
contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is cost-defined,
and is very specific in terms of repairs contracted for. |
The shipyard repairs
contract is time-limited with specific start and end dates, is of undetermined
cost, and is very specific in terms of repairs contracted for. |
The shipyard repairs
contract is open-ended in terms of time, is cost-defined, and is very specific
in terms of repairs contracted for. |
|
B |
What project management
scheduling chart is a bar chart with the activity or task descriptions displayed
on the left and listed vertically from top to bottom, and the calendar displayed
on the top and laid out horizontally from left to right? |
PERT chart |
Gantt chart |
Pie chart |
CPM chart |
|
C |
In accordance
with 46 CFR 61, for a passenger vessel, what is the interval in years between
when hydrostatic tests must be performed on an oil-fired water-tube auxiliary
boiler as witnessed by a marine inspector? |
1 |
2 |
2.5 |
5 |
|
B |
A periodic hydrostatic
test is being performed on an oil-fired auxiliary water-tube boiler with
a maximum allowable working pressure of 150 psig. In accordance with 46
CFR 61, what is the required hydrostatic test pressure for this procedure? |
165.0 psig |
187.5 psig |
225.0 psig |
300.0 psig |
|
A |
If a boiler is
being prepared for a hydrostatic test as part of a periodic inspection,
in accordance with 46 CFR 61, which statement is true? |
Water-tube boilers
should be filled with water from 70⁰F to 160⁰F, and fire-tube
boilers should be filled with water from 70⁰F to 100⁰F. |
Fire-tube boilers
should be filled with water from 60⁰F to 170⁰F, and water-tube
boilers should be filled with water from 60⁰F to 100⁰F. |
Fire-tube boilers
should be filled with water from 70⁰F to 160⁰F, and water-tube
boilers should be filled with water from 70⁰F to 100⁰F. |
Water-tube boilers
should be filled with water from 60⁰F to 170⁰F, and fire-tube
boilers should be filled with water from 60⁰F to 100⁰F. |
|
A |
In accordance
with 46 CFR 61, what is the interval in years between when boiler drum safety
valves must be tested on a fire-tube boiler operating at less than 150 psig
as witnessed by a marine inspector? |
1 |
2 |
2.5 |
5 |
|
D |
Assuming the inspection
interval for a boiler as specified by 46 CFR 61 is 2.5 years, which statement
is true? |
Two tests are
required over a 5 year period, and no more than 2 years can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor. |
Three tests are
required over a 5 year period, and no more than 1 year can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor. |
Three tests are
required over a 5 year period, and no more than 2 years can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor. |
Two tests are
required over a 5 year period, and no more than 3 years can elapse between
any test or inspection and its immediate predecessor. |
|
D |
According to 46
CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related
to piping systems, under what circumstances is an internal inspection of
a non-metallic expansion joint performed by the marine inspector? |
An internal inspection
of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed every 5 years regardless
of the frequency of periodic vessel inspections. |
An internal inspection
of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed every 2.5 years regardless
of the frequency of periodic vessel inspections. |
An internal inspection
of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed at every periodic ship
inspection. |
An internal inspection
of the non-metallic expansion joint is performed whenever an external inspection
reveals excessive wear or other signs of deterioration or damage. |
|
D |
Planned maintenance
procedures are important to maintaining the operating condition of equipment.
Your vessel is a single screw vessel. How often should you exam your vessel's
tail shaft in order to be in compliance with Coast Guard periodic testing
and inspection regulations? |
At least three
times within any 5 year period. |
At least once
every 5 years. |
Annually. |
At least twice
within any 5 year period. |
|
A |
According to 46
CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related
to machinery and equipment, what functional test must be performed on boiler
draft fans, fuel oil transfer and service pumps, and machinery space ventilation
fans during periodic inspections? |
Remote shutdown
capability. |
Remote run status
indication capability. |
Remote speed change
capability. |
Remote startup
capability. |
|
C |
Suppose a water-lubricated
stern tube bearing is being evaluated for wear where the propulsion machinery
is located amidship. If the tailshaft diameter is 10.5 inches, according
to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related
to machinery and equipment, what would be the maximum clearance diameter
permissible before the bearing must be re-bushed? |
0.125 inches |
0.25 inches |
0.3125 inches |
0.375 inches |
|
D |
According to 46
CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related
to fired thermal fluid heaters, regarding hydrostatic tests, what statement
is true? |
When the marine
inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must
be completely drained and re-pressurized with compressed air. |
When the marine
inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must
be completely drained and refilled with water as only water can be used
as a hydrostatic test medium. |
When the marine
inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the system must
be completely drained, cleaned with an appropriate solvent, and refilled
with water as only water can be used as a hydrostatic test medium. |
When the marine
inspector determines that a hydrostatic test is warranted, the fired thermal
fluid heater heating medium fluid can be used as a hydrostatic test medium. |
|
B |
According to 46
CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related
to automatic auxiliary boilers, safety programming controls must be checked
for proper operation, sequencing, and timing. What functions must be checked? |
Prepurge, ignition,
and postpurge |
Prepurge, ignition,
postpurge, and modulation |
Prepurge, ignition,
and modulation |
Ignition, postpurge,
and modulation |
|
B |
According to 46
CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related
to automatic auxiliary boilers, flame safeguard controls must be checked
for proper shutdown operation. Which of the following must be checked? 1)
Flame failure. 2) Ignition failure. 3) Audible alarm of shutdown. 4) Visual
indication of shutdown. 5) Shutdown times. |
1,2,3,4 |
1,2,3,4,5 |
1,2,3,5 |
1,2,5 |
|
D |
According to 46
CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic
auxiliary boilers, the fuel supply control solenoids must be checked for
proper shutdown operation. What must be checked for? |
Upon a normal
cycling or safety shutdown, the fuel control solenoid valve coil under test
physically moves to the closed position. |
Upon a normal
cycling or safety shutdown, voltage is removed from the fuel control solenoid
valve coil under test. |
Upon a normal
cycling or safety shutdown, voltage is applied to the fuel control solenoid
valve coil under test. |
Upon a normal
cycling or safety shutdown, the fuel control solenoid valve coil under test
closes with no visible leakage into the burner(s). |
|
C |
According to 46
CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic
auxiliary boilers, the fuel pressure limit control must be checked for proper
shutdown operation. What statement is true? |
To initiate a
safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be raised to a value above what
is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is
required to restart automatically upon restoration of normal pressure. |
To initiate a
safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be raised to a value above what
is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset
must be required before boiler restart. |
To initiate a
safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be lowered to a value below what
is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset
must be required before boiler restart. |
To initiate a
safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be lowered to a value below what
is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is
required to restart automatically upon restoration of normal pressure. |
|
C |
According to 46
CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic
auxiliary boilers burning heavy fuel oil, the fuel temperature limit control
must be checked for proper shutdown operation. What statement is true? |
To initiate a
safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be raised to a value above what
is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset
must be required before boiler restart. |
To initiate a
safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be lowered to a value below what
is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is
required to restart automatically upon restoration of normal temperature. |
To initiate a
safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be lowered to a value below what
is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset
must be required before boiler restart. |
To initiate a
safety shutdown, the fuel temperature must be raised to a value above what
is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is
required to restart automatically upon restoration of normal temperature. |
|
C |
According to 46
CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic
auxiliary boilers, the draft limit control must be checked for proper operation.
What statement is true? |
The draft loss
interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs
when there is insufficient draft to support combustion. There is no requirement
to test the draft loss interlock switch at boiler startup. |
The draft loss
interlock switch must be tested to insure that boiler startup is prevented
when there is insufficient draft to support combustion. There is no requirement
to test the draft loss interlock switch for boiler safety shutdown. |
The draft loss
interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs
and a boiler startup is prevented when there is insufficient draft to support
combustion. |
Either the draft
loss interlock switch must be tested to insure that a safety shutdown occurs
or boiler startup is prevented when there is insufficient draft to support
combustion. There is no requirement to perform both tests. |
|
C |
You are requested
by Port State Authority to present records pertaining to Flag State inspections.
Which of the following records would you present? |
U.S. Coast Guard
and American Bureau of Shipping inspection records. |
American Bureau
of Shipping inspection records. |
U.S. Coast Guard
inspection records. |
Last Port State
Control inspection records. |
|
A |
What would cause
a pump casing distortion that may lead to casing crack(s), leaks and eventual
mechanical pump problems? |
Misaligned/stressed
piping connections, deteriorated foundation, 'Loose Foot'. |
Excessive prime
mover and pump vibrations. |
Loose prime mover
and pump foundation bolts. |
Misalignment between
the prime mover and the pump. |
|
C |
During a dry-docking
survey it is necessary to check the freeboard marking of a vessel. Which
of the following certificates addresses vessel freeboard markings? |
Tonnage Certificate |
International
Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate |
International
Load Line Certificate |
MARPOL Certificate |
|
A |
You have recently
joined a vessel and are reviewing the classification society survey due
dates. The last special periodic survey of the vessel was ten months previous.
Within what time frame can the annual machinery surveys be completed? |
3 months plus
or minus the anniversary date of the last special survey. |
2 months plus
or minus the anniversary date of the last special survey |
1 month plus or
minus the anniversary date of the last special survey |
On the anniversary
month of the last special survey |
|
C |
You are putting
together a list of Class required work for a vessel's next special survey.
Which of the following items would be required by Class? |
Bow thruster overhaul. |
Scavenging air
box inspection. |
Hull thickness
measurements. |
Replacement of
sea valves. |
|
D |
The intermediate
survey for a vessel is typically carried out at what point in the survey
cycle? |
Between the second
and third special classification surveys. |
After the third
annual classification survey. |
Before the second
annual classification survey. |
At or between
the second and third annual classification surveys. |
|
C |
If a vessel is
to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
where freezing is not a concern; boilers may be laid up wet. What statement
concerning wet boiler lay-up is true? |
The boiler should
be completely filled with ordinary fresh water (such as potable water) until
water issues from the atmospheric vent. |
The boiler should
be filled with dearated and chemically treated water until the water level
is brought to the top of the sight glass. |
The boiler should
be completely filled with dearated and chemically treated water until water
issues from the atmospheric vent. |
The boiler should
be filled with ordinary water (such as potable water) until the water level
is brought to the top of the sight glass. |
|
D |
If a vessel is
to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, boilers may be laid up dry. What statement concerning dry boiler
lay-up is true as it relates to protecting boiler watersides? |
The steam and
water drums should be opened up to permit air circulation. Under no circumstances
should desiccant be placed inside the closed-up steam and water drums. |
Desiccant should
be placed inside the steam and water drums and the drums should be opened
to permit air circulation. |
Desiccant should
be placed inside the closed-up steam and water drums. Under no circumstances
should the steam and water drums be opened up to permit air circulation. |
The steam and
water drums can be opened up to permit air circulation, or as an alternative
desiccant can be placed inside the closed-up steam and water drums. |
|
D |
If a vessel is
to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, boilers may be laid up dry. What statement is true as it relates
to protecting boiler firesides? |
A cap may be installed
on the forced draft air intake, and a ventilating unit may be installed
to blow cooled air into the furnace. |
A cap may be installed
on the forced draft air intake, and a ventilating unit may be installed
to blow heated air into the furnace. |
A cap may be installed
on the uptake outlet, and a ventilating unit may be installed to blow cooled
air into the furnace. |
A cap may be installed
on the uptake outlet, and a ventilating unit may be installed to blow heated
air into the furnace. |
|
D |
If a vessel is
to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, what statement is true as it relates to preparing a refrigeration
system for lay-up? |
The refrigeration
system should be evacuated with a deep-vacuum pump so that the entire refrigerant
charge is transferred to the atmosphere. |
The refrigeration
system should be evacuated with a recovery unit so that the entire refrigerant
charge is transferred to a recovery cylinder. |
The refrigeration
system should be left in an idle condition with the refrigerant charge dispersed
throughout the system. |
The refrigeration
system should be pumped down so that the entire refrigerant charge is stored
and isolated in the receiver tank. |
|
A |
If a vessel is
to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided
from ashore, what statement is true as it relates to keeping gearboxes,
turbine casings, and engine crankcases dry and free of moisture? |
A combination
of mechanical circulation of air and dehumidification should be used. |
A combination
of an absence of air circulation and dehumidification should be used. |
A combination
of an absence of air circulation and humidification should be used. |
A combination
of mechanical circulation of air and humidification should be used. |
|
D |
If a new 3rd Assistant
Engineer reports on board, ideally, who should conduct the familiarization
training specific and relevant to the engineer's routine maintenance and
watchkeeping duties? |
The designated
ship's training officer |
Chief engineer |
First assistant
engineer |
The 3rd assistant
engineer being relieved |
|
C |
What statement
is true concerning a well-planned turnover procedure from one crew to another? |
The relieving
crew embarks as the relieved crew disembarks. |
The sequence of
relieving crew embarking and relieved crew disembarking is not critical. |
The relieving
crew embarks prior to the relieved crew disembarking. |
The relieving
crew embarks after the relieved crew disembarks. |
|
D |
If there is any
doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is sufficiently
familiar with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures
needed for the proper performance of his or her duties, what should be done? |
The employee should
be allowed to perform his or her duties without supervision in the hopes
that he or she will eventually become familiar enough to be competent. |
The employee should
be demoted and required to function at the lowest level for the entire duration
of his or her assignment. |
The employee should
be immediately terminated and arrangements made for a relief to be sent
out whenever practical. |
The employee should
be provided a period of close supervision until there is no longer any doubt
that he or she is familiar enough to be competent. |
|
D |
As you manage
the engine room familiarization training program for new engine department
employees, what should you explain to these new employees? |
That there is
really insufficient time for familiarization training that is mandated and
that the new employee should not worry about it. |
That is familiarization
training that is mandated is excessive overkill and that the new employee
should not worry about it. |
That the employee
should do his or her best and that the appropriate entries shall be made
in the training record book regardless of familiarity achieved. |
That the employee
has the obligation to notify his or her supervisor if they don't feel sufficiently
familiar to be competent. |
|
D |
Who onboard is
responsible for identifying all new crew members and insuring that the safety
training and shipboard familiarization training program is implemented according
to written policy and procedures? |
Chief mate |
Designated ship's
training officer |
Chief engineer |
Ship's master |
|
A |
Before training
is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis.
What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing
fire emergency skills training? |
Direct observation
and reviewing critiques of the execution of shipboard fire and emergency
drills performed by the existing crew. |
Reviewing marine
casualty and damage reports attributed to fires that have occurred on the
vessel in the past. |
Analyzing insurance
premium costs relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the
past. |
Analyzing statistical
data collected relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the
past. |
|
D |
When conducting
a training session, what technique is particularly effective in engaging
the participants, keeping them alert, and to obtain feedback? |
Slowing down your
delivery |
Repeating key
points |
Speaking with
enthusiasm |
Asking questions
of the participants |
|
A |
Before training
is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis.
What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing
general safety training? |
Conduct a careful
review of all accident and incident investigations. |
Conduct a careful
review of all marine casualty and damage reports filed. |
Conduct a careful
review of all manufacturer technical manuals for safety related instructions. |
Conduct a careful
review of all vessel procedures and policy manuals for safety related instructions. |
|
C |
Consider the following
training objective for a training session designed for training your crew
how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V
Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge
pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session
the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually
to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine
room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of
the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What
is the "action" verb associated with the above objective? |
It specifies a
performance input condition. |
It states a performance
by using action words. |
It states one
of the standards of performance to be achieved. |
It specifies the
single outcome to be achieved. |
|
D |
Consider the following
training objective for a training session designed for training your crew
how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V
Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge
pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session
the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually
to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine
room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of
the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What
is the "action" verb associated with the above objective? |
It states one
of the standards of performance to be achieved. |
It specifies the
single outcome to be achieved. |
It states a performance
by using action words. |
It specifies a
performance input condition. |
|
B |
Consider the following
training objective for a training session designed for training your crew
how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V
Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge
pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session
the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually
to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine
room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of
the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What
is the "action" verb associated with the above objective? |
It specifies a
performance input condition. |
It specifies the
single outcome to be achieved. |
It states a performance
by using action words. |
It states one
of the standards of performance to be achieved. |
|
A |
You are conducting
a training session on how to parallel alternators manually. What delivery
technique would be most effective to ensure transfer of learning with the
desired outcome that the officers under training actually are able to successfully
parallel manually in the future? |
After preliminary
discussion, demonstrations, and active practice, ask the officer trainees
to parallel alternators at the actual switchboard. |
After preliminary
discussion and practice recitals, ask the officer trainees to recite the
procedure in a classroom setting. |
After preliminary
discussion, show a video demonstrating the procedure to the officer trainees
in a classroom setting. |
After preliminary
discussion, demonstrate the procedure at the actual switchboard to the officer
trainees. |
|
A |
You are conducting
a training session on how to parallel alternators manually. What delivery
technique would be most effective to ensure transfer of learning with the
desired outcome that the officers under training actually be able to successfully
parallel manually in the future? |
After preliminary
discussion, demonstration, and active practice, ask the officer trainees
to parallel alternators at the actual switchboard. |
After preliminary
discussion and practice recitals, ask the officer trainees to recite the
procedure in a classroom setting. |
After preliminary
discussion, show a video demonstrating the procedure to the officer trainees
in a classroom setting. |
After preliminary
discussion, demonstrate the procedure at the actual switchboard to the officer
trainees. |
|
C |
You are in the
planning stages of providing apparently needed general safety training.
Besides a careful review of accident and incident investigations, what other
strategy would provide an excellent resource for training ideas? |
Interview the
ship's designated training officer. |
Consult with the
ship's master. |
Careful review
of the results of safety inspections. |
Interview the
designated ship's safety officer. |
|
A |
In consultation
with the other ship's management level officers, you are planning a required
fire emergency drill. In addition to selecting a scenario as functionally
realistic as possible (such as a high fire risk area) what follow-up activity
would best maximize the training effectiveness for future applicability
to an actual fire emergency? |
Debrief the entire
crew after the drill to critique what went right and what went wrong. |
Write up a critique
of the fire drill and distribute to shore side management. |
Document the fire
drill training as required to authenticate proof of training. |
Hold a post-drill
conference among the management officers to discuss the drill. |
|
C |
A very large crude
carrier is scheduled to depart of the Port of Long Beach, CA at 0800 on
June 28th on a voyage to exceed 48 hours. What is the EARLIEST time that
the communication means between the wheelhouse and the engine control room
could be tested prior to getting underway and be in compliance with the
tank vessel regulations of 46 CFR? |
0800 June 27th |
1400 June 27th |
2000 June 27th |
0200 June 28th |
|
A |
As a management
level engineering officer planning for the departure of a vessel, what would
be the preferred document to use to make sure that you did not miss any
important steps? |
Vessel-specific
pre-departure check off list. |
Various machinery
technical manuals. |
Shipping company
policy manual. |
International
safety management code. |
|
B |
As a management
level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines capable
of burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content
distillate fuels, on departure from a US port, when would you plan for the
fuel changeover be accomplished? |
When leaving US
navigable waters 3 miles from the coastline. |
When leaving the
SOx emission control area set by local authorities. |
When leaving US
territorial boundaries 12 miles from the coastline. |
When leaving the
US economic exclusion zone 200 miles from the coastline. |
|
B |
When transitioning
from maneuvering speed to full sea speed on a slow-speed diesel-powered
vessel that features a direct-drive fixed-pitch propeller propulsion arrangement,
how should this be accomplished? |
The engine should
be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually, without
any concern for critical speeds as they will not be encountered. |
The engine should
be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually, but
should transition through any critical speeds without any lingering. |
The engine should
be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very gradually, even
if it means lingering for extended periods of time at critical speeds. |
The engine should
be accelerated from maneuvering speed to at sea speed very quickly and should
transition through any critical speeds without any lingering. |
|
C |
You are a management
level engineering officer on a motor vessel. For departure planning purposes,
when is the "standby" order typically rung? |
12 hours prior
to departure. |
6 hours prior
to departure. |
1 hour prior to
departure. |
15 minutes prior
to departure. |
|
C |
As a management
level engineering officer planning for underway operations onboard a tanker,
you must maintain manning in the engineering spaces while underway in accordance
with the certificate of inspection (COI) and the navigation safety regulations
for underway tankers as set forth in 33 CFR. Which of the following statements
is true? |
Tankers are authorized
for periodically unmanned engine rooms while underway as long as manual
control measures can be implemented in a reasonable period of time when
necessary. |
Tankers are required
to maintain a continuous engineering watch while underway and be capable
of implementing manual control measures in a reasonable period of time when
necessary. |
Tankers are required
to maintain a continuous engineering watch while underway and be capable
of implementing manual control measures immediately when necessary. |
Tankers are authorized
for periodically unmanned engine rooms while underway as long as manual
control measures can be implemented immediately when necessary. |
|
D |
As a management
level engineering officer planning for underway operations onboard a tanker,
you must maintain manning in the engineering spaces while underway in accordance
with the certificate of inspection (COI) and the navigation safety regulations
for underway tankers as set forth in 33 CFR. Which of the following statements
is true? |
The engineering
watch need NOT be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main
control space but be on call and must consist of at least one appropriately
endorsed licensed or credentialed officer. |
The engineering
watch must be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main
control space and must consist of at least two appropriately endorsed licensed
or credentialed officers. |
The engineering
watch need NOT be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main
control space but be on call and must consist of at least two appropriately
endorsed licensed or credentialed officers. |
The engineering
watch must be physically present in the machinery spaces or in the main
control space and must consist of at least one appropriately endorsed licensed
or credentialed officer. |
|
A |
As a management
level engineering officer planning for transitioning from the maneuvering
watch posted when departing a US port to at sea manning on a vessel classed
for a periodically unmanned engine room, in consultation with the ship's
master, when would the transition take place? |
When leaving the
navigable waters of the US which is 3 nautical miles from the coast line. |
When leaving the
applicable emission control area which varies with the port area. |
When leaving the
US exclusive economic zone which is 200 miles from the coast line. |
When leaving the
US territorial limit which is 12 miles from the coast line. |
|
A |
As a management
level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines capable
of burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content
distillate fuels, on approaching arrival to a US port, when would you plan
for the fuel changeover to be accomplished? |
When entering
the SOx emission control area set by local authorities. |
When entering
US territorial boundaries 12 miles from the coastline. |
When entering
the US economic exclusion zone 200 miles from the coastline. |
When entering
US navigable waters 3 miles from the coastline. |
|
B |
As a management
level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines capable
of burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content
distillate fuels, on approaching arrival to a US port, for planning purposes,
what must be done? |
The fuel changeover
is commenced precisely as the vessel enters the SOx emissions control area. |
The fuel changeover
is commenced BEFORE the vessel enters the SOx emissions control area to
allow time for the high sulfur fuel to be flushed out of the fuel lines. |
The fuel changeover
is commenced approximately 1 nautical mile either side of the SOx emissions
control area. |
The fuel changeover
is commenced AFTER the vessel enters the SOx emissions control area to allow
time for the high sulfur fuel to be flushed out of the fuel lines. |
|
A |
When transitioning
from full sea speed to maneuvering speed on a slow-speed diesel powered
vessel that features a direct-drive fixed-pitch propeller propulsion arrangement,
how should this be accomplished? |
The engine should
be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very gradually,
but should transition through any critical speeds without any lingering. |
The engine should
be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very gradually,
even if it means lingering for extended periods of time at critical speeds. |
The engine should
be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very gradually,
without any concern for critical speeds as they will not be encountered. |
The engine should
be decelerated from full sea speed to maneuvering speed very quickly and
should transition through any critical speeds without any lingering. |
|
B |
While in port,
ships of what propulsive power and over are required to have an officer
in charge of the engineering watch at all times? |
750 kW/1000 HP |
3000 kW/4000 HP |
6000 kW/8000 HP |
7500 kW/10000
HP |
|
C |
What statement
is true concerning the engineering watch in port being handed over while
an important operation, such as transferring fuel, is being performed? |
The important
operation should be concluded by the relieving officer, except when otherwise
ordered by the chief mate. |
The important
operation should be concluded by the relieving officer, except when otherwise
ordered by the chief engineer. |
The important
operation should be concluded by the officer being relieved, except when
otherwise ordered by the chief engineer. |
The important
operation should be concluded by the officer being relieved, except when
otherwise ordered by the chief mate. |
|
C |
Fuel tank tables
are given in volumes whereas fuel is delivered by weight in tons. How is
volume change represented by beginning and ending ullages converted into
weight? |
By multiplying
the volume by the specific gravity of the fuel. |
By dividing the
volume by the specific gravity of the fuel. |
By multiplying
the volume by the density of the fuel. |
By dividing the
volume by the density of the fuel. |
|
C |
What statement
is true when considering bunkering tank volume? |
Generally, topping-off
begins at 60% of tank volume, and filling stops at 90% of tank volume. |
Generally, topping-off
begins at 80% of tank volume, and filling stops at 90% of tank volume. |
Generally, topping-off
begins at 90% of tank volume, and filling stops at 95% of tank volume. |
Generally, topping-off
begins at 95% of tank volume, and filling stops at 100% of tank volume. |
|
B |
What statement
is true concerning the checks to be undertaken in the "checks prior
to transfer" section of the bunkering safety checklist where the transfer
is from barge-to-ship? |
These are checks
to be performed solely by the person in charge (PIC) of the barge's role
of the bunkering operation. |
These are checks
to be performed jointly by the persons in charge (PICs) of both the barge's
and ship's roles of the bunkering operation. |
These are checks
to be performed solely by the person in charge (PIC) of the ship's role
bunkering operation. |
These are checks
to be performed jointly by the person in charge (PIC) of the ship's role
the bunkering operation and the USCG marine inspector. |
|
C |
For the most efficient
centrifuging of residual fuels on motor vessels, the lower the viscosity
of the fuel as achieved by preheating, the more efficiently solids and moisture
can be removed. For planning purposes, what is the typically the recommended
upper limit of preheating for residual fuel oil centrifugation on motor
ships? |
85°C |
90°C |
98°C |
112°C |
|
B |
If two centrifuges
are to be simultaneously used in series to treat residual fuel contaminated
with both water and solids, how should the centrifuges be configured? |
The first centrifuge
should be set up as a clarifier and the second centrifuge should be set
up as a purifier. |
The first centrifuge
should be set up as a purifier and the second centrifuge should be set up
as a clarifier. |
The first centrifuge
should be set up as a purifier and the second centrifuge should also be
set up as a purifier. |
The first centrifuge
should be set up as a clarifier and the second centrifuge should also be
set up as a clarifier. |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements represents acceptable practice for heavy fuel oil storage tank
heating? |
The heavy fuel
oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should
be maintained 5-10oC below the fuel pour point until the fuel is transferred. |
The heavy fuel
oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should
be maintained 5-10oC above the fuel pour point until the fuel is transferred. |
The heavy fuel
oil storage tanks currently on suction (or shall be within 24 hours) should
be maintained 5-10oC below the fuel flash point until the fuel is transferred. |
All the heavy
fuel oil storage tanks should be maintained 5-10oC above the fuel pour point
for the entire voyage. |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements represents acceptable practice for heavy fuel oil settling tank
heating? |
When filled, the
heat source to the settling tank should be cut in and maintained at all
times regardless of the actual temperature of the tank contents. |
When filled, the
heat source to a settling tank should be cut in and out often enough to
maintain the ideal settling temperature and not allow the temperature to
gradually fall. |
When filled, no
heat should be applied to the settling tank as gravity alone is sufficient
to provide for proper settling as long as the fuel is not allowed to drop
below the pour point temperature. |
When filled, the
heat source to the settling tank should be cut in until the ideal settling
temperature is reached, then secured allowing the fuel to remain undisturbed
for as long as possible. |
|
B |
What statement
is true concerning assessment validity and assessment reliability? |
Assessment reliability
is a pre-condition for assessment validity, but not vice versa. |
Assessment reliability
is not a pre-condition for assessment validity, and assessment validity
is not a pre-condition for assessment reliability. |
Assessment reliability
is a pre-condition for assessment validity, and assessment validity is a
pre-condition for assessment reliability. |
Assessment validity
is a pre-condition for assessment reliability, but not vice versa. |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements defines reliability as it pertains to assessing mariner proficiency
or competency? |
An assessment
is reliable when it accurately measures the job-critical knowledge, skills,
and abilities required for proficient job performance. |
An assessment
is reliable when it consistently obtains the same results across mariners
with comparable skills. |
An assessment
is reliable when it accurately measures the critical knowledge, skills,
and abilities required of the assessment platform. |
An assessment
is reliable when it consistently obtains the same results when repeated
for the same mariner. |
|
A |
Decisions must
be made based upon the appropriate response to a given situation. Which
of the following situations requiring a decision require a different response
each time and are considered unprogrammed decisions? |
Deciding what
to do as a result of a severe accident occurring in the engine room. |
Deciding what
to do upon failure of an engine department watchstander to report for watch
on time without permission. |
Deciding what
to do for scheduling familiarization training when new engine department
personnel report aboard. |
Deciding what
to do in preparing a maintenance schedule for the upcoming month. |
|
A |
Decisions must
be made based upon the appropriate response to a given situation, generally
a problem of some sort. Before effective decision-making can take place,
what must first be done? |
The root cause
of the problem must be identified. |
The manifestations
of the problem must be identified. |
The evidence of
the problem must be identified. |
The symptoms of
the problem must be identified. |
|
C |
Once a problem
has been defined and the root cause (or causes) identified, what is the
next step in the decision-making process? |
Settle on an obvious
solution and implement the decision. |
Select the preferred
alternative solution to the problem. |
Develop alternative
solutions to the problem. |
Collect, interpret,
and evaluate information about each alternative developed. |
|
C |
Once a problem
has been defined and the root cause (or causes) identified, the next step
in the decision-making process is developing alternative solutions to the
problem. What statement best reflects how many alternatives should be considered? |
The number of
alternatives is not an important consideration. |
Develop only one
alternative. |
Develop as few
alternatives as is feasible. |
Develop as many
alternatives as humanly possible. |
|
A |
What is the critical
first step that must be carried out before executing a plan? |
Setting an objective
or goal to be achieved by the plan. |
Assessing present
and future conditions affecting achievement of the plan. |
Identifying present
and future conditions affecting achievement of the plan. |
Developing a systematic
approach to achievement of the plan. |
|
B |
Before a plan
can be effectively executed, the objective of the plan must be defined.
What statement concerning the definition of a plan objective best represents
the proper writing of an objective as an engineering department management
level officer? |
Reduce over-time
expenditures department-wide for all engineering department employees for
the upcoming deployment as compared to the last trip. |
Reduce over-time
expenditures department-wide for all engineering department employees 10%
for the upcoming deployment as compared to the last trip. |
Reduce over-time
expenditures 10% for the upcoming deployment as compared to the last trip. |
Reduce over-time
expenditures department-wide for all engineering department employees 10%. |
|
A |
Which of the following
document types would offer the greatest flexibility in carrying out its
intent? |
Policies |
Regulations |
Rules |
Standing orders |
|
D |
For planning purposes
graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is good for a
visual progress report and identifies work stages or activities on the vertical
axis and the scheduled completion dates on the horizontal axis? |
PERT chart |
Pie chart |
Scatter plot |
Gantt chart |
|
D |
For planning purposes
graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is good for showing
the dependency of one activity upon another and shows the relationship among
a network of activities? |
Pie chart |
Gantt chart |
Scatter plot |
PERT chart |
|
B |
As a first assistant
or chief engineer, what is the source of your authority? |
Coercive power
and control-of-information power. |
Legitimate power
and expert power. |
Reward power and
referent power. |
Absolute power
and control-of-information power. |
|
A |
As a first assistant
or chief engineer, what is the source of your authority? |
Your authority
is conferred upon you by the license you hold and maritime tradition. |
Your authority
is earned by you as a function of daily performance. |
Your authority
is bestowed upon you by its acceptance by your subordinates. |
Your authority
is conferred upon you by the ship's master upon reporting aboard. |
|
D |
What is meant
by the term empowering employees? |
Gaining employee
acceptance and identification based on personal charisma. |
Rewarding employees
with positive rewards such as the availability of over-time. |
Gaining employee
compliance under threat of punishment such as pulling over-time. |
Granting employee's
authority to make key decisions by delegation. |
|
C |
What would be
a legitimate reason why some managers don't delegate authority to subordinates? |
They
fail to delegate authority to subordinates due to a general lack of trust
in others.
|
They fail to delegate
authority to subordinates due to an irrational fear of employees making
mistakes. |
They assess that
the subordinates require more training, coaching, and experience in certain
assignments. |
They feel that
when they delegate authority to subordinates they lose power and control. |
|
C |
It has been demonstrated
that delegation can enhance employee development. To avoid a fear of failure,
what must a manager avoid when delegating decision-making power to an employee? |
Under-estimating
the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
easy.
o |
Over-estimating
the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
easy. |
Over-estimating
the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
difficult. |
Under-estimating
the job maturity level of their employees and assigning tasks that are too
difficult. |
|
C |
What type of managerial
controls measure actions or activities that have already occurred and implement
corrective action if needed? |
Concurrent controls |
Feedforward controls |
Feedback controls |
Screening controls |
|
D |
In order to set
up a managerial control system, the first step is to establish performance
standards. What example of a performance standard is most difficult to measure
and the biggest challenge to the manager? |
Time based standards
such as time required to complete repairs. |
Numerical standards
such as machining tolerance. |
Monetary standards
such as over-time costs. |
Intangible standards
such as morale or attitude. |
|
A |
What type of managerial
control system features strategic control points which measure performance
while the activity is taking place? |
Concurrent controls |
Feedback controls |
Preventive controls |
Feedforward controls |
|
C |
In setting up
a managerial control system, the standard must be established, and a means
of measuring performance against that standard must be established. What
statement is true concerning the comparison between performance and the
standard? |
Any
deviation must be determined and documented for record-keeping purposes.
No further action is necessary.
|
Any deviation
must be determined. No further action is necessary. |
Any deviation
must be determined and analyzed to determine what caused the deviation.
Corrective action is taken as necessary. |
Any deviation
must be determined and analyzed to determine what caused the deviation.
No further action is necessary. |
|
D |
To maximize the
profitability of a shipping company, in goal-setting ships are often asked
to increase productivity. Which of the following scenarios represents an
actual decrease in productivity? |
Increase the output
and decrease the total input costs. |
Increase the total
output without changing the total input costs. |
Decrease the total
input costs without changing the total output. |
Decrease the output
and increase the total input costs. |
|
B |
Which of the following
would represent an attempt to reduce the frequency of required overhauls
for machinery? |
Selecting spare
parts suppliers on the basis of warranty policy. |
Selecting spare
parts suppliers on the basis of reputation for quality. |
Selecting spare
parts suppliers on the basis of cost. |
Selecting spare
parts suppliers on the basis of promised delivery time. |
|
C |
Which of the following
diagrams or charts is particularly useful for understanding and identifying
the causes of problems? |
Run chart |
Histogram |
Fishbone diagram |
Control chart |
|
A |
As an engineering
department manager, promoting safety is a fundamental consideration. In
terms of the causes of accidents, which cause is responsible for most work-related
accidents? |
Human factors |
Environmental
factors |
Technical factors |
Undetermined factors |
|
C |
As an engineering
department manager, what should you do if an accident occurs, injuring one
of your employees? |
Arrange
for the immediate dismissal of the employee upon the ship's arrival to port.
o |
Block any attempts
on the part of the employee to file a workman's compensation claim. |
Thoroughly investigate
the accident to determine the cause and take appropriate action as necessary. |
Dissuade the employee
from taking any legal action against you or the company. |
|
C |
A performance
appraisal (employee evaluation) is the process used to determine what extent
an employee is performing a job in the way that is was intended to be done.
Properly done and in the interest of employee development, what should be
the focus of the appraisal? |
The
appraisal should be conducted without the benefit of an interview as this
process often causes discomfort for the employee and the supervisory manager.
|
It should focus
only on past performance with an emphasis on shortcomings so that the employee
fears for the future. |
Although it should
examine all aspects of past performance, it should be constructive and future
oriented with an eye towards the path to improvement. |
It should focus
on the positive and totally ignore any past shortcomings so that the employee
can maintain positive self-esteem. |
|
A |
Even though conducting
an employee appraisal interview may be one of the least liked aspects of
the job of a manager, why are they important? |
The interview
will provide the opportunity to provide feedback and motivate employees. |
The interview
will provide the basis for establishing command authority. |
The interview
will provide the opportunity to instill fear in the employee. |
The interview
will provide the opportunity to communicate repercussions for poor performance. |
|
D |
Progressive discipline
is discipline that uses a graduated scale of penalties which become progressively
more severe each time a particular violation is repeated. What disciplinary
action is generally associated with a first offense? |
Oral warning documented
in personnel file |
Written reprimand |
Suspension or
discharge |
Oral warning not
documented in personnel file |
|
D |
In order for discipline
to be administered fairly, discipline must carry a clear advance warning,
be immediate, be consistent, and be impersonally administered. What is meant
by consistency? |
Getting the employee's
work behavior consistent with the work rules by disciplining the act and
not the person by avoiding getting into personalities. |
Employees should
know what is and what is not expected of them and what disciplinary action
would be imposed for an offense. |
The disciplinary
process should begin as soon as possible after the violation of the rules
is observed. |
If two people
commit the same offense under the same circumstances, they should receive
the same disciplinary action. |
|
D |
The "hot-stove"
rule is sometimes used to illustrate the principles of fair, effective discipline.
Which of the following principles illustrates the principle of discipline
carrying a clear warning? |
A hot stove doesn't
care whom it burns. |
If you touch a
hot stove, it burns you right away. |
A hot stove always
burns you when you touch it. |
You know what
will happen if you touch a hot stove. |
|
A |
As an engineering
department manager in dealing with a grievance presented by a unlicensed
engine department crew and union member, what documentation spells out the
grievance procedure? |
Collective Bargaining
Agreement between Company and Union |
Shipping Articles
of Agreement |
Title 46 CFR U.S.
Coast Guard (Shipping) |
Title 29 CFR Department
of Labor |
|
B |
What is usually
the last step in trying to resolve a grievance filed by a crew member as
established by the collective bargaining agreement between the company and
the crew member's union? |
Filing a formal
grievance with port committee made up of both company and union representatives
in port before terminating articles. |
Filing a formal
grievance with a company and union agreed-upon arbitrator for binding arbitration. |
Filing a formal
grievance with the union's designated representative (or committee) on board
before terminating articles. |
Attempting to
resolve the conflict by the crew member and the affected supervisor as immediately
as practical. |
|
C |
What is usually
the first step in trying to resolve a beef or a dispute brought up by a
crew member? |
Filing
a formal grievance with a company and union agreed-upon arbitrator for binding
arbitration.
o |
Filing a formal
grievance with the union's designated representative on board before terminating
articles. |
Attempting to
resolve the conflict by the crew member and the affected supervisor as immediately
as practical. |
Filling a formal
grievance with the port committee made up of both company and union representatives
in port before terminating articles. |
|
A |
What federal agency
enforces the prohibition of employment discrimination based on race, color,
religion, sex, or national origin as it applies to shipboard employment
onboard US flag vessels? |
Equal Employment
Opportunity Commission (EEOC) |
U.S. Coast Guard
(USCG) |
Maritime Administration
(MARAD) |
International
Transport Workers' Federation (ITWF) |
|
B |
One of the means
of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement
dispute is arbitration. What is meant by arbitration? |
Direct, in-house
negotiated settlement between company and union representatives. |
Agreement to abide
by a binding decision rendered by a company and union agreed-upon impartial
person. |
Settlement reached
as the result of litigation as part of a judicial proceeding in court. |
Negotiated settlement
between company and union representatives facilitated by a mediator. |
|
B |
One of the means
of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement
dispute is mediation. What is meant by mediation? |
Settlement reached
as the result of litigation as part of a judicial proceeding in court. |
Negotiated settlement
between company and union representatives facilitated by an impartial person. |
Direct, in-house
negotiated settlement between company and union representatives to avoid
litigation. |
Agreement to abide
by a binding decision rendered by a company and union agreed-upon impartial
person. |
|
B |
One of the means
of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement
is arbitration. What is the role of the arbitrator? |
The arbitrator
conducts independent fact-finding and renders a decision based on the results
of that investigation. |
The arbitrator
makes a binding decision based on the evidence and the arguments presented
by both sides. |
The arbitrator
facilitates settlement by negotiation by working with both sides to reach
common ground. |
The arbitrator
appoints a fact-finder from each side to investigate the dispute and report
back to the principals. |
|
B |
Suppose as an
engineering department manager a grievance concerning the interpretation
of the collective bargaining agreement (the contract) is resolved by the
arbitration process. If you disagree with the decision rendered by the arbitrator,
what should be your response? |
Comply with the
decision, but immediately file a grievance of your own as a means of escalating
the dispute. |
Comply with the
decision since the arbitrator's decision is "final and binding"
as agreed upon by the collective bargaining agreement. |
Ignore the decision
and continue prior practices as business as usual since the decision is
not binding, but only a recommendation. |
Comply with the
decision, but insure that the grieved employee suffers the consequences
of filing a grievance. |
|
C |
Which of the following
third parties utilized in alternative dispute resolution proceedings has
the authority to make a binding decision? |
Fact-finder |
Mediator |
Arbitrator |
Facilitator |
|
D |
As a chief engineer
you are reviewing the engine room logbook. You must ensure that all entries
are made properly. What should be your criteria for how a watch officer
makes a correction to an incorrect log entry? |
The incorrect
entry should be completely obliterated and the new correct entry made just
below the obliterated incorrect entry. |
The new correct
entry should be written directly on top of the old incorrect entry making
every effort to cleverly disguise the incorrect entry. |
The incorrect
entry is to be completely erased and the new correct entry written on top
of the erasure so no evidence remains of the incorrect entry. |
The incorrect
entry should have a thin line drawn through the error and be initialed by
the person making the correction so that the incorrect entry is still visible. |
|
D |
You are the Chief
Engineer onboard a general cargo vessel in excess of 1600 gross tons. To
remain in compliance with the 33 CFR Oil Record Book requirements for non-tank
vessel machinery space operations, which of the following operations requires
an entry to be made in the Oil Record Book? |
Internal transfers
of fuel or lubricating oil. |
Discharge overboard
of bilge water which has accumulated in cargo holds. |
Retention on board
of oil residues. |
Discharge overboard
of bilge water which has accumulated in machinery spaces. |
|
D |
According to the
33 CFR regulations pertaining to the Oil Record Book, what person or entity
has ownership of the Oil Record Book? |
The Master of
the vessel. |
The Chief Engineer
of the vessel. |
The company which
owns the vessel. |
The United States
government. |
|
C |
According to the
33 CFR regulations pertaining to the Oil Record Book, how long must the
Oil Record Book be maintained on board those vessels for which the regulations
apply? |
1 year at a minimum. |
2 years at a minimum. |
3 years at a minimum. |
4 years at a minimum. |
|
C |
According to the
33 CFR regulations pertaining to signatures required in the Oil Record Book,
what statement is true? |
The
officer in charge of the engineering watch signs each entry occurring on
the watch, and the chief engineer signs each page.
|
The officer in
charge of the navigational watch signs each entry occurring on the watch,
and
the master signs each page. |
The person in
charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the master signs each page. |
The person in
charge of an operation signs for that entry, and the chief engineer signs
each page. |
|
C |
According to 33
CFR, regulations pertaining to entries made in the Oil Record Book, how
often must the Oil Record Book be updated with entries? |
Entries are to
be made on a monthly basis if applicable operations are performed during
the month. |
Entries are to
be made on a daily basis if applicable operations are performed during the
day. |
Entries are to
be made on each occasion when an applicable operation is performed. |
Entries are to
be made on a weekly basis if applicable operations are performed during
the week. |
|
B |
While a vessel
is underway in periodically unmanned engine room status, the oily-water
separator is undergoing extensive maintenance and repairs and will not be
available for service for another 24 hours. With bilge holding tanks nearing
capacity, as chief engineer you wish to be informed of when the oily-water
separator is available for service. How would you best ensure that you will
be so informed? |
The request would
be written as a note posted in the vicinity of the engineering department
coffee mess. |
The request would
be written as a special instruction in the chief engineer's night order
book. |
The request would
be written as a note inserted into the chief engineer's standing order book. |
The request would
be made of the duty engineer orally assuming that the word shall be passed
on to his or her relief. |
|
B |
As a chief engineer,
which of the following instructions would be most appropriately entered
into the Chief Engineer's night orders due to the non-routine nature of
the instruction? |
All discharges,
transfers, or disposal of bilge water must be logged in the oil record book
by the officer in charge of the operation. |
The officer in
charge of the engineering watch shall notify the chief engineer without
delay when No.2 SSDG repairs are complete and the generator has been prepared
for testing. |
When the engine
room is in the periodic unmanned condition, the duty engineer shall be immediately
available and on call to attend the machinery spaces. |
The officer in
charge of the engineering watch shall notify the chief engineer without
delay when a malfunction occurs which may be such as to endanger the safe
operation of the ship. |
|
A |
As a chief engineer,
which of the following instructions would most appropriately be written
into the chief engineer's night orders due to the non-routine nature of
the special instruction? |
The OICEW shall
notify the chief engineer without delay when the No.1 main feed pump repairs
are complete and it is ready to be put back into service. |
When the engine
room is in the manned condition, the OICEW shall at all times be readily
capable of operating the propulsion equipment in response to needs for changes
in direction or speed. |
The OICEW shall
notify the chief engineer without delay when a malfunction occurs which
may be such as to endanger the safe operation of the ship. |
When the ship
enters congested waters, upon notification from the bridge, the OICEW shall
ensure that all machinery involved with maneuvering can be placed in the
manual mode of operation. |
|
D |
You are installing
a new refrigeration system aboard your vessel. The system comes with a 240
psi rupture disk, a safety valve set at 240 psi and a pressure gauge connection
and gauge. According to the federal code of regulations, what is the preferred
setup for installing the equipment on the condenser? |
Rupture disk closest
to the condenser, then pressure gauge then safety valve in series after
the rupture disk. |
The rupture disk,
safety valve, and pressure gauge are all piped in parallel. |
Pressure gauge
closest to the condenser, then safety valve then rupture disk in series
after the pressure gauge. |
Safety valve closest
to the condenser, then pressure gage then rupture disk in series after the
safety valve. |
|
A |
Over current protection
for steering-gear systems circuits that power alternating-current motors
must have an instantaneous trip set at what rating? |
At least 175%
and not more than 200% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear
motor. |
At least 200%
and not more than 275% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear
motor. |
At least 300%
and not more than 375% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear
motor. |
At least 100%
and not more than 175% of the rated full-load current of one steering-gear
motor. |
|
B |
You are conducting
an operational test of your main steering gear system. The main steering
gear must be capable of moving the rudder from 35 degrees on either side
to 35 degrees on the other with the vessel at its deepest loadline draft
and running at maximum ahead service speed, and from 35 degrees on either
side to 30 degrees on the other in what minimum time frame? |
2 minutes |
28 seconds |
1 minute |
45 seconds |
|
C |
Machinery spaces
must be designed to minimize the exposure of personnel to noise in accordance
with U.S. regulations. Manned machinery space noise must not exceed which
noise level? |
75 dB |
85 dB |
90 dB |
110 dB |
|
A |
Machinery spaces
must be designed to minimize the exposure of personnel to noise in accordance
with U.S. regulations. Machinery control room noise must not exceed which
noise level? |
75 dB |
85 dB |
90 dB |
110 dB |
|
C |
You are supervising
a new electrician concerning an onboard test of an electrical component
using a test rig with flexible cable. The electrician is unsure of the cable
conductor color coding. Which of the color coded insulated conductors can
only serve as an equipment safety ground and shall not be used as a current
carrying conductor? |
A
conductor with neutral white or gray insulation would be used for this purpose.
|
A conductor with
any color insulation could be used for this purpose. |
A conductor with
green insulation (or green with one or more yellow stripes) would be used
for this purpose. |
A conductor with
red insulation would be used for this purpose. |
|
C |
Coast Guard electrical
engineering regulations specify capacity ratings for electrical equipment.
Based on the inspection of the cables on one of your ship's service generators,
you've decided that the cables need to be replaced. The current-carrying
capacity of the replacement generator cables should be what percent of the
continuous generator rating? |
Less than 15 percent |
Less than 100
percent |
Less than 115
percent |
Less than 220
percent |
|
A |
The electric winch
drive motor on one of your ship's lifeboat davits needs to be replaced.
What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours? |
1/12 |
1/2 |
1/4 |
1 |
|
B |
The electric drive
motor on one of your ship's electro-mechanically driven deck winches needs
to be replaced. What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor
have in hours? |
Continuous operation
at 15 percent load followed by 1 hour at full load. |
1/2 |
1/12 |
1 |
|
D |
One of your ship's
indirect-drive steering gear drive motors needs to be replaced. What minimum
short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours? |
1/4 hour |
1/2 hour |
1 hour |
Continuous operation
at 15 percent load followed by 1 hour at full load. |
|
A |
The operating
motor on one of your ship's watertight doors needs to be replaced. What
minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours? |
1/12 |
1/4 hour |
1/2 hour |
1 hour |
|
C |
According to the
electrical engineering regulations of the CFR, which of the following electrical
repairs is permitted? |
Splice
a damaged conductor with twist-on connectors if the insulated cap is firmly
secured to prevent loosening due to vibration.
o |
Splice a flexible
cord or cable with twist-on connectors if smaller than 18 AWG. |
Connect a flexible
cord or cable to a fitting with so that tension is not transmitted to joints
or terminal screws. |
Extend the length
of a circuit with twist on connectors if in an enclosure and wrapped securely
with insulating tape. |
|
B |
As Chief Engineer
of a General Cargo Vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international
voyage, you direct the Third Engineer to perform the annual maintenance
on the lifeboat engine. In accordance with 46 CFR, what would you instruct
the Third Engineer do when the job has been completed? |
Wait to test run
the engine at the next weekly test. |
Record the maintenance
done and parts used in the ship's preventative maintenance program. |
Send an email
to the USCG stating that the ship's lifeboat engine was serviced and is
ready for service. |
Order spare parts
used directly from the manufacturer. |
|
A |
You are the relieving
the Chief Engineer of a general cargo vessel of more than 1600 gross tons
on an international voyage. You have just signed on the vessel and after
reviewing the machinery running hours you notice the Emergency Generator
has not been run in over sixty days. How would you proceed? |
During your next
port stay arrange with the Captain to run the Emergency Generator under
load for at least two hours. |
During your next
port stay arrange with the Captain to run the Emergency Generator under
a full electrical load for only one hour. |
During your next
port stay arrange with the Captain to test run the Emergency Generator for
two hours at 75% of full load. |
No action is required;
the emergency generator only needs to run during loss of ship's power or
during ship yard periods. |
|
D |
According to the
Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for General Cargo Vessels, what determines
the maximum allowable pressure that can be carried in a steam boiler? |
The hydrostatic
test pressure of the boiler. |
The highest boiler
safety valve setting. |
The maximum allowable
working pressure stamped on the boiler nameplate. |
The maximum pressure
specified by the certificate of inspection. |
|
A |
According to the
Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Passenger Vessels, for how long
do the drawn and sealed half-pint fuel samples need to be maintained and
preserved on board? |
The samples need
to be preserved until that fuel supply is exhausted. |
The samples need
to be preserved for the length of the voyage. |
There is no requirement
for preserving fuel samples. |
The samples need
to be preserved for a period of one year. |
|
C |
According to the
Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Tank Vessels, what is the minimum
allowable flashpoint for a fuel to be burned in a steam boiler? |
100⁰F |
120⁰F |
140⁰F |
160⁰F |
|
B |
In what part of
33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery
space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than
a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record Book? |
33CFR Part 151.15 |
33CFR Part 151.25 |
33CFR Part 151.55 |
33CFR Part 151.2070 |
|
A |
In accordance
with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O, for U.S non-oceangoing
ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it
pertains to handling bilge slops? |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges
or in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility. |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water
separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and
a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm. |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and
it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception
facility. |
The non-oceangoing
ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water
separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm
or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm. |
|
C |
In accordance
with the federal regulation in 33 CFR Subchapter O, which discharge of oil
or oily mixture to sea is permissible? |
When
the oil or oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues.
o |
When the oil content
of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per million. |
When the discharge
is necessary to for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving
life at sea. |
When the oil or
oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges. |
|
C |
Under the federal
regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type
III Marine Sanitation Device"? |
A
device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000
per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids.
|
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids. |
A device that
is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage. |
A device that
produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter. |
|
B |
Prior to arrival
in Charleston, SC your vessel must conduct drills within 48 hours prior
to entry and log that in the vessel logbook. Alternatively, you can log
regularly scheduled quarterly drills according to 33 CFR regulations governing
ports and waterways safety. Which of the following are included in the drills
that must be performed?
{{{
(1) Operation of the main steering gear from within the steering gear compartment.
(2) Operation of the means of communications between the navigating bridge
and the steering compartment.
(3) Operation of the alternative power supply for the steering gear, if
the vessel is so equipped.
(4) Operation of the low lube pressure trip on the main engine.
(5) Operation of the reverse power relay on the ship's diesel generator.}}} |
Drills 2,3,5 |
Drills 1,2,3 |
Drills 1,4,3 |
Drills 1,3,5 |
|
B |
Prior to getting
underway on the navigable waters of the United States your vessel must conduct
tests according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways safety that
test equipment necessary for vessel propulsion, maneuvering, emergency power,
communications, alarms, and control. Within how many hours of getting underway
must these tests be performed? |
6 hours |
12 hours |
24 hours |
48 hours |
|
D |
Prior to entering
the navigable waters of the United States after an international voyage,
your vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports
and waterways safety that test steering system functionality and log that
in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is conducted and logged on a regular
basis at least once every three months. Within how many hours of arrival
must these drills be performed? |
6 hours |
12 hours |
24 hours |
48 hours |
|
A |
Prior to entering
the navigable waters of the United States after an international voyage,
your vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports
and waterways safety that test steering system functionality and log that
in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is conducted and logged on a regular
basis at least once every three months. Which of the following functions
must be tested for? |
Operation of the
main steering gear from within the steering gear compartment utilizing the
means of communication between the navigating bridge and the steering gear
compartment. |
Operation of the
main steering gear from each bridge wing, if fitted, utilizing the normal
means of communication on the bridge wings. |
Operation of the
auxiliary steering gear from the main navigating bridge utilizing the normal
means of communication in the wheelhouse. |
Operation of the
auxiliary steering gear from each bridge wing, if fitted, utilizing the
normal means of communication on the bridge wings. |
|
D |
Under the federal
regulations of 33 CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type II
Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated
or untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing
the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical
to close the seacock and prevent its opening? |
Placing a warning
sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising all concerned
that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone". |
Placing of tape
forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all concerned
that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone". |
Making an announcement
over the public address system advising all concerned that the vessel is
entering a "no discharge zone". |
Locking the door
to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door handle key lock
to prevent entry when the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone". |
|
D |
Prior to getting
underway on the navigable waters of the United States, within 12 hours,
according to 33 CFR regulations governing ports and waterways safety, certain
tests are required. Which of the following are included in the tests that
must be performed? 1) Operation of the main propulsion machinery, ahead
and astern. 2) Operation of the low lube oil pressure trip on the main engine.
3) Operation of the reverse power relay on the emergency generator. 4) Operation
of the over speed trip on the ship's service diesel generator. 5) Operation
of the emergency generator. |
Tests 3,5 |
Tests 2,4 |
Tests 1,2 |
Tests 1,5 |
|
C |
The firefighting
equipment on your general cargo vessel was last inspected by a shore side
contractor 12 months ago. To remain in compliance with the Federal Code
of Regulations (46 CFR), as Chief Engineer, what should your appropriate
action be? |
You
should arrange an inspection of the firefighting equipment by the Third
Mate.
|
Nothing needs
to be done at this time. |
You should notify
the Master or the Person In Charge of the firefighting equipment to arrange
for an annual inspection of the ship's firefighting equipment by a qualified
shore side contractor, as soon as possible. |
You should arrange
an inspection of the ship's firefighting equipment by a qualified shore
side contractor eighteen months after the date of the last inspection. |
|
C |
You are relieving
the chief engineer on a self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit. What
machinery and equipment are you required to inspect prior to assuming your
duties? |
Any boilers, auxiliary
machinery, and industrial machinery. |
Any boilers, propulsion
machinery, and industrial machinery. |
Any boilers, propulsion
machinery, and auxiliary machinery. |
Any propulsion
machinery, auxiliary machinery, and industrial machinery. |
|
A |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but
less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution
by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops? |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator,
but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means
to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds
15 ppm. |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required
to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility. |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is EITHER
required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in
a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to
a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved
oily-water separator. |
The oceangoing
ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator,
AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds
15 ppm. |
|
A |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations
in 33CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships
of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an
Oil Record Book. Which of the listed machinery space operations must be
documented in the Oil Record Book? |
Discharge of waste
oil or sludge to a reception facility. |
Discharge of ballast
from double-bottom sea water ballast tanks. |
Discharge overboard
of bilge water that has accumulated in the dry cargo holds. |
Taking on ballast
water into double-bottom sea water ballast tanks. |
|
C |
Under the international
MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more than 3, but less
than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true? |
The discharge
of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage
is permitted. |
The discharge
of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited. |
The discharge
of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted. |
The discharge
of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage
is permitted. |
|
B |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited
in any waters? |
Unground paper
products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery. |
Plastic or garbage
mixed with plastic. |
Floating dunnage,
lining, or packing material. |
Ground paper products,
rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery. |
|
C |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of dunnage, lining,
and packing materials that float applies to a vessel operating within how
many nautical miles of the nearest land? |
3 nautical miles |
12 nautical miles |
25 nautical miles |
200 nautical miles |
|
A |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of ground paper products,
rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating
within how many nautical miles of the nearest land? |
3 nautical miles |
12 nautical miles |
25 nautical miles |
200 nautical miles |
|
D |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of plastics into the sea or the navigable
waters of the United States is strictly prohibited. Which of following statements
is true concerning the legal disposal of plastics? |
The garbage containing
plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved reception facility. Incineration
onboard the ship is not permitted. |
The garbage containing
plastics must be incinerated onboard ship. Discharge ashore to an approved
reception facility is not permitted. |
The garbage containing
plastics must be discharged ashore to an approved plastics recycling facility. |
The garbage containing
plastics must be either discharged ashore to an approved reception facility
or incinerated onboard the ship. |
|
D |
In accordance
with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under
33 CFR Subchapter O, the discharge or disposal of garbage on vessels of
400 gross tons and above engaged in commerce requires recordkeeping. Which
of the following discharge or disposal operations requires a detailed description
of the contents of the garbage? |
Incineration on
the ship. |
Discharge to a
reception facility. |
Discharge to another
ship. |
Discharge overboard
to sea. |
|
A |
Which of the following
fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is designated as
an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances
that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result? |
Halon 1301 |
Cartridge-operated
dry chemical |
CO2 |
Cartridge-operated
dry powder |
|
A |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous oxide (NOx)
emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate
under certain acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications
would the NOx emission regulations apply? |
Diesel engines
with a power output of more than 130kW. |
Diesel engines
with a power output not greater than 130kW. |
Diesel engines
powering emergency diesel-generator sets. |
Diesel engines
powering lifeboats. |
|
A |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence of an
exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable sulphur content
for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control
area? |
1.5 (%) |
3 (%) |
4.5 (%) |
6 (%) |
|
A |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed
substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator? |
Polychlorinated
biphenyls (PCBs) |
Sewage waste sludges |
Unground garbage |
Oil residue sludges |
|
C |
In accordance
with the international MARPOL AnnexVI regulations, what is the minimum allowable
flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while
in operation? |
450⁰C |
650⁰F |
850⁰F |
1050⁰F |
|
A |
You are the Chief
Engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage.
During in port cargo operations, you find that the security seal on the
emergency generator room has been broken. As the senior Engine officer onboard,
how would you react? |
Refer to the ship's
Security Plan and follow the procedures outlined for a security breach. |
Refer to the ship's
SOPEP manual and follow the procedures outlined for a security breach. |
Refer to the ship's
SOLAS manual and follow the procedures outlined for a security breach. |
Contact the ship's
agent for assistance. |
|
B |
When looking for
IMO regulations on vessel watertight integrity, the information will be
found in which of the following documents? |
ISM manuals |
SOLAS |
CFRs |
MARPOL |
|
C |
When looking for
IMO regulations on a vessel's oil water separator, the information will
be found in which of the following documents? |
SOLAS |
ISM manuals |
MARPOL |
CFRs |
|
D |
International
regulations governing emergency power and lighting would be found in which
of the following documents? |
International
Load Line Convention |
MARPOL |
Code of Federal
Regulations |
SOLAS |
|
B |
During a vessel
conversion it is necessary to check regulations pertaining to the fire protection
equipment. Which of the following international documents would contain
the information? |
MARPOL |
SOLAS |
International
Load Line Convention |
Code of Federal
Regulations |
|
D |
Your ship's Second
Engineer falls while working in the engine room in port and is taken to
the hospital and found unfit for duty. As Chief Engineer you inform the
USCG of the accident. The Coast Guard officer you talk with asks if you
have the correct complement of crew to proceed to your next port. How would
you determine if the ship has the correct number of persons with the corresponding
ratings required to proceed to the next port? |
Contact your ship's
personnel department and ask them if you can sail to the next port. |
Ask remaining
engineers onboard if they are willing to cover the Second Engineer's position
until a replacement can be sent to the ship. |
Check the ship's
station bill to determine if all the jobs are covered. |
Review the ship's
Minimum Safe Manning Certificate; and cross reference the current crew list
without the 2 a/e versus the required number of persons and their corresponding
ratings from the Minimum Safe Manning Certificate. |
|
B |
When measuring
vibration, an engineer should be concerned with recording the velocity or
displacement of the measurement. Which other factor should also be of concern? |
KW |
Frequency |
Amplitude |
Amps |
|
B |
Vibration analysis
can provide comparative data of operating condition of rotating machinery.
At what positions should such readings be taken at bearing housings and
foundations? |
Vertical and horizontal. |
Vertical, horizontal
and axial. |
Axial and horizontal. |
Vertical and axial. |
|
B |
While examining
results of vibration analysis of a rotating piece of machinery, you find
very high amplitude/displacement readings at a very high frequency at one
measuring point. What would that indicate? |
Looseness of equipment
components at the measuring point. |
Degradation of
a ball or a roller bearing. |
Misalignment between
the prime mover and driven equipment. |
Imbalance between
the prime mover and driven equipment. |
|
D |
While examining
vibration analysis of a particular piece of rotating machinery, one of the
measurement location readings exhibits high amplitude/displacement in vertical
and horizontal direction at 2 X RPM frequency. What would this indicate? |
Bearing problem. |
Imbalance. |
Bad belt drive. |
Misalignment. |
|
D |
On a vibration
analysis report, acceleration is best described as which of the following? |
The distance traveled
of the vibrating part. |
The frequency
of the vibrating part. |
The speed of the
vibrating part. |
The rate of change
of the velocity for a vibrating part. |
|
D |
Resonant vibrations,
which can cause machinery failure, occur when which of the following conditions
happen? |
A forced frequency
is placed on a piece of operating machinery. |
The natural frequency
of the machinery is the same as the free vibration frequency. |
The machinery
is operated at the natural frequency with no external forces in play. |
The frequency
of an external vibration is the same as one of the natural frequencies of
the machinery. |
|
B |
When reviewing
results of vibration analysis, vibration at a bearing occurs at the same
frequency as the motor rpm, with a displacement in the radial direction
that is twice that of the axial direction. Which of the following could
this indicate? |
Loose foundation
bolts. |
Mechanical unbalance. |
Bent motor shaft. |
Rubbing. |
|
B |
Elevated metal
levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating
oil is indicative of a condition. What would high iron levels indicate? |
Camshaft bearing
wear. |
Piston ring or
cylinder liner wear. |
Rocker-arm or
piston pin bushing wear. |
Main bearing or
crankpin bearing wear. |
|
C |
With a machinery
lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends over
time. What would be indicated by a sudden increase in metallic content of
a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil? |
Sudden contamination
of the lubricating oil with coolant. |
Sudden dilution
of the lubricating oil with fuel. |
Increased wear
rates of engine parts. |
Depletion of lubricating
oil additives. |
|
C |
With a machinery
lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends over
time. What would be indicated by elevated copper levels associated with
a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil? |
Wear of various
aluminum-alloy bearings. |
Wear of piston
rings. |
Wear of various
lead-bronze alloy bearings. |
Wear of various
white metal alloy bearings. |
|
A |
Elevated metal
levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating
oil is indicative of a condition. What would high silicon levels indicate? |
The lubricating
oil has become contaminated with sand, dust, and dirt. |
The lubricating
oils detergent additives have become depleted. |
The lubricating
oil has become contaminated with engine coolant. |
The lubricating
oil has become excessively diluted with fuel oil. |
|
C |
What used diesel
engine crankcase lubricating oil analysis test result would indicate the
oil's ability to neutralize harmful acidic byproducts? |
Viscosity |
Particle count |
Total base number |
Total acid number |
|
A |
Compatibility
of fuel is easily checked on board ship to insure that serious problems
do not result. What statement concerning fuel incompatibility is true? |
Incompatible fuels,
if allowed to mix, have a tendency to form sludge, and therefore must not
be blended. |
Incompatible fuels,
if allowed to mix, have a tendency to separate out from one another, and
therefore must be vigorously blended. |
Incompatible fuels,
if allowed to mix, have a tendency to form sludge, and therefore must be
vigorously blended. |
Incompatible fuels,
if allowed to mix, have a tendency to separate out from one another, and
therefore must not be blended. |
|
A |
Which of the following
fuel sampling methods would present the most reliable, accurate, and cost-effective
option for shipboard use? |
Proportional extraction
sample |
Single grab sample |
Drip method sample |
Mixture of several
grab samples |
|
C |
Fuel density is
easily checked on board ship to facilitate proper fuel treatment. What is
the maximum fuel density at 15°C allowed for proper centrifugation to take
place? |
791 kg/m3 |
891 kg/m3 |
991 kg/m3 |
1091 kg/m3 |
|
C |
The water content
of fuel is easily checked on board ship to insure that serious problems
do not result. What is the maximum water content of fuel that can be tolerated
without serious problems resulting? |
0.01 (%) |
0.1 (%) |
1 (%) |
10 (%) |
|
A |
Various tests
while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to facilitate
proper fuel storage, handling, and treatment. What tests are most important
for determining what temperatures to maintain throughout the fuel forwarding
and service systems? |
Pour point and
viscosity. |
Density and compatibility. |
Water content
and density. |
Ignition quality
and caloric heat content. |
|
D |
Various tests
while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to facilitate
proper centrifugation. What test provides the key data for selecting the
correct purifier gravity disk for fuel oil centrifugal purifiers? |
Calorific heat
content |
Ignition quality |
Water content |
Density |
|
D |
If it is desired
to perform a thermo graphic analysis of new equipment to gain a thermal
signature for purposes of comparison to the thermal signature for the same
equipment at a later date, what is the name of the thermography performed
on the equipment when new? |
Thermal trending. |
Spectral thermography. |
Comparative thermography. |
Baseline thermography. |
|
B |
If it is desired
to perform a thermo graphic analysis of a piece of equipment with a suspected
possible fault and compare the thermal signature with similar fault-free
equipment, what is the name of the thermography performed? |
Spectral thermography. |
Comparative thermography. |
Baseline thermography. |
Thermal trending. |
|
A |
Which of the following
comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would be
used to generate a report tracking consumable supplies consumption? |
Requisitions management
module |
Planned maintenance
management module |
Inventory management
module |
Equipment management
module |
|
B |
Which of the following
comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain
data related to purchase orders for parts or repair services from outside
vendors? |
Inventory management
module |
Requisitions management
module |
Equipment management
module |
Planned maintenance
management module |
|
B |
Which of the following
comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain
technical data such as machinery serial numbers? |
Inventory management
module |
Equipment management
module |
Requisitions management
module |
Planned maintenance
management module |
|
A |
Which of the following
comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain
data such as part numbers and part stowage locations? |
Inventory management
module |
Equipment management
module |
Planned maintenance
management module |
Requisitions management
module |
|
C |
Which of the following
comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain
data used for budget tracking? |
Inventory management
module |
Equipment management
module |
Requisitions management
module |
Planned maintenance
management module |
|
B |
What type of maintenance
system would be associated with a vibration monitoring analysis system? |
Planned maintenance
system |
Predictive maintenance
system |
Corrective maintenance
system |
Scheduled maintenance
system |
|
A |
When used together
to maximize plant reliability, which of the following maintenance management
schemes would be the primary tool in a integrated maintenance management
system? |
Planned, scheduled
maintenance |
Failure-based,
unscheduled maintenance |
Condition-based,
predictive maintenance |
Corrective, unscheduled
maintenance |
|
D |
What type of maintenance
system would be associated with a comprehensive lubricating oil analysis
program? |
Scheduled maintenance
system |
Planned maintenance
system |
Corrective maintenance
system |
Predictive maintenance
system |
|
B |
What type of maintenance
system would be associated with manufacturer recommendations as a function
of machinery running hours? |
Corrective maintenance
system |
Planned maintenance
system |
Predictive maintenance
system |
Condition-based
maintenance system |
|
C |
What type of maintenance
system would be associated with accomplishing maintenance after a machinery
breakdown? |
Planned maintenance
system |
Condition-based
maintenance system |
Corrective maintenance
system |
Predictive maintenance
system |
|
B |
Which of the following
types of maintenance would be considered a reactive approach to maintenance
as opposed to proactive? |
Planned maintenance |
Corrective maintenance |
Predictive maintenance |
Condition-based
maintenance |
|
A |
Which of the following
types of maintenance would be considered a proactive approach to maintenance
as opposed to reactive? |
Condition-based
maintenance |
Unscheduled maintenance |
Failure-based
maintenance |
Corrective maintenance |
|
A |
Which of the following
maintenance criteria would be the basis of condition-based maintenance? |
Vibration analysis |
Equipment breakdown |
Equipment running
hours |
Calendar based
interval of time |
|
D |
Which of the following
maintenance criteria would be the basis of planned maintenance? |
Engine mounted
sensor data |
Lubricating oil
analysis |
Vibration analysis |
Equipment running
hours |
|
C |
When analyzing
trend analysis data in reference to a given limit value for the purposes
of scheduling corrective maintenance, what statement is true? |
The current data
should be compared to the limit value without any concern for the historical
trend or for the rate of change over time. |
The current data
should be analyzed for the historical trend and for the rate of change over
time, but without any concern for the limit value. |
The current data
should be compared to the limit value and analyzed for the historical trend
and for the rate of change over time. |
The current data
should be compared to the limit value and the historical trend, but without
any concern for the rate of change over time. |
|
B |
As a management
level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator investigating
the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. In collecting the
necessary data for the root cause analysis, what should be your FIRST priority? |
Consulting with
other technical experts, suppliers, and manufacturers. |
Collecting and
preserving the physical evidence of the failure. |
Interviewing any
directly involved watch standing or maintenance personnel. |
Reviewing the
historical watch keeping and maintenance records. |
