|
A |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), a shipboard oil pollution emergency
plan is required to be reviewed __________. |
annually only |
biennially only |
quad-annually only |
only once every
five years |
|
D |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following operations
aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank
basis according to Coast Guard Regulations? |
The discharge overboard
in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces. |
The loading or
unloading of any or all oil cargo. |
Any internal transfer
of oil cargo during a voyage. |
All of the above. |
|
C |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter W, the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall
be __________. |
constructed so
as to be completely spill proof |
emptied and gas
freed when the ship is dry-docked |
emptied and the
fuel changed at least once each year |
hydrostatically
tested at each inspection for certification |
|
D |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when off loading garbage to another
ship, your records must identify that ship by name and which of the following? |
operator's name
of record |
home port |
master's name |
official number |
|
C |
In accordance
with MARPOL (33 CFR Subchapter O), the definition of medical waste does
NOT include which of the following? |
dialysis wastes |
pathological wastes |
expired pharmaceuticals |
sharps |
|
C |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), where will you find the procedures
for the reporting of oil discharge into the water? |
The vessel's Certificate
of Inspection |
The vessel's International
Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate |
The vessel's Oil
Transfer Procedures |
The vessel's Oil
Record Book |
|
D |
You are providing
onboard training to your engineers on the factors affecting trim and stability.
What instructions do you give your engineers to stabilize the ship should
it experience an unstable rolling behavior? |
Discharge water
from the forepeak tank. |
Discharge dirty
ballast from a centerline double bottom tank. |
Add ballast to
wing tank to the side of the ship with an angle of list. |
Add ballast to
a centerline double bottom tank. |
|
B |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter W, life jackets must be stowed where? |
Each lifeboat. |
Each manned watch
station. |
Each fire station. |
Mess room. |
|
B |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O, shipboard pollution prevention regulations are
enforced by the __________. |
Corps of Engineers |
U.S. Coast Guard |
State Pollution
Board |
Port Authority |
|
B |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), fire main outlet
valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall be __________. |
opened up and internally
examined at each Coast Guard biannual inspection for certification |
protected against
freezing or be fitted with cutout valves and drain valves |
behind glass or
a suitably marked enclosure |
All of the above. |
|
B |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is NOT required
to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution
Emergency Plan? |
A list which specifies
who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority
in which they must be notified. |
A list of personnel
duty assignments. |
A list of agencies
or officials in regularly visited ports. |
A list of agencies
or officials of Coastal State administrations responsible for receiving
and processing incident reports. |
|
A |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the overall responsibility in maintaining
the Oil Record Book is given to the_______. |
master |
cargo engineer |
chief engineer |
chief mate |
|
A |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), each operation involving the transfer
of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in the Oil Record Book shall
be fully recorded __________. |
without delay |
within 12 hours
of completion of the operation |
within 24 hours
of completion of the project |
within 48 hours
of completion of the operation |
|
D |
Your vessel has
just been struck by another vessel. After meeting with the captain and chief
mate, you have immediately ordered the vessel specific damage control procedures
in the vessel's approved stability booklet to be enacted. Which of the following
statements is true? |
The Certificate
of Documentation issued to the vessel will be the primary reference document
in order to calculate free surface corrections. |
The universal station
billet assigning crew member responsibilities will provide adequate reference
information to determine the adequate damage control response. |
The Safety Management
System will provide an IMO standard response for all collision response
procedures, including damage control. |
The vessel general
arrangement plan would be a critical reference document for your response
providing accurate data showing watertight compartments, closures, vents
and down flooding angles. |
|
C |
As an engineer,
you are standing by a fuel oil storage tank as a crew member is working
inside the tank. Before entering the tank, the atmosphere was checked and
determined safe for men to work. While standing by you notice that the crew
member is not moving. After attempts to communicate with the downed mariner
you receive no response, what action would you take? |
Send another crew
member, without a SCBA on, into the tank to retrieve the unconscious crew
member. |
Send two additional
crew members, without a SCBA on, into the tank to retrieve the unconscious
crew member. |
Have additional
crew members don a SCBA to enter the tank, to aid in the removal of the
unconscious crew member. |
Call the captain
and ask him how you should proceed. |
|
D |
As chief engineer
of a vessel, you and the assistant engineer are planning a welding job in
a tank. How would you ensure that all safety precautions are reviewed prior
to starting this job? |
Have the engineer
complete a hot-work permit after completing the job. |
Have the engineer
review the SOLAS manual prior to starting the job. |
Have the engineer
verbally review fire safety with crew working on the job. |
Have the engineer
complete a hot-work permit prior to starting the job. |
|
C |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is a mandatory
section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan? |
list of individuals
required to respond |
plan exercises |
reporting requirements |
removal equipment
list |
|
A |
During fueling
operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking fuel line. You should
FIRST __________. |
stop the transfer
of fuel |
prevent the spread
of fire with a foam dam |
apply CO2 on the
burning fuel at its source |
blanket the fuel
spill with foam |
|
B |
According to 33
CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), an oceangoing ship of over 400 gross tons
must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection. What size bolt
circle diameter is required for this shore connection to transfer oily ballast
to a shore side reception facility? |
125 mm |
183 mm |
215 mm |
250 mm |
|
D |
Fire detecting
systems on vessels may be arranged to sense __________. |
ionized particles |
smoke |
rate of temperature
rise |
All of the above. |
|
B |
Your vessel is
carrying a cargo of Ethane, which has caught fire. Which extinguishing agent(s)
should be used? |
Alcohol foam, water
fog |
Carbon dioxide,
dry chemical |
Carbon dioxide,
water fog |
Carbon dioxide,
water foam |
|
A |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the definition of gray water includes
drainage from which of the following? |
dishwashers |
hospital sinks |
toilets |
cargo spaces |
|
D |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), which of the
listed fire extinguishers would be considered hand portable/semi-portable
and capable of combating a class "B" fire? |
2.5 gallons of
foam |
20 pounds of dry
chemical |
35 pounds of carbon
dioxide |
All of the above. |
|
A |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter D, the device used for preventing the passage of
flames into enclosed spaces of tank vessels is referred to as what? |
Flame arrester |
Safety valve |
Flame relief valve |
Flame stopper |
|
C |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter Q, which statement is true concerning the repair
of life preservers? |
Large holes can
be repaired. |
They can be repaired
by a reliable seamstress. |
Tapes or straps
may not be repaired, but may be replaced. |
They must be tested
for buoyancy before being continued in use. |
|
A |
According to 33
CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when dumping garbage into the sea, other than
special areas, __________. |
records must be
provided and maintained for two years |
an entry into the
official logbook must be made |
the U.S. Coast
Guard must be notified for each occurrence |
no record is required
if dumping is carried out more than 25 miles offshore and there is no included
plastic material |
|
B |
The potable water
tanks on your vessel were drained for inspection and cleaning. What would
you do before refilling with water? |
Disinfect the tank
with an ammonia solution. |
Disinfect the tank
with a chlorine solution. |
Nothing needs to
be done before refilling the tanks. |
Use hull paint
to touch up bulkheads in the water tanks. |
|
D |
Your passenger
vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage.
In accordance with 46 CFR Part 78, what actions must be taken to verify
that your vessel was in compliance with stability requirements? |
The master shall
determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements
in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of
Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter
an attestation statement of the verification in the ship's stability book.
The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. |
Ensure that the
vessel owners has determined that the vessel complies with all applicable
stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability
letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case
may be, and then enter an attestation statement of the verification in the
log book. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these
requirements. |
The master shall
determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements
in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of
Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be and send a message
verifying the condition of the vessel to the vessel's owners. The vessel
may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. |
The master shall
determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements
in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of
Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter
an attestation statement of the verification in the log book. The vessel
may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. |
|
C |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter H (Passenger Vessels), which of the following statements
is true regarding sprinkler heads which are normally activated by the melting
of a fusible link? |
Sprinkler heads
installed in the galley and living spaces would have the same fusible link
melting point. |
Sprinkler heads
installed in the living spaces would have a higher melting point fusible
link than those installed in the galley. |
Sprinkler heads
installed in the galley would have a higher melting point fusible link than
those installed in the living spaces. |
None of the above;
sprinkler heads with fusible links are prohibited aboard U.S. flag vessels. |
|
C |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"
placard is required on which of the following vessels? |
foreign vessels
not in U.S. navigable waters |
foreign vessels
when engaged in noncommercial service |
U.S. vessels 26
feet or more in length |
U.S. vessels less
than 26 feet in length |
|
C |
In accordance
with MARPOL (33 CFR Subchapter O), the definition of oil does NOT include
which of the following? |
crude oil |
sludge |
cooking oil |
oil refuse |
|
D |
Your ship has
left shore on the east coast of the United States, how far must you be from
shore to be able to discharge paper waste into the Atlantic Ocean? |
12 nautical miles |
3 nautical miles |
25 nautical miles |
You may not discharge
paper waste into the Atlantic Ocean. |
|
B |
You are in compartment "A"
as shown in Figure 2 of the illustration, and suspect there is a fire in
compartment "B". In order to check for and confirm the fire in
compartment "B" you should __________. Illustration SF-0005 |
move a lighted
candle along watertight door seal |
feel the bulkhead |
open the watertight
door |
tap the bulkhead |
|
B |
What would be
the classification of the fire if the sources shown in illustration #4 were
to catch fire? SF-0051 |
Class A |
Class B |
Class C |
Class D |
|
D |
What would be
the classification of the fire if the sources shown in illustration #3 were
to catch fire? Illustration SF-0051 |
Class A |
Class B |
Class C |
Class D |
|
C |
What would be
the classification of the fire if the sources shown in illustration #1 were
to catch fire? SF-0051 |
Class A |
Class B |
Class C |
Class D |
|
A |
What term is listed
on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to describe a chemical that can produce a life-threatening
or seriously disabling health hazard? |
High toxicity |
Moderate toxicity |
Recommended toxicity |
Low toxicity |
|
C |
In accordance
with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________. |
the forepeaks |
the pumproom |
readily accessible
spaces |
locked watertight
containers |
|
B |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Subchapter D (Tank Vessels), which of the following statements
is true concerning the equipment required in a fireman's outfit? |
The flashlight
must be of an approved three cell fireproof type. |
The assembled lifeline
shall have a minimum breaking strength of 1,500 pounds (683.8 kg). |
The combustible
gas indicator hose must be 100 feet (30.48 m) in length. |
All protective
clothing must be electrically non-conductive. |
|
D |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), who makes the final decision of when
oil transfer may begin? |
The captain of
the port |
The senior deck
officer present |
Any local Coast
Guard representative |
The designated
person in charge |
|
B |
In accordance
with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the circumstances listed
is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL
73/78? |
The garbage to
be discharged will sink. |
A person falls
overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for flotation. |
The destination
port or terminal cannot receive garbage. |
Garbage accumulation
onboard has exceeded storage space. |
|
B |
If the chemical
material is a mixture, what must the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) identify? |
Paints or coatings
that are safe to use with it. |
The name of each
hazardous ingredient. |
Other similar mixtures
of liquids, solids or gases. |
None of the above. |
|
A |
Cross flooding
may __________. |
increase free surface
effect |
increase GM |
decrease bending
stress |
increase buoyancy |
|
D |
Sea water may
be used for drinking water __________. |
at a maximum rate
of two ounces per day |
after mixing with
an equal quantity of fresh water |
if gathered during
or immediately after a hard rain |
under no circumstance |
|
C |
The physical data
term on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by
a material is lighter or heavier than air is called __________. |
vapor level |
vapor pressure |
vapor density |
vapor gravity |
|
D |
Any tanks located
below the vessel’s center of gravity should be __________. |
cross flooded for
vessel buoyancy |
partially filled
for vessel buoyancy |
emptied to maximize
vessel free surface effect |
filled to maximize
vessel stability |
|
A |
The ability of
a vessel to remain in a stable position is controlled by the interaction
of two opposing forces, __________. |
gravity and buoyancy |
gravity and transverse
metacenter |
stiff and tender |
metacentric radius
and buoyancy |
|
D |
What would be
the classification of the fire if the sources shown in figure #3 were to
catch fire? Illustration SF-0051 |
Class A |
Class B |
Class C |
Class D |
|
B |
You are flooding
the space when you are fighting the fire, adding weight to the ship. You
can estimate how much weight using a formula listed below. Which is the
correct formula? |
Every 1 ˝ fire
hose is assumed to be adding 125 gpm which equates to .60 long tons of water
per minute. |
Every 1 ˝ fire
hose is assumed to be adding 125 gpm which equates to .46 long tons of water
per minute. |
Every 1 ˝ fire
hose is assumed to be adding 125 gpm which equates to .32 long tons of water
per minute. |
Every 1 ˝ fire
hose is assumed to be adding 125 gpm which equates to .24 long tons of water
per minute. |
|
A |
A reproductive
health hazard, listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), which can cause genetic
changes in sperm or egg cells is called a __________. |
mutagen |
cryogenic |
carcinogen |
teratogen |
|
B |
As listed on a
Safety Data Sheet (SDS), what is a liquid called that is having a flash
point below 199.4°F (93°C)? |
combustible liquid |
flammable liquid |
viscous liquid |
explosive liquid |
|
A |
After measuring
the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the
shoring __________. |
approximately 1/2
inch shorter than measured length to allow for the use of wedges |
to the same length
as the measured length |
approximately 1/2
inch longer than measured length to allow for trimming |
approximately 1/2
inch shorter per foot of shoring to allow wet expansion |
|
B |
Which of the methods
shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoring? Illustration
SF-0016 |
B |
A |
D |
C |
|
B |
Wooden shoring
is used in shipboard damage control to __________. |
prevent fractures
from spreading |
support a damaged
bulkhead in position |
force a warped
bulkhead back into its normal position |
force a sprung
bulkhead back into place |
|
C |
The wooden shoring
shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting
a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following
statements is correct for the this condition? Illustration SF-0018 |
Shore "A"
will support the greatest load. |
Shore "A"
will not slip under load. |
Shore "B"
will support the load without it cracking. |
Shore "B"
will crack at the pointed end. |
|
A |
After an emergency
shoring installation has been completed, the __________. |
shoring should
be frequently inspected for looseness |
damaged plating
should be straightened by heating |
timbers are nailed
in place to prevent looseness |
repair is completed
and no further action is needed |
|
A |
Which of the following
shoring materials is a portable beam designed to support a damaged structure? |
Shore |
Wedge |
Shole |
Strong back |
|
C |
Which of the following
shoring materials is a short flat block that is placed under the end of
a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure? |
Beam |
Strong back |
Shole |
Wedge |
|
B |
Which of the following
shoring materials is a long bar or beam used to distribute the pressure
of a shore? |
Wedge |
Strong back |
Shole |
Beam |
|
C |
Which of the following
shoring materials is used to tightly make up the difference in length of
a shore cut slightly shorter than the measured distance for required length
and must be frequently checked for tightness? |
Shole |
Strong back |
Wedge |
Beam |
|
A |
Your ship has
run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment
has flooded. Therefore, you should __________. |
tap the bulkhead
with a hammer to check for a water level |
feel the bulkhead
to see if it is hot |
open the hatch
dogs on the side away from the hinges |
open the watertight
door and take a quick look |
|
A |
Progressive flooding
in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and
__________. |
pumping out flooded
compartments |
transferring reserve
feed water |
dumping fuel oil |
evacuating the
engine room |
|
D |
In a compartment
that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will
be exerted __________. |
at the vertical
center of the bulkhead |
at a point that
is one-third from the bottom of the bulkhead |
along the top of
the bulkhead |
along the bottom
of any bulkhead |
|
B |
In order for a
compartment to completely fill up due to flooding, what condition must exist? |
The compartment
must have an opening at the overhead allowing water to enter from the top. |
The compartment
must have an opening at the overhead allowing air to escape in addition
to having a source of flooding. |
The compartment
must have an opening at the bottom deck allowing water to enter from the
bottom. |
The compartment
must have an opening at any of the vertical bulkheads allowing water to
enter from one or more sides. |
|
D |
What is meant
by the phrase "partial flooding with boundaries intact"? |
The compartment
is partially filled, and the bulkheads remain watertight, but the decks
have lost watertight integrity. |
The compartment
is partially filled, and the decks remain watertight, but the bulkheads
have lost watertight integrity. |
The compartment
is partially filled, and both the decks and bulkheads have lost watertight
integrity. |
The compartment
is partially filled, and both the decks and bulkheads remain watertight. |
|
A |
What is meant
by the term "counter-flooding"? |
Counter-flooding
is the pumping of sea water into the high side or end of a ship to correct
for off-center weight that had resulted in a list or adverse trim angle. |
Counter-flooding
is pumping water out of a flooded compartment to counter the effects of
flooding. |
Counter-flooding
is the transfer of fluids from the low side or end of ship to the high side
or end. |
Counter-flooding
is any action taken to counter the effects of flooding. |
|
D |
Following a grounding,
you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________. |
waiting for the
vessel to list |
examining tank
boundaries |
checking fuel oil
strainers |
sounding the tank |
|
D |
In the event of
a grounding, which tanks should be sounded to determine any evidence of
holing? |
Only slack tanks
should be sounded. Full and empty tanks need not be sounded. |
Empty tanks should
be sounded. Full and slack tanks need not be sounded. |
Full, slack, and
empty tanks should all be sounded. |
Slack tanks and
empty tanks should be sounded. Full tanks need not be sounded. |
|
B |
In an emergency,
a hole in the hull below the waterline, not over three inches in diameter,
can be temporarily sealed by __________. |
welding over a
plate patch |
using a soft wooden
plug |
stuffing a mattress
in the hole |
rigging a collision
mat |
|
C |
It is generally
not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because
wedges __________. |
will work loose |
will splinter |
tend to open the
crack |
will pull through
the plating |
|
A |
The lengthening
of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may be prevented by __________. |
drilling a hole
at each end of the crack |
chipping out and
slot welding the entire crack |
cutting a square
notch at each end of the crack |
welding brackets
across both ends of the crack |
|
D |
An acceptable
method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is
to __________. |
shore up the crack
with welded braces |
drill holes at
each end |
tack weld a doubler
plate over the crack |
apply a patch of
sheet packing backed by a strong back or shoring |
|
D |
A hole in the
hull above the waterline may be temporarily patched with __________. |
blankets |
pillows |
mattresses |
All of the above. |
|
D |
In a compartment
that has been completely flooded, the greatest pressure will be exerted
__________. |
at the center of
all bulkheads |
along the top of
any bulkhead |
on the overhead
of the compartment |
along the bottom
of any bulkhead |
|
D |
In a compartment
that has been completely flooded, the greatest pressure will be exerted
__________. |
at the center of
all bulkheads |
along the top of
any bulkhead |
on the overhead
of the compartment |
along the bottom
of any bulkhead |
|
B |
A flat block placed
under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure is referred
to as a __________. |
strong back |
shole |
shore foot |
butt piece |
|
C |
Wooden shoring,
with a cross-sectional dimension of 4" X 4" should not be longer
than __________. |
20 feet |
16 feet |
10 feet |
8 feet |
|
B |
After measuring
the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the
shoring __________. |
approximately 1/2
inch shorter per foot of shoring to allow wet expansion |
approximately 1/2
inch shorter than measured length to allow for the use of wedges |
approximately 1/2
inch longer than measured length to allow for trimming |
to the same length
as the measured length |
|
C |
Which of the methods
shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoring? Illustration
SF-0016 |
C |
D |
A |
B |
|
B |
Wooden shoring
is used in shipboard damage control to __________. |
prevent fractures
from spreading |
support a damaged
bulkhead in position |
force a warped
bulkhead back into its normal position |
force a sprung
bulkhead back into place |
|
C |
The wooden shoring
shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting
a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following
statements is correct for the this condition? Illustration SF-0018 |
Shore "A"
will support the greatest load. |
Shore "A"
will not slip under load. |
Shore "B"
will support the load without it cracking. |
Shore "B"
will crack at the pointed end. |
|
A |
After an emergency
shoring installation has been completed, the __________. |
shoring should
be frequently inspected for looseness |
repair is completed
and no further action is needed |
timbers are nailed
in place to prevent looseness |
damaged plating
should be straightened by heating |
|
A |
Following a grounding,
you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________. |
sounding the tank |
waiting for the
vessel to list |
examining tank
boundaries |
checking fuel oil
strainers |
|
C |
It is generally
not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because
wedges __________. |
will pull through
the plating |
will splinter |
tend to open the
crack |
will work loose |
|
D |
An acceptable
method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is
to __________. |
drill holes at
each end |
shore up the crack
with welded braces |
tack weld a doubler
plate over the crack |
apply a patch of
sheet packing backed by a strong back or shoring |
|
D |
The wooden plug
fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________. |
collapsing |
developing free
surface moments |
developing free
surfaces |
filling completely |
|
D |
Your vessel has
run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel
tank level has increased. You therefore should suspect __________. |
a load of bad fuel |
contamination from
the saltwater flushing system |
condensation in
the fuel tank |
a crack in the
hull portion of the fuel tank |
|
D |
In a compartment
that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will
be exerted __________. |
at a point that
is one-third from the bottom of the bulkhead |
at the vertical
center of the bulkhead |
along the top of
the bulkhead |
along the bottom
of any bulkhead |
|
C |
Progressive flooding
in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and
__________. |
transferring reserve
feed water |
evacuating the
engine room |
pumping out flooded
compartments |
dumping fuel oil |
|
A |
Your ship has
run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment
has flooded. Therefore, you should __________. |
tap the bulkhead
with a hammer to check for a water level |
open the watertight
door and take a quick look |
feel the bulkhead
to see if it is hot |
open the hatch
dogs on the side away from the hinges |
|
A |
What should you
do when the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds? |
Immediately evacuate
the contaminated area. |
Open the bypass
valve on the regulator and immediately evacuate the contaminated area. |
Move the tank selector
lever to the full tank position and reset the alarm so you can evacuate
the area when it sounds again. |
Move the reserve
lever to the 'reserve' position on the regulator and reset the alarm so
you can evacuate the area when it sounds again. |
|
A |
Which unit will
provide excellent mobility to the wearer in an unsafe atmosphere and provide
oxygen to sustain life? |
A self-contained
breathing apparatus |
An ammonia gas
mask |
A fresh air breathing
apparatus |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Why should you
wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering a closed compartment
to fight a fire? |
The fire produces
smoke, which contains toxic gases that cause breathing difficulties and
irritation of the respiratory tract. |
The fire consumes
oxygen which may lead to asphyxiation. |
The fire produces
carbon monoxide which causes an oxygen deficiency in the brain and body,
leading quickly to death. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
You are about
to enter a compartment to investigate a suspected smoldering fire. If you're
not wearing an self-contained breathing apparatus, you should test the compartment's
atmosphere to determine if there is/are __________. |
a toxic atmosphere
in the compartment |
an explosive mixture
in the compartment |
sufficient oxygen
to sustain human life |
All of the above. |
|
A |
The bypass valve
on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________. |
the regulator in
an emergency |
oxygen to the atmosphere |
the regenerator
in an emergency |
a breathing bag
containing excessive pressure |
|
D |
The safe and efficient
use of the facepiece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly
influenced by __________. |
the stowing of
the face piece |
the donning of
the face piece |
the maintenance
of the face piece |
All of the above. |
|
B |
Which of the devices
listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen? |
Canister type mask. |
Self-contained
breathing apparatus. |
Dust or gas mask. |
Wet handkerchief. |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning canister-type gas masks? |
They are designed
for use in a specific gas or atmosphere. |
There may be a
time limit for use marked on the canister. |
They do not provide
an independent oxygen supply. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
What is the maximum
reliable shelf life of a filter gas mask canister if the seal is unbroken? |
1 year from the
date of manufacture |
3 years from the
date of manufacture |
7 years from the
date of manufacture |
5 years from the
date of manufacture |
|
A |
The equipment
shown in the illustration is a __________. Illustration SF-0012 |
canister-type gas
mask |
fresh-air hose
mask |
demand-type breathing
apparatus |
cylinder-type air
mask |
|
A |
Which of the following
devices allows the user to remain in an oxygen deficient space for the longest
period of time without interruption? |
Direct compressed
air supply |
Demand-type oxygen
breathing apparatus |
Pure oxygen breathing
apparatus |
Canister-type gas
mask |
|
C |
Clean air standards,
referred to as 'Grade D', apply to compressed air for use in __________. |
driving air powered
plunger pumps |
high pressure fluid
accumulators |
filling open circuit
breathing systems |
bladder type accumulators |
|
A |
Using a sea anchor
with the survival craft will __________. |
reduce your drift
rate |
keep the survival
craft from turning over |
aid in recovering
the survival craft |
increase your visibility |
|
B |
The external flotation
bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________. |
before you enter
the water |
after you enter
the water |
after one hour
in the water |
after you notice
that your suit is losing buoyancy |
|
D |
If for any reason
it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the
crew members to __________. |
separate from each
other as this will increase the chances of being rescued |
get away from the
area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel |
immediately head
for the nearest land |
remain together
in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known
position |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements is TRUE concerning life jackets? |
Buoyant vests may
be substituted for lifejackets. |
Lifejackets are
designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. |
Lifejackets must
always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly. |
Lightly stained
or faded lifejackets will fail in the water and should not be used. |
|
D |
Kapok lifejackets
require proper care and should NOT be __________. |
stowed near open
flame or where smoking is permitted |
used as seats,
pillows, or foot rests |
left on open decks |
All of the above. |
|
A |
The sea painter
on a rescue boat should be led __________. |
forward and outside
of all obstructions |
forward and inside
of all obstructions |
up and down from
the main deck |
to the foremost
point on the vessel |
|
A |
Which of the following
conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares
and rockets? |
Only when there
is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels. |
At half-hour intervals. |
At one hour intervals. |
Immediately upon
abandoning the vessel. |
|
D |
Which of the following
conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares
and rockets? |
Immediately upon
abandoning the vessel. |
At half-hour intervals. |
At one hour intervals. |
Only when there
is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels. |
|
C |
If a life raft
should capsize, __________. |
climb onto the
bottom |
swim away from
the raft |
right the raft
using the righting straps |
inflate the righting
bag |
|
A |
When launching
an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is
__________. |
fastened to some
substantial part of the vessel |
not fastened to
anything |
secured to the
hydrostatic release |
fastened to the
raft container |
|
A |
Puncture leaks
in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped
by using __________. |
sealing clamps |
repair tape |
a tube patch |
sail twine and
vulcanizing kit |
|
B |
When using the
rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be
__________. |
passed around so
all can drink |
poured overboard
because of salt washed off the canopy |
saved to be used
at a later time |
used to boil food |
|
A |
Most lifeboats
are equipped with __________. |
unbalanced rudders |
balanced rudders |
contraguide rudders |
straight rudders |
|
B |
You have abandoned
ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you
permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours? |
1 can |
1 pint |
1 quart |
1 gallon |
|
B |
The purpose of
the four water pockets, located on the underside at each corner of the raft,
is to __________. |
stow rainwater;
these four spaces will not take up valuable space |
act as stabilizers
by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated and in an upright
position |
hold the freshwater
required by regulation to be provided in the raft when packed |
none of the above |
|
A |
The canopy of
your life raft should __________. |
go into place as
the raft is inflated |
be put up after
everyone is aboard |
be put up only
in severe weather |
be used as a sail
if the wind is blowing |
|
A |
Using a sea anchor
when in a life raft will __________. |
reduce the drift
rate of the life raft |
keep the life raft
from turning over |
aid in recovering
the life raft |
increase your visibility |
|
A |
Immediately after
abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look
for __________. |
survivors in the
water |
food and water |
land |
bad weather |
|
C |
The most important
reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering
a life raft is to __________. |
assist in sleeping |
reduce appetite
by decreasing nausea |
prevent loss of
body moisture by vomiting |
prevent impaired
judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness |
|
D |
In order to retrieve
an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________. |
lifelines |
righting strap |
sea anchor |
towing bridle |
|
C |
While adrift in
an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________. |
the canopy should
be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes |
the pressure valve
may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure |
deflating the floor
panels may help to cool personnel |
the entrance curtains
should never be opened |
|
D |
The air spaces
in the floor of an inflatable raft will provide protection against __________. |
warm water temperatures |
cold water temperatures |
tears in the outside
skin of bottom of the raft |
All of the above. |
|
C |
In the illustration
shown, the sea painter is identified as item number___________. Illustration
SF-0043 |
3 |
6 |
7 |
9 |
|
B |
Which of the lifeboat
parts listed must be painted bright red? |
Hatches |
Releasing gear
lever |
Boat hooks |
Compass |
|
D |
Your vessel is
equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements
is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames? |
The ventilators
will automatically close by the action of fusible links. |
The diesel engine
will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation
of the crew. |
A water spay system
to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual pump. |
A pressurized air
tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air for the survivors and
the diesel engine. |
|
C |
When abandoning
ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________. |
plot course for
nearest land |
go only with the
direction of the sea |
stay in the immediate
area |
go one direction
until fuel runs out |
|
C |
When lowering
lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to
rig frapping lines __________. |
on only the forward
falls |
on only the after
falls |
fore and aft with
a lead of about 45° to the boat |
from the falls
to the tricing gear |
|
A |
All personnel
should be familiar with the lifeboats __________. |
boarding and operating
procedures |
maintenance schedule |
navigational systems |
fuel consumption
rates |
|
B |
The hand brake
of a lifeboat winch is __________. |
manually disengaged
when hoisting a boat |
applied by dropping
the counterweighted lever |
controlled by the
centrifugal brake mechanism |
automatically engaged
if lowering speed is excessive |
|
A |
Why is an upper
limit switch used when raising the lifeboat? |
To prevent the
davits from pulling up against the stops. |
To assist in cranking
in the lifeboat. |
To keep the tricing
lines from releasing or getting tangled. |
To stop the lifeboat
from being lowered. |
|
D |
The purpose of
the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________. |
keep the movement
of the davits at the same speed |
keep the davits
from slipping when they are in the stowed position |
prevent vibration
during lowering of the boat |
support the manropes |
|
D |
The purpose of
the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________. |
keep the movement
of the davits at the same speed |
keep the davits
from slipping when they are in the stowed position |
prevent vibration
during lowering of the boat |
support the manropes |
|
D |
When a helicopter
is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in
the boat should __________. |
enter the water
in case the person being lifted slips from the sling |
stand on the outside
of the boat to assist the person being lifted |
remove their lifejackets
to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter |
remain seated inside
to provide body weight for stability |
|
B |
In order for the
automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________. |
the cap should
be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne |
the cage must be
free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly |
there is an automatic
ball check located in a siphon tube |
the small lever
to release the rubber ball float must be turned counterclockwise |
|
A |
In heavy seas
the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________. |
into the seas |
broadside to the
seas |
in the same direction
as the seas |
in a series of
figure-eights |
|
C |
The survival craft's
engine is fueled with __________. |
kerosene |
unleaded gasoline |
diesel oil |
liquefied gas |
|
B |
With the sprinkler
system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will
be protected from __________. |
a nuclear environment |
a fire and toxic
environment |
a hurricane |
a drop greater
than ten feet |
|
D |
Who is responsible
for lowering the survival craft? |
Roustabout |
First man aboard |
Last man aboard |
Helmsman |
|
A |
When collecting
condensation for drinking water, __________. |
a sponge used to
mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free |
only condensation
on the bottom of the canopy should be collected |
it should be strained
through a finely woven cloth |
chlorine tablets
should be used to make it drinkable |
|
B |
Provided every
effort is used to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration,
how long is it normally possible to survive in a survival craft without
stored quantities of water? |
Up to 3 days |
Up to 14 days |
Up to 25 days |
Up to 35 days |
|
A |
A self-righting
survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel
__________. |
are seated with
seatbelts on and doors shut |
are seated with
seatbelts on and doors open |
are to shift to
one side to right it |
escape from the
craft |
|
A |
When the survival
craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________. |
personnel air supply |
additional flotation |
priming the sprinkler
system |
filling the self-righting
bags |
|
D |
An 'on-load' release
system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________. |
only when the load
is taken off the cable |
only there is a
load on the cable |
only when activated
by the controls at the lowering station |
at any time |
|
C |
When inspecting
a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________. |
sea anchor is deployed |
hydraulic starting
system has been drained |
hydraulic pressure
is within the specified range |
steering controls
are locked |
|
B |
To activate an
air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________. |
put it into an
container of water |
tear off the tabs
on the canister |
turn it upside
down |
push 'on' button |
|
C |
When a rescue
vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of
the survival craft should __________. |
tie up to the rescue
vessel |
transfer only those
personnel who are not seasick |
wait for calmer
weather before transferring personnel |
transfer all personnel
immediately |
|
A |
While retrieving
the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________. |
when the craft
clears the water |
when the cable
has been attached |
on approach to
the platform |
at the embarkation |
|
D |
Seawater may be
used for drinking water __________. |
at a maximum rate
of two ounces per day |
after mixing with
an equal quantity of fresh water |
if gather during
or immediately after a hard rain |
under no circumstance |
|
A |
Which of the following
conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares
and rockets? |
Only when there
is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels. |
At half-hour intervals. |
At one hour intervals. |
Immediately upon
abandoning the vessel. |
|
D |
Each vessel in
ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________. |
must be stowed
in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks |
must be stowed
where it is readily accessible for testing and use |
is a device that
transmits a radio signal |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Each vessel in
ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________. |
is a device that
transmits a radio signal |
must be stowed
where it is readily accessible for testing and use |
must be stowed
in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks |
All of the above. |
|
D |
You have abandoned
ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon
apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________. |
switch the EPIRB
to the homing signal mode |
use the voice transmission
capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft |
turn on the strobe
light on the top of the EPIRB |
use visual distress
signals in conjunction with the EPIRB |
|
C |
Which of the following
limitations is correct regarding gas or filter masks? |
A maximum of only
30 minutes of protection is afforded with a single canister when in atmospheres
containing highly toxic gases. |
All canisters must
be discarded within 24 hours when the seal becomes broken. |
A canister is reliable
for up to 5 years from the date of manufacture, as long as the seal is unbroken. |
All of the above. |
|
B |
The bypass valve
on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________. |
a breathing bag
containing excessive pressure |
the regulator in
an emergency |
oxygen to the atmosphere |
the regenerator
in an emergency |
|
B |
Which of the components
listed are interchangeable between different backpack self-contained breathing
apparatus produced by various manufacturers? |
The face piece |
The air cylinder |
The regulator |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Which of the following
conditions represents a particular advantage of using a positive pressure
type self-contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately
dangerous to life or health? |
The equipment is
compact and the wearer can work in confined spaces without difficulty. |
The equipment used
is lightweight and easy to wear by reducing physical strain on the wearer. |
The average operating
time for most air cylinders is over an hour. |
The positive pressure
in the face piece prevents contaminated air from entering the face piece. |
|
C |
Which type of
respiratory protection is preferable for the repair/investigation personnel
in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment? |
Emergency Escape
Breathing Apparatus (EEBA) |
U.S. Navy Oxygen
Breathing Apparatus (OBA) |
Positive Self-Contained
Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) |
Self-Contained
Demand-Type Breathing Apparatus (SCDBA) |
|
B |
Which of the devices
listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen? |
Wet handkerchief. |
Self-contained
breathing apparatus. |
Dust or gas mask. |
Canister type mask. |
|
D |
Manufacturers
of self contained breathing apparatus use color coded face pieces to indicate
different sizes. Which of the following statements is true concerning the
colors of SCBA face pieces? |
Size "Large"
(standard) is black. |
Size "Extra
Large" is red. |
Size "Small"
is green. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
A rigid lifesaving
device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water
is defined as a __________. |
life raft |
life cushion |
life preserver |
buoyant apparatus |
|
C |
Lifejackets should
be stowed in __________. |
the forepeaks |
the pump room |
readily accessible
spaces |
locked watertight
containers |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements is TRUE concerning life jackets? |
Buoyant vests may
be substituted for lifejackets. |
Lifejackets are
designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. |
Lifejackets must
always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly. |
Lightly stained
or faded lifejackets will fail in the water and should not be used. |
|
D |
Kapok lifejackets
require proper care and should NOT be __________. |
stowed near open
flame or where smoking is permitted |
used as seats,
pillows, or foot rests |
left on open decks |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Kapok life jackets
require proper care and should NOT be __________. |
stowed near open
flame or where smoking is permitted |
used as seats,
pillows, or foot rests |
left on open decks |
All of the above. |
|
D |
You are involved
in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate
your life jacket __________. |
upon entering the
helicopter |
prior to reaching
the water |
after reaching
the water, but prior to exiting the helicopter |
after exiting clear
of the helicopter |
|
C |
An immersion suit
should be equipped with a/an __________. |
air bottle for
breathing |
whistle and handheld
flare |
whistle, strobe
light, and reflective tape |
whistle, handheld
flare, and sea dye marker |
|
B |
The external flotation
bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________. |
before you enter
the water |
after you enter
the water |
after one hour
in the water |
after you notice
that your suit is losing buoyancy |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning an immersion suit and its use? |
Only a light layer
of clothing may be worn underneath. |
They provide sufficient
flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a lifejacket. |
They should be
tight fitting. |
A tear in the suit
will not appreciably reduce its value. |
|
C |
Which of the following
is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit? |
Chemical protection
face shield |
Approved work vest |
Self-contained
breathing apparatus |
5 cell approved
flashlight |
|
C |
In the illustration
shown, the sea painter is identified as item number___________. Illustration
SF-0043 |
6 |
3 |
7 |
9 |
|
C |
When lowering
lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to
rig frapping lines __________. |
on only the forward
falls |
on only the after
falls |
fore and aft with
a lead of about 45° to the boat |
from the falls
to the tricing gear |
|
B |
The hand brake
of a lifeboat winch is __________. |
manually disengaged
when hoisting a boat |
applied by dropping
the counterweighted lever |
controlled by the
centrifugal brake mechanism |
automatically engaged
if lowering speed is excessive |
|
D |
The purpose of
the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________. |
keep the movement
of the davits at the same speed |
keep the davits
from slipping when they are in the stowed position |
prevent vibration
during lowering of the boat |
support the manropes |
|
B |
In order for the
automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________. |
the cap should
be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne |
the cage must be
free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly |
there is an automatic
ball check located in a siphon tube |
the small lever
to release the rubber ball float must be turned counterclockwise |
|
D |
Your vessel is
equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements
is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames? |
The ventilators
will automatically close by the action of fusible links. |
The diesel engine
will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation
of the crew. |
A water spay system
to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual pump. |
A pressurized air
tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air for the survivors and
the diesel engine. |
|
A |
In heavy seas
the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________. |
into the seas |
broadside to the
seas |
in the same direction
as the seas |
in a series of
figure-eights |
|
A |
When the survival
craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________. |
personnel air supply |
additional flotation |
priming the sprinkler
system |
filling the self-righting
bags |
|
C |
When inspecting
a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________. |
sea anchor is deployed |
hydraulic starting
system has been drained |
hydraulic pressure
is within the specified range |
steering controls
are locked |
|
B |
To activate an
air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________. |
put it into an
container of water |
tear off the tabs
on the canister |
turn it upside
down |
push 'on' button |
|
A |
While retrieving
the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________. |
when the craft
clears the water |
when the cable
has been attached |
on approach to
the platform |
at the embarkation |
|
C |
The survival craft's
engine is fueled with __________. |
kerosene |
unleaded gasoline |
diesel oil |
liquefied gas |
|
D |
Who is responsible
for lowering the survival craft? |
Roustabout |
First man aboard |
Last man aboard |
Helmsman |
|
A |
When collecting
condensation for drinking water, __________. |
a sponge used to
mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free |
only condensation
on the bottom of the canopy should be collected |
it should be strained
through a finely woven cloth |
chlorine tablets
should be used to make it drinkable |
|
C |
If a life raft
should capsize, __________. |
climb onto the
bottom |
swim away from
the raft |
right the raft
using the righting straps |
inflate the righting
bag |
|
A |
The canopy of
your life raft should __________. |
go into place as
the raft is inflated |
be put up after
everyone is aboard |
be put up only
in severe weather |
be used as a sail
if the wind is blowing |
|
A |
Using a sea anchor
when in a life raft will __________. |
reduce the drift
rate of the life raft |
keep the life raft
from turning over |
aid in recovering
the life raft |
increase your visibility |
|
C |
The most important
reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering
a life raft is to __________. |
assist in sleeping |
reduce appetite
by decreasing nausea |
prevent loss of
body moisture by vomiting |
prevent impaired
judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness |
|
C |
While adrift in
an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________. |
the canopy should
be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes |
the pressure valve
may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air pressure |
deflating the floor
panels may help to cool personnel |
the entrance curtains
should never be opened |
|
A |
When launching
an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is
__________. |
fastened to some
substantial part of the vessel |
not fastened to
anything |
secured to the
hydrostatic release |
fastened to the
raft container |
|
A |
When personnel
are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on
the raft should __________. |
deflate the floor
of the raft to reduce the danger of capsizing |
inflate the floor
of the raft to provide for additional stability |
remove their lifejackets
to prepare for the transfer |
take in the sea
anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling |
|
D |
The painter on
a rigid life raft must have a length sufficient to reach the highest waterline
plus an additional __________. |
5 meters (16 feet) |
10 meters (31 feet) |
15 meters (50 feet) |
20 meters (66 feet) |
|
C |
You are at sea
in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is __________. |
collapse of the
raft due to cold temperatures |
asphyxiation due
to keeping the canopy closed |
hypothermia caused
by cold temperature |
starvation |
|
A |
The sea painter
on a rescue boat should be led __________. |
forward and outside
of all obstructions |
forward and inside
of all obstructions |
up and down from
the main deck |
to the foremost
point on the vessel |
|
B |
A tank has been
sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following
statements is true? |
The tank is safe
to enter. |
The tank is especially
dangerous to enter. |
Carbon monoxide
is present. |
Water vapor present
when the tank was sealed has oxidized. |
|
C |
Before entering
any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What
level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air? |
10 (%) |
15.8 (%) |
20.8 (%) |
25.8 (%) |
|
C |
The airborne concentrations
of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers
may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________. |
exposure limits |
concentration limits |
threshold limit
values |
substance limit
values |
|
A |
If flammable vapors
have penetrated a gas free space, which of the following actions would be
the most hazardous to perform? |
Opening switches
in the space to de-energize circuits. |
Closing switches
adjacent to the space to operate vent fans. |
Leaving electrical
circuits energized in the space. |
Securing all power
to the space from a remote location. |
|
A |
The reading of
a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________. |
lower explosive
limit of a flammable gas concentration |
upper explosive
limit of a flammable gas concentration |
concentration of
flammable gas in a compartment |
concentration by
weight of nonflammable gas in a compartment |
|
A |
Combustible gas
indicators incorporate the use of a/an __________. |
Wheatstone bridge |
inflatable bag |
vapor-detecting
carbon compound |
sensitive liquid
chemical |
|
D |
Before entering
a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator
and a/an __________. |
Halide torch |
flame safety lamp |
Orsat apparatus |
combustible gas
indicator |
|
C |
An oxygen indicator
will detect __________. |
the presence of
harmful amounts of carbon monoxide |
concentrations
of explosive gas |
an oxygen deficiency
in a space |
All of the above. |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements is true regarding oxygen indicators? |
The instrument
is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with
no
delay. |
Prolonged exposure
to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator. |
A cotton filter
placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument
when exposed to strongly acidic gases. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
For hydrogen sulfide
detection, sensitized tapes indicate the presence of this gas by means of
discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on
the spot depends upon the concentration of the gas and __________. |
air temperature
during exposure |
air pressure during
exposure |
humidity during
exposure |
duration of exposure |
|
D |
When required
to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use
tools which are __________. |
approved by the
Coast Guard |
high carbon steel |
fixed with a ferrous
cover |
non-sparking |
|
D |
If you see an
individual fall overboard, you should __________. |
throw a life ring
overboard |
hail 'Man Overboard' |
pass the word to
the bridge |
All of the above. |
|
D |
The worst atmospheric
condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is __________. |
gusty winds with
rain |
heavy rain |
full sun with high
winds |
nearly calm, clear
nights or early morning |
|
C |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure
of 8 1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80°F or below, is a grade __________. |
D |
E |
C |
A |
|
C |
The explosive
range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture
of __________. |
20 percent methane
by volume is too lean to burn |
10 percent methane
by volume is too rich to burn |
5 percent methane
by volume will give a reading of 100 percent L.E.L. on a combustible gas
indicator |
3 percent methane
by volume is too rich to burn |
|
C |
The highest concentration
of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to
health, is termed the __________. |
vapor pressure |
tolerance point |
threshold limit
value |
odor threshold |
|
D |
By definition,
an example of a flammable liquid is __________. |
animal and vegetable
oils |
caustic potash |
kerosene |
gasoline |
|
A |
Which of the following
conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration
above the upper explosive limit? |
The mixture is
too rich to burn. |
Conditions are
perfect for combustion. |
The vapor is about
to explode. |
The mixture is
too lean to burn. |
|
B |
The vapors given
off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________. |
lighter than air |
heavier than air |
nontoxic |
odorless |
|
A |
Which of the petroleum
products listed has a flash point below 150°F? |
Light fuel oils |
Lubricating oils |
Road oils |
Asphalt |
|
B |
When preparing
to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should __________. |
draw a small quantity
of liquid to prime the pump |
check for gland
leakage and any fire hazard |
have a standby
pump running with the discharge valve closed |
lift the relief
valve by hand to check its operation |
|
B |
Which of the following
is classified as a grade "E" combustible liquid? |
Very light naphtha |
Bunker "C" |
Most commercial
gasoline |
Benzene |
|
C |
Bunker "C"
is classified as a grade __________. |
A liquid |
B liquid |
E liquid |
D liquid |
|
A |
The explosive
range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________. |
1% to 6% by volume |
12% to 20% by volume |
0% to 1% by volume |
6% to 12% by volume |
|
D |
Which of the following
hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products? |
Asphyxiation |
Fire |
Explosion |
All of the above. |
|
C |
When checking
the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel,
you should position yourself __________. |
on the windward
side of the opening |
on the leeward
side of the opening |
at a right angle
to the wind direction |
so that the obstruction
of your body will protect you from the fumes |
|
B |
Tankers carrying
cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed
at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector alarms sounds,
this means __________. |
the detector is
sampling a space in which 30 percent of the atmosphere is explosive |
a flammable vapor
concentration exists at the sample point, but it is too lean to burn |
an explosion is
about to take place |
the detector sensor
is sampling a space where the cargo vapor concentration is 30 percent by
volume |
|
D |
An LNG carrier
has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in
the __________. |
barrier spaces |
boiler burner supply
piping |
cargo handling
rooms |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Span gas is used
aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________. |
odorize the cargo |
inert the barrier
spaces |
calibrate the gas
leak detectors |
detect leaks in
cargo piping |
|
B |
A high concentration
of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be found in which of the locations
listed? |
Fire room bilges
where hydrazine has accumulated. |
Sewage compartment
bilges where leaked sewage has accumulated. |
Engine room bilges
where chemical cleaners and solvents have accumulated. |
Emergency battery
storage compartment where discharge gases have accumulated. |
|
B |
Individuals who
have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate __________. |
unusually large
concentrations of H2S |
smaller than normal
concentrations of H2S |
moderate concentrations
of H2S without the usual reactions |
longer exposure
to H2S concentrations |
|
C |
When pumping sour
crude, which gas should be tested for prior to entering the cargo pump room
to repair a leaking pump? |
Benzene |
Carbon monoxide |
Hydrogen sulfide |
Tetraethyl lead |
|
B |
What information
can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge? |
The number of fire
extinguishers required onboard. |
The tanks which
are safe to enter when the certificate was issued. |
The barge's stability
information. |
The quality of
the barge's cargo. |
|
C |
A tank or compartment
is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations
of __________. |
any combustible
liquid |
all flammable liquids |
flammable or toxic
gases |
residues from cargo
oil |
|
C |
A compartment
is tested and found to contain 20.8% oxygen by volume, permissible concentrations
of toxic materials, and concentrations of flammable gas just below the lower
flammable limit. If the residues are not capable of producing toxic materials
or flammable concentrations, what would be the designation listed on the
marine chemist's certificate? |
Safe for men -Safe
for Fire |
Not safe for men
-Not Safe for Fire |
Safe for men -Not
Safe for Fire |
Not safe for men
-Safe for Fire |
|
D |
If, in a compartment
or space, the gas or oxygen content is not within permissible concentration,
and dangerous gases are either present, or may be produced by residues,
what would be the safety designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate? |
Safe for Men -Safe
for Fire |
Safe for Men -Not
Safe for Fire |
Not Safe for Men
-Safe for Fire |
Not Safe for Men
-Not Safe for Fire |
|
D |
If emergency welding
repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent
compartments may need to be __________. |
filled with water |
gas freed |
inerted |
All of the above. |
|
D |
While in a foreign
port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried out on a section of
heating coil located in a tank having last contained a grade "D"
product. Which of the following procedures should be followed when a certified
marine chemist is not available? |
It is solely the
chief engineer's responsibility to ensure all safety precautions are observed,
and all entries are to be made in the engine room log. |
Repairs should
proceed as scheduled since a chemist's certificate is not required for that
type of work. |
The repair work
cannot be done at this time due to the lack of the chemist's certificate. |
Prior to any hot
work, an inspection must be made by the senior officer present, and an entry
made in the official logbook. |
|
A |
A health hazard
term listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction
in some people after repeated exposure is __________. |
sensitizer |
pyrophoric hazard |
oxidizer |
skin contact hazard |
|
C |
A liquid, as listed
on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), having a flash point below 100°F (37.78°C)
is called a/an __________. |
explosive liquid |
combustible liquid |
flammable liquid |
viscous liquid |
|
C |
A specific document
which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards,
required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal,
and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________. |
Physical/Chemical
Characteristics Document |
Hazardous Chemical
Information Sheet |
Material Safety
Data Sheet |
Hazardous Chemical
Loading Document |
|
A |
If the chemical
material is a mixture, what must the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identify? |
The name of each
hazardous ingredient. |
Other similar mixtures
of liquids, solids or gases. |
Paints or coatings
that are safe to use with it. |
None of the above. |
|
A |
The physical data
term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates if the vapor
formed by a material is lighter or heavier than air is called __________. |
vapor density |
vapor pressure |
vapor level |
vapor gravity |
|
A |
After ballasting
a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you close FIRST? |
Sea suction valve |
Tank manifold filling
valve |
Deck filling valve |
Pump discharge
valve |
|
A |
In order to prevent
the unnecessary release of hydrocarbons to atmosphere, when taking on departure
ballast, one method used is to __________. |
allow entering
ballast to displace the inert gas to a tank where cargo is currently being
discharged |
manually open the
pressure/vacuum device |
use blowers to
purge the inert gas from tanks |
completely open
the mast riser valve |
|
A |
When discharging
clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined
by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting
must __________. |
be terminated automatically |
be completely discharged
in order to load |
be stopped until
the oil can settle out, then resumed at a slower discharge rate |
be completed only
after "load on top" has been completed |
|
B |
To prevent oil
from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system,
you should FIRST __________. |
open block valves,
then start the cargo pump |
start the cargo
pump, then open sea suction valves |
open sea suction
valves, then start the cargo pump |
open sluice valves,
then start the cargo pump |
|
C |
Water ballast
placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall
be regarded as __________. |
crude oil |
segregated ballast |
dirty ballast |
clean ballast |
|
D |
According to 33
CFR's, an oceangoing ship of over 400 gross tons must be fitted with a standard
discharge shore connection. What size bolt circle diameter is required for
this shore connection to transfer oily ballast to a shore side reception
facility? |
250 mm |
215 mm |
125 mm |
183 mm |
|
D |
Victual waste
is __________. |
the final waste
product of a manufacturing process |
the resultant sludge
that is collected after water washing a boiler |
the final discharge
of sewage treatment plants |
any garbage that
comes from food or food provisions |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at
sea? |
The vessel may
discharge disinfected and comminuted sewage into the sea, from an approved
system, only if the vessel is more than three nautical miles from the nearest
land. |
The vessel must
have an approved sewage plant. |
The vessel may
discharge sewage into the sea, from an approved system which is not
comminuted or disinfected,
only if the vessel is more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land. |
All of the above. |
|
A |
When dumping garbage
into the sea, other than special areas, __________. |
records must be
provided and maintained for two years |
an entry into the
official log book must be made |
the U.S. Coast
Guard must be notified for each occurrence |
no record is required
if dumping is carried out more than 25 miles offshore and there is no included
plastic material |
|
D |
The amount of
garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship
and stated in __________. |
barrels, measured
in 55 gallon drums |
weight in either
kilogram or pounds |
cubic yards convertible
to long tons |
cubic meters |
|
B |
As its temperature
rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________. |
decrease |
increase |
remain the same |
none of the above |
|
D |
When the scuppers
are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________. |
remove plugs from
scuppers and wash fuel overboard with water |
remove plugs from
scuppers to allow the spill to run overboard and wipe the area dry with
rags |
remove plugs from
scuppers and wash the fuel overboard with a solvent |
use absorbent material,
such as sawdust, to clean up the spill |
|
C |
Your vessel is
taking on bunkers from a shore side facility. If oil begins flowing from
one tank vent, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST? |
Close the valve
on the tank vent line. |
Set out drip pans
and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill. |
Signal the shore
control point to shutdown. |
Open the intake
valve to an adjacent tank. |
|
D |
Which of the precautions
listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel? |
Secure all lighting
to the main deck. |
Provide a portable
fan to blow away fumes. |
Display a black
triangle during daylight hours. |
Prohibit smoking
in the area. |
|
B |
When should you
expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling hose? |
When static electricity
is not expected to be a problem. |
When the terminal
is equipped with a cathodic protection system. |
When transferring
LNG. |
When a bonding
cable is employed. |
|
C |
To determine if
all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer
operations just prior to bunkering from a shore side facility, __________. |
vessel and facility
are independently inspected by their respective designated person-incharge |
vessel and facility
must be inspected by a representative of the Coast Guard Captain of the
Port |
vessel and facility
are jointly and independently inspected by the designated persons-incharge |
facility is inspected
by the designated person-in-charge of the vessel and vice versa for the
vessel |
|
A |
One consideration
for determining the safest maximum rate at which bunker fuel may be received
is by the __________. |
number of tanks
to be filled |
type of fuel transfer
pump |
distance to the
fuel storage tanks ashore |
size of the fuel
storage tanks ashore |
|
B |
Why is it important
for double bottom fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading fuel
at cold temperatures? |
Increased viscosity
of the product needs higher loading pressure, which increases the
chances of a spill. |
A temperature rise
of the fuel will cause an overflow from the tank vent. |
Fueling valve may
become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil to spill before the valve can
be opened. |
Air pockets may
cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole. |
|
B |
The most critical
part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when
the __________. |
pumping operation
is first started |
tanks are being
topped off |
system is being
lined up |
hose joints are
made up |
|
A |
An ullage reading
is the distance from a given point at the __________. |
top of the sounding
tube down to the surface of the liquid |
top of the liquid
down to the tank bottom |
top of the tank
down to the bottom of the tank |
sounding tube to
either side of the tank |
|
A |
A ullage reading
is the distance from a given point at the __________. |
top of the sounding
tube down to the surface of the liquid |
top of the liquid
down to the tank bottom |
top of the tank
down to the bottom of the tank |
sounding tube to
either side of the tank |
|
A |
As a precaution
against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should __________. |
notify the shore
pumping station to reduce the pumping rate as tanks near full capacity |
close the deck
filling valve to reduce the pumping rate |
fill the tank to
the bottom of the expansion trunk |
close all tank
vents to prevent overflow |
|
C |
Where will you
find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water? |
The vessel's Certificate
of Inspection |
The vessel's International
Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate |
The vessel's Oil
Transfer Procedures |
The vessel's Oil
Record Book |
|
A |
During oil transfer
operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer
procedures are being followed? |
The designated
person in charge |
The oiler |
The tankerman |
The senior able
seaman |
|
A |
Small oil spills
on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________. |
plugging all scuppers
and drains |
regularly emptying
all drip pans |
thoroughly draining
all bunkering hoses |
placing floating
booms around the ship |
|
C |
A method NOT usually
allowed for cleaning up oil spills would be the use of __________. |
skimmers |
sawdust |
dispersants |
straw |
|
C |
In cleaning up
an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example
of which type of oil removal? |
Mechanical removal |
Chemical agent
removal |
Absorbent removal |
None of the above |
|
C |
Which of the following
is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan? |
list of individuals
required to respond |
plan exercises |
reporting requirements |
removal equipment
list |
|
B |
Which of the following
is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard
Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
o |
a list which specifies
who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority
in
which they must be notified. |
a list of personnel
duty assignments |
a list of agencies
or officials in regularly visited ports. |
a list of agencies
or officials of Coastal State administrations responsible for receiving
and processing incident reports |
|
D |
When amendments
are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must
be submitted to the Coast Guard __________. |
six months prior
to the end of the approval period |
one month prior
to the anniversary date of the plan |
and can be implemented
without immediate approval as long as final approval is received
within six months of submittal |
and cannot be implemented
without approval |
|
B |
Coast Guard regulations
require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed __________. |
quad-annually only |
annually only |
only one every
five years |
biennially only |
|
A |
Coast Guard regulations
require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed __________. |
annually only |
biennially only |
quad-annually only |
only once every
five years |
|
A |
In the Oil Record
Book, a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped into operational
sections. Each section is codified by a/an __________. |
letter |
abbreviation |
number |
All of the above. |
|
B |
If an incorrect
entry were made in the Oil Record Book, you should __________. |
notify the ship's
officer-in-charge |
draw a single line
through the wrong entry and initial it |
erase the entry
and rewrite it |
completely black
it out and make the correct entry alongside |
|
C |
U.S. flag ships
may obtain an Oil Record Book from the __________. |
Environmental Protection
Agency |
U.S. Customs Agency |
Local MSO/COTPs/MIO's |
local courthouse |
|
D |
Which of the following
operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a
tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations? |
The discharge overboard
in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces. |
The loading or
unloading of any or all oil cargo. |
Any internal transfer
of oil cargo during a voyage. |
All of the above. |
|
A |
The overall responsibility
in maintaining the Oil Record Book is given to __________. |
Master |
Cargo Engineer |
Chief Engineer |
Chief Mate |
|
C |
The Oil Record
Book for all U.S. ships __________. |
is to be kept in
the personal possession of the Master |
is required to
have entries recorded within 48 hours of completion of the particular operation |
is the property
of the U.S. government |
should not be used
to record the accidental discharge of oily or oily mixtures |
|
C |
Each operation
involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in
the OIL Record Book shall be fully recorded __________. |
within 24 hours
of completion of the project |
within 48 hours
of completion of the operation |
without delay |
within 12 hours
of completion of the operation |
|
A |
Each operation
involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in
the OIL Record Book shall be fully recorded __________. |
without delay |
within 12 hours
of completion of the operation |
within 24 hours
of completion of the project |
within 48 hours
of completion of the operation |
|
B |
A gurgling noise
is heard from within a cargo tank when discharging cargo, this would indicate
that the __________. |
pump discharge
pressure is excessive |
pump is sucking
air |
tank foot valve
is partially clogged |
tank liquid is
too viscous |
|
C |
The term "load
on top" is the name of a method used on many crude oil carriers for
the purpose of __________. |
calculating the
ullage in the cargo tanks |
calculating the
ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank |
the loading of
new cargo into a decanted slop tank as a procedure to minimize pollution |
loading ballast
by gravity |
|
D |
Pressure-vacuum
relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be kept in good working
order to prevent __________. |
oil spillage on
deck |
entry of burning
substances |
escape of explosive
vapors |
damage to tank
boundaries |
|
C |
Which of the following
pressures represents the normal pressure setting of a pressure-vacuum relief
valve as normally found on tank vessels? |
20.7 psia -14.6
psia |
22.7 psia -14.7
psia |
16.7 psia -14.2
psia |
18.7 psia -14.4
psia |
|
A |
Pressure-vacuum
relief valves, as used on tank vessels, are usually set to operate at two
points, __________. |
14.2 psia; 2 psig |
any two points
below atmospheric pressure |
26 inches of vacuum;
5 psig |
any two points
above atmospheric pressure |
|
B |
Tank stripping
is accomplished more effectively by using a __________. |
a multistage centrifugal
pump |
a positive displacement
pump |
the water displacement
method |
the load on top
system |
|
D |
A Crude Oil Wash
(COW) system is considered as __________. |
a cleanup for pump
room bilges |
a mechanism which
filters and purifies crude oil |
a water operated
Butterworth system |
a Butterworth system
using crude oil instead of water as the cleaning medium |
|
D |
In order for you
to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed
must be __________. |
opened to the atmosphere
for ventilation |
gas free |
full of cargo |
inerted |
|
D |
To avoid excessive
electrostatic effect in the crude oil washing process, due to the presence
of water in the crude oil washing fluid, the contents of any tank to be
used as a source of crude oil for washing must first reduce a portion of
the tank contents by a vertical height equal to __________. |
one-half meter |
two meters |
one and one-half
meters |
one meter |
|
C |
Both crude oil
washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from
tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________. |
a higher temperature |
a higher pressure
jet |
the solvent effect
of the crude oil |
none of the above. |
|
D |
Bottom mounted
crude oil washing machines are primarily used for __________. |
all vertical surfaces |
the majority of
crude oil tank cleaning |
washing the entire
bottom of the tank |
areas where direct
impingement from deck mounted machines cannot be satisfactorily reached |
|
B |
When tanks have
been washed with crude oil, and ballasted without being water rinsed, the
ballast is referred to as __________. |
clean ballast |
dirty ballast |
segregated ballast |
dedicated ballast |
|
A |
Crude oil washing
has which of the following disadvantages? |
It requires following
additional work procedures and close attention by the crew during cargo
operations. |
Allows buildup
of cargo residue on tank walls. |
Its cleaning ability
is very poor. |
When completed,
more cargo is retained aboard the ship than with water washing. |
|
A |
The component
in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion
products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________. |
scrubber |
purifier |
filter |
cooler |
|
D |
The blowers of
an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured
if __________. |
normal water supply
at the water seal is lost |
the temperature
of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks is more than 150°F |
the cooling water
supply to the scrubbers is lost |
All of the above. |
|
C |
How does an inert
gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? |
De-energizes the "charged
mist" effect. |
Maintains a positive
pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. |
Inert gas dilutes
the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower
explosive limit. |
Inert gas filters
out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces. |
|
C |
Each inert gas
system must be equipped with the following instruments: oxygen concentration
indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and recorder, and temperature
indicator. The point of measurement for these instruments must be located
__________. |
scrubber outlet |
after the gas regulating
valve |
downstream of the
blowers |
upstream of the
liquid filled breaker |
|
A |
Each ship having
an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations
of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure __________. |
oxygen |
water vapor |
nitrogen |
carbon dioxide |
|
A |
Each ship having
an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations
of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure __________. |
oxygen |
water vapor |
nitrogen |
carbon dioxide |
|
A |
Excessive recirculation
of inert gas is __________. |
undesirable and
it may lead to high oxygen content of the inert gas |
likely to over
pressurize the cargo tanks |
likely to overheat
the deck water seal |
highly recommended |
|
B |
When the inert
gas system is temporarily unable to maintain a positive pressure, or an
oxygen content less than 8%, cargo operations should __________. |
continue only under "Emergency
Procedures" |
be shut down immediately |
continue at a slower
rate until these requirements are met |
monitored more
frequently |
|
B |
When securing
the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be __________. |
secure the inert
gas blower |
secure the salt
water supply to the scrubber |
close the deck
isolating valve |
close the flue
gas isolating valve |
|
B |
An electrically "charged
mist" will be found in a __________. |
diesel engine cylinder |
cargo tank during
Butterworthing |
fuel tank vent
outlet |
flash evaporator
flash chamber |
|
C |
"Portable"
oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from
the __________. |
mucking supply
system |
potable water supply |
fire main |
inert gas scrubber |
|
D |
When water washing
epoxy-coated cargo tanks, the temperature and pressure of the wash water
should generally not exceed __________. |
160°F -180 psi |
212°F -940 psi |
180°F -180 psi |
120°F -120 psi |
|
D |
When using portable
tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when __________. |
the machine is
inside the tank |
the hose has been
partially drained |
a sailor is standing
by the machine |
the machine is
not inside the tank |
|
A |
The device used
for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces is called a __________. |
flame arrester |
safety valve |
flame relief valve |
flame stopper |
|
D |
Coast Guard Regulations
(46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be __________. |
provided for each
person onboard |
provided for all
personnel on watch |
readily accessible
to persons in the engine room |
All of the above. |
|
B |
In addition to
the lifejackets stowed in places that are readily accessible, lifejackets
must also be stowed at __________. |
each fire station |
each manned watch
station |
the mess room |
each lifeboat |
|
C |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats
shall be __________. |
constructed so
as to be completely spill proof |
emptied and gas
freed when the ship is dry-docked |
emptied and the
fuel changed at least once each year |
hydrostatically
tested at each inspection for certification |
|
B |
Which statement
is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged? |
They can be repaired
by a reliable seamstress. |
They should be
replaced. |
They can be used
for children. |
They must be tested
for buoyancy before being continued in use. |
|
A |
According to 46
CFR Part 76, which of the following statements is true regarding sprinkler
heads which are normally activated by the melting of a fusible link? |
Sprinkler heads
installed in the galley would have a higher melting point fusible link than
those installed in the living spaces. |
Sprinkler heads
installed in the galley and living spaces would have the same fusible link
melting point. |
None of the above;
sprinkler heads with fusible links are prohibited aboard U.S. flag vessels. |
Sprinkler heads
installed in the living spaces would have a higher melting point fusible
link than those installed in the galley. |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements represents the Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) applicable to
the equipment required in a fireman's outfit? |
The flashlight
must be of an approved three cell fireproof type. |
The assembled lifeline
shall have a minimum breaking strength of 1,500 pounds (683.8 kg). |
The combustible
gas indicator hose must be 100 feet (30.48 m) in length. |
All protective
clothing must be electrically non-conductive. |
|
D |
The lifeline which
is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________. |
made of steel or
bronze wire rope |
corrosion resistant |
not less than 50
feet in length |
All of the above. |
|
B |
The size of the
fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1 1/2 inches or __________. |
3 inches |
2 1/2 inches |
1 inch |
3 1/2 inches |
|
B |
Fire main outlet
valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall be __________. |
opened up and internally
examined at each Coast Guard biannual inspection for certification |
protected against
freezing or be fitted with cutout valves and drain valves |
behind glass or
a suitably marked enclosure |
All of the above. |
|
B |
Where multiple
fire pumps are installed, they may be used for other purposes, provided
that one pump is __________. |
capable of being
quickly connected to the fire main with a suitable pipe spool |
kept available
for use on the fire main at all times |
rated at or above
125 psi |
on line and in
operation at all times to the fire main |
|
B |
Coast Guard Regulations
(46 CFR) require how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to
be installed in the boiler room of an 8,000 horsepower steam propelled vessel? |
Eight |
Two |
Four |
Six |
|
A |
Coast Guard Regulations
(46 CFR) require how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to
be installed in the boiler room of an 8,000 horsepower steam propelled vessel? |
Two |
Four |
Six |
Eight |
|
D |
According to 46
CFR part 95, which of the listed fire extinguishers would be considered
hand portable/semi portable and capable of combating a class "B"
fire? |
2.5 gallons of
foam |
35 pounds of carbon
dioxide |
20 pounds of dry
chemical |
All of the above. |
|
B |
If a fixed fire
extinguishing system is installed on any vessel, it must be of a type approved
by the __________. |
National Fire Protection
Association |
U.S. Coast Guard |
Marine Fire Protection
Guild |
American Bureau
of Shipping |
|
D |
When fire detecting
systems, fire extinguishing systems, and associated equipment are not required
by the Coast Guard but are installed on a cargo vessel at the option of
the vessel's owner, they __________. |
need only to be
Coast Guard inspected and/or tested after their initial installation |
are exempt from
all tests and/or inspections as normally required by a Coast Guard inspector
if maintained in a suitable working condition and used only as a back up |
must be removed
from the vessel as the only systems allowed and approved are those listed
on the Coast Guard Certificate of Inspection |
must also be inspected
and/or tested in accordance with Coast Guard Regulations at each Inspection
for Certification |
|
D |
The empty weight
of a '100 pound' cylinder in a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system is 130
pounds. What is the minimum acceptable weight of the cylinder before recharging
would be required? |
210 lbs |
230 lbs |
200 lbs |
220 lbs |
|
C |
The carbon dioxide
cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the
protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is
not more than __________. |
600 pounds |
500 pounds |
300 pounds |
400 pounds |
|
C |
According to 46
CFR Part 95, which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the regulations
pertaining to the carbon dioxide cylinder room for a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing
system? |
The compartment
shall be clearly identified and marked. |
The compartment
must be properly ventilated. |
The door must be
kept unlocked. |
The ambient temperature
of the room should never be allowed to exceed 130 degrees Fahrenheit. |
|
D |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Part 95, in a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system, where provision
is made for the release of CO2 by the operation of a remote control, provision
is also to be made for releasing the CO2 from __________. |
the engineering
control station |
the bridge |
inside the engine
room |
the cylinder location |
|
B |
A safety outlet
is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent __________. |
rupture of cylinder
due to temperature increase |
over pressurization
of the CO2 discharge piping |
over pressurization
of the space being flooded |
flooding of a space
where personnel are present |
|
B |
How often must
fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems be inspected to confirm the cylinders
are within 10% of the stamped full charge weight? |
Biannually. |
Annually. |
Semiannually. |
Quarterly. |
|
D |
Coast Guard Regulations
(46 CFR Part 34) state that any space containing charged CO2 cylinders,
shall be properly ventilated to prevent a temperature higher than __________. |
150°F (66.6°C) |
160°F (71.1°C) |
140°F (60.0°C) |
130°F (54.5°C) |
|
D |
In accordance
with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following power sources
would be acceptable for the carbon dioxide warning alarm? |
The ship's general
distribution panel. |
The general alarm
power supply storage battery with a nominal potential of not less than 6
volts. |
The emergency lighting
and power system via storage batteries or emergency generator. |
The alarm shall
depend on no source of power other than the carbon dioxide. |
|
A |
According to 46
CFR Part 147, a cylinder used for storing CO2 in a fixed firefighting system
must be hydrostatically retested and restamped every __________. |
12 years |
8 years |
once in every calendar
year |
5 years |
|
D |
According to 46
CFR Part 147, a cylinder used for storing CO2 in a fixed firefighting system
must be hydrostatically retested and restamped every __________. |
calendar year |
5 years |
8 years |
12 years |
|
D |
Coast Guard Regulations
(46 CFR), require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo and miscellaneous
vessels to meet which of the following requirements? |
The deck foam system
must be completely independent of the fixed foam system. |
The foam producing
chemicals must be discharged and recharged every 2 years at the annual inspection. |
The foam producing
chemicals must be discharged and recharged every year at annual inspection. |
The supply of foam
producing materials must be sufficient to operate the equipment for at least
3 minutes for spaces other than tanks. |
|
B |
When the machinery
spaces on a tank vessel are protected by a fixed foam extinguishing system,
what additional protection is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR)
outside of the machinery space entrance? |
One semi-portable
CO2 extinguisher |
Two fire hydrants
with hose, nozzle and applicator |
Ten cubic feet
of sand of with scoop |
One portable foam
extinguisher |
|
A |
Coast Guard Regulations
(46 CFR) state that where reasonable and practicable, the steam pressure
in a steam smothering system should be at least __________. |
100 psi |
150 psi |
125 psi |
equal to one-half
boiler working pressure |
|
B |
The Federal Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) that apply to ships are enforced by the
__________. |
Corps of Engineers |
U.S. Coast Guard |
State Pollution
Board |
Port Authority |
|
C |
The Exclusive
Economic Zone extends from the baseline of territorial sea of the United
States seaward __________. |
300 miles |
100 miles |
200 miles |
53 miles |
|
C |
Each completed
page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by the __________. |
Chief Mate |
Chief Engineer |
Master |
engineer on watch |
|
B |
According to Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"
placard is required on all __________. |
U.S. vessels less
than 26 feet in length |
U.S. Vessels 26
feet or more in length |
Foreign vessels
when engaged in noncommercial service |
foreign vessels
not in U.S. navigable waters |
|
C |
Exemption or partial
exemption from compliance with any requirement in the Oil or Hazardous Material
Pollution Prevention Regulations prescribed in (33 CFR 155) may be granted
by the __________. |
Captain of the
Port |
OCMI in the vessel's
home port |
Commandant of the
Coast Guard |
vessel's Chief
Engineer |
|
C |
Some Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), only apply to "new ships." Under
these regulations, a new ship is a ship __________. |
having undergone
a major conversion and has been completed before December 31, 1979 |
the delivery of
which is on or after June 10, 1975 |
for which the building
contract has been placed after December 31, 1975 |
having undergone
a major conversion for which the contract was placed between June 30, 1974
and December 31, 1975 |
|
D |
If a vessel moored
at a U.S. terminal does not comply with Coast Guard Pollution Prevention
Regulations (33 CFR), it may be detained by the __________. |
state pollution
board |
Inspector General |
local port authority |
Captain of the
Port |
|
A |
Where are "prohibited
oil spaces" specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 33 CFR
Subchapter O? |
Part 155 |
Part 151 |
Part 154 |
Part 156 |
|
C |
The term "oil",
as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), means __________. |
crude oil only |
liquefied petroleum
gas |
petroleum oil of
any kind |
fuel oil only |
|
D |
The term "oily
mixture", as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)
includes __________. |
oily ballast water |
bilge slops |
sludge |
All of the above. |
|
D |
The term "discharge",
as it applies to the pollution regulations, means __________. |
spilling |
leaking |
dumping |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Ocean vessel Ballast
Water Management Regulations can be found in __________. |
33 CFR Part 110 |
46 CFR Part 35 |
33 CFR Part 151 |
46 CFR Part 56 |
|
D |
To be in compliance
with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following
procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning
from an international voyage? |
Prior to discharging
ballast water in U.S. waters, the vessel must perform a complete ballast
water exchange in an area no less than 100 nautical miles from any shoreline. |
Ballast water may
only be discharged overboard through an approved oily water separator. |
Ballast water may
only be discharged overboard if the vessel is underway. |
Prior to entering
U.S. waters, a vessel may use any Coast Guard approved alternative environmentally
sound method of BWM. |
|
D |
To be in compliance
with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following
procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning
from an international voyage? |
Retain ballast
water on board the vessel. |
Prior to discharging
ballast water in U.S. waters, the vessel must perform a complete ballast
water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any shoreline. |
Prior to entering
U.S. waters, use any Coast Guard approved alternative environmentally
sound method of BWM. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
To be in compliance
with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following
procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning
from an international voyage? |
Retain ballast
water onboard the vessel. |
Prior to discharging
ballast water in U.S. waters, the vessel must perform a complete ballast
water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any shoreline. |
Prior to entering
U.S. waters, use any Coast Guard approved alternative environmentally sound
method of BWM. |
All of the above. |
|
B |
According to Code
of Federal Regulations (33 CFR 151), who is responsible for insuring that
a ship is not operated unless a waste management plan is utilized? |
Vessel operating
company |
Vessel's Master |
Vessel owner |
U.S. Coast Guard |
|
B |
According to Code
of Federal Regulations 33, a vessel operating upon the Great Lakes shall
__________. |
have its forward
most frame members sufficiently stiffened to prevent ice damage |
not discharge any
garbage into these waters |
be required to
re-distill all water used for cooling or condensate systems |
be certified for
inland use only |
|
D |
When off loading
garbage to another ship, your records must identify that ship by name and
__________. |
operator's name
of record |
home port |
master's name |
official number |
|
C |
Which CFR regulation
identifies the placard to be posted on the vessel describing the proper
disposal of garbage? |
33 CFR Part 157.37 |
33 CFR Part 159.51 |
33 CFR Part 151.59 |
33 CFR Part 157.100 |
|
D |
On U.S. inspected
ships, oily water separating equipment, bilge alarms, and bilge monitors
must be approved under __________. |
18 CFR 201 |
33 CFR 151 |
46 CFR 41 |
46 CFR 162 |
|
B |
A new ocean going
ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose
of its bilge slops by __________. |
pumping them into
a settling tank for separation before pumping the oily water residue
overboard |
holding its slops
onboard until they can be discharged to a shore side reception facility |
circulating them
through the lube oil purifier to remove water and debris |
holding its slops
onboard until they can be pumped into the city sewer system |
|
C |
Bilges may be
pumped __________. |
on the outgoing
tide |
overboard after
dark |
overboard through
an oily water separator |
anytime in an emergency,
i.e. main engine lube oil failure |
|
A |
On a newly constructed
oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons, equipped with an approved 100 ppm
oily water separator, and bilge monitor, the bilge monitor continuous record
must be __________. |
maintained onboard
for not less than 3 years |
kept readily available
for 1 year only |
detached monthly
for enclosure in the Oil Record Book |
initialed after
each engineering watch by the watch engineer |
|
D |
Which of the following
operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a
tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations? |
The discharge overboard
in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces. |
The loading or
unloading of any or all oil cargo. |
Any internal transfer
of oil cargo during a voyage. |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Pollution Prevention
Regulations (33 CFR) specify that the person-in-charge of bunkering is responsible
for the __________. |
quality of fuel
received |
quantity of fuel
received |
communications
with terminal operator |
vessel draft |
|
D |
According to the
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to
or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed the __________. |
valve inspection
record |
certificate of
inspection |
oil record book |
declaration of
inspection |
|
C |
According to the
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who makes the final decision
of when oil transfer may begin? |
The captain of
the port |
The senior deck
officer present |
The designated
person-in-charge |
Any local Coast
Guard representative |
|
A |
The Coast Guard
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require a meeting before starting
any oil transfer operation. That meeting must be between the __________. |
person-in-charge
of the oil transfer operations on the vessel and the person-in-charge of
the oil transfer operations at the facility |
master of the vessel
and the terminal superintendent |
terminal supervisor,
Master of the vessel and the Coast Guard |
master and chief
engineer of the vessel and the terminal supervisor |
|
C |
According to the
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who is to make the final decision
of when oil transfer may begin? |
Captain of the
Port officer |
The senior deck
officer present |
Designated persons-in-charge
of vessel and facility |
Any local Coast
Guard representative |
|
C |
No person may
serve as the person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one
vessel at a time __________. |
unless the vessels
are moored clear of all docks |
under any circumstances |
unless authorized
by the Captain of the Port |
unless radio communication
is set up between the vessels |
|
B |
According to 46
CFR, Part 30, a Grade "E" petroleum product is __________. |
kerosene |
a combustible liquid |
a flammable liquid |
light fuel oil |
|
C |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR), no vessel can come alongside or remain alongside
a tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade cargo without having
the permission of the __________. |
USCG captain of
the port |
tank ship owner |
officer-in-charge
of the vessel which is loading |
terminal manager |
|
A |
Which of the circumstances
listed is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V
to MARPOL 73/78? |
A person falls
overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for flotation. |
Garbage accumulation
onboard has exceeded storage space. |
The garbage to
be discharged will sink. |
The destination
port or terminal cannot receive garbage. |
|
A |
According to MARPOL,
the definition of graywater includes drainage from __________. |
dishwashers |
hospital sinks |
toilets |
cargo spaces |
|
C |
According to MARPOL,
the definition of medical waste does NOT include __________. |
dialysis wastes |
pathological wastes |
expired pharmaceuticals |
sharps |
|
C |
Which of the following
is NOT a MARPOL, Annex V, Special Area? |
Mediterranean Sea |
Black Sea |
Great Lakes |
Red Sea |
|
C |
According to MARPOL,
the definition of oil does NOT include __________. |
oil refuse |
crude oil |
cooking oil |
sludge |
|
D |
When entering
the pump room of a tank vessel to rescue an unconscious person, which items
of the equipment listed are you required to be using? |
Protective clothing
and explosion-proof flashlight |
Combustible gas
indicator and canister gas mask |
Flame safety lamp
and resuscitation equipment |
Self-contained
breathing apparatus and lifelines |
|
B |
High concentrations
of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can
__________. |
cause involuntary
skeletal muscle contractions |
paralyze your breathing
system |
cause eye inflammation |
cause dizziness |
|
D |
What is a major
advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus? |
Facial hair will
not affect the mask performance. |
The equipment is
lightweight and the wearer can work without difficulty in confined spaces. |
The average operating
time is over an hour. |
The speed with
which it can be put into operation is around 45 seconds. |
|
D |
While donning
the positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus, you discover that
the air cylinder pressure gage and the regulator pressure gage differ from
each other by 500 psi. Which of the listed action should you consider as
appropriate? |
Replace the defective
gages with a new pair from the spare parts inventory. |
Replace the air
cylinder. |
Take the average
of the two gages as the correct pressure. |
Assume that the
lower gage reading is correct. |
|
D |
The safe and efficient
use of the facepiece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly
influenced by __________. |
the maintenance
of the face piece |
the stowing of
the face piece |
the donning of
the face piece |
All of the above. |
|
A |
Prior to entering
a compartment containing an atmosphere potentially dangerous to life or
health, you should don an approved breathing apparatus. Which of the listed
devices would be suitable? |
An SCBA |
A canister-type
gas mask. |
An emergency escape
hood |
All of the above. |
|
D |
You are instructing
new crew members in engine room safety and first aid. You use an example
of "One crew member, while working in the engine room, finds another
crew member lying unconscious on the deck." What would you instruct
the crew do first when faced with the rescue of this crew member? |
Roll the victim
over carefully and check the extent of the injury. |
Make sure they
have all the proper equipment ready. |
Determine the extent
of danger and their ability to cope with it. |
Make sure they
summon help immediately. |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements is TRUE concerning life jackets? |
Buoyant vests may
be substituted for lifejackets. |
Lifejackets are
designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. |
Lifejackets must
always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly. |
Lightly stained
or faded lifejackets will fail in the water and should not be used. |
|
D |
Kapok lifejackets
require proper care and should NOT be __________. |
stowed near open
flame or where smoking is permitted |
used as seats,
pillows, or foot rests |
left on open decks |
All of the above. |
|
D |
You are involved
in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate
your life jacket __________. |
upon entering the
helicopter |
prior to reaching
the water |
after reaching
the water, but prior to exiting the helicopter |
after exiting clear
of the helicopter |
|
D |
A rigid lifesaving
device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water
is defined as a __________. |
life raft |
life cushion |
life preserver |
buoyant apparatus |
|
C |
Which of the following
is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit? |
Chemical protection
face shield |
Approved work vest |
Self-contained
breathing apparatus |
5 cell approved
flashlight |
|
C |
Life jackets should
be stowed in __________. |
the forepeaks |
the pump room |
readily accessible
spaces |
locked watertight
containers |
|
C |
An immersion suit
should be equipped with a/an __________. |
air bottle for
breathing |
whistle and handheld
flare |
whistle, strobe
light, and reflective tape |
whistle, handheld
flare, and sea dye marker |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements concerning immersion suits is correct? |
Suits are not required
to automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in the water. |
The immersion suit
seals in all body heat and provides protection against hypothermia for weeks. |
The suit is flameproof
and provides protection to the wearer while swimming through burning oil. |
The suits provide
for limited body movement such as walking, climbing a ladder, and picking
up small objects like a pencil. |
|
B |
The external flotation
bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated __________. |
before you enter
the water |
after you enter
the water |
after one hour
in the water |
after you notice
that your suit is losing buoyancy |
|
D |
If for any reason
it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the
crew members to __________. |
separate from each
other as this will increase the chances of being rescued |
get away from the
area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel |
immediately head
for the nearest land |
remain together
in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known
position |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning an immersion suit and its use? |
Only a light layer
of clothing may be worn underneath. |
They provide sufficient
flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a lifejacket. |
They should be
tight fitting. |
A tear in the suit
will not appreciably reduce its value. |
|
B |
The purpose of
the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft is to __________. |
stow rainwater;
these four spaces will not take up valuable space |
act as stabilizers
by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated and in an upright
position |
hold the freshwater
required by regulation to be provided in the raft when packed |
none of the above |
|
A |
All personnel
should be familiar with the lifeboats __________. |
boarding and operating
procedures |
maintenance schedule |
navigational systems |
fuel consumption
rates |
|
B |
Why is an upper
limit switch used when raising the lifeboat? |
To stop the lifeboat
from being lowered. |
To prevent the
davits from pulling up against the stops. |
To assist in cranking
in the lifeboat. |
To keep the tricing
lines from releasing or getting tangled. |
|
B |
Which of the lifeboat
parts listed must be painted bright red? |
Hatches |
Releasing gear
lever |
Boat hooks |
Compass |
|
D |
Which of the following
must be carried out in order to manually launch an inflatable life raft
not designed for float-free operation? |
Cutting the container
securing straps. |
Attach the weak
link to the vessel. |
Simply breaking
the weak link. |
Depress the hydrostatic
release button. |
|
B |
Immediately after
abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look
for __________. |
land |
survivors in the
water |
bad weather |
food and water |
|
D |
In order to retrieve
an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________. |
lifelines |
righting strap |
sea anchor |
towing bridle |
|
D |
The air spaces
in the floor of an inflatable raft will provide protection against __________. |
tears in the outside
skin of bottom of the raft |
warm water temperatures |
cold water temperatures |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Puncture leaks
in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped
by using __________. |
a tube patch |
sail twine and
vulcanizing kit |
sealing clamps |
repair tape |
|
B |
When using the
rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be
__________. |
passed around so
all can drink |
poured overboard
because of salt washed off the canopy |
saved to be used
at a later time |
used to boil food |
|
C |
Most lifeboats
are equipped with __________. |
straight rudders |
contra-guide rudders |
unbalanced rudders |
balanced rudders |
|
B |
When abandoning
ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________. |
go only with the
direction of the sea |
stay in the immediate
area |
go one direction
until fuel runs out |
plot course for
nearest land |
|
A |
A self-righting
survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel
__________. |
are seated with
seatbelts on and doors shut |
are seated with
seatbelts on and doors open |
are to shift to
one side to right it |
escape from the
craft |
|
D |
An 'on-load' release
system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________. |
only when the load
is taken off the cable |
only there is a
load on the cable |
only when activated
by the controls at the lowering station |
at any time |
|
C |
If the survival
craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be __________. |
loaded more on
port side to forward |
loaded equally
on both sides with more forward |
loaded equally
on both sides with more aft |
allowed to sit
anywhere |
|
C |
When a rescue
vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of
the survival craft should __________. |
tie up to the rescue
vessel |
transfer only those
personnel who are not seasick |
wait for calmer
weather before transferring personnel |
transfer all personnel
immediately |
|
A |
Using a sea anchor
with the survival craft will __________. |
reduce your drift
rate |
keep the survival
craft from turning over |
aid in recovering
the survival craft |
increase your visibility |
|
B |
With the sprinkler
system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will
be protected from __________. |
a nuclear environment |
a fire and toxic
environment |
a hurricane |
a drop greater
than ten feet |
|
B |
Provided every
effort is used to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration,
how long is it normally possible to survive in a survival craft without
stored quantities of water? |
Up to 3 days |
Up to 14 days |
Up to 25 days |
Up to 35 days |
|
A |
Which of the following
conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares
and rockets? |
Only when there
is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels. |
At half-hour intervals. |
At one hour intervals. |
Immediately upon
abandoning the vessel. |
|
D |
Each vessel in
ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________. |
must be stowed
in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel sinks |
must be stowed
where it is readily accessible for testing and use |
is a device that
transmits a radio signal |
All of the above. |
|
D |
You have abandoned
ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon
apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________. |
switch the EPIRB
to the homing signal mode |
use the voice transmission
capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft |
turn on the strobe
light on the top of the EPIRB |
use visual distress
signals in conjunction with the EPIRB |
|
A |
If flammable vapors
have penetrated a gas free space, which of the following actions would be
the most hazardous to perform? |
Opening switches
in the space to de-energize circuits. |
Closing switches
adjacent to the space to operate vent fans. |
Leaving electrical
circuits energized in the space. |
Securing all power
to the space from a remote location. |
|
C |
The airborne concentrations
of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers
may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________. |
exposure limits |
concentration limits |
threshold limit
values |
substance limit
values |
|
A |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR 30), a flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure
of 8-1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80°F or below, is a grade __________. |
C |
E |
D |
A |
|
D |
The explosive
range of a mixture of flammable vapors and air lies between the lower and
upper explosive limits. These limits are specified as a percentage of __________. |
the lower limit
of explosibility of the mixture |
the temperature
of the flash point |
oxygen present
to support combustion |
flammable vapor
by volume in air |
|
C |
The worst atmospheric
condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is __________. |
full sun with high
winds |
heavy rain |
nearly calm, clear
nights or early morning |
gusty winds with
rain |
|
B |
Which of the following
conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration
above the upper explosive limit? |
The mixture is
too lean to burn. |
The mixture is
too rich to burn. |
The vapor is about
to explode. |
Conditions are
perfect for combustion. |
|
A |
A liquid having
a flash point above 80°F, but below 150°F, would be termed a grade __________. |
D-combustible liquid |
C-flammable liquid |
A-flammable liquid |
E-combustible liquid |
|
D |
The volatility
of a liquid is the tendency of a liquid to __________. |
explode |
ignite |
asphyxiate |
vaporize |
|
A |
The highest concentration
of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to
health, is termed the __________. |
threshold limit
value |
tolerance point |
odor threshold |
vapor pressure |
|
B |
By definition,
combustible liquids are liquids which __________. |
give off flammable
vapors at or below 80°F |
have a flash point
of 80°F or higher |
are highly volatile
with a flash point of 0°F |
spontaneously ignite |
|
C |
The explosive
range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture
of __________. |
20 percent methane
by volume is too lean to burn |
3 percent methane
by volume is too rich to burn |
5 percent methane
by volume will give a reading of 100 percent L.E.L. on a combustible gas
indicator |
10 percent methane
by volume is too rich to burn |
|
B |
Ethylene oxide
has a lower explosive limit of 2.0% and an upper explosive limit of 100%
by volume in air. This means __________. |
there is no possible
ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too lean to burn |
there is no possible
ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too rich to burn |
an ethylene oxide
spill always results in an explosion |
a 2.0% concentration
of ethylene oxide in air would give a reading of 2.0% on a combustible gas
indicator |
|
A |
Bunker "C"
is classified as a grade __________. |
E liquid |
A liquid |
D liquid |
B liquid |
|
A |
Which of the following
is classified as a grade "E" combustible liquid? |
Bunker "C" |
Very light naphtha |
Benzene |
Most commercial
gasoline |
|
A |
Which of the petroleum
products listed has a flash point below 150°F? |
Light fuel oils |
Road oils |
Asphalt |
Lubricating oils |
|
B |
If diesel fuel
vapors in a compartment are considered to be within the flammable range
__________. |
the vapor air mixture
is too rich to burn |
an explosion may
occur if a source of ignition is present |
the upper explosive
limit has been exceeded |
the vapor air mixture
is too lean to burn |
|
B |
Which of the listed
pumping arrangements will be hazardous when two similar centrifugal pumps
are used to discharge a cargo of flammable liquid? |
Both pumps operating
at the same speed and taking suction from a common line. |
Each pump operating
at a different pressure and discharging into a common line. |
Each pump operating
at a different speed and taking suction from a common line. |
Both pumps operating
at the same speed and discharging into a common line. |
|
C |
When preparing
to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should __________. |
lift the relief
valve by hand to check its operation |
have a standby
pump running with the discharge valve closed |
check for gland
leakage and any fire hazard |
draw a small quantity
of liquid to prime the pump |
|
B |
Individuals who
have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to hydrogen sulfide can
tolerate __________. |
unusually large
concentrations of hydrogen sulfide |
smaller than normal
concentrations of hydrogen sulfide |
moderate concentrations
of hydrogen sulfide without the usual reactions |
longer exposure
to hydrogen sulfide concentrations |
|
D |
Which of the following
precautions are necessary when using any electrical equipment in a hazardous
location, such as a cargo pump room? |
Each compartment
where flammable gas is expected to accumulate is to be closed and secured. |
The adjacent compartments
are to be gas free. |
The pump room is
to be gas free. |
All of the above. |
|
C |
When pumping sour
crude, which gas should be tested for prior to entering the cargo pump room
to repair a leaking pump? |
Benzene |
Carbon monoxide |
Hydrogen sulfide |
Tetraethyl lead |
|
B |
High concentrations
of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can
__________. |
cause involuntary
skeletal muscle contractions |
paralyze your breathing
system |
cause eye inflammation |
cause dizziness |
|
A |
Petroleum vapors
are dangerous __________. |
at all times due
to their toxicity |
only if the oxygen
concentration is below 16 percent |
only if the vapor
is between the upper and lower explosive limit |
only if the source
of the vapor is above its flash point |
|
A |
Tankers carrying
cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed
at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector alarms sounds,
this means __________. |
a flammable vapor
concentration exists at the sample point, but it is too lean to burn |
an explosion is
about to take place |
the detector sensor
is sampling a space where the cargo vapor concentration is 30 percent by
volume |
the detector is
sampling a space in which 30 percent of the atmosphere is explosive |
|
D |
An LNG carrier
has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in
the __________. |
cargo handling
rooms |
barrier spaces |
boiler burner supply
piping |
All of the above. |
|
B |
Span gas is used
aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________. |
detect leaks in
cargo piping |
calibrate the gas
leak detectors |
odorize the cargo |
inert the barrier
spaces |
|
A |
If a cargo tank
has not been certified as gas free, __________. |
breathing apparatus
should always be used |
a man may work
safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather, as vapors are less volatile |
breathing apparatus
would not be necessary in an emergency as you would only be in the tank
a short time |
entry without a
breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank since petroleum vapors
are heavier than air |
|
D |
Which of the following
conditions must be met before a marine chemist will issue a certificate
for a compartment to be "safe for workers, safe for hot work"? |
The residues in
the compartment must not be capable of producing any toxic gas under existing
atmospheric conditions. |
The concentration
of combustible gases in the compartment's atmosphere must be less than 10
percent of the lower flammable limit. |
The toxic gases
in the compartment's atmosphere must be within permissible concentrations. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
The atmosphere
of an empty fuel tank is tested and designated "gas free". Which
of the following statements is correct concerning this tank? |
The gas free status
is good as long as the initial conditions remain unchanged. |
The concentration
of flammable gas in the compartment is less than 10% of the lower flammable
limit. |
The tank should
be frequently retested. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
A fuel tank on
a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being "Safe for Men"
and "Safe for fire." This condition may change if___________. |
the ambient temperature
changes |
a product leaks
into the certified tank |
muck, sludge, or
scale in the tank give off additional vapors |
All of the above. |
|
B |
A fuel tank is
considered to be gas free when the tank is __________. |
inerted with carbon
dioxide for 24 hours |
free of all dangerous
concentrations of flammable or toxic gases |
thoroughly ventilated
for at least 24 hours |
free of most flammable
gas concentrations |
|
A |
The physical data
term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates if the vapor
formed by a material is lighter or heavier than air is called __________. |
vapor density |
vapor pressure |
vapor gravity |
vapor level |
|
C |
The physical data
term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) describing whether a liquid
is lighter or heavier than water is __________. |
solubility |
flotation point |
specific gravity |
viscosity |
|
B |
If the chemical
material is a mixture, what must the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identify? |
Paints or coatings
that are safe to use with it. |
The name of each
hazardous ingredient. |
Other similar mixtures
of liquids, solids or gases. |
None of the above. |
|
A |
A specific document
which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards,
required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal,
and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________. |
Material Safety
Data Sheet |
Physical/Chemical
Characteristics Document |
Hazardous Chemical
Information Sheet |
Hazardous Chemical
Loading Document |
|
B |
What term is listed
on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to describe a chemical that can produce
life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazard ? |
Recommended toxicity |
High toxicity |
Low toxicity |
Moderate toxicity |
|
A |
A reproductive
health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), that can cause
genetic changes in sperm or egg cells is called a __________. |
mutagen |
carcinogen |
teratogen |
cryogenic |
|
B |
A health hazard
term listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction
in some people after repeated exposure is __________. |
skin contact hazard |
sensitizer |
pyrophoric hazard |
oxidizer |
|
A |
Which of the following
machinery space operations is required to be logged in the Oil Record Book? |
Ballasting or cleaning
of fuel oil tanks. |
Changing out sprayer
plates to adjust for steam demand. |
Daily inspection
of engine room bilges. |
Shifting suction
of main fuel pump to reserve fuel oil tank. |
|
D |
The Oil Record
Book must be maintained onboard the vessel for __________. |
6 months and then
submitted to the nearest Marine Safety Office for review |
the duration of
the ship's active employment |
an annual inspection |
not less than 3
years and be readily available for inspection |
|
D |
The sections of
an Oil Record Book preceding the log pages contain a __________. |
detailed listing
of all organizations to call in the event of an accidental oil spill |
complete classification
of hazardous materials |
damage control
plan for isolating fire main valves |
list of machinery
space operation items |
|
A |
Which ship must
maintain Part II (Cargo/Ballast Operations) of the Oil Record Book? |
A non-tanker that
carries more than 200 cubic meters of oil in bulk. |
A ship of 200 gross
tons or above, other than an oil tanker. |
A ship of 150 gross
tons or above, other than an oil tanker. |
An oil tanker of
100 gross tons or above. |
|
C |
With regards to
a ship's Oil Record Book, an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above must
maintain entries in __________. |
Part I only |
Part II only |
Both Part I and
Part II |
Part III |
|
C |
When making entries
in the Oil Record Book, all quantities should be __________. |
verified by the
Chief Engineer |
recorded as cubic
meters with a conversion to barrels |
consistently recorded
through the Oil Record Book in one specified unit (gallons, barrels, cubic
meters) |
recorded directly
from the oil discharge monitor |
|
B |
If the overflow
tank high-level alarm sounds while the fuel oil tanks are being topped off,
the engineer should __________. |
close the overflow
tank filling valve |
stop the fuel oil
pumping operation |
reduce the fuel
oil pumping rate |
close the static
leg filling valve |
|
C |
During oil transfer
operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer
procedures are being followed? |
The senior able
seaman |
The tankerman |
The designated
person in charge |
The oiler |
|
C |
During fueling
operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however,
it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should
__________. |
secure operations
until the exact type of oil is determined |
make an entry in
the oil record book to that effect |
notify the Coast
Guard |
All of the above. |
|
B |
To avoid excessive
pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should __________. |
fill one tank at
a time |
reduce the loading
rate when topping off |
close the tank
filling valves quickly |
top off all tanks
at the same time |
|
A |
After taking on
fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and __________. |
drained into buckets
or fuel tanks |
drained over the
side and washed out |
draped over the
fantail to dry out |
drained into the
bilges and washed out |
|
D |
Which of the following
methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark? |
Using a cargo hose
with a built in electrical bonding wire. |
Placing an insulating
flange or a section of nonconducting hose in the hose setup. |
Connecting a bonding
wire between the shore side piping and the vessel. |
All of the above. |
|
A |
After fuel tanks
have been filled and bunkers completed, which of the listed procedures should
be followed next? |
The tanks should
be sounded to verify levels. |
The pressure-vacuum
relief valve should be reset. |
The tanks should
be made seaworthy to prevent contamination. |
The tanks should
be marked with a bull stamp on the manifold filling valve. |
|
B |
During topping
off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the
__________. |
terminal operator |
person in charge |
chief engineer |
master |
|
B |
When a fuel oil
tank is being topped off during bunkering operations, the tank valve should
be closed __________. |
rapidly to prevent
overflow |
after the shore
pumps are stopped |
to prevent gas
from escaping through the pressure-vacuum relief valves |
slowly to prevent
surge stresses |
|
B |
Coast Guard regulations
require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed __________. |
quad-annually only |
annually only |
biennially only |
only one every
five years |
|
C |
Which of the following
is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan? |
list of individuals
required to respond |
plan exercises |
reporting requirements |
removal equipment
list |
|
B |
When amendments
are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must
be submitted to the Coast Guard __________. |
six months prior
to the end of the approval period |
and cannot be implemented
without approval |
one month prior
to the anniversary date of the plan |
and can be implemented
without immediate approval as long as final approval is received within
six months of submittal |
|
C |
Which of the following
is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard
Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? |
a list of agencies
or officials of Coastal State administrations responsible for receiving
and processing incident reports |
a list of agencies
or officials in regularly visited ports |
a list of personnel
duty assignments |
a list which specifies
who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority
in which they must be notified |
|
C |
In accordance
with domestic regulations, which of the following statements is true regarding
U.S. flag vessel response plans for the carriage of oil? |
All domestic regulations
regarding emergency response contingency plans are superseded by MARPOL,
the international pollution prevention standard. |
The owner of a
U.S. Flag vessel engaged in the carriage of oil regardless of size and route
does not need to prepare and submit a contingency plan for emergency response
in the event of a spill. |
A shipboard oil
pollution emergency response plan which includes, but is not limited to,
shipboard spill mitigation procedures must be submitted to, and approved
by, the United States Coast Guard by the vessel operating company prior
to the vessel engaging in trade. |
Oil is considered
regulated cargo and all vessels engaged in the domestic oil trade are issued
a Certificate of Inspection by the USCG. The issuance of this document satisfies
all USCG requirements for vessel emergency contingency response plans. |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements are true regarding U.S. flag vessel response plans for the carriage
of oil? |
Oil is considered
regulated cargo and all vessels engaged in the domestic oil trade are issued
a Certificate of Inspection by the USCG. The issuance of this document satisfies
all USCG requirements for vessel emergency contingency response plans. |
A shipboard oil
pollution emergency response plan which includes, but is not limited to,
shipboard spill mitigation procedures that must be submitted to the United
States Coast Guard for approval. |
All domestic regulations
regarding emergency response contingency plans are superseded by MARPOL,
the international pollution prevention standard. |
The owner of a
U.S. Flag vessel engaged in the carriage of oil regardless of size and route
does not need to prepare and submit a contingency plan for emergency response
in the event of a spill. |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements are true regarding U.S. flag vessel response plans for the carriage
of oil? |
Oil is considered
regulated cargo and all vessels engaged in the domestic oil trade are issued
a Certificate of Inspection by the USCG. The issuance of this document satisfies
all USCG requirements for vessel emergency contingency response plans. |
A shipboard oil
pollution emergency response plan which includes, but is not limited to,
shipboard spill mitigation procedures that must be submitted to the United
States Coast Guard for approval. |
All domestic regulations
regarding emergency response contingency plans are superseded by MARPOL,
the international pollution prevention standard. |
The owner of a
U.S. Flag vessel engaged in the carriage of oil regardless of size and route
does not need to prepare and submit a contingency plan for emergency response
in the event of a spill. |
|
D |
The most common
type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of __________. |
skimmers |
straw |
chemical dispersants |
booms |
|
B |
In cleaning up
an oil spill, the use of chemical agents would __________. |
remove the oil
from the water |
disperse or dissolve
the oil in the water |
not affect the
oil |
absorb the oil
for easy removal |
|
C |
In cleaning up
an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example
of which type of oil removal? |
Chemical agent
removal |
Mechanical removal |
Absorbent removal |
None of the above |
|
B |
Victual waste
is __________. |
the final waste
product of a manufacturing process |
any garbage that
comes from food or food provisions |
the final discharge
of sewage treatment plants |
the resultant sludge
that is collected after water washing a boiler |
|
A |
When dumping garbage
into the sea, other than special areas, __________. |
records must be
provided and maintained for two years |
no record is required
if dumping is carried out more than 25 miles offshore and there is no included
plastic material |
an entry into the
official log book must be made |
the U.S. Coast
Guard must be notified for each occurrence |
|
B |
The amount of
garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship
and stated in __________. |
cubic yards convertible
to long tons |
cubic meters |
weight in either
kilogram or pounds |
barrels, measured
in 55 gallon drums |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at
sea? |
The vessel may
discharge disinfected and comminuted sewage into the sea, from an approved
system, only if the vessel is more than three nautical miles from the nearest
land. |
The vessel must
have an approved sewage plant. |
The vessel may
discharge sewage into the sea, from an approved system which is not
comminuted or disinfected,
only if the vessel is more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land. |
All of the above. |
|
B |
You are the Chief
Engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage.
While bunkering lube oil in port, the hose fails and oil is spilled into
the harbor. After securing the transfer, how would you proceed? |
Perform post incident
drug and alcohol testing on engine crew members not involved in the
transfer operation. |
Set out a boom
around the ship to control the spread of the oil. |
Call the local
news outlets and report the oil spill. |
Fill out a Declaration
of Inspection for the transfer operation. |
|
D |
The term "arrival
ballast" refers to __________. |
brackish water
ballast |
dirty ballast |
any form of sea
water ballast |
clean ballast |
|
C |
In order to prevent
the unnecessary release of hydrocarbons to atmosphere, when taking on departure
ballast, one method used is to __________. |
use blowers to
purge the inert gas from tanks |
completely open
the mast riser valve |
allow entering
ballast to displace the inert gas to a tank where cargo is currently being
discharged |
manually open the
pressure/vacuum device |
|
C |
When discharging
clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined
by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting
must __________. |
be stopped until
the oil can settle out, then resumed at a slower discharge rate |
be completely discharged
in order to load |
be terminated automatically |
be completed only
after "load on top" has been completed |
|
A |
A segregated ballast
system is a system where __________. |
all ballast lines,
tanks, and pumps are independent of those used for oil |
ballast is taken
on and discharged through a separate main deck riser |
all ballast is
processed through the oily water separator |
ballast and cargo
tanks are separated by cofferdams |
|
A |
What would be
the minimum distance from any shoreline that a vessel must be located before
it is permitted to perform a complete ballast water exchange to be in compliance
with
U.S. Federal Ballast Water
Management Regulations? |
200 nautical miles |
50 nautical miles |
12 nautical miles |
100 nautical miles |
|
C |
A gurgling noise
is heard from within a cargo tank when discharging cargo, this would indicate
that the __________. |
tank foot valve
is partially clogged |
tank liquid is
too viscous |
pump is sucking
air |
pump discharge
pressure is excessive |
|
C |
The term "load
on top" is used on many crude oil carriers, is to provide a method
for __________. |
loading ballast
by gravity |
calculating the
ullage in the cargo tanks |
the loading of
new cargo into a decanted slop tank as a procedure to minimize pollution |
calculating the
ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank |
|
A |
Pressure-vacuum
relief valves, as used on tank vessels, are usually set to operate at two
points, __________. |
14.2 psia; 2 psig |
26 inches of vacuum;
5 psig |
any two points
above atmospheric pressure |
any two points
below atmospheric pressure |
|
C |
Pressure-vacuum
relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be kept in good working
order to prevent __________. |
entry of burning
substances |
escape of explosive
vapors |
damage to tank
boundaries |
oil spillage on
deck |
|
A |
Which of the following
pressures represents the normal pressure setting of a pressure-vacuum relief
valve as normally found on tank vessels? |
16.7 psia -14.2
psia |
20.7 psia -14.6
psia |
18.7 psia -14.4
psia |
22.7 psia -14.7
psia |
|
A |
Tank stripping
is accomplished more effectively by using a __________. |
a positive displacement
pump |
a multistage centrifugal
pump |
the load on top
system |
the water displacement
method |
|
B |
In order for you
to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed
must be __________. |
full of cargo |
inerted |
opened to the atmosphere
for ventilation |
gas free |
|
B |
Both crude oil
washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from
tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________. |
a higher pressure
jet |
the solvent effect
of the crude oil |
a higher temperature |
none of the above. |
|
C |
Bottom mounted
crude oil washing machines are primarily used for __________. |
washing the entire
bottom of the tank |
the majority of
crude oil tank cleaning |
areas where direct
impingement from deck mounted machines cannot be satisfactorily reached |
all vertical surfaces |
|
D |
When tanks have
been washed with crude oil, and ballasted without being water rinsed, the
ballast is referred to as __________. |
clean ballast |
dedicated ballast |
segregated ballast |
dirty ballast |
|
D |
Crude oil washing
has which of the following disadvantages? |
Allows buildup
of cargo residue on tank walls. |
When completed,
more cargo is retained aboard the ship than with water washing. |
Its cleaning ability
is very poor. |
It requires following
additional work procedures and close attention by the crew during cargo
operations. |
|
C |
On a tanker vessel,
what is the required combined capacity of the inert gas generating system
as compared to the total capacity of all the cargo pumps which can be operated
simultaneously? |
75 (%) |
100 (%) |
125 (%) |
50 (%) |
|
C |
Inert gas systems
fitted on tank vessels must be fitted with an alarm to give an audible and
visual warning when the oxygen content of the inert gas exceeds __________. |
16% by volume |
4% by volume |
8% by volume |
12% by volume |
|
D |
Which of the following
methods is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo
tanks? |
Inert gas compressor |
Exhaust gas pressure |
Natural aspiration |
High capacity fan |
|
C |
Which of the following
represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved
by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank
washing? |
12 (%) |
6 (%) |
8 (%) |
10 (%) |
|
D |
The primary function
of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to __________. |
produce 100% oxygen
free gas |
produce a gas of
100% pure nitrogen |
generate a high
oxygen content gas |
supply conditioned
gas with reduced oxygen content |
|
C |
Which of the following
conditions will result in an automatic shut down of the flue gas inert gas
system? |
High temperature
gas entering the scrubber. |
Low temperature
water leaving the scrubber seal. |
High temperature
gas discharge from inert gas blowers. |
Oxygen content
of the gas falls below 5%. |
|
B |
When securing
the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be __________. |
close the flue
gas isolating valve |
secure the salt
water supply to the scrubber |
close the deck
isolating valve |
secure the inert
gas blower |
|
D |
Coast Guard Regulations
(46 CFR), require electric hand lamps, approved for use in fuel tanks, to
be battery powered and __________. |
moisture proof |
flame resistant |
corrosion resistant |
explosion proof |
|
B |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats
shall be __________. |
constructed so
as to be completely spill proof |
emptied and the
fuel changed at least once each year |
emptied and gas
freed when the ship is dry-docked |
hydrostatically
tested at each inspection for certification |
|
D |
Coast Guard Regulations
(46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be __________. |
readily accessible
to persons in the engine room |
provided for each
person onboard |
provided for all
personnel on watch |
All of the above. |
|
A |
What is the minimum
period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus
is required to last? |
30 minutes |
45 minutes |
10 minutes |
15 minutes |
|
D |
The device used
for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces is called a __________. |
flame relief valve |
flame stopper |
safety valve |
flame arrester |
|
D |
According to 46
CFR part 95, which of the listed fire extinguishers would be considered
hand portable/semi portable and capable of combating a class "B"
fire? |
35 pounds of carbon
dioxide |
20 pounds of dry
chemical |
2.5 gallons of
foam |
All of the above. |
|
C |
A fire main system
must have enough fire hydrants for each accessible space to be reached with
__________. |
a water spray or
solid stream |
at least 25 psi
delivered pressure |
at least two spray
patterns of water |
a low velocity
spray applicator |
|
B |
The size of the
fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1 1/2 inches or __________. |
1 inch |
2 1/2 inches |
3 inches |
3 1/2 inches |
|
C |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the firefighting devices listed is
not permitted for use in the engine room? |
Semi-portable CO2
fire extinguishers |
All high velocity
fog applicators |
All smooth bore
firefighting nozzles |
Any rubber lined
hose |
|
A |
Fire doors are
released by a/an __________. |
method that automatically
releases the door in the event of a disruption of control system power |
spring-loaded catch
that automatically lifts to release the door in the event of the presence
of a fire |
pneumatic heat
sensor |
hydraulic directional
valve that automatically releases the door in the event of a disruption
to the control power system |
|
D |
Before making
any welded repairs to the internals of a vessel's fuel tank in a U.S. port,
the tank must be examined by __________. |
the insurance underwriter |
the master of the
vessel |
the chief engineer |
a certified marine
chemist |
|
C |
A fireman's outfit
carried onboard cargo vessels, must have a __________. |
canister-type gas
mask |
fresh-air breathing
apparatus |
self-contained
breathing apparatus |
combustible gas
indicator |
|
B |
What Coast Guard
Regulations apply to the equipment of a fireman's outfit? |
The assembled lifeline
shall have a breaking strength of at least 2,500 pounds. |
The helmet shall
provide effective protection against impact. |
The boots and gloves
shall be fire retardant and water resistant. |
All protective
clothing must be electrically nonconducting. |
|
C |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a 10 pound dry chemical extinguisher is equivalent
to a __________. |
1 3/4 gallon foam |
12 gallon foam |
15 pound CO2 fire
extinguisher |
35 pound CO2 fire
extinguisher |
|
A |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR), portable and semi-portable fire extinguishers
are classified by a letter and numeric designator. The letter designation
indicates __________. |
the type of fire
the unit could be expected to extinguish |
the type of extinguishing
agent |
the size of the
extinguisher |
whether this type
of extinguisher is to be used on deck or in machinery spaces |
|
A |
Coast Guard Regulations
(46 CFR) require how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to
be installed in the boiler room of an 8,000 horsepower steam propelled vessel? |
Two |
Four |
Six |
Eight |
|
C |
If the empty weight
of a B-III semi-portable CO2 fire extinguisher is 35 lbs (15.9 kg), what
is its full charged weight? |
55 lbs (24.9 kg) |
47 lbs (21.3 kg) |
70 lbs (31.7 kg) |
50 lbs (22.7 kg) |
|
C |
The relief valve
on a fire pump is set at 25 psi above the pressure necessary to maintain
the required fire hose streams, or. |
50 psi |
75 psi |
125 psi |
150 psi |
|
B |
The discharge
side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________. |
strainer |
pressure gage |
check valve |
gate valve |
|
A |
Fire main shore
connections on a 1,000 gross ton cargo vessel are required by Coast Guard
Regulations (46 CFR) to be provided with __________. |
suitable adapters
to mate shore fire line couplings |
connections for
2 inch fire hose only |
at least two shore
connections on each side of the vessel |
exterior "Y"
connections for 1 1/2 inch fire hose only |
|
A |
When a cylinder
is used to store CO2 in a fixed firefighting system and is retested in accordance
with regulations, all flexible connections between cylinders and distribution
piping must be renewed or tested at __________. |
1000 psi |
1500 psi |
2750 psi |
300 psi |
|
D |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following statements is true concerning
fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems? |
The cylinders which
are fitted with flexible or bent siphon tubes may be inclined not more than
30° from the vertical. |
All cylinders used
for storing carbon dioxide shall be fabricated, tested, and marked in accordance
with the applicable section of the American Welding Society code. |
The space containing
the cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to preclude an ambient
temperature in excess of 100°F (37.78°C) |
The cylinders may
be located within the space protected provided the system consists of not
more than 300 pounds (136.1 kg) of carbon dioxide. |
|
D |
Carbon dioxide
cylinders must be recharged when the cylinder charge weight is less than
what percent of the stamped full weight charge? |
85 (%) |
95 (%) |
80 (%) |
90 (%) |
|
B |
During the annual
servicing of your ship's fixed CO2 system, you receive the report shown
in the illustration. Which CO2 cylinders require recharging? Illustration
SF-0014 |
109 |
103 and 108 |
105 |
All of the above. |
|
B |
According to 46
CFR Part 95, which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the regulations
pertaining to the carbon dioxide cylinder room for a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing
system? |
The ambient temperature
of the room should never be allowed to exceed 130 degrees
Fahrenheit. |
The door must be
kept unlocked. |
The compartment
must be properly ventilated. |
The compartment
shall be clearly identified and marked. |
|
C |
The carbon dioxide
cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the
protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is
not more than __________. |
400 pounds |
600 pounds |
300 pounds |
500 pounds |
|
A |
When the machinery
spaces on a tank vessel are protected by a fixed foam extinguishing system,
what additional protection is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR)
outside of the machinery space entrance? |
Two fire hydrants
with hose, nozzle and applicator |
Ten cubic feet
of sand of with scoop |
One semi-portable
CO2 extinguisher |
One portable foam
extinguisher |
|
C |
According to 46
CFR's, a fixed foam system aboard a tank vessel constructed in 1968, must
be designed to supply foam for a minimum of __________. |
15 minutes |
7 minutes |
3 minutes |
12 minutes |
|
C |
Coast Guard Regulations
(46 CFR), require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo and miscellaneous
vessels to meet which of the following requirements? |
The deck foam system
must be completely independent of the fixed foam system. |
The foam producing
chemicals must be discharged and recharged every year at annual inspection. |
The supply of foam
producing materials must be sufficient to operate the equipment for at least
3 minutes for spaces other than tanks. |
The foam producing
chemicals must be discharged and recharged every 2 years at the annual inspection. |
|
C |
When fire detecting
systems, fire extinguishing systems, and associated equipment are not required
by the Coast Guard but are installed on a cargo vessel at the option of
the vessel's owner, they __________. |
need only to be
Coast Guard inspected and/or tested after their initial installation |
must be removed
from the vessel as the only systems allowed and approved are those listed
on the Coast Guard Certificate of Inspection |
must also be inspected
and/or tested in accordance with Coast Guard Regulations at each Inspection
for Certification |
are exempt from
all tests and/or inspections as normally required by a Coast Guard inspector
if maintained in a suitable working condition and used only as a back up |
|
C |
If a fixed fire
extinguishing system is installed on any vessel, it must be of a type approved
by the __________. |
American Bureau
of Shipping |
Marine Fire Protection
Guild |
U.S. Coast Guard |
National Fire Protection
Association |
|
A |
Coast Guard Regulations
(46 CFR) state that where reasonable and practicable, the steam pressure
in a steam smothering system should be at least __________. |
100 psi |
150 psi |
125 psi |
equal to one-half
boiler working pressure |
|
A |
According to Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"
placard is required on all __________. |
U.S. Vessels 26
feet or more in length |
U.S. vessels less
than 26 feet in length |
foreign vessels
not in U.S. navigable waters |
Foreign vessels
when engaged in noncommercial service |
|
A |
The Federal Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) that apply to ships are enforced by the
__________. |
U.S. Coast Guard |
Port Authority |
Corps of Engineers |
State Pollution
Board |
|
D |
The Exclusive
Economic Zone extends from the baseline of territorial sea of the United
States seaward __________. |
100 miles |
53 miles |
300 miles |
200 miles |
|
D |
The term "discharge",
as it applies to the pollution regulations, means __________. |
spilling |
leaking |
dumping |
All of the above. |
|
D |
The term "oily
mixture", as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)
includes __________. |
oily ballast water |
bilge slops |
sludge |
All of the above. |
|
D |
The term "oil",
as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), means __________. |
crude oil only |
fuel oil only |
liquefied petroleum
gas |
petroleum oil of
any kind |
|
A |
Where are "prohibited
oil spaces" specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 33 CFR
Subchapter O? |
Part 155 |
Part 151 |
Part 156 |
Part 154 |
|
D |
If a vessel moored
at a U.S. terminal does not comply with Coast Guard Pollution Prevention
Regulations (33 CFR), it may be detained by the __________. |
state pollution
board |
Inspector General |
local port authority |
Captain of the
Port |
|
A |
Exemption or partial
exemption from compliance with any requirement in the Oil or Hazardous Material
Pollution Prevention Regulations prescribed in (33 CFR 155) may be granted
by the __________. |
Commandant of the
Coast Guard |
Captain of the
Port |
vessel's Chief
Engineer |
OCMI in the vessel's
home port |
|
D |
According to 33
CFR's, the approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan
expires after __________. |
two years |
one year |
four years |
five years |
|
A |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (CFR 33), all ships are required to prepare, submit, and
maintain a(an) __________. |
shipboard oil pollution
emergency plan |
synthetic plastic
discharge plan |
vapor recovery
procedures plan |
oil discharge plan |
|
C |
On a newly constructed
oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons, equipped with an approved 100 ppm
oily water separator, and bilge monitor, the bilge monitor continuous record
must be __________. |
initialed after
each engineering watch by the watch engineer |
detached monthly
for enclosure in the Oil Record Book |
maintained onboard
for not less than 3 years |
kept readily available
for 1 year only |
|
C |
Bilges may be
pumped __________. |
on the outgoing
tide |
overboard after
dark |
overboard through
an oily water separator |
anytime in an emergency,
i.e. main engine lube oil failure |
|
A |
A new ocean going
ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose
of its bilge slops by __________. |
holding its slops
onboard until they can be discharged to a shore side reception facility |
holding its slops
onboard until they can be pumped into the city sewer system |
circulating them
through the lube oil purifier to remove water and debris |
pumping them into
a settling tank for separation before pumping the oily water residue overboard |
|
B |
On U.S. inspected
ships, oily water separating equipment, bilge alarms, and bilge monitors
must be approved under __________. |
33 CFR 151 |
46 CFR 162 |
18 CFR 201 |
46 CFR 41 |
|
D |
Which of the following
operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a
tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations? |
The discharge overboard
in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces. |
Any internal transfer
of oil cargo during a voyage. |
The loading or
unloading of any or all oil cargo. |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Which of the following
statements concerning oil transfer, related equipment, tests and inspections
is true? |
A 6" inside
diameter nonmetallic oil transfer hose having a small slash penetrating
the hose reinforcement may remain in service if there is no visible internal
deterioration. |
Each pressure gauge
in the system must indicate a reading that is within 5% of the actual system
pressure. |
Each nonmetallic
oil transfer hose, larger than a 3" inside diameter must be inspected,
and tested annually. |
All of the above. |
|
B |
In accordance
with Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), each pressure gage used in fuel transfer
operations must be calibrated to indicate pressure within what percent of
the actual pressure? |
3 (%) |
10 (%) |
7 (%) |
5 (%) |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning oil transfer connections? |
Any permanently
connected flange coupling must have a bolt in each hole. |
Approved quick-connect
couplings may be used. |
When a temporary
connection utilizes an American National Standard Institute (ANSI) standard
flange, a bolt in every other hole is acceptable if at least four bolts
are used. |
All of the above. |
|
B |
According to Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the minimum number of bolts permitted in
an ANSI standard flange on an oil hose is __________. |
three |
four |
six |
nine |
|
C |
According to Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), you are required to test cargo discharge
piping every __________. |
24 months |
6 months |
12 months |
18 months |
|
B |
Pollution Prevention
Regulations (33 CFR Part 156), state that no person may transfer oil to
or from a vessel unless __________. |
an oil containment
boom is available for immediate use |
all parts of the
transfer system have been properly lined up |
oil residue has
been drained from all hoses |
a representative
sample has been taken from the oil being received |
|
B |
The Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require that no person may transfer oil
to or from a vessel unless. |
an oil containment
boom is ready for immediate use |
flange couplings
are properly bolted |
scuppers and drains
are unplugged |
bonding cables
are installed on all tanks |
|
D |
According to the
Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer
oil to or from a vessel unless __________. |
the discharge containment
is in place |
each part of the
transfer system not necessary for the transfer operation is securely blanked
or shut off |
each scupper or
drain in a discharge containment system is closed |
All of the above. |
|
A |
A tank vessel
with an oil cargo capacity of 5000 barrels is required by regulations to
have a fixed container, or enclosed deck area under or around each oil loading
manifold and each oil transfer connection point. The capacity of these containment
areas is based upon __________. |
inside transfer
hose diameter or loading arm nominal pipe size diameter |
number of cargo
oil tank vents, overflows and fill pipe connections |
cargo oil service
pressure |
All of the above. |
|
D |
According to the
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), which of the following statements
is correct regarding the fuel oil containment under the oil filling connection
section? |
Containment drains
are prohibited from leading to a common tank. |
All containment
drains must lead to a common, fixed drain tank. |
The containment
drains must have quick-closing valves to be closed in the event of leakage
or failure of any part of the transfer connection. |
The containment
may be fixed or portable depending upon the age of the vessel. |
|
C |
The tanks used
for oily waste on a new ocean going cargo ship of 6000 gross tons must meet
certain requirements for isolation between oil and bilge systems. These
requirements are set forth in. |
33 CFR 151.23(a)2 |
33 CFR 155.370(b)2 |
46 CFR 56.50-50(h) |
46 CFR 74.15-10(b) |
|
C |
The Pollution
Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state that a ship's oily bilge slops may
be pumped in port only if the __________. |
local port authority
gives permission |
engineer on watch
has signed the declaration of inspection |
discharge is led
to a reception facility |
local port authority
has completed the required pollution inspection |
|
C |
An oceangoing
ship of 6000 gross tons or above must be fitted with a standard discharge
shore connection with dimensions outlined in Pollution Prevention Regulations
(33 CFR) or be substituted with a __________. |
clip-on flange
suitable for service pressure of 4 kg/cm2 |
portable connection
using a four bolt pattern |
portable adapter
that meets the same specification outlined in 33 CFR, Subchapter "O" |
suitable discharge
shore connection |
|
D |
No person may
serve as the person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one
vessel at a time __________. |
under any circumstances |
unless radio communication
is set up between the vessels |
unless the vessels
are moored clear of all docks |
unless authorized
by the Captain of the Port |
|
D |
According to the
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who is to make the final decision
of when oil transfer may begin? |
Any local Coast
Guard representative |
Captain of the
Port officer |
The senior deck
officer present |
Designated persons-in-charge
of vessel and facility |
|
C |
The Coast Guard
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require a meeting before starting
any oil transfer operation. That meeting must be between the __________. |
master of the vessel
and the terminal superintendent |
terminal supervisor,
Master of the vessel and the Coast Guard |
person-in-charge
of the oil transfer operations on the vessel and the person-in-charge of
the oil transfer operations at the facility |
master and chief
engineer of the vessel and the terminal supervisor |
|
A |
According to the
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who makes the final decision
of when oil transfer may begin? |
The designated
person-in-charge |
The senior deck
officer present |
The captain of
the |
Any local Coast
Guard representative |
|
B |
According to the
Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to
or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed the __________. |
valve inspection
record |
declaration of
inspection |
oil record book |
certificate of
inspection |
|
C |
Pollution Prevention
Regulations (33 CFR) specify that the person-in-charge of bunkering is responsible
for the __________. |
quality of fuel
received |
vessel draft |
communications
with terminal operator |
quantity of fuel
received |
|
B |
To be in compliance
with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following
procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning
from an international voyage? |
Ballast water may
only be discharged overboard through an approved oily water separator. |
Prior to entering
U.S. waters, a vessel may use any Coast Guard approved alternative environmentally
sound method of BWM. |
Prior to discharging
ballast water in U.S. waters, the vessel must perform a complete ballast
water exchange in an area no less than 100 nautical miles from any shoreline. |
Ballast water may
only be discharged overboard if the vessel is underway. |
|
C |
Ocean vessel Ballast
Water Management Regulations can be found in __________. |
46 CFR Part 35 |
33 CFR Part 110 |
33 CFR Part 151 |
46 CFR Part 56 |
|
B |
Which CFR regulation
identifies the placard to be posted on the vessel describing the proper
disposal of garbage? |
33 CFR Part 157.37 |
33 CFR Part 151.59 |
33 CFR Part 159.51 |
33 CFR Part 157.100 |
|
B |
A vessel sailing
through the specific special areas may discharge or dispose of |
fairly dense material
that will sink, i.e. metal cans or glass bottles at anytime |
victual waste when
at least 12 nautical miles from shore |
incinerated ash
at anytime |
absolutely no garbage
at anytime |
|
A |
When off loading
garbage to another ship, your records must identify that ship by name and
__________. |
official number |
home port |
master's name |
operator's name
of record |
|
A |
According to 33
CFR, records of garbage disposal are required to be maintained __________. |
for a minimum of
two years |
until the end of
each voyage |
for a minimum of
one year |
until each quadrennial
Coast Guard inspection |
|
C |
According to Code
of Federal Regulations (33 Part 151), which of the following statements
is accurate concerning the discharge of garbage? |
The discharge of
dunnage, lining, and packing materials that do not float is prohibited within
25 nautical miles of the nearest land. |
The discharge of
plastic or garbage mixed with plastic into any waters is permitted. |
The discharge of
all garbage is prohibited in the navigable waters of the United States and
in all other waters within three nautical miles of the nearest land. |
All of the above. |
|
B |
According to Code
of Federal Regulations (33 CFR 151), who is responsible for insuring that
a ship is not operated unless a waste management plan is utilized? |
U.S. Coast Guard |
Vessel's Master |
Vessel owner |
Vessel operating
company |
|
C |
According to Coast
Guard regulations (33 CFR), which of the following describes items pertinent
to waste management plans? |
If the vessel is
over forty feet in length, the plan shall be submitted in writing to the
Officer In Charge of Marine Inspection. |
The plan will include
the responsibilities of all personnel required to assist in the collection
of garbage onboard the vessel. |
A description of
the vessel's procedure for collecting, processing, storing and discharging
garbage shall be provided. |
No official plan
in writing is required; however, all established routines shall continue
to be adhered to and followed. |
|
A |
Among other restrictions,
an oil tanker may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo
tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless the vessel is __________. |
discharging at
an instantaneous rate of oil content not exceeding 30 liters per nautical
mile |
is within "Special
Areas" defined in Regulation 1 (10) of Annex I to MARPOL 73/78 |
at anchor or stopped |
more than 12 nautical
miles from the nearest land |
|
D |
For all loading
operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with a means in which the
vessel's designated person-in-charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel,
insuring immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow,
etc. This means of control may be activated __________. |
pneumatically or
mechanically |
electrically |
via a communications
device used for no other purpose |
All of the above. |
|
A |
The emergency
shutdown requirements of Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 155)
apply to __________. |
cargo transfer
systems |
condensate pumps |
induced draft fans |
air compressors |
|
B |
If an emergency
pump control is used as the emergency shutdown on a tank vessel, it must
stop the flow of oil through __________. |
the main deck manifold |
the pump |
the facility |
a means that is
not dependant on electrical power |
|
B |
Where in the Code
of Federal Regulations will you find information about the compatibility
of cargoes? |
Title 33 Subchapter
O |
Title 46 Subchapter
O |
Title 46 Subchapter
N |
Title 46 Subchapter
D |
|
A |
According to 46
CFR, Part 30, a Grade "E" petroleum product is __________. |
a combustible liquid |
light fuel oil |
a flammable liquid |
kerosene |
|
D |
According to Coast
Guard Regulations (46 CFR), no vessel can come alongside or remain alongside
a tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade cargo without having
the permission of the __________. |
USCG captain of
the port |
tank ship owner |
terminal manager |
officer-in-charge
of the vessel which is loading |
|
A |
Your passenger
vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage.
What should be your ship's standard operating procedures regarding watertight
hatches and doors? |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept closed during navigation except
when necessarily opened for working of the vessel, and in such cases they
shall always be ready to be immediately closed. |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept open during navigation to facilitate
crew movement and in all cases they shall always be ready to be immediately
closed. |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept closed when the vessel is anchored
except when necessarily opened for working of the vessel, and in such cases
they shall always be ready to be immediately closed. |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept open during normal operation,
except during adverse weather when they shall be closed. |
|
D |
Your passenger
vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage.
What should be your ship's standard operating procedures regarding the inspection
of watertight hatches and doors? |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads that may be opened at sea shall be periodically
inspected at least once in each day while the vessel is navigated to be
assured that they are in proper operating condition. When the voyage exceeds
one week in duration, these doors shall be operated before the vessel leaves
port. All such doors shall be operated daily. |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads that may be opened at sea shall be periodically
inspected at least once in each month while the vessel is navigated to be
assured that they are in proper operating condition. When the voyage exceeds
two week in duration, these doors shall be operated before the vessel leaves
port. All such doors shall be operated weekly. |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads that may be opened at sea shall be overhauled
at least once in each month to be assured that they are in proper operating
condition. When the voyage exceeds one week in duration, these doors shall
be operated before the vessel leaves port. All such doors shall be operated
daily. |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads that may be opened at sea shall be periodically
inspected at least once in each week while the vessel is navigated to be
assured that they are in proper operating condition. When the voyage exceeds
one week in duration, these doors shall be operated before the vessel leaves
port. All such doors shall be operated daily. |
|
D |
Your passenger
vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage.
What actions must be taken to verify that your vessel was in compliance
with stability requirements? |
The master shall
determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements
in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of
Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter
an attestation statement of the verification in the ship's stability book.
The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. |
Ensure that the
vessel owners has determined that the vessel complies with all applicable
stability requirements in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability
letter, Certificate of Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case
may be, and then enter an attestation statement of the verification in the
log book. The vessel may not depart until it is in compliance with these
requirements. |
The master shall
determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements
in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of
Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be and send a message
verifying the condition of the vessel to the vessel's owners. The vessel
may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. |
The master shall
determine that the vessel complies with all applicable stability requirements
in the vessel's trim and stability book, stability letter, Certificate of
Inspection, and Load Line Certificate, as the case may be, and then enter
an attestation statement of the verification in the log book. The vessel
may not depart until it is in compliance with these requirements. |
|
D |
As Chief Engineer
on a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage, you
and the First Engineer are planning a welding job in the cargo hold. How
would you ensure that all safety precautions are reviewed prior to starting
this job? |
Have the First
Engineer complete a Hot Work permit after completing the job. |
Have the First
Engineer review the SOLAS manual prior to starting the job. |
Have the First
Engineer verbally review fire safety with crew working on the job. |
Have the First
Engineer complete a Hot Work permit prior to starting the job. |
|
C |
Your vessel, of
more than 1000 gross tons on an international voyage is crossing the Atlantic
Ocean. The second engineer injures his hand while working on a pump. The
injury requires more than basic first aid. As the senior officer onboard
how would you proceed? |
Read an outdated
copy of the Ships Medicine Chest reference book found onboard to help treat
the injury. |
Seek help from
fellow crew members who have no medical training. |
Contact the medical
advisory service contracted by your company to speak with a shore side doctor
and address the injury as directed by the doctor. |
Call your company
port engineer and ask for help. |
|
B |
An oxygen indicator
will detect __________. |
the presence of
harmful amounts of carbon monoxide |
an oxygen deficiency
in a space |
concentrations
of explosive gas |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Which of the following
statements is true regarding oxygen indicators? |
The instrument
is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with
no delay. |
A cotton filter
placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument
when
exposed to strongly acidic
gases. |
Prolonged exposure
to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator. |
All of the above. |
|
A |
Which of the following
statement is true concerning the meter shown in the illustration? Illustration
SF-0003 |
As gas samples
are drawn into the instrument they are burned within the case. |
If there is any
liquid in the tank being tested, the sampling tube should be submerged in
it to obtain the most accurate reading. |
If the meter moves
to the extreme right side of the scale and stays there, the atmosphere is
safe. |
Meter readings
are obtained instantaneously upon release of the squeeze bulb. |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning the meter shown in the illustration? Illustration
SF-0003 |
As gas samples
are drawn into the instrument they are burned within the case. |
If there is any
liquid in the tank being tested, the sampling tube should be submerged in
it to obtain the most accurate reading. |
If the meter moves
to the extreme right side of the scale and stays there, the atmosphere is
safe. |
Meter readings
are obtained instantaneously upon release of the squeeze bulb. |
|
B |
When taking samples
of a tank atmosphere with an explosimeter, you should __________. |
avoid sampling
in the vicinity of deep webs to prevent false readings |
sample as much
of the tank as possible, especially at the bottom |
only sample around
the deck longitudinals as gases are lighter than air |
sample only near
the ullage openings as all vapors accumulate there |
|
D |
The instrument
shown in the illustration has not been used for several weeks. Prior to
its use for testing a compartment, you should __________. Illustration SF-0003 |
check or renew
the batteries |
purge the meter |
adjust the meter
pointer to zero |
All of the above. |
|
C |
As First Engineer,
you are standing by the #3 deep fuel oil storage tank as a crew member is
working inside the tank. Before entering the tank, the atmosphere was checked
and determined safe for men to work. While standing by you notice that the
crew member is not moving. After attempts to communicate with the downed
mariner receive no response, what action would you take? |
Send another another
crew member, without a SCBA on, into the tank to retrieve the unconscious
crew member. |
Send two additional
crew members, without a SCBA on, into the tank to retrieve the unconscious
crew member. |
Have additional
crew members don a SCBA to enter the tank, to aid in the removal of the
unconscious crew member. |
Call the Captain
and ask him how you should proceed. |
|
D |
Seawater may be
used for drinking water __________. |
at a maximum rate
of two ounces per day |
after mixing with
an equal quantity of fresh water |
if gather during
or immediately after a hard rain |
under no circumstance |
|
A |
Which fire extinguisher
is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures? |
Foam |
Carbon dioxide |
Halon 1211 |
Dry chemical |
|
B |
A hand portable
CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________. |
if applied in connection
with foam |
if applied promptly |
to prevent rekindling |
if attempts to
extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed |
|
A |
The state of charge
of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily
determined by __________. |
visual inspection
of the pressure gage |
removing the lid
and checking the level of dry chemical |
weighing the cylinder |
weighing the CO2
cartridge |
|
A |
In a cartridge-operated
dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated,
the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________. |
with the squeeze-grip
on/off nozzle at the end of the hose |
by turning the
activating handle on the bottom of the container |
by squeezing the
control valve carrying handle |
with the squeeze-grip
trigger on top of the container |
|
B |
You are fighting
a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The
discharge should be directed __________. |
to bank off a bulkhead
onto the fire |
at the seat of
the fire, starting near the edge |
at the main body
of the fire |
over the top of
the fire |
|
A |
When fighting
an oil or gasoline fire, which of the listed fire extinguishing agents should
NEVER be sprayed directly into the fire? |
Dry chemical |
Steam smothering |
Low velocity fog |
High velocity fog |
|
D |
When fighting
a fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher you should always __________. |
bounce the chemical
onto the fire from adjacent structural members |
attack the fire
from the leeward side |
spray the chemical
across the tops of the flames |
direct the stream
of chemical toward the base of the fire |
|
D |
Which of the listed
methods is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel
if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher? |
Move the discharge
stream back and forth in a rapid sweeping motion. |
Approach the fire
from the windward side. |
Direct the extinguisher
discharge at the base of the fire. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
To operate a portable
foam fire extinguisher, you should __________. |
open the hand wheel |
puncture the CO2
cartridge |
pull the pin and
squeeze the trigger |
turn it upside
down and bump the deck |
|
C |
The passive safety
device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its
over pressurization is called a __________. |
safety valve |
control head |
rupture disc |
relief valve |
|
C |
Portable Halon
extinguishers used on a class "B" fire should be directed __________. |
in short, quick
bursts |
at the top of the
flames |
at the base of
the fire near the edge |
toward the upwind
side of the fire |
|
B |
To operate a carbon
dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration,
you would __________. Illustration SF-0008 |
pull pin, open
valve, and pull up on release lever |
pull pin and open
valve |
open valve, pull
pin, and pull up on release lever |
open valve and
pull pin |
|
B |
Annual servicing
of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes __________. |
hydrostatic testing
of the cylinder |
weighing the cylinder
and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the charge |
inspecting the
pressure gauge to ensure the needle is within operating range |
discharging, cleaning
inside, and recharging |
|
B |
A squeeze-grip
type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged.
It should be __________. |
replaced in its
proper location if weight loss is no more than 25% |
labeled empty and
recharged as soon as possible |
replaced in its
proper location regardless of weight |
replaced in its
proper location if weight loss is no more than 15% |
|
A |
If a fire broke
out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then
proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers? |
CO2 |
Soda acid |
Foam |
Dry chemical |
|
A |
You have just
extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the engine room with a 15
pound CO2 extinguisher. Which of the listed dangers should you now be preparing
to handle? |
Reflashing of the
fire. |
Sudden stoppage
of the main engine. |
Complete lack of
oxygen in the engine room. |
Chemical reaction
of the CO2 and oil forming carbonic acid. |
|
B |
The fire extinguishing
equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________. Illustration
SF-0009 |
CO2 hose reel system |
dry chemical hose
reel system |
Halon 1301 hose
reel system |
light water hose
reel system |
|
B |
The fire extinguishing
agent dispensed by the unit shown in the illustration is produced by __________.
Illustration SF-0020 |
educting air through "D"
and mixing it with water in chamber "E" |
educting mechanical
foam through "D" and mixing it with water and air in chamber "E" |
educting chemical
foam through "D" and mixing it with water in chamber "E" |
educting air through "C",
mechanical foam through "D", and mixing them with water in chamber "E" |
|
D |
Properly stowed
fire hose is either faked or rolled into a rack with the __________. |
male end attached
to the adjacent fire hydrant |
male and female
ends connected together to prevent damage |
female end available
to be quickly connected to the hydrant |
nozzle end arranged
to be easily run out to the fire |
|
A |
If the threads
and gasket of a fire hose coupling are in good condition, the minimum mechanical
advantage necessary for making a watertight connection to another hose coupling,
can be developed with __________. |
your hands |
a hose wrench |
a coupling wrench |
a monkey wrench |
|
C |
Fire hoses located
at protected fire stations, must always be __________. |
capped on the ends
for protection |
supplied with a
smooth bore nozzle |
connected to the
fire hydrant |
open to the air
to prevent rot |
|
D |
To properly maintain
fire hoses, you should __________. |
keep exterior linings
damp by periodic wash downs |
keep them partially
filled with fresh water |
keep them rolled
tightly in the rack with female coupling protected |
thoroughly drain
them after each use |
|
C |
If a fire hose
is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle shut off, the fire
hose will __________. |
become elongated
by 125% |
burst under pressure |
remain motionless |
lash about violently |
|
B |
When the cotton
cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a
solution of mild soapy fresh water and __________. |
paint thinner |
a soft-bristled
brush |
a wire brush |
cornstarch |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose? |
Backup hose man
should be positioned wherever the hose makes a significant turn. |
A 2-1/2 inch hose
should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzle man and two hosemen. |
Hose nozzle thrust
increases with an increase in hose pressure. |
The fire hose should
be partially charged before deploying the hose from the hydrant. |
|
A |
There is always
a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge
of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this
loss in pressure? |
Friction in the
piping and valves |
Leaky pump suction
valve |
Wear in the hydrant |
Leaky pilot valve |
|
A |
A low velocity
fog applicator is held in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The
applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________. |
a spring-loaded
catch |
a locknut |
a keeper screw |
water pressure |
|
D |
The all-purpose,
or combination nozzle is capable by itself of producing a solid stream of
water __________. |
only |
and low velocity
water fog |
and high and low
velocity water fog |
and high velocity
water fog |
|
D |
A person manning
a fire hose under pressure with an all-purpose nozzle attached, should be
aware that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the handle position
is changed from __________. |
low velocity to
high velocity fog |
solid stream to
fog |
fog to shut |
shut to solid stream |
|
C |
The physical difference
of the water spray patterns developed by the high velocity tip and low velocity
applicator is due to __________. |
the type of fire
being fought |
a difference in
water pressure |
the method of breaking
up the water stream |
the capacity of
the fire pump |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements is correct regarding the fog applicators used in conjunction
with the combination nozzle? |
On container ships,
an applicator termed a bayonet or piercing type utilizes a sharp tip for
cutting and penetrating the metal skin of a container. |
In machinery spaces,
the applicators should be 10 to 12 feet in length to insure all portions
of the bilge can be effectively reached. |
All cargo and miscellaneous
vessels must be equipped with high velocity fog applicators for use with
the required combination nozzle at each station. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Low velocity water
fog is used in firefighting as a __________. |
smothering agent |
barrier against
radiant heat |
cooling agent |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Water applied
as a 'fog' can be more effective than water applied as a 'solid stream',
because __________. |
a given amount
of water can absorb more heat when it is in the form of fog |
it reduces the
total amount of water that must be pumped into the ship to fight a given
fire |
it does not have
to hit the seat of fire to be effective |
of all of the above |
|
B |
An extinguishing
agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a
heat and smoke screen is __________. |
dry chemical |
water fog |
carbon dioxide |
Halon 1301 |
|
B |
The source of
power for the CO2 discharge alarm siren is obtained from __________. |
the emergency power
and lighting bus |
the flow of CO2
under pressure |
the general alarm
24 volt DC bus |
All of the above. |
|
B |
After extinguishing
a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next immediate action
is for the space to be __________. |
opened and burned
material removed |
left closed with
ventilation off until all boundaries are cool |
checked for the
proper oxygen level |
opened and doused
with water to prevent reflash |
|
B |
When fighting
a machinery space fire, you should operate a fixed CO2 system by opening
the control valve to the space protected and __________. |
visually checking
to see that CO2 is discharging through the piping |
operating a separate
control to release CO2 |
modulating the
proper amount of CO2 from individual bottles |
listening for the
sound of the warning siren |
|
C |
What would be
the most probable cause for a high pressure alarm to be activated in a Low
Pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system? |
An excessive amount
of insulation has been installed on the tank and piping. |
An air leak has
developed in the tank. |
The tank cooling
system has malfunctioned. |
The pilot cylinder
discharge valve is leaking. |
|
C |
When a ship's
low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote
location, what determines the quantity of CO2 that will be released into
the selected compartment? |
The discharge of
CO2 will continue until the temperature of the space returns to ambient
conditions. |
The number of discharge
nozzles in the space will determine the quantity released. |
A timer mechanism
controls the discharge valve and is preset for the space being activated. |
The CO2 tank is
divided into separate sections designated for each protected space. |
|
B |
If the alarm provided
in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine room, you should __________. |
immediately assist
the fixed system by discharging all portable units as well |
leave the space
immediately |
start the fire
pump |
make certain that
the CO2 starts flowing into the space |
|
D |
Why is it essential
to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine
room, as quickly as possible? |
The fire may warp
the CO2 piping. |
To keep the fire
from spreading through the bulkheads. |
Carbon dioxide
takes a long time to disperse to all portions of a space. |
Updraft from the
fire tends to carry the CO2 away. |
|
D |
When re-entering
an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, the investigating team should
initially __________. |
attempt to operate
propulsion machinery |
enter from the
lowest possible level |
leave the access
door partially open |
enter from the
highest level with breathing apparatus |
|
B |
The primary function
of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________. |
instantaneously
extinguish the fire which triggered it |
limit the spread
of the fire and control the amount of heat produced |
protect people
in the areas which have had sprinkler heads installed |
alert the crew
to the fire |
|
D |
In the fire main
system, quick cleaning strainers are located at the __________. |
pump discharge |
pump suctions |
hose nozzle |
fire hydrants |
|
D |
The fire main
system should be flushed with fresh water whenever possible to __________. |
prevent corrosion
of valve stems |
identify loose
pipe joints |
eliminate cracking
of fire hose linings |
help destroy marine
growth |
|
C |
While fighting
a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single 'wye' gate attached
to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle __________. |
at the base of
the "Y" counterclockwise 180° |
at the base of
the "Y" in either direction |
on each leg of
the "Y" 90° |
on each leg of
the "Y" 180° |
|
A |
Which of the following
components provides a direct source of sea water for the fire main system? |
Sea chest suction |
Fire pump stuffing
box |
Rosebox suction |
Cofferdam sluice
valve |
|
D |
The principle
personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is __________. |
skin irritation |
eye irritation
produced immediately after discharge from cylinder |
displacement of
oxygen |
inhaling toxic
vapors produced when exposed directly to a flame for extended periods |
|
A |
Which extinguishing
agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel
below its ignition temperature? |
CO2 |
Water stream |
Water fog |
Foam |
|
D |
As a firefighting
medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain conditions as it can cause __________. |
hallucinations |
carbon monoxide
poisoning |
undulation |
freeze burns and
blistering |
|
B |
One of the disadvantages
of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is __________. |
the CO2 gas is
lighter than air and a large amount is required to extinguish a fire near
the
deck |
prolonged exposure
to high concentrations of CO2 gas causes suffocation |
the 'snow' which
is sometimes discharged along with the gas is toxic |
rapid dissipation
of the CO2 vapor |
|
A |
The advantage
of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________. |
its good stability
and non-toxicity |
permanent extinguishment
regardless of the reignition sources |
its excellent cooling
ability |
All of the above. |
|
A |
Dry chemical extinguishing
agents extinguish a fire by __________. |
breaking up the
molecular chain reaction |
cooling the fuel
below ignition temperature |
removing the fuel
by absorbing the heated vapors |
smothering and
removing the oxygen from the fuel |
|
B |
The most common
cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is __________. |
carbon dioxide |
water |
flue gas |
steam smothering |
|
D |
Mechanical foam
used for firefighting is produced by __________. |
a chemical reaction
of foam components and air |
chemical reaction
of foam components and water |
gas bubbles liberated
when the foam chemical contacts fire |
mechanically mixing
and agitating foam chemical, water, and air |
|
B |
Aqueous Film Forming
Foam (AFFF), commonly known as 'light water', is especially suitable for
fighting __________. |
any class D fire |
oil fires in the
engine room bilges |
class C fires in
paint lockers |
All of the above. |
|
B |
One of the limitations
of foam as a fire extinguishing agent is that foam __________. |
cannot be made
with salt water |
conducts electricity |
is heavier than
oil and sinks below it surface |
is corrosive and
a hazard to fire fighters |
|
C |
When an oil fire
has been extinguished, the surface of the oil should be kept covered with
foam to prevent __________. |
boiling of the
heated oil |
toxic fumes from
escaping to the surface |
air from contacting
the oil vapors permitting reignition |
spontaneous combustion
below the oil surface |
|
B |
A large oil fire
on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________. |
high velocity fog |
foam |
soda acid |
dry chemical |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent? |
The agent is less
effective than carbon dioxide. |
The agent is highly
toxic as stored in pressurized cylinders. |
The agent cannot
be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue. |
Halon extinguishes
the fire by a chain breaking reaction. |
|
D |
It is necessary
to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is
a fire in order to __________. |
cool the metal
below its ignition temperature |
form a dense coating
of smothering steam |
prevent oxygen
from reaching the flames |
prevent the fire
from spreading by the conduction of heat |
|
D |
In the event of
a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread
of fire by __________. |
conduction |
radiation |
ventilation |
convection |
|
B |
You notice smoke
coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation.
After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest
action priority? |
Locate the nearest
CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. |
Break out the nearest
fire hose. |
Close the door
to the room. |
Secure power to
the washers and dryers. |
|
C |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing
agent? |
Its total cooling
effect is far greater than water. |
Carbon dioxide
is corrosive when exposed to fire. |
Its smothering
effect is excellent for class B fires. |
Carbon dioxide
should be applied slowly to a large engine room fire. |
|
B |
All of the following
are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________. |
heat |
electricity |
oxygen |
fuel |
|
B |
The upper explosive
limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________. |
that concentration
above which there is just enough flammable vapor to produce an explosion |
that concentration
above which the mixture is too rich to burn |
the percentage
of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an explosion |
the percentage
of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion |
|
D |
In figure 1 of
the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by __________.
Illustration SF-0013 |
radiation |
impingement |
convection |
conduction |
|
D |
The spreading
of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation
system, is an example of heat transfer by __________. |
conduction |
radiation |
windage |
convection |
|
B |
To prevent the
spread of fire by convection you should __________. |
cool the bulkhead
around the fire |
close all openings
to the area |
shut off electrical
power |
remove combustibles
from direct exposure |
|
B |
Radiation can
cause a fire to spread by __________. |
burning liquids
flowing into another space |
the transfer of
heat across an unobstructed space |
heated gases flowing
through ventilation systems |
transmitting the
heat of a fire through the ship's metal |
|
B |
A burning mattress
is considered as which of the following classes of fire? |
Class "C" |
Class "A" |
Class "B" |
Class "D" |
|
A |
A burning mattress
is considered as which of the following classes of fire? |
Class "A" |
Class "B" |
Class "C" |
Class "D" |
|
C |
A fire in a pile
of canvas would be classified as a __________. |
class C |
class B |
class A |
class D |
|
C |
A fire in a pile
of dunnage would be classified as a __________. |
class B |
class C |
class A |
class D |
|
D |
If the items shown
in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class __________.
Illustration SF-0001 |
"D" |
"C" |
"B" |
"A" |
|
C |
A fire involving
trash and paper waste would be classified as a __________. |
class B |
class D |
class A |
class C |
|
A |
Burning wood is
considered to be which of the listed classes of fire? |
Class A |
Class B |
Class C |
Class D |
|
C |
A fire that has
developed in a pile of rubber gasket material would be classified as a __________. |
class B |
class C |
class A |
class D |
|
D |
A class "B"
fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The
fire party should man the __________. |
leeward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying a solid stream
of water to wash residual fuel over the side away from the pier |
windward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to
the fire |
leeward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to
protect the monitor operator |
windward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing by with a charged
hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if needed |
|
D |
A class "B"
fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The
fire party should man the __________. |
leeward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying a solid stream
of water to wash residual fuel over the side away from the pier |
windward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to
the fire |
leeward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to
protect the monitor operator |
windward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing by with a charged
hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if needed |
|
B |
A fire in the
paint locker would probably be __________. |
Class A |
Class B |
Class D |
Class C |
|
B |
Which of the fire
extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B"
fire? |
CO2 |
All of the above |
Dry chemical |
Foam |
|
D |
Which of the fire
extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B"
fire? |
CO2 |
Foam |
Dry chemical |
All of the above. |
|
C |
A galley grease
fire would be classified as __________. |
Class A |
Class C |
Class B |
Class D |
|
C |
The class of fire
on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________. |
class A |
class D |
class B |
class C |
|
D |
Which of the listed
burning materials would be described as a class "B" fire? |
Lube oil |
Acetylene |
Grease |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Burning diesel
oil should be treated as which class of fire? |
Class "D" |
Class "A" |
Class "C" |
Class "B" |
|
B |
Which of the listed
classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel? |
Classes C and D |
Classes B and C |
Classes A and D |
Classes A and B |
|
A |
To fight a class "C"
fire, you should use carbon dioxide or __________. |
dry chemical |
chemical foam |
chemically treated
saw dust |
mechanical foam |
|
C |
A fire, occurring
in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, is considered a __________. |
class "B"
fire |
class "A"
fire |
class "C"
fire |
class "D"
fire |
|
A |
When combating
a class "C" fire, which of the following dangers may be present? |
Toxic fumes from
burning insulation or electric shock |
Increased surface
area of the burning fluid |
Water damage to
machinery not involved in the fire |
Flooding of the
vessel |
|
D |
Class C fires
may be combated using a __________. |
carbon dioxide
extinguisher |
Halon extinguisher |
dry chemical extinguisher |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Which of the hazards
listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with
a class C fire? |
Susceptible to
reflash |
Explosion |
Electrocution or
shock |
Deep seated fire |
|
A |
A class "D"
fire would involve the burning of __________. |
magnesium |
diesel oil |
electrical insulation |
dunnage |
|
A |
A class "D"
fire would involve the burning of __________. |
magnesium |
diesel oil |
electrical insulation |
dunnage |
|
B |
A fire involving
aluminum powder would be a class __________. |
"A" fire |
"D" fire |
"B" fire |
"C" fire |
|
B |
A magnesium fire
would be classified as a __________. |
class B |
class D |
class A |
class C |
|
C |
"Dry Powder"
fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride
as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire? |
Class C |
Class B |
Class D |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Fires are grouped
into which of the listed categories? |
Flammable solids,
liquids, and gases |
Combustible solids,
liquids, and gases |
Type 1, 2, 3, and
4 |
Class A, B, C,
and D |
|
D |
Which of the listed
sources of ignition may cause fuel vapors to ignite? |
An open and running
motor |
Loose wiring |
Static electricity |
All of the above. |
|
D |
A fire can be
extinguished by removing __________. |
the oxygen |
the fuel |
the heat |
Any of the above. |
|
D |
Good housekeeping
on a vessel prevents fires by __________. |
improving personnel
qualifications |
allowing better
access in an emergency |
eliminating trip
hazards |
eliminating potential
fuel sources |
|
D |
Through which
of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous
ignition? |
Anaerobic decomposition |
Aeration |
Putrefaction |
Oxidation |
|
C |
The process that
occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance
and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________. |
chemical ignition |
chemical combustion |
spontaneous combustion |
radiation ignition |
|
B |
Hazardous conditions
exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________. |
all of the above |
oil soaked rags
are stowed in the machine shop |
dry metal turnings
accumulate |
powdered aluminum
is stowed dry |
|
D |
To prevent oily
rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________. |
kept in nonmetal
containers |
kept in the paint
locker |
cleaned thoroughly
for reuse |
discarded as soon
as possible |
|
D |
A simple precaution
to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to
__________. |
store paint cans
on metal shelves only |
place a portable
fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker |
label the fixed
firefighting system |
not allow oily
rags to accumulate in the space |
|
A |
When required
to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use
hand tools which are __________. |
nonferrous |
high carbon steel |
fixed with a ferrous
cover |
approved by the
Coast Guard |
|
B |
Paints and solvents
used aboard a vessel should be __________. |
stowed safely at
the work site until work is completed |
returned to the
paint locker after each use |
drained into a
common container after each use |
covered with a
fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources |
|
D |
Which of the following
procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire
from rapidly spreading? |
Keeping the duct
exterior clean. |
Having a portable
CO2 ready at each duct opening. |
Having a fire hose
charged at each duct opening. |
Keeping the duct
interior clean. |
|
D |
Which of the following
procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire
from rapidly spreading? |
Keeping the duct
exterior clean. |
Having a portable
CO2 ready at each duct opening. |
Having a fire hose
charged at each duct opening. |
Keeping the duct
interior clean. |
|
D |
When welding or
burning aboard a vessel, you must be certain that the space __________. |
contains no explosive
fumes |
has no oil or flammable
material in the area |
is properly vented |
All of the above. |
|
C |
A fire is considered
'under control' when __________. |
the fixed systems
are activated |
all firefighting
equipment is at the scene |
the fire is contained
and no longer spreading |
all hands are at
their fire stations |
|
C |
The Muster List
("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties
during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________. |
work schedule |
the time each weekly
drill will be held |
all emergency signals |
instructions for
lowering the survival capsule |
|
A |
The component
shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types
of fire detection systems? Illustration SF-0004 |
Fixed temperature |
Line type pneumatic |
Combined fixed
temperature and rate-of-rise |
Rate-of-rise |
|
D |
In a typical automatic
fire alarm system, which of the listed actions will cause an indication
of a fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet? |
The fire alarm
test push-button is operated. |
A rise in temperature
activating a heat detector. |
A manual fire alarm
box is activated. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Fire detecting
systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________. |
ionized particles |
smoke |
rate of temperature
rise |
All of the above. |
|
C |
An oxygen indicator
will detect __________. |
the presence of
harmful amounts of carbon monoxide |
concentrations
of explosive gas |
an oxygen deficiency
in a space |
All of the above. |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements is true regarding oxygen indicators? |
The instrument
is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with
no
delay. |
Prolonged exposure
to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator. |
A cotton filter
placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument
when exposed to strongly acidic gases. |
All of the above. |
|
B |
The reading of
a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________. |
upper explosive
limit of a flammable gas concentration |
lower explosive
limit of a flammable gas concentration |
concentration of
flammable gas in a compartment |
concentration by
weight of nonflammable gas in a compartment |
|
C |
To detect the
presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should
use a __________. |
flame scanner |
halide torch |
combustible gas
indicator |
detector filament |
|
D |
If you see an
individual fall overboard, you should __________. |
hail 'Man Overboard' |
throw a life ring
overboard |
pass the word to
the bridge |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Which of the gases
listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment
involved in a fire? |
Nitrogen |
Hydrogen |
Carbon monoxide |
Carbon dioxide |
|
A |
A tank has been
sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following
statements is true? |
The tank is especially
dangerous to enter. |
Carbon monoxide
is present. |
Water vapor present
when the tank was sealed has oxidized. |
The tank is safe
to enter. |
|
D |
A good approach
to personnel safety is to assume that all tanks and pump rooms are potentially
dangerous. You should immediately leave an area whenever __________. |
you experience
an abnormal bodily sensation |
you have irritation
of the eyes, nose, or throat |
you smell an unusual
odor |
Any of the above
conditions occur. |
|
C |
High concentrations
of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can
__________. |
cause eye inflammation |
cause involuntary
skeletal muscle contractions |
paralyze your breathing
system |
cause dizziness |
|
B |
When administering
chest compression during CPR, at what part of the victim's body should the
pressure be applied? |
Top half of the
sternum |
Lower half of the
sternum |
Left chest over
the heart |
Right chest over
the heart |
|
B |
Before CPR is
started on the victim, you should __________. |
make the victim
comfortable |
establish an open
airway |
treat any bleeding
wounds |
insure the victim
is conscious |
|
B |
You are attempting
to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it
is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following
actions should you take? |
Raise the victim's
head higher than his feet. |
Re-tip the head
and try again. |
Press on the victim's
lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction. |
Blow harder to
force the air past the tongue. |
|
B |
In order to initiate
CPR on a drowning victim, __________. |
start chest compressions
before the victim is removed from the water |
begin mouth-to-mouth
ventilations |
drain water from
the lungs before ventilating |
do not tilt the
head back since it may cause vomiting |
|
B |
The MOST important
element in administering CPR is __________. |
having the proper
equipment for the process |
starting the treatment
quickly |
administering of
oxygen |
treating for shock |
|
B |
You are preparing
to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a victim of electric shock.
Which of the following actions is NOT a recommended procedure? |
Placing the victim
on his or her back and exposing the chest. |
Giving cardiac
massage without artificial respiration. |
Rocking so that
a controlled amount of body weight goes through your arms and hand to their
breastbone. |
Placing one hand
across victim's breastbone so that the heel of the hand covers the lower
part. |
|
D |
For a victim who
is coughing and gagging, as a result of a partial obstruction of the airway
by a foreign body, a potential rescuer should __________. |
bend the victim
over and give back blows |
encourage the victim
to continue coughing. If the victim is unable to expel the object, arrange
for prompt transport to an appropriate medical facility |
wait for the victim
to become unconscious then give four back blows followed by four
abdominal thrusts |
immediately give
four abdominal thrusts |
|
C |
When giving first
aid, you should understand how to conduct primary and secondary surveys
in addition to __________. |
how to diagnose
an illness from symptoms |
how to set broken
bones |
the limits of your
capabilities |
which medications
to prescribe |
|
D |
You are making
a round of the engine room and approaching the motor driven cargo pumps
and discover a person laying at the foot of the ladder. What action should
be taken? |
Immediately enter
the area to see if the person is conscious. |
Leave the scene
and continue on your watch rounds. |
Send the QMED to
the area and have him determine if the person appears conscious. |
Promptly notify
the deck watch officer. |
|
A |
When administering
first aid you should avoid __________. |
unnecessary haste
and appearance of uncertainty |
instructing bystanders |
touching the patient |
any conversation
with the patient |
|
A |
The sorting of
accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called __________. |
triage |
evaluation |
surveying |
prioritizing |
|
D |
In managing a
situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to __________. |
accurately diagnose
the ailment or injury |
provide the necessary
medication |
prescribe treatment
for the victim |
rapidly evaluate
the seriousness of obvious injuries |
|
D |
After an injury,
which of the following can be determined by examining the condition of a
victim's pupils? |
The degree of vision
impairment. |
Whether or not
the victim's blood pressure is normal. |
The degree of pain
being suffered. |
Whether or not
the brain is functioning properly. |
|
A |
If it is necessary
to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving
first aid must __________. |
avoid subjecting
the victim to any unnecessary disturbance during movement |
pull the victim
by the feet |
place the victim
on a stretcher before attempting removal |
not move the victim
to another location until all injuries have been assessed |
|
A |
Which of the following
methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an
injury victim? |
Compare the corresponding
parts of the body. |
Watch the patient's
eyes as you probe parts of the body. |
Look for discoloration
of the patient's skin. |
Look for uncontrolled
vibration or twitching of parts of the body. |
|
A |
While you are
fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment one of your shipmates falls
sustaining a severe laceration and ceases breathing. Your FIRST response
should be to __________. |
remove him from
the compartment |
begin artificial
respiration |
control the bleeding |
treat for shock |
|
D |
You have found
a person laying prone and not breathing. An electric wire is touching the
victim. Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do? |
Leave the accident
scene and summon medical assistance. |
Immediately begin
artificial respiration. |
Immediately begin
cardiac massage. |
Shut off power
or remove the wire from the victim. |
|
D |
Artificial respiration
may be necessary in cases of __________. |
drowning |
poisoning |
electrocution |
All of the above. |
|
D |
If vomiting occurs
during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is
__________. |
ignore it and continue
mouth-to-mouth ventilation |
switch to mouth-to-mouth
ventilation |
pause for a moment
until the patient appears quiet again, then resume mouth-to-mouth
ventilation |
turn the patient's
body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume CPR |
|
D |
The rescuer can
best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching
the victim's nostrils and __________. |
holding the jaw
down firmly |
keeping the head
elevated |
cupping a hand
around the patient's mouth |
applying his mouth
tightly over the victim's mouth |
|
D |
When administering
mouth to mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate
of how many breaths per minute? |
8 |
4 |
20 |
12 |
|
C |
In any major personal
injury, first aid is to include the treatment of the injury and what additional
treatment? |
Removal of any
foreign objects |
Application of
CPR |
Treatment for traumatic
shock |
Administration
of oxygen |
|
D |
Which of the following
is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock? |
Have the injured
person lie down. |
Keep the patient
warm, but not hot. |
Relieve the pain
of the injury. |
Massage the arms
and legs to restore circulation. |
|
A |
Which of the following
conditions is a symptom of a person in shock? |
Cold and damp |
Warm and dry |
Cold and dry |
Warm and damp |
|
A |
When treating
a person for shock, you should wrap the victim in warm coverings to __________. |
preserve present
body heat |
protect the person
from injury during transportation |
avoid self-inflicted
wounds caused by spastic movement |
decrease body heat |
|
C |
If there is no
head injury, extreme physical discomfort or difficulty in breathing, a patient
in shock should be placed in which of the positions listed? |
Arms above the
head |
Head up and feet
down |
Flat on back with
feet raised 12 to 18 inches |
Flat on back with
head and feet at the same level |
|
B |
Which of the following
symptoms may be observed in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric
shock? |
weak pulse at wrist
or neck |
respiration is
weak or has stopped |
flushed face |
All of the above. |
|
D |
A person reports
to you with a fishhook in their thumb. The accepted procedure for removing
it should be to __________. |
cut the skin from
around the hook |
pull it out with
pliers |
have a surgeon
remove it |
push the barb through,
cut it off, and then remove the hook |
|
A |
First aid treatment
for small cuts and open wounds is to __________. |
stop the bleeding,
clean, medicate, and cover the wound |
apply a hot towel
to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it |
apply an ice pack
to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops |
lay the patient
down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops |
|
B |
A person reports
to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________. |
pull it out with
pliers |
push the barb through,
cut it off, then remove the hook |
have a surgeon
remove it |
cut the skin from
around the hook |
|
B |
A person reports
to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________. |
pull it out with
pliers |
push the barb through,
cut it off, then remove the hook |
have a surgeon
remove it |
cut the skin from
around the hook |
|
B |
What type of wound
is generally associated with a scraping away of the skin and may be very
painful? |
Incision |
Abrasion |
Contusion |
Laceration |
|
D |
What type of wound
is most susceptible to a tetanus (lockjaw) infection? |
Abrasion |
Incision |
Laceration |
Puncture |
|
C |
A tourniquet should
be used to control bleeding only __________. |
with puncture wounds |
to prevent bleeding
from minor wounds |
when all other
means have failed |
when the victim
is unconscious |
|
C |
What method of
controlling severe bleeding is preferred and normally attempted first? |
Use of a tourniquet |
Direct pressure
applied to wound with elevation |
Direct pressure
applied to wound |
Pressure applied
to pressure points |
|
B |
A person has suffered
a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a
sterile dressing and direct pressure. Which of the following actions should
be taken next? |
Remove any small
foreign matter and apply antiseptic. |
Apply a pressure
bandage over the dressing. |
Administer fluids
to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. |
Apply a tourniquet
to prevent the bleeding from restarting. |
|
C |
In all but the
most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by __________. |
applying a tourniquet |
cooling the wound
with ice |
applying direct
pressure |
submerging the
wound in lukewarm water |
|
C |
Bleeding from
a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________. |
heavy application
of a disinfectant |
pinching the wound
closed |
applying direct
pressure to the wound |
pouring ice water
directly into the wound |
|
A |
In all but the
most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by __________. |
applying direct
pressure to the wound |
applying a tourniquet |
submerging the
wound in lukewarm water |
cooling the wound
with ice |
|
C |
Antiseptics are
used principally to __________. |
reduce inflammation |
increase blood
circulation |
prevent infection |
promote healing |
|
D |
What is the characteristic
of the blood flow associated with arterial bleeding? |
Dark red blood
flowing from the wound with a steady flow. |
Bright red blood
flowing from the wound with a steady flow. |
Dark red blood
flowing from the wound in spurts. |
Bright red blood
flowing from the wound in spurts. |
|
A |
A crew member
has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with
charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn? |
Third degree burn |
Lethal burn |
Second degree burn |
Dermal burn |
|
D |
In treating a
person for extensive first or second degree thermal burns it is important
to prevent or reduce __________. |
asphyxia |
infection |
disfigurement |
pain |
|
B |
A minor heat burn
of the eye should be treated by __________. |
laying the person
flat on his back |
gently flooding
with water |
warming the eye
with moist warm packs |
mineral oil drops
directly on the eye |
|
C |
Severe airway
burns will cause __________. |
nausea |
reddening of cheeks |
complete obstruction
of respiratory passages |
nosebleed |
|
C |
The most effective
first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________. |
apply an ice pack
to the burned area |
wrap the burn with
sterile dressing |
flood the affected
area with water |
apply ointment
to burned area |
|
D |
Basic emergency
care for an electrical burn is to __________. |
brush away the
charred skin and wrap the burned area |
flood the burn
with water for two minutes |
apply ointment
or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth |
cover the burned
area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility |
|
D |
If a patient has
an electrical burn, you would check for breathing, pulse, and __________. |
remove any dirt
or charred skin from the burned area |
apply alcohol to
the burn area and wrap with clean cloth |
locate the nearest
water source and flood the burn with water for five minutes |
look for a second
burn, which may have been caused by the current leaving the body |
|
B |
If someone suffers
a heart attack and has ceased breathing, you should __________. |
administer oxygen |
immediately start
CPR |
make the victim
comfortable in a bunk |
immediately give
a stimulant, by force if necessary |
|
C |
If a person gets
battery acid in their eye while filling a battery, they should FIRST wash
the eye with __________. |
boric acid solution |
baking soda solution |
water |
ammonia |
|
C |
If a person gets
something in his eye and you observe that it is not embedded, you can __________. |
remove it with
a piece of dry sterilized cotton rag |
get him to rub
his eye until the object is gone |
remove it with
a moist cotton-tipped applicator |
remove it with
a match or toothpick |
|
D |
A crew member
has suffered possible frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________. |
warm the feet at
room temperature |
rub the feet to
restore circulation |
warm the feet with
a heat lamp |
immerse the feet
in warm water |
|
D |
A crew member
has suffered possible frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________. |
warm the feet at
room temperature |
rub the feet to
restore circulation |
warm the feet with
a heat lamp |
immerse the feet
in warm water |
|
C |
Part of the treatment
for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What
is the preferred temperature of rewarming when using the wet rapid rewarming
method? |
Immersing the feet
in an adequate amount of water maintained between 34oF to 37.6oF. |
Immersing the feet
in an adequate amount of water maintained between 94oF to 97.6oF. |
Immersing the feet
in an adequate amount of water maintained between 104oF to 107.6oF. |
Immersing the feet
in an adequate amount of water maintained between 144oF to 147.6oF. |
|
B |
Part of the treatment
for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What
is the preferred method of rewarming? |
Rubbing and massaging
the feet. |
Immersion of the
feet in water between 104oF to 107.6oF. |
Exposure of the
feet to an open flame or fire. |
Having the patient
walk. |
|
B |
Treatment of heat
exhaustion should consist of __________. |
placing patient
in a tub of cold water |
moving to a shaded
area and laying down |
bathing with rubbing
alcohol |
All of the above. |
|
B |
What are the symptoms
of heat exhaustion? |
Flushed, dry, hot
skin |
Pale, clammy skin
with profuse sweating |
Flushed, clammy
skin with minimal sweating |
Pale, dry, hot
skin |
|
A |
In addition to
moving the victim to a shaded area, placing the victim in a prone position
and loosening any tight clothing, what treatment should be administered? |
The patient should
be given sips of cool water salted with one teaspoon per glass at a rate
of 1/2 glass every 15 minutes for one hour. |
The patient should
be given sips of unsalted cool water at a rate of 1/2 glass every 15 minutes
for one hour. |
The patient should
be forced to drink large amounts of cool water salted with one teaspoon
per glass within 5 minutes. |
The patient should
be forced to drink large amounts of unsalted cool water within 5 minutes. |
|
A |
While working
in a hot engine room, what is the cause of heat exhaustion? |
Loss of water and
salt due to excessive sweating and inadequate water and salt intake. |
Loss of water only
due to excessive sweating despite adequate water intake. |
Loss of water and
salt due to excessive sweating despite adequate water and salt intake. |
Loss of water only
due to excessive sweating and inadequate water intake. |
|
C |
While working
in a hot engine room, what is your best protection against heat exhaustion? |
Drinking plenty
of pure water with no additives. |
Taking supplemental
salt tablets with minimal water intake. |
Drinking plenty
of a commercial beverage consisting of water, salt, and carbohydrates. |
Drinking plenty
of caffeinated beverages such as iced tea. |
|
D |
Which of the following
conditions is a symptom of heat stroke? |
cold and moist
skin, high body temperature |
cold and dry skin,
low body temperature |
hot and moist skin,
high body temperature |
hot and dry skin,
high body temperature |
|
B |
Which of the listed
conditions is a symptom of sun stroke? |
Temperature is
high, pulse is slow and feeble, and skin is clammy. |
Temperature is
high, pulse is strong and rapid, and skin is hot and dry. |
Temperature falls
below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, and skin is cold and clammy. |
Temperature falls
below normal, pulse is rapid, and skin is clammy. |
|
D |
Which of the following
heat related illnesses would be considered the most life threatening? |
Heat cramps |
Heat prostration |
Heat exhaustion |
Heat stroke |
|
B |
In which of the
following heat related illnesses has the body lost its ability to regulate
the body core temperature? |
Heat prostration |
Heat stroke |
Heat exhaustion |
Heat cramps |
|
C |
In which of the
following heat related illnesses has the individual lost the ability to
lose heat through the mechanism of sweating? |
Heat cramps |
Heat exhaustion |
Heat stroke |
Heat prostration |
|
B |
What strategy
for avoiding heat exhaustion is most likely to result in more severe pain
as associated with heat cramps? |
Drinking insufficient
water and taking in insufficient salt to replace that lost during profuse
sweating. |
Drinking excessive
water lost during profuse sweating without replacing the salt lost. |
Taking in excessive
salt lost during profuse sweating without replacing the water lost. |
Drinking excessive
water and taking in excessive salt to replace that lost during profuse sweating. |
|
B |
Physical exertion
on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water can __________. |
be the best thing
to try if there was no rescue in sight |
increase the rate
of heat loss from the body |
not affect the
heat loss from the body |
increase survival
time in the water |
|
D |
The most effective
warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________. |
running or jumping
to create heat |
lying in the sun |
mouth-to-mouth
resuscitation |
a warm water bath |
|
D |
Persons who have
swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm,
soapy water or warm salt water to __________. |
neutralize the
poison in the blood |
increase the digestive
process and eliminate the poison |
absorb the poison
from the blood |
induce vomiting |
|
A |
What is the alarm
signal for a fire emergency or fire drill onboard a merchant ship? |
Continuous blast
of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous
ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds. |
Continuous blast
of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds supplemented by the continuous
ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 3 seconds. |
General alarm sounded
3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle. |
A succession of
more than 6 short blasts followed by 1 long blast of the whistle supplemented
by a comparable signal on the general alarm. |
|
B |
If you hear a
CO2 activated alarm warning you to evacuate the engine room, how much time
do you have to evacuate before the CO2 gas is released into the engine room? |
10 seconds |
20 seconds |
60 seconds |
90 seconds |
|
C |
What is the alarm
signal for dismissal from a fire emergency or fire drill onboard a merchant
ship? |
Continuous blast
of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous
ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds. |
Continuous blast
of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds supplemented by the continuous
ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 3 seconds. |
General alarm sounded
3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle. |
A succession of
more than 6 short blasts followed by 1 long blast of the whistle supplemented
by a comparable signal on the general alarm. |
|
C |
What is the alarm
signal for dismissal from a boat station or boat drill onboard a merchant
ship? |
Continuous blast
of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous
ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds. |
Continuous blast
of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds supplemented by the continuous
ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 3 seconds. |
3 short blasts
of the whistle. |
A succession of
more than 6 short blasts followed by 1 long blast of the whistle supplemented
by a comparable signal on the general alarm. |
|
A |
What is the whistle
signal for lowering boats? |
1 short blast of
the whistle. |
2 short blasts
of the whistle. |
3 short blasts
of the whistle. |
Continuous blast
of the whistle for not less than 3 seconds. |
|
A |
What is the purpose
of depressing the button on the handle of a sound-powered telephone handset? |
The button must
be depressed to speak and to listen. |
The button is depressed
to ring the remote station. |
The button must
be depressed to listen, but not to speak. |
The button must
be depressed in order to speak, but not to listen. |
|
B |
When conversing
over a sound-powered telephone circuit, the words "yes" and "no"
should be avoided. What are appropriate substitutes? |
"Yes"
should be substituted by "OK" or suitable equivalent. "No"
should be substituted by "nope" or equivalent. |
"Yes"
should be substituted by "affirmative" or suitable equivalent. "No"
should be substituted by "negative" or equivalent. |
"Yes"
should be substituted by "yessiree" or suitable equivalent. "No"
should be substituted by "nosiree" or equivalent. |
"Yes"
should be substituted by "yeah" or suitable equivalent. "No"
should be substituted by "nah" or equivalent. |
|
B |
If you wish to
initiate a station-to-station call over a sound-powered telephone circuit,
what is the correct procedure? |
Select the station
you wish to call with the rotary selector switch, depress the button on
the handset, and listen for your party to answer the call. |
Select the station
you wish to call with the rotary selector switch, turn the hand-crank a
few revolutions, depress the button on the handset, and listen for your
party to answer the call. |
Select the station
you are calling from with the rotary selector switch, turn the hand-crank
a few revolutions, depress the button on the handset, and listen for your
party to answer the call. |
Select the station
you wish to call with the rotary selector switch, turn the hand-crank a
few revolutions, and listen for your party to answer the call. |
|
A |
By definition,
combustible liquids are liquids which __________. |
have a flash point
of 80°F or higher |
are highly volatile
with a flash point of 0°F |
give off flammable
vapors at or below 80°F |
spontaneously ignite |
|
A |
By definition,
an example of a flammable liquid is __________. |
gasoline |
caustic potash |
kerosene |
animal and vegetable
oils |
|
D |
An LNG carrier
has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in
the __________. |
cargo handling
rooms |
barrier spaces |
boiler burner supply
piping |
All of the above. |
|
B |
Span gas is used
aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________. |
inert the barrier
spaces |
calibrate the gas
leak detectors |
odorize the cargo |
detect leaks in
cargo piping |
|
B |
Petroleum vapors
are dangerous __________. |
only if the oxygen
concentration is below 16 percent |
at all times due
to their toxicity |
only if the source
of the vapor is above its flash point |
only if the vapor
is between the upper and lower explosive limit |
|
D |
Which of the following
hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products? |
Fire |
Explosion |
Asphyxiation |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Which of the following
methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark? |
Placing an insulating
flange or a section of nonconducting hose in the hose setup. |
Using a cargo hose
with a built in electrical bonding wire. |
Connecting a bonding
wire between the shore side piping and the vessel. |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Which of the following
methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark? |
Placing an insulating
flange or a section of non-conducting hose in the hose setup. |
Using a cargo hose
with a built in electrical bonding wire. |
Connecting a bonding
wire between the shore side piping and the vessel. |
All of the above. |
|
C |
When checking
the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel,
you should position yourself __________. |
on the windward
side of the opening |
on the leeward
side of the opening |
at a right angle
to the wind direction |
so that the obstruction
of your body will protect you from the fumes |
|
B |
The vapors given
off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________. |
odorless |
heavier than air |
lighter than air |
nontoxic |
|
D |
Bunker "C"
is classified as a grade __________. |
D liquid |
A liquid |
B liquid |
E liquid |
|
B |
What term is listed
on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to describe a chemical that can produce
life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazard? |
Moderate toxicity |
High toxicity |
Recommended toxicity |
Low toxicity |
|
A |
A specific document
which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards,
required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal,
and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________. |
Material Safety
Data Sheet |
Hazardous Chemical
Information Sheet |
Hazardous Chemical
Loading Document |
Physical/Chemical
Characteristics Document |
|
A |
Which health hazard
term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to indicate that contact
with the substance will freeze body tissue on contact? |
Cryogenic |
Freeze hazard |
Cyanosis |
Freon hazard |
|
A |
A Crude Oil Wash
(COW) system is considered as __________. |
a Butterworth system
using crude oil instead of water as the cleaning medium |
a mechanism which
filters and purifies crude oil |
a water operated
Butterworth system |
a cleanup for pump
room bilges |
|
A |
A Crude Oil Wash
(COW) system is considered as __________. |
a Butterworth system
using crude oil instead of water as the cleaning medium |
a mechanism which
filters and purifies crude oil |
a water operated
Butterworth system |
a cleanup for pump
room bilges |
|
D |
In order for you
to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed
must be __________. |
gas free |
full of cargo |
opened to the atmosphere
for ventilation |
inerted |
|
C |
Both crude oil
washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from
tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________. |
a higher temperature |
a higher pressure
jet |
the solvent effect
of the crude oil |
none of the above. |
|
A |
The component
in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion
products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________. |
scrubber |
cooler |
filter |
purifier |
|
D |
How does an inert
gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? |
Inert gas filters
out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces. |
De-energizes the "charged
mist" effect. |
Maintains a positive
pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. |
Inert gas dilutes
the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower
explosive limit. |
|
A |
The primary function
of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to __________. |
supply conditioned
gas with reduced oxygen content |
produce 100% oxygen
free gas |
generate a high
oxygen content gas |
produce a gas of
100% pure nitrogen |
|
C |
When securing
the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be __________. |
close the deck
isolating valve |
close the flue
gas isolating valve |
secure the salt
water supply to the scrubber |
secure the inert
gas blower |
|
A |
What information
can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge? |
The tanks which
are safe to enter when the certificate was issued. |
The quality of
the barge's cargo. |
The barge's stability
information. |
The number of fire
extinguishers required onboard. |
|
D |
If a cargo tank
has not been certified as gas free, __________. |
breathing apparatus
would not be necessary in an emergency as you would only be in the tank
a short time |
a man may work
safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather, as vapors are less volatile |
entry without a
breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank since petroleum
vapors are heavier than air |
breathing apparatus
should always be used |
|
B |
A tank or compartment
is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations
of __________. |
all flammable liquids |
flammable or toxic
gases |
residues from cargo
oil |
any combustible
liquid |
|
D |
If emergency welding
repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent
compartments may need to be __________. |
inerted |
filled with water |
gas freed |
All of the above. |
|
D |
A fuel tank is
considered to be gas free when the tank is __________. |
free of most flammable
gas concentrations |
thoroughly ventilated
for at least 24 hours |
inerted with carbon
dioxide for 24 hours |
free of all dangerous
concentrations of flammable or toxic gases |
|
B |
An electrically "charged
mist" will be found in a __________. |
flash evaporator
flash chamber |
cargo tank during
Butterworthing |
diesel engine cylinder |
fuel tank vent
outlet |
|
B |
"Portable"
oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from
the __________. |
inert gas scrubber |
fire main |
potable water supply |
mucking supply
system |
|
C |
When using portable
tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when __________. |
the hose has been
partially drained |
a sailor is standing
by the machine |
the machine is
not inside the tank |
the machine is
inside the tank |
|
B |
As its temperature
rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________. |
decrease |
increase |
remain the same |
none of the above |
|
B |
A ullage reading
is the distance from a given point at the __________. |
sounding tube to
either side of the tank |
top of the sounding
tube down to the surface of the liquid |
top of the tank
down to the bottom of the tank |
top of the liquid
down to the tank bottom |
|
A |
During topping
off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the
__________. |
person in charge |
master |
chief engineer |
terminal operator |
|
B |
When the scuppers
are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________. |
remove plugs from
scuppers and wash fuel overboard with water |
use absorbent material,
such as sawdust, to clean up the spill |
remove plugs from
scuppers and wash the fuel overboard with a solvent |
remove plugs from
scuppers to allow the spill to run overboard and wipe the area dry with
rags |
|
D |
Which of the precautions
listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel? |
Display a black
triangle during daylight hours. |
Secure all lighting
to the main deck. |
Provide a portable
fan to blow away fumes. |
Prohibit smoking
in the area. |
|
A |
When you have
completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be __________. |
drained into drip
pans or tanks |
stowed with their
ends open for venting |
steam cleaned and
flushed with hot water |
blown down with
inert gas |
|
A |
To avoid excessive
pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should __________. |
reduce the loading
rate when topping off |
fill one tank at
a time |
close the tank
filling valves quickly |
top off all tanks
at the same time |
|
C |
During fueling
operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however,
it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should
__________. |
secure operations
until the exact type of oil is determined |
make an entry in
the oil record book to that effect |
notify the Coast
Guard |
All of the above. |
|
A |
The most critical
part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when
the __________. |
tanks are being
topped off |
pumping operation
is first started |
system is being
lined up |
hose joints are
made up |
|
B |
Small oil spills
on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________. |
regularly emptying
all drip pans |
plugging all scuppers
and drains |
placing floating
booms around the ship |
thoroughly draining
all bunkering hoses |
|
C |
The most common
type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of __________. |
chemical dispersants |
straw |
booms |
skimmers |
|
C |
In cleaning up
an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example
of which type of oil removal? |
Mechanical removal |
Chemical agent
removal |
Absorbent removal |
None of the above |
|
B |
While loading
bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. Which of the following
actions should you carry out FIRST? |
Notify the Coast
Guard |
Stop loading |
Notify terminal
superintendent |
Search the vessel
for leaks |
|
B |
Where will you
find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water? |
The vessel's Certificate
of Inspection |
The vessel's Oil
Transfer Procedures |
The vessel's Oil
Record Book |
The vessel's International
Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate |
|
A |
During oil transfer
operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer
procedures are being followed? |
The designated
person in charge |
The senior able
seaman |
The oiler |
The tankerman |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at
sea? |
The vessel may
discharge sewage into the sea, from an approved system which is not comminuted
or disinfected, only if the vessel is more than 12 nautical miles from the
nearest land. |
The vessel must
have an approved sewage plant. |
The vessel may
discharge disinfected and comminuted sewage into the sea, from an
approved system, only if the
vessel is more than three nautical miles from the nearest land. |
All of the above. |
|
B |
The amount of
garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship
and stated in __________. |
barrels, measured
in 55 gallon drums |
cubic meters |
weight in either
kilogram or pounds |
cubic yards convertible
to long tons |
|
B |
To prevent oil
from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system,
you should FIRST __________. |
open sluice valves,
then start the cargo pump |
start the cargo
pump, then open sea suction valves |
open block valves,
then start the cargo pump |
open sea suction
valves, then start the cargo pump |
|
B |
Water ballast
placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall
be regarded as __________. |
segregated ballast |
dirty ballast |
crude oil |
clean ballast |
|
D |
A fire can be
extinguished by removing __________. |
the fuel |
the heat |
the oxygen |
Any of the above. |
|
A |
Except in rare
cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________. |
removing the fuel |
removing the heat |
interrupting the
chain reaction |
removing the oxygen |
|
D |
All of the following
are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________. |
fuel |
oxygen |
heat |
electricity |
|
C |
The blocking open
or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________. |
the accumulation
of explosive gases |
faster cooling
of the fire |
the fire spreading
by way of the ventilation system |
fixed foam systems
to be ineffective |
|
D |
Which of the gases
listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment
involved in a fire? |
Nitrogen |
Hydrogen |
Carbon dioxide |
Carbon monoxide |
|
B |
The upper explosive
limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________. |
that concentration
above which there is just enough flammable vapor to produce an explosion |
that concentration
above which the mixture is too rich to burn |
the percentage
of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an explosion |
the percentage
of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion |
|
D |
It is necessary
to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is
a fire in order to __________. |
cool the metal
below its ignition temperature |
form a dense coating
of smothering steam |
prevent oxygen
from reaching the flames |
prevent the fire
from spreading by the conduction of heat |
|
C |
In figure 1 of
the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by __________.
Illustration SF-0013 |
convection |
radiation |
conduction |
impingement |
|
B |
The spreading
of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation
system, is an example of heat transfer by __________. |
conduction |
convection |
radiation |
windage |
|
A |
In the event of
a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread
of fire by __________. |
convection |
conduction |
radiation |
ventilation |
|
C |
To prevent the
spread of fire by convection you should __________. |
cool the bulkhead
around the fire |
shut off electrical
power |
close all openings
to the area |
remove combustibles
from direct exposure |
|
A |
The air flow depicted
in figure 1 of the illustration is an example of which type of ventilation?
Illustration SF-0013 |
Combination. |
Vertical. |
Horizontal. |
Parallel. |
|
D |
Radiation can
cause a fire to spread by __________. |
transmitting the
heat of a fire through the ship's metal |
burning liquids
flowing into another space |
heated gases flowing
through ventilation systems |
the transfer of
heat across an unobstructed space |
|
D |
Through which
of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous
ignition? |
Aeration |
Anaerobic decomposition |
Putrefaction |
Oxidation |
|
B |
Hazardous conditions
exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________. |
powdered aluminum
is stowed dry |
oil soaked rags
are stowed in the machine shop |
dry metal turnings
accumulate |
All of the above. |
|
D |
To prevent oily
rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________. |
kept in the paint
locker |
kept in nonmetal
containers |
cleaned thoroughly
for reuse |
discarded as soon
as possible |
|
B |
A burning mattress
is considered as which of the following classes of fire? |
Class "C" |
Class "A" |
Class "B" |
Class "D" |
|
B |
A fire in a pile
of dunnage would be classified as a __________. |
class C |
class A |
class D |
class B |
|
C |
A fire involving
trash and paper waste would be classified as a __________. |
class C |
class B |
class A |
class D |
|
B |
A fire that has
developed in a pile of rubber gasket material would be classified as a __________. |
class B |
class A |
class C |
class D |
|
B |
A class "B"
fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The
fire party should man the __________. |
windward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to
the fire |
windward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing by with a charged
hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if needed |
leeward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying a solid stream
of water to wash residual fuel over the side away from the pier |
leeward monitor
and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying water fog to
protect the monitor operator |
|
D |
Which of the fire
extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B"
fire? |
Dry chemical |
Foam |
CO2 |
All of the above. |
|
A |
The class of fire
on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________. |
class B |
class C |
class D |
class A |
|
A |
Which of the listed
classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel? |
Classes B and C |
Classes A and B |
Classes C and D |
Classes A and D |
|
A |
To fight a class "C"
fire, you should use carbon dioxide or __________. |
dry chemical |
chemical foam |
chemically treated
saw dust |
mechanical foam |
|
C |
When combating
a class "C" fire, which of the following dangers may be present? |
Flooding of the
vessel |
Water damage to
machinery not involved in the fire |
Toxic fumes from
burning insulation or electric shock |
Increased surface
area of the burning fluid |
|
B |
Which of the hazards
listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with
a class C fire? |
Susceptible to
reflash |
Electrocution or
shock |
Explosion |
Deep seated fire |
|
D |
A class "D"
fire would involve the burning of __________. |
diesel oil |
dunnage |
electrical insulation |
magnesium |
|
A |
A magnesium fire
would be classified as a __________. |
class D |
class B |
class A |
class C |
|
D |
The most likely
location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________. |
in the midships
house |
at the main deck
manifold |
at the vent header |
in the pump room |
|
D |
When required
to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use
hand tools which are __________. |
high carbon steel |
approved by the
Coast Guard |
fixed with a ferrous
cover |
non-ferrous |
|
B |
Good housekeeping
on a vessel prevents fires by __________. |
allowing better
access in an emergency |
eliminating potential
fuel sources |
eliminating trip
hazards |
improving personnel
qualifications |
|
B |
Good housekeeping
on a vessel prevents fires by __________. |
allowing better
access in an emergency |
eliminating potential
fuel sources |
eliminating trip
hazards |
improving personnel
qualifications |
|
B |
Paints and solvents
used aboard a vessel should be __________. |
drained into a
common container after each use |
returned to the
paint locker after each use |
stowed safely at
the work site until work is completed |
covered with a
fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources |
|
C |
A simple precaution
to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to
__________. |
label the fixed
firefighting system |
store paint cans
on metal shelves only |
not allow oily
rags to accumulate in the space |
place a portable
fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker |
|
D |
Which of the following
procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire
from rapidly spreading? |
Having a portable
CO2 ready at each duct opening. |
Keeping the duct
exterior clean. |
Having a fire hose
charged at each duct opening. |
Keeping the duct
interior clean. |
|
C |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each
crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions,
and __________. |
work schedule |
instructions for
lowering the survival capsule |
all emergency signals |
the time each weekly
drill will be held |
|
B |
The component
shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types
of fire detection systems? Illustration SF-0004 |
Line type pneumatic |
Fixed temperature |
Rate-of-rise |
Combined fixed
temperature and rate-of-rise |
|
A |
In a typical automatic
fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected __________. |
to the detecting
cabinet |
to the trouble
alarm supervising resistor |
in parallel |
in series |
|
D |
Fire detecting
systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________. |
ionized particles |
smoke |
rate of temperature
rise |
All of the above. |
|
D |
Fire detecting
systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________. |
ionized particles |
smoke |
rate of temperature
rise |
All of the above. |
|
D |
What safety information
can be found in the fire control plan that is posted or available in booklet
form on your ship? |
Particulars of
the fire detecting system |
Location of the
remote means of stopping fans |
Location of fire
doors |
All of the above. |
|
C |
If there was a
fire out of control on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat, what fixed extinguishing
system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fire? Illustration
SF-0044 |
Drenching |
Carbon Dioxide |
Halon |
Water |
|
B |
On the illustrated
fire control plan of the lower engine room, the arrow between frames 135
and 140 represents what? Illustration SF-0046 |
Direction of fire
main |
Primary means of
escape |
Secondary means
of escape |
Missing person
search pattern |
|
A |
You are part of
a search team and have been told that the last sighting of the wiper was
next to the fire pump(s). What is the location of the fire pump(s)? Illustration
SF-0046 |
Machinery space,
port side, frame 131 |
Auxiliary machinery
space, starboard side, frame 104 |
Machinery space,
starboard side, frame 123 |
Machinery space,
port side, frame 127 |
|
B |
When compared
to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog __________. |
has the greatest
ability to produce foam |
has the greatest
cooling ability |
will completely
remove toxic fumes from the air |
will completely
remove combustible vapors from the air |
|
C |
When using foam,
a "Class B" fire is extinguished by __________. |
replacing the fuel |
cooling the surface |
smothering the
fire |
All of the above. |
|
B |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent? |
The agent is less
effective than carbon dioxide. |
Halon extinguishes
the fire by a chain breaking reaction. |
The agent cannot
be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue. |
The agent is highly
toxic as stored in pressurized cylinders. |
|
C |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing
agent? |
Carbon dioxide
should be applied slowly to a large engine room fire. |
Its total cooling
effect is far greater than water. |
Its smothering
effect is excellent for class B fires. |
Carbon dioxide
is corrosive when exposed to fire. |
|
A |
The advantage
of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________. |
its good stability
and non-toxicity |
its excellent cooling
ability |
permanent extinguishment
regardless of the reignition sources |
All of the above. |
|
B |
Which fire extinguisher
is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures? |
Halon 1211 |
Foam |
Carbon dioxide |
Dry chemical |
|
D |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing equipment? |
Halon extinguishes
the fire by smothering action. |
The agent cannot
be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue. |
The agent is highly
toxic at normal room temperature. |
For portable extinguishers,
the agent is only available in a 2 pound unit. |
|
B |
To operate a carbon
dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration,
you would __________. Illustration SF-0008 |
open valve and
pull pin |
pull pin and open
valve |
pull pin, open
valve, and pull up on release lever |
open valve, pull
pin, and pull up on release lever |
|
C |
Annual servicing
of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes __________. |
inspecting the
pressure gauge to ensure the needle is within operating range |
hydrostatic testing
of the cylinder |
weighing the cylinder
and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the charge |
discharging, cleaning
inside, and recharging |
|
C |
A hand portable
CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________. |
if applied in connection
with foam |
to prevent rekindling |
if applied promptly |
if attempts to
extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed |
|
A |
In a cartridge-operated
dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated,
the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________. |
with the squeeze-grip
on/off nozzle at the end of the hose |
with the squeeze
grip trigger on top of the container |
by squeezing the
control valve carrying handle |
by turning the
activating handle on the bottom of the container |
|
A |
Recharging a previously
used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by
__________. |
replacing the propellant
cartridge and refilling it with powder |
authorized fire
equipment servicing personnel only |
recharging the
cartridge and refilling it with powder |
puncturing the
cartridge seal after installation |
|
A |
Which of the following
statements is true concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the illustration?
Illustration SF-0006 |
The agent may be
applied in short bursts by opening and closing the squeeze nozzle piece
#1. |
The illustrated
extinguisher must never be used in conjunction with water. |
The initial discharge
of the extinguisher should be at close range to scatter the burning material. |
There is no danger
of reflash in using the illustrated extinguisher on a class B fire. |
|
B |
Which of the listed
characteristics applies to a semi-portable CO2 system? |
Each cylinder must
weigh less than 50 pounds. |
It has a portable
hose and nozzle. |
The cylinders are
mounted horizontally. |
It has distribution
piping installed permanently. |
|
D |
The fire extinguishing
equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________. Illustration
SF-0009 |
Halon 1301 hose
reel system |
CO2 hose reel system |
light water hose
reel system |
dry chemical hose
reel system |
|
A |
A high velocity
fog nozzle will produce the most effective spray pattern when the water
pressure is not less than __________. |
100 psi (689.4
kPa) |
75 psi (517.0 kPa) |
35 psi (241.3 kPa) |
60 psi (413.6 kPa) |
|
C |
The all-purpose,
or combination nozzle is capable by itself of producing a solid stream of
water __________. |
and low velocity
water fog |
only |
and high velocity
water fog |
and high and low
velocity water fog |
|
C |
A low velocity
fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint.
The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________. |
a locknut |
a keeper screw |
a spring-loaded
catch |
water pressure |
|
D |
Low velocity water
fog is used in firefighting as a __________. |
barrier against
radiant heat |
smothering agent |
cooling agent |
All of the above. |
|
D |
An extinguishing
agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a
heat and smoke screen is __________. |
dry chemical |
carbon dioxide |
Halon 1301 |
water fog |
|
D |
Fire hoses located
at protected fire stations, must always be __________. |
open to the air
to prevent rot |
supplied with a
smooth bore nozzle |
capped on the ends
for protection |
connected to the
fire hydrant |
|
A |
When the cotton
cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a
solution of mild soapy fresh water and __________. |
a soft-bristled
brush |
paint thinner |
a wire brush |
cornstarch |
|
C |
Which of the following
statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members
discover a fire? |
One man report
the fire, one man fight the fire, and one man act as a safety observer. |
One man reports
the fire, and the other two men fight the fire. |
One man reports
the fire, one man fights the fire, and one man evacuates and secures the
area. |
All three men fight
the fire and report it immediately after it is extinguished. |
|
B |
If deck cargo
is carried, it should be stowed so that it __________. |
will cover less
than 25 percent of deck space |
does not block
access to the fire station hydrant |
will be easily
visible from the bridge |
is not higher than
12 inches above the deck |
|
A |
You are in compartment "A",
shown in the illustration, and suspect a fire in compartment "B".
In order to check for and confirm the fire in compartment "B"
you should_________. Illustration SF-0005 |
feel the bulkhead |
tap the bulkhead |
open the watertight
door |
move a lighted
candle along watertight door seal |
|
D |
If there has been
a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because
of __________. |
excess hydrogen |
unburned carbon
particles |
excess nitrogen |
a lack of oxygen |
|
A |
The most effective
method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by __________. |
quenching and cooling |
using nonconducting
extinguishers |
blanketing and
smothering |
using a sodium
based dry chemical |
|
C |
What is the purpose
of opening the doors and portholes in figure 2 of the illustration? Illustration
SF-0013 |
To keep the hose
teams cool. |
To allow water
used to fight the fire to flow out of the superstructure. |
To allow venting
of combustion products from the fire to the atmosphere. |
To provide airflow
around the compartment in the order to contain the fire. |
|
C |
When fighting
a shipboard fire, crew members securing doorways, hatches, and applying
cooling water to adjacent decks and bulkheads, while monitoring the spread
of heat and smoke, are setting a __________. |
safety perimeter |
cooling zone |
fire boundary |
buffer zone |
|
B |
When approaching
a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using
an applicator and __________. |
foam spray |
low-velocity fog |
a straight stream
of water |
high-velocity fog |
|
A |
During cargo operations,
a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST __________. |
stop the transfer
of cargo |
prevent the spread
of fire with a foam dam |
apply CO2 on the
burning fuel at its source |
blanket the cargo
spill with foam |
|
D |
In firefighting,
the term "protecting exposures" means __________. |
protecting exposed
areas of the superstructure from flames |
keeping flames
from burning at the tank vents |
protecting fire
fighters from direct exposure to the heat of the fire |
taking measures
to prevent the spread of fire from the involved compartment to an adjacent
compartment |
|
D |
Which extinguishing
agent is the best for use on electrical fires? |
Water fog |
Dry Chemical |
Foam |
CO2 |
|
D |
You notice smoke
coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation.
After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest
action priority? |
Close the door
to the room. |
Locate the nearest
CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. |
Secure power to
the washers and dryers. |
Break out the nearest
fire hose. |
|
B |
When combating
a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is __________. |
preventing saltwater
damage to electrical equipment |
reducing the possibility
of electrical shock to personnel |
preventing a total
loss of electrical power |
eliminating the
toxic fumes from burning insulation |
|
D |
If a fire occurs
in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation
covered by armor is burning, you should __________. |
secure power to
the cable |
cut the cable with
an insulated cable cutter |
separate the two
ends |
All of the above. |
|
D |
The most important
characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires
is for the agent to be __________. |
easily removable |
wet |
flame resistant |
nonconducting |
|
C |
A large fire has
developed in the HFO centrifuge room accessed by door "E". To
combat the fire you should __________. Illustration SF-0013 |
only need to set
up a hose team to cool the door, then open the door and extinguish the fire
using a type B-II extinguisher |
advance the hose
team into the room without any additional preparatory action |
cool adjoining
horizontal and vertical surfaces before opening the door to extinguish the
fire |
keep the door tightly
closed until all the oil has been consumed by the fire |
|
A |
The best means
of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel
tied to the pier, is to use __________. |
foam directed against
the vessel's side |
dry chemical around
the fire |
water fog over
the fire |
solid water streams
directly into the fire |
|
D |
If a fire ignites
in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel oil leak, you should
FIRST __________. |
secure the ventilation |
secure the generator |
find a soda acid
extinguisher |
shut off the fuel
oil supply |
|
C |
The longer an
oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________. |
easier it is to
extinguish |
less chance there
is of reignition |
harder it is to
extinguish |
easier it is to
control |
|
A |
In fighting a
fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________. |
secure all sources
of fresh air to the tank |
begin transferring
the fuel to other tanks |
station someone
at the fixed CO2 release controls |
top off the tank
to force out all vapors |
|
A |
In fighting a
fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________. |
secure all sources
of fresh air to the tank |
begin transferring
the fuel to other tanks |
station someone
at the fixed CO2 release controls |
top off the tank
to force out all vapors |
|
A |
When fighting
a liquefied natural gas fire, you should __________. |
secure the source
of gas, then extinguish the fire |
extinguish the
fire, then secure the source of gas |
use only carbon
dioxide |
use only dry chemical |
|
A |
In the event of
an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon dioxide galley range
fixed extinguishing systems are automatically activated through the action
of a stainless steel cable, spring and a __________. |
fusible link |
stack switch |
thermostat |
pyrostat |
|
C |
One of the main
concerns when fighting a galley fire is __________. |
the loss of stability |
contamination food
with extinguishing agent |
the igniting of
a grease fire in the range hood ventilation system |
spreading of fire
through the engineering space |
|
D |
While reviewing
emergency response plans onboard your vessel, you have questions regarding
the response for damage control conditions and the ship's construction,
related to mitigating risks from structural damage. Which of the following
sources of information would contain what you are looking for? |
The Safety Of Life
At Sea Certificate (SOLAS). |
The Cargo Ship
Safety Certificate. |
The Hull and Machinery
Certificate. |
The Vessel Stability
Booklet. |
|
D |
Your vessel has
just been struck by another vessel. As Chief Engineer, after meeting with
the Captain and Chief Mate, you have immediately ordered the vessel specific
damage control procedures in the vessel's approved stability booklet to
be enacted. Which of the following statements is true? |
The Certificate
of Documentation issued to the vessel will be the primary reference document
in order to calculate free surface corrections. |
The universal station
billet assigning crew member responsibilities will provide adequate reference
information to determine the adequate damage control response. |
The Safety Management
System will provide an IMO standard response for all collision response
procedures, including damage control. |
The vessel general
arrangement plan would be a critical reference document for your response
providing accurate data showing watertight compartments, closures, vents
and down flooding angles. |
|
A |
Wooden shoring,
with a cross-sectional dimension of 4" X 4" should not be longer
than __________. |
10 feet |
20 feet |
8 feet |
16 feet |
|
A |
Which of the methods
shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoring? Illustration
SF-0016 |
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
C |
The wooden shoring
shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting
a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following
statements is correct for the this condition? Illustration SF-0018 |
Shore "A"
will not slip under load. |
Shore "A"
will support the greatest load. |
Shore "B"
will support the load without it cracking. |
Shore "B"
will crack at the pointed end. |
|
A |
While maneuvering
up the East River your vessel runs aground. As the Chief Engineer of the
vessel how would you proceed? |
Sound all fuel
oil tanks and inspect the engine room bilges and void spaces. |
Switch the salt
water cooling suction to the low sea suction. |
Wait until the
vessel docks to sound the fuel oil tanks. |
Call your Port
Engineer. |
|
D |
Following a grounding,
you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________. |
waiting for the
vessel to list |
checking fuel oil
strainers |
examining tank
boundaries |
sounding the tank |
|
D |
Your vessel has
run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel
tank level has increased. You therefore should suspect __________. |
condensation in
the fuel tank |
contamination from
the saltwater flushing system |
a load of bad fuel |
a crack in the
hull portion of the fuel tank |
|
D |
You are on a vessel
with a 30' mean draft. While maneuvering away from the dock at slow-speed
the vessel grounds near the bow area on hard sand. In order to achieve an
additional three foot of trim by the stern, you need to shift ballast from
the forepeak, which is full, to the after peak, which is empty. Your ballast
pump for this operation has a capacity of 85 tons per hour. How much tonnage
needs to be shifted and how long should it take? |
9 tons shifted
from the forepeak to the after peak in 0h 7m. |
143 tons shifted
from the forepeak to the after peak in 1h 41m. |
1333 tons shifted
from the forepeak to the after peak in 15h 41m. |
The tons to shift
for a 36" trim exceeds the tank capacity. |
|
B |
It is generally
not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because
wedges __________. |
will work loose |
tend to open the
crack |
will splinter |
will pull through
the plating |
|
C |
An acceptable
method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is
to __________. |
drill holes at
each end |
shore up the crack
with welded braces |
apply a patch of
sheet packing backed by a strong back or shoring |
tack weld a doubler
plate over the crack |
|
D |
The wooden plug
fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________. |
collapsing |
developing free
surface moments |
developing free
surfaces |
filling completely |
|
D |
In a compartment
that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will
be exerted __________. |
at the vertical
center of the bulkhead |
at a point that
is one-third from the bottom of the bulkhead |
along the top of
the bulkhead |
along the bottom
of any bulkhead |
|
C |
Progressive flooding
in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and
__________. |
evacuating the
engine room |
transferring reserve
feed water |
pumping out flooded
compartments |
dumping fuel oil |
|
C |
Your ship has
run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment
has flooded. Therefore, you should __________. |
open the hatch
dogs on the side away from the hinges |
feel the bulkhead
to see if it is hot |
tap the bulkhead
with a hammer to check for a water level |
open the watertight
door and take a quick look |
|
D |
In a compartment
that has been completely flooded, the greatest pressure will be exerted
__________. |
along the top of
any bulkhead |
on the overhead
of the compartment |
at the center of
all bulkheads |
along the bottom
of any bulkhead |
|
C |
Your vessel has
been damaged in a grounding and one compartment has partially flooded. As
a result, you have lost buoyancy. If transverse stability in the flooded
condition is poor or negative, every effort should be made to reduce the
free surface and to lower the center of gravity. Which of the following
should you ensure is maintained? |
Ballast is maintained
in the pre-grounding state. |
A GM that is at
least neutral -G moved down to be at M. |
As much reserve
buoyancy as possible. |
A no list condition. |
|
D |
A fire can be
extinguished by removing __________. |
the heat |
the fuel |
the oxygen |
Any of the above. |
|
B |
The air flow depicted
in figure 1 of the illustration is an example of which type of ventilation?
Illustration SF-0013 |
Vertical. |
Combination. |
Horizontal. |
Parallel. |
|
A |
Except in rare
cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________. |
removing the fuel |
removing the heat |
interrupting the
chain reaction |
removing the oxygen |
|
D |
All of the following
are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________. |
fuel |
oxygen |
heat |
electricity |
|
C |
The blocking open
or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________. |
the accumulation
of explosive gases |
faster cooling
of the fire |
the fire spreading
by way of the ventilation system |
fixed foam systems
to be ineffective |
|
D |
Which of the gases
listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment
involved in a fire? |
Nitrogen |
Hydrogen |
Carbon dioxide |
Carbon monoxide |
|
B |
A tank has been
sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following
statements is true? |
The tank is safe
to enter. |
The tank is especially
dangerous to enter. |
Carbon monoxide
is present. |
Water vapor present
when the tank was sealed has oxidized. |
|
C |
Before entering
any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What
level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air? |
10 (%) |
15.8 (%) |
20.8 (%) |
25.8 (%) |
|
B |
The upper explosive
limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________. |
that concentration
above which there is just enough flammable vapor to produce an explosion |
that concentration
above which the mixture is too rich to burn |
the percentage
of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an explosion |
the percentage
of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion |
|
D |
It is necessary
to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is
a fire in order to __________. |
cool the metal
below its ignition temperature |
form a dense coating
of smothering steam |
prevent oxygen
from reaching the flames |
prevent the fire
from spreading by the conduction of heat |
|
D |
In figure 1 of
the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by __________.
Illustration SF-0013 |
impingement |
radiation |
convection |
conduction |
|
B |
The spreading
of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation
system, is an example of heat transfer by __________. |
conduction |
convection |
radiation |
windage |
|
A |
In the event of
a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread
of fire by __________. |
convection |
conduction |
radiation |
ventilation |
|
C |
To prevent the
spread of fire by convection you should __________. |
cool the bulkhead
around the fire |
shut off electrical
power |
close all openings
to the area |
remove combustibles
from direct exposure |
|
D |
Radiation can
cause a fire to spread by __________. |
transmitting the
heat of a fire through the ship's metal |
burning liquids
flowing into another space |
heated gases flowing
through ventilation systems |
the transfer of
heat across an unobstructed space |
|
D |
Through which
of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous
ignition? |
Aeration |
Anaerobic decomposition |
Putrefaction |
Oxidation |
|
A |
The process that
occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance
and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________. |
spontaneous combustion |
radiation ignition |
chemical ignition |
chemical combustion |
|
B |
Hazardous conditions
exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________. |
dry metal turnings
accumulate |
oil soaked rags
are stowed in the machine shop |
powdered aluminum
is stowed dry |
All of the above. |
|
A |
To prevent oily
rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________. |
discarded as soon
as possible |
cleaned thoroughly
for reuse |
kept in the paint
locker |
kept in nonmetal
containers |
|
B |
A fire in a pile
of canvas would be classified as a __________. |
class C |
class A |
class B |
class D |
|
A |
If the items shown
in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class __________.
Illustration SF-0001 |
"A" |
"D" |
"B" |
"C" |
|
D |
Burning wood is
considered to be which of the listed classes of fire? |
Class B |
Class C |
Class D |
Class A |
|
A |
You are conducting
training on fire fighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized
by the burning of ordinary combustible materials where the quenching and
cooling effects of quantities of water, or solutions containing large percentages
of water, are of first importance? |
Type A |
Type C |
Type B |
Type D |
|
B |
A Type A fire
has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your
fire teams expect to find at the scene? |
Electrical equipment
where the use of nonconducting extinguishing agent is of first importance |
Ordinary combustible
materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water,
or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance |
Metals |
Flammable liquids,
greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential |
|
B |
A fire in the
paint locker would probably be __________. |
Class D |
Class B |
Class A |
Class C |
|
D |
A galley grease
fire would be classified as __________. |
Class A |
Class C |
Class D |
Class B |
|
B |
Burning diesel
oil should be treated as which class of fire? |
Class "D" |
Class "B" |
Class "A" |
Class "C" |
|
D |
You are conducting
training on firefighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized
by the burning of flammable liquids, greases, etc., where a blanketing effect
is essential? |
Type A |
Type C |
Type D |
Type B |
|
A |
A Type B fire
has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your
fire teams expect to find at the scene? |
Flammable liquids,
greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential |
Electrical equipment
where the use of nonconducting extinguishing agent is of first importance |
Metals |
Ordinary combustible
materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water,
or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance |
|
C |
A fire, occurring
in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, is considered a __________. |
class "B"
fire |
class "A"
fire |
class "C"
fire |
class "D"
fire |
|
D |
Class C fires
may be combated using a __________. |
Halon extinguisher |
carbon dioxide
extinguisher |
dry chemical extinguisher |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Which of the hazards
listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with
a class C fire? |
Deep seated fire |
Explosion |
Electrocution or
shock |
Susceptible to
reflash |
|
A |
You are conducting
training on firefighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized
by the burning of electrical equipment where the use of nonconducting extinguishing
agent is of first importance? |
Type C |
Type B |
Type D |
Type A |
|
A |
A Type C fire
has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your
fire teams expect to find at the scene? |
Electrical equipment
where the use of nonconducting extinguishing agent is of first importance |
Flammable liquids,
greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential |
Metals |
Ordinary combustible
materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water,
or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance |
|
C |
A class "D"
fire would involve the burning of __________. |
electrical insulation |
dunnage |
magnesium |
diesel oil |
|
B |
A fire involving
aluminum powder would be a class __________. |
"C" fire |
"D" fire |
"B" fire |
"A" fire |
|
D |
A magnesium fire
would be classified as a __________. |
class A |
class C |
class B |
class D |
|
C |
"Dry Powder"
fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride
as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire? |
Class B |
Class C |
Class D |
All of the above. |
|
D |
The most likely
location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________. |
in the midships
house |
at the main deck
manifold |
at the vent header |
in the pump room |
|
B |
When required
to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use
hand tools which are __________. |
approved by the
Coast Guard |
non-ferrous |
high carbon steel |
fixed with a ferrous
cover |
|
B |
Good housekeeping
on a vessel prevents fires by __________. |
allowing better
access in an emergency |
eliminating potential
fuel sources |
eliminating trip
hazards |
improving personnel
qualifications |
|
B |
Paints and solvents
used aboard a vessel should be __________. |
covered with a
fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources |
returned to the
paint locker after each use |
stowed safely at
the work site until work is completed |
drained into a
common container after each use |
|
C |
A simple precaution
to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to
__________. |
label the fixed
firefighting system |
store paint cans
on metal shelves only |
not allow oily
rags to accumulate in the space |
place a portable
fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker |
|
B |
Which of the following
procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire
from rapidly spreading? |
Having a fire hose
charged at each duct opening. |
Keeping the duct
interior clean. |
Having a portable
CO2 ready at each duct opening. |
Keeping the duct
exterior clean. |
|
B |
In accordance
with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each
crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions,
and __________. |
instructions for
lowering the survival capsule |
all emergency signals |
work schedule |
the time each weekly
drill will be held |
|
C |
You are reviewing
emergency procedures with new crew members. How would you direct them to
proceed if they hear the fire and emergency signal on the ship's general
alarm or whistle? |
Report to the Bridge
and wait further instructions. |
Report to their
state room and wait further instructions. |
Report to their
assigned duty station as posted on the Station Bill, so an accurate muster
can be taken. |
Report directly
to the scene of the emergency to help. |
|
D |
As Chief Engineer,
you are discussing with a new Third Engineer the methods of fighting an
engine room fire. You ask the junior engineer to explain how to proceed
in the event of an engine room fire when you cannot gain entry to the control
room. Which of the following should be included in the junior engineer's
response? |
Open the steam
smothering to the main engine. |
Secure the ventilation
and allow the fire to burn itself out. |
Immediately dump
the fixed CO2 system without securing the ventilation. |
Secure the fuel
pumps and ventilation from the emergency station outside the engine room. |
|
B |
As Chief Engineer,
you are discussing fire safety with a new unlicensed crew member. What would
you expect the crew member to know having been onboard the vessel for two
days? |
The starting procedures
for the ship's fire pump. |
Ship's signals
for fire and emergency and abandon ship. |
The procedures
to secure the fire detection system. |
The release procedures
for the low pressure CO2 system. |
|
B |
As Chief Engineer,
you are discussing fire safety with a new unlicensed crew member. What would
you expect the crew member to know having been onboard the vessel for two
days? |
The starting procedures
for the ship's fire pump. |
Ship's signals
for fire and emergency and abandon ship. |
The procedures
to secure the fire detection system. |
The release procedures
for the low-pressure CO2 system. |
|
C |
Your ship is leaving
port after almost a complete crew change out. The captain has ordered a
fire drill simulating a fire in the engine room with full emergency gear
and all hoses run out. What is the reason for drilling with this kind of
simulation? |
It provides a quick
method to inventory all of the fire fighting gear. |
The World Health
Organization requires crews to get regular exercise in the form of fire
drills. |
This ensures that
your crew is prepared to combat a ship board fire using ship's equipment. |
Regulations require
a full fire drill when more than half the crew changes out. |
|
C |
How would you
ensure that your crew is prepared to combat a shipboard fire using ship's
equipment? |
Have them read
a fire fighting text book. |
Check training
records, to see if crew members have attended a fire fighting training course. |
Conduct required
drills, simulating fire conditions and training with ship's equipment. |
Show crew generic
fire training videos. |
|
A |
The component
shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types
of fire detection systems? Illustration SF-0004 |
Fixed temperature |
Line type pneumatic |
Combined fixed
temperature and rate-of-rise |
Rate-of-rise |
|
D |
In a typical automatic
fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected __________. |
in parallel |
to the trouble
alarm supervising resistor |
in series |
to the detecting
cabinet |
|
D |
Fire detecting
systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________. |
ionized particles |
smoke |
rate of temperature
rise |
All of the above. |
|
D |
In preparation
for an extended yard period, you are reviewing your ship's plans. You notice
several bulkheads are labeled A60. What is indicated by the label A60? |
Materials meeting
construction yard specification A60. |
Damage stability
bulkhead, A Class, with bulkhead strength that will limit flooding for 60
minutes. |
Fire division boundary,
A Class, with insulation that will limit temperature rise below the allowable
level for 60 seconds. |
Fire division boundary,
A Class, with insulation that will limit temperature rise below the allowable
level for 60 minutes. |
|
D |
On the illustrated
fire control plan, what emergency equipment is located in the scullery?
Illustration SF-0045 |
Fixed water extinguishing
system |
Fire alarm pull-box |
Gaylord system
release valve |
Heat detector |
|
A |
You are part of
a team to overhaul a fire that was just extinguished in the crew lounge.
Where is the nearest fire axe to break apart the furniture? Illustration
SF-0045 |
Starboard side,
frame 132 |
Starboard side,
frame 123 |
Midships, frame
123 |
Port side, frame
132 |
|
C |
You are being
directed to a fire in the lower engine room, portside, frame 127. What machinery
is found in that exact location? Illustration D038SA |
Lube oil purifier |
Generator |
Bilge pumps |
Emergency fire
pumps |
|
C |
In reviewing ship
drawings with a new junior office you note that some divisional bulkheads
are labeled A60. In the discussion with the junior officer, what should
be noted is indicated by the label A60? |
Fire division boundary,
A Class, with insulation that will limit temperature rise below the allowable
level for 60 seconds. |
Damage stability
bulkhead, A Class, with bulkhead strength that will limit flooding for 60
minutes. |
Fire division boundary,
A Class, with insulation that will limit temperature rise below the allowable
level for 60 minutes. |
Materials meeting
construction yard specification A60. |
|
D |
During repairs
it is necessary to replace existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate the
bulkhead is A60. "A" indicates which of the following? |
"A" class
bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 30 minutes when subjected
to a fire test |
"A" class
bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 15 minutes when subjected
to a fire test |
"A" class
bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 120 minutes when subjected
to a fire test |
"A" class
bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 60 minutes when subjected
to a fire test |
|
B |
During repairs
it is necessary to replace an existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate
it is a "B" class bulkhead. This indicates which of the following? |
"B" class
bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 60 minutes when subjected to
a fire test. |
"B" class
bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 30 minutes when subjected to
a fire test. |
"B" class
bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 120 minutes when subjected to
a fire test. |
"B" class
bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 15 minutes when subjected
to a fire test. |
|
B |
Drawings of your
deck plans show the use of A60 bulkheads. "A" indicates which
of the following? |
"A" class
bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 15 minutes when subjected
to a fire test |
"A" class
bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 60 minutes when subjected
to a fire test |
"A" class
bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 120 minutes when subjected
to a fire test |
"A" class
bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 30 minutes when subjected
to a fire test |
|
D |
Drawings of your
ship indicate the use of "B" class bulkheads. The "B"
indicates which of the following? |
"B" class
bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 60 minutes when subjected to
a fire test. |
"B" class
bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 15 minutes when subjected
to a fire test. |
"B" class
bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 120 minutes when subjected to
a fire test. |
"B" class
bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 30 minutes when subjected to
a fire test. |
|
C |
The most common
cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is __________. |
steam smothering |
flue gas |
water |
carbon dioxide |
|
B |
When an oil fire
has been extinguished, the surface of the oil should be kept covered with
foam to prevent __________. |
spontaneous combustion
below the oil surface |
air from contacting
the oil vapors permitting reignition |
toxic fumes from
escaping to the surface |
boiling of the
heated oil |
|
D |
The principle
personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is __________. |
skin irritation |
displacement of
oxygen |
eye irritation
produced immediately after discharge from cylinder |
inhaling toxic
vapors produced when exposed directly to a flame for extended periods |
|
D |
One of the disadvantages
of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is __________. |
the CO2 gas is
lighter than air and a large amount is required to extinguish a fire near
the deck |
rapid dissipation
of the CO2 vapor |
the 'snow' which
is sometimes discharged along with the gas is toxic |
prolonged exposure
to high concentrations of CO2 gas causes suffocation |
|
B |
Which extinguishing
agent is the best for use on electrical fires? |
Water fog |
CO2 |
Dry Chemical |
Foam |
|
A |
During onboard
training with your engineers you review the various firefighting agents
available for use onboard a ship. Which of the following statements describes
carbon dioxide as an extinguishing agent? |
Carbon dioxide
may be applied through a fixed or semi-fixed system, or from a portable
extinguisher. It is useful for inserting a compartment or for putting out
small local fires. |
Carbon dioxide
is produced by a special foam nozzle or by a fixed system. It is used to
form a blanket over the surface of burning liquids. It is effective only
with liquids which are not appreciably soluble in water. |
Carbon dioxide
is a sodium or potassium bicarbonate or monosodium phosphate solution, usually
applied from a semi-fixed or portable extinguisher. |
Carbon dioxide
is a finely divided mist produced by either a high or low velocity fog nozzle.
It is used for knocking down flames and cooling hot surfaces. |
|
A |
A three inch overboard
discharge line, located six feet below the waterline, has ruptured and separated
from the hull. What would be the minimum number of strokes per minute required
from a 10" x 8" x 12" duplex double acting reciprocating
bilge pump, operating at 96% efficiency, to keep the bilge water level from
continuing to rise? Illustration SF-0034 |
87 strokes per
minute |
56 strokes per
minute |
98 strokes per
minute |
45 strokes per
minute |
|
A |
Your chemical
tanker was built to the IBC Code and has foam as the main firefighting medium.
During one of your safety meetings you review the properties of foam as
an extinguishing agent. Which of the following is a correct statement that
would be appropriate to share during the meeting? |
Foam will blanket
the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen but it does not provide the best
cooling protection for the firefighters. |
Foam will blanket
the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen and it also provides excellent
cooling protection for the firefighters. |
Foam will blanket
the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen and is therefore perfectly suited
to A, B and C class fires. |
Foam will blanket
the fire and cut off the supply of oxygen but it does generate toxic vapors
that may harm the firefighters. |
|
A |
To activate a
foam type portable fire extinguisher, you must __________. |
turn the extinguisher
upside down |
pull the pin and
squeeze the grips |
pump the hand lever
for pressure |
strike the bottom
of the extinguisher against the deck |
|
B |
The passive safety
device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its
over pressurization is called a __________. |
relief valve |
rupture disc |
control head |
safety valve |
|
C |
Which portable
fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility? |
Water (cartridge-operated) |
Dry chemical (cartridge-operated) |
Carbon dioxide |
Water (pump tank) |
|
A |
If a fire broke
out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then
proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers? |
CO2 |
Foam |
Dry chemical |
Soda acid |
|
A |
The state of charge
of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily
determined by __________. |
visual inspection
of the pressure gage |
removing the lid
and checking the level of dry chemical |
weighing the CO2
cartridge |
weighing the cylinder |
|
D |
Servicing of a
cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher aboard ship would include
ensuring that the __________. |
pressure gage is
within the operating range |
recharge of weight
loss exceeds 10% of the weight of charge |
cartridge weight
is not less than 1/4 ounce of weight stamped on cartridge |
powder is not caked
and there is a full charge |
|
A |
During an inspection
of a ships storeroom, you find sealed containers of chemicals labeled "potassium
bicarbonate" and "potassium chloride". These chemicals are
most commonly used aboard ship for __________. |
recharging dry
chemical fire extinguishers |
degreasing machinery
parts |
engine jacket water
treatment |
descalling evaporator
tubes |
|
D |
Which of the listed
methods is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel
if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher? |
Approach the fire
from the windward side. |
Direct the extinguisher
discharge at the base of the fire. |
Move the discharge
stream back and forth in a rapid sweeping motion. |
All of the above. |
|
A |
Which of the listed
characteristics applies to a semi-portable CO2 system? |
It has a portable
hose and nozzle. |
The cylinders are
mounted horizontally. |
It has distribution
piping installed permanently. |
Each cylinder must
weigh less than 50 pounds. |
|
D |
The fire extinguishing
equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________. Illustration
SF-0009 |
Halon 1301 hose
reel system |
CO2 hose reel system |
light water hose
reel system |
dry chemical hose
reel system |
|
D |
A low velocity
fog applicator is held in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The
applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________. |
a keeper screw |
water pressure |
a locknut |
a spring-loaded
catch |
|
B |
As a general rule
of thumb, with no adverse wind conditions, approximately how far could a
straight stream of water reach from a fire hose having a nozzle pressure
of 100 psi? |
50 feet |
100 feet |
150 feet |
200 feet |
|
A |
The physical difference
of the water spray patterns developed by the high velocity tip and low velocity
applicator is due to __________. |
the method of breaking
up the water stream |
the type of fire
being fought |
the capacity of
the fire pump |
a difference in
water pressure |
|
D |
Water applied
as a 'fog' can be more effective than water applied as a 'solid stream',
because __________. |
it reduces the
total amount of water that must be pumped into the ship to fight a given
fire |
a given amount
of water can absorb more heat when it is in the form of fog |
it does not have
to hit the seat of fire to be effective |
of all of the above |
|
D |
Properly stowed
fire hose is either faked or rolled into a rack with the __________. |
male and female
ends connected together to prevent damage |
female end available
to be quickly connected to the hydrant |
male end attached
to the adjacent fire hydrant |
nozzle end arranged
to be easily run out to the fire |
|
C |
If a fire hose
is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle shut off, the fire
hose will __________. |
lash about violently |
become elongated
by 125% |
remain motionless |
burst under pressure |
|
A |
There is always
a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge
of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this
loss in pressure? |
Friction in the
piping and valves |
Wear in the hydrant |
Leaky pilot valve |
Leaky pump suction
valve |
|
C |
While fighting
a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single 'wye' gate attached
to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle __________. |
at the base of
the "Y" in either direction |
at the base of
the "Y" counter-clockwise 180° |
on each leg of
the "Y" 90° |
on each leg of
the "Y" 180° |
|
C |
The primary function
of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________. |
instantaneously
extinguish the fire which triggered it |
protect people
in the areas which have had sprinkler heads installed |
limit the spread
of the fire and control the amount of heat produced |
alert the crew
to the fire |
|
D |
Actuating the
fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the __________. |
fuel supply only |
exhaust ventilation
only |
mechanical and
natural ventilation |
supply and exhaust
ventilation |
|
D |
What would be
a major consequence of allowing the refrigeration system of a low pressure
fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system to remain inoperable? |
The warmed charge
of CO2 would not be effective in extinguishing a fire. |
Excessive condensation
inside the tank would freeze causing a restriction in the discharge piping. |
Liquid CO2 would
overflow from the tank through the drain line as the temperature increased. |
The entire charge
may eventually be lost due to CO2 boil-off venting through the relief valve. |
|
B |
Why is it essential
to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine
room, as quickly as possible? |
To keep the fire
from spreading through the bulkheads. |
Updraft from the
fire tends to carry the CO2 away. |
Carbon dioxide
takes a long time to disperse to all portions of a space. |
The fire may warp
the CO2 piping. |
|
A |
During vessel
familiarization, you find the vessel you are newly assigned to as Chief
Engineer has a high pressure CO2 system for the engine room. In what way
are the high pressure CO2 bottle released in the event of an engine room
fire? |
The master cylinder
sends gas to the actuators on all bottles in the affected banks. |
The bottles are
released individually. |
The pull wire releases
all bottles in the banks. |
The smoke detection
system automatically releases CO2 to the engine room. |
|
B |
In discussing
with a new junior officer the provisions aboard the vessel for shore side
firefighters to connect into the vessel's fire main, what item should be
included in the discussion? |
The vessel's skin
valve connection. |
The vessel's international
shore connection. |
The vessel's bunker
port connection. |
The vessel's fire
pump discharge flange. |
|
D |
You are the engineer
on a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons with a periodically unattended
machinery space. A fire has been reported in the engine room and you cannot
make entry into the space. How would you direct the Emergency Squad Team
Leader to charge the fire main? |
Start the Engine
Room Fire Pump from the Bridge. |
Start the Emergency
Fire Pump remotely from the Chief Mate's office. |
Start the Engine
Room Fire Pump from the Chief Engineer's office. |
Start the Emergency
Fire Pump remotely from the Bridge or Emergency Gear Locker. |
|
D |
Your ship has
a low pressure carbon dioxide system that covers the engine room. Fire has
been reported in the engine room and the decision has been made to dump
the carbon dioxide system into the engine room. While following the procedures
to release carbon dioxide you find one engine room supply fan damper that
will not close. How should you proceed? |
Continue the release
procedures and dump the carbon dioxide, after the release then try to seal
the fan damper opening. |
Continue the release
procedures and dump the carbon dioxide with the damper still open. |
Cover the fan damper
opening with burlap bags to slow the flow of air into the engine room and
then continue with the release procedures. |
Cover the fan damper
opening with a plastic tarp to stop the flow of air into the engine room
and then continue with the release procedures. |
|
B |
As Chief Engineer
of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage, you
have just activated the CO2 release handle for the engine room to extinguish
a fire. How would you direct the emergency team to reenter the engine room? |
Have the team wait
two hours, then, with the team dressed in fire fighting gear and SCBA, approach
the engine room door. Crack the door open and advance, if no fire is detected. |
Wait until there
are no signs of smoke or heat, then, with the team dressed in fire fighting
gear and SCBA, approach the engine room door. Crack the door open with a
charged fire hose at the ready and advance, if no fire is detected. |
Wait until there
are no signs of smoke or heat have the team dressed in fire fighting gear
and approach the engine room door. Crack the door open and advance, if no
fire is detected. |
Have the team wait
two hours and crack the door open with a charged fire hose at the ready
and advance, if no fire is detected. |
|
B |
As the senior
engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage,
you have just activated the CO2 release handle for the engine room to extinguish
a fire. How would you direct the emergency team to re-enter the engine room? |
Have the team wait
two hours, then, with the team dressed in firefighting gear and SCBA, approach
the engine room door. Crack the door open and advance, if no fire is detected. |
Wait until there
are no signs of smoke or heat, then, with the team dressed in firefighting
gear and SCBA, approach the engine room door. Crack the door open with a
charged fire hose at the ready and advance, if no fire is detected. |
Wait until there
are no signs of smoke or heat have the team dressed in firefighting gear
and approach the engine room door. Crack the door open and advance, if no
fire is detected. |
Have the team wait
two hours and crack the door open with a charged fire hose at the ready
and advance, if no fire is detected. |
|
B |
While in the engine
control room you smell smoke and see it coming from the vent in the main
switchboard panel. Which of the many different types of extinguishers, if
any, are required to be in that space and why would it be best suited to
extinguish this class of fire? |
A fixed CO2 system
as it will smother the fire while limiting the clean up and damage to the
area around the fire. |
A portable CO2
extinguisher as it will smother the fire while limiting the clean up and
damage to the area around the fire. |
A portable dry
chemical extinguisher, as it the most common type of portable extinguisher
found onboard ships. |
No portable extinguisher
is required in the engine control room. |
|
A |
An oil fire is
reported in the purifier room bilge. How would you combat this fire? |
Direct aqueous
film forming foam off the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down
or bounce off method to extinguish the fire. |
With water using
a low velocity fog applicator to extinguish the fire. |
Direct a dry powder
extinguisher at the base of the fire and discharge the powder in a sweeping
motion to extinguish the fire. |
Direct aqueous
film forming foam in a straight stream into the fuel to extinguish the fire. |
|
D |
When combating
a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is __________. |
preventing a total
loss of electrical power |
eliminating the
toxic fumes from burning insulation |
preventing saltwater
damage to electrical equipment |
reducing the possibility
of electrical shock to personnel |
|
A |
The most important
characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires
is for the agent to be __________. |
nonconducting |
wet |
flame resistant |
easily removable |
|
D |
If a fire occurs
in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation
covered by armor is burning, you should __________. |
separate the two
ends |
secure power to
the cable |
cut the cable with
an insulated cable cutter |
All of the above. |
|
C |
The longer an
oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________. |
easier it is to
control |
less chance there
is of reignition |
harder it is to
extinguish |
easier it is to
extinguish |
|
D |
As an engineer
on a tanker of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage, how
would you direct the fire team to combat a large cargo space fire? |
Use the fixed carbon
dioxide system to extinguish the fire. |
Open the ullage
caps and lower the level in tanks adjacent to the tank on fire. |
Use the inert gas
system to extinguish the fire. |
Use fixed water
and foam systems to extinguish the fire. |
|
B |
As Chief Engineer,
how would you instruct a new Third Assistant Engineer to use the fire fighting
apparatus illustrated to fight an oil fire at the bunker station? Illustration
SF-0020 |
This piece of firefighting
equipment cannot be use to extinguish an oil fire. |
Direct aqueous
film forming foam off the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down
or bounce off method to extinguish the fire. |
Direct water off
the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down or bounce off method
to extinguish the fire. |
Direct aqueous
film forming foam in a straight stream into the fuel to extinguish the fire. |
|
B |
As the senior
engineer onboard a vessel, how would you instruct a new engineer to use
the firefighting apparatus illustrated to fight an oil fire at the bunker
station? Illustration SF-0020 |
This piece of firefighting
equipment cannot be used to extinguish an oil fire. |
Direct aqueous
film forming foam off the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down
or bounce off method to extinguish the fire. |
Direct water off
the overhead or nearby bulkhead, using a bank down or bounce off method
to extinguish the fire. |
Direct aqueous
film forming foam in a straight stream into the fuel to extinguish the fire. |
|
A |
In fighting a
fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________. |
secure all sources
of fresh air to the tank |
station someone
at the fixed CO2 release controls |
top off the tank
to force out all vapors |
begin transferring
the fuel to other tanks |
|
D |
When fighting
a liquefied natural gas fire, you should __________. |
use only carbon
dioxide |
extinguish the
fire, then secure the source of gas |
use only dry chemical |
secure the source
of gas, then extinguish the fire |
|
A |
As Chief Engineer
sailing aboard chemical tankers you frequently review the best practices
regarding fire fighting during safety meetings. Which of the following would
align with industry best practice regarding the use of water in extinguishing
chemical fires? |
Water is best used
for cooling of the chemical itself as well as surrounding areas. |
Water is best applied
from opposing directions to ensure maximum effectiveness. |
Water is best applied
to the chemical fire in a solid stream in order to maximize effectiveness. |
Water is best applied
in spray form to smother the chemical fire. |
|
C |
Your vessel is
carrying a cargo of Methyl Ethyl Ketone (MEK), which has caught fire. Which
extinguishing agents should be used? |
Carbon dioxide,
dry chemical, or water foam. |
Carbon dioxide,
dry chemical, or water fog. |
Carbon dioxide,
dry chemical, or alcohol foam. |
Water fog, dry
chemical, or alcohol foam. |
|
B |
Your vessel is
carrying a cargo of Propionitrile, which has caught fire. Which extinguishing
agents should be used? |
Alcohol foam, water
fog, or dry chemical. |
Alcohol foam, carbon
dioxide or dry chemical. |
Water fog, carbon
dioxide or dry chemical. |
Alcohol foam, carbon
dioxide, or water fog. |
|
B |
Your vessel is
carrying a cargo of Ethyl methacrylate, which has caught fire. Which extinguishing
agents should be used? |
Water, dry chemical
or chemical foam. |
Carbon dioxide,
dry chemical or chemical foam. |
Carbon dioxide,
dry chemical, or alcohol foam. |
Water fog, dry
chemical or chemical foam. |
|
C |
One of the main
concerns when fighting a galley fire is __________. |
the loss of stability |
spreading of fire
through the engineering space |
the igniting of
a grease fire in the range hood ventilation system |
contamination food
with extinguishing agent |
|
A |
In the event of
an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon dioxide galley range
fixed extinguishing systems are automatically activated through the action
of a stainless steel cable, spring and a __________. |
fusible link |
stack switch |
thermostat |
pyrostat |
|
A |
A fire has been
reported in the ship's galley, as Chief Engineer you direct the team leader
of the #2 emergency squad to secure ventilation to the space. What would
your next command be to the emergency team leader, before they can actually
start extinguishing the fire? |
Have electrical
power secured to the galley. |
Prepare the lifeboat
to abandon ship. |
Start the emergency
generator. |
Prepare extra portable
fire extinguishers. |
|
A |
As team leader
of the ship's No.2 emergency squad, you have just informed the bridge that
the fire in the galley has been extinguished. What would you instruct your
squad to do next? |
Set a reflash watch
in the Galley. |
Send them to coffee. |
Refill any SCBA
bottles used during the fire. |
Restock the emergency
locker; replacing any equipment used during the fire. |
|
C |
As First Engineer
you are the senior engineering officer in Emergency Squad #1. The fire alarm
sounds and you report to the muster station where the Bridge informs you
smoke has been reported coming from the ship's laundry room. What should
your first action be? |
Charge the ship's
fire main |
Start boundary
cooling the area. |
Secure power and
ventilation to the laundry room and inform the Bridge once this is done. |
Help dress out
other crew members in fireman's outfit. |
|
A |
As team leader
of the #2 emergency squad you arrive at the scene of a fire in the Bosun's
store room on the weather deck. How would you proceed to fight this fire? |
First, size up
the fire situation before committing crew members and equipment and then
relay accurate information to the Bridge. |
Open the store
room door before any boundary cooling is done to determine what is burning. |
Pull the fixed
fire suppressant system that covers the Bosun Store room to extinguish the
fire. |
Immediately start
boundary cooling the adjacent compartment. |
|
B |
A fire has been
reported in the ship's laundry room. As Chief Engineer you direct the team
leader of the #1 emergency squad to secure ventilation to the space. What
would your next command be to the emergency team leader, before they can
actually start extinguishing the fire?
o |
Prepare extra fire
hoses. |
Have electrical
power secured to the laundry room. A lock-out tag should be placed on the
breaker or switch stating the circuit has been de-energized, to protect
crew members from electrical shock. |
Prepare extra portable
fire extinguishers. |
Prepare the lifeboats
to abandon ship. |
|
D |
You notice smoke
coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation.
After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest
action priority? |
Close the door
to the room. |
Locate the nearest
CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher. |
Secure power to
the washers and dryers. |
Break out the nearest
fire hose. |
|
A |
While in port
working cargo a fire is reported on the forward car deck. The Captain sounds
the general alarm, the crew musters and starts fighting the fire. As Chief
Engineer you inform the Captain that shore side fire fighting assistance
needs to be called, how would you proceed? |
Continue fighting
the fire and use the ship's Fire Control Plan and coordinate with shore
side fire fighters upon their arrival to extinguish the fire. |
Stop firefighting
efforts and wait until the shore side fire fighters arrive. |
Continue fighting
the fire and use the ship's SOLAS manual and coordinate with shore side
fire fighters to extinguish the fire. |
Continue fighting
the fire and use the ship's SOPEP plan and coordinate with shore side fire
fighters to extinguish the fire. |
|
D |
You are the Chief
Engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage.
While in port working cargo a fire is reported in the engine room. Shore
side fire fighting assistance has been requested. How would you proceed? |
Evacuate the ship
and leave the fighting of the fire to the shore side fire fighters. |
Use the ship's
SOPEP plan and coordinate with shore side fire fighters to extinguish the
fire. |
Use the ship's
SOLAS manual and coordinate with shore side fire fighters to extinguish
the fire. |
Use the ship's
Fire Control Plan and coordinate with shore side fire fighters to extinguish
the fire. |
|
D |
The best means
of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel
tied to the pier, is to use __________. |
dry chemical around
the fire |
water fog over
the fire |
solid water streams
directly into the fire |
foam directed against
the vessel's side |
|
C |
In the event of
a vessel fire in port, shore side firefighters can find details on vessel's
fire control plans in which of the following locations? |
A watertight enclosure
located on the bridge wing. |
A watertight enclosure
located at the lifeboats. |
A watertight enclosure
located outside the accommodations. |
With the vessel
agent. |
|
A |
Your vessel is
traveling on an international voyage. Regarding the assistance of shore
side fire fighters to combat a vessel fire while in port, what document,
if any, is required, and where would it be located? |
Fire Control Plan;
permanently stored in a prominently marked weather tight enclosure outside
the deck house. |
International Oil
Pollution Prevention Certificate located in the Captain's office. |
Minimum Safe Manning
Certificate located on the Bridge. |
No document required. |
|
A |
Your vessel has
two fire pumps and a low pressure CO2 system, which protect the cargo holds
and the engine room. A fire is reported on the #3 car deck aft hold. The
emergency teams are on air. The first team reports from the forward end
of the #3 car deck that there is heavy black smoke coming from the aft end
of the hold and there is very limited visibility. They also report they
cannot see any flames from their location. The second emergency team reports
paint burning and blistering on the hull in the area of #3 car deck aft,
as seen from the weather deck. How would you combat this fire? |
Pull all crew members
out of the cargo holds and start boundary cooling from the weather deck
with fire hoses. Simultaneously start the procedure to release CO2 into
the zone that is on fire. |
Recommend to the
Captain to abandon ship. |
Boundary cool from
the weather deck with fire hoses and use cargo fans to exhaust the smoke. |
Have the fire team's
advance into the aft end of #3 hold with fire hoses to locate and extinguish
the fire. |
|
A |
Your vessel has
two fire pumps and a low pressure CO2 system, which protect the cargo, holds
and the engine room. A fire is reported on the #3 car deck aft hold. The
emergency teams are on air. The first team reports from the forward end
of the #3 car deck that there is heavy black smoke coming from the aft end
of the hold and there is very limited visibility. They also report they
cannot see any flames from their location. The second emergency team reports
paint burning and blistering on the hull in the area of #3 car deck aft,
as seen from the weather deck. How would you combat this fire? |
Pull all crew members
out of the cargo holds and start boundary cooling from the weather deck
with fire hoses. Simultaneously start the procedure to release CO2 into
the zone that is on fire. |
Recommend to the
Captain to abandon ship. |
Boundary cool from
the weather deck with fire hoses and use cargo fans to exhaust the smoke. |
Have the fire teams
advance into the aft end of #3 hold with fire hoses to locate and extinguish
the fire. |
|
A |
As Chief Engineer
or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions
of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "transverse"
stability? |
Roll |
Pitch |
Sway |
Surge |
|
B |
Your vessel was
damaged in a collision and one compartment has partially flooded. The vessel
has free communication with the sea with water flowing in and out as the
vessel rolls. Which of the following is the most important factor contributing
to free communication loss of stability? |
Depth from the
bottom of the damaged compartment to the waterline. |
Distance from the
vessel centerline to the centerline of the damaged compartment. |
Breadth of the
damaged compartment affected. |
Whether or not
the damaged compartment on the opposite side of the vessel is full or empty. |
|
B |
As Chief Engineer
or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions
of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "positional
motion" stability? |
Surge |
Heave |
Sway |
Pitch |
|
C |
As Chief Engineer
or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions
of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "longitudinal"
stability? |
Surge |
Heave |
Pitch |
Yaw |
|
D |
As Chief Engineer
or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions
of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "lateral
motion" stability? |
Surge |
Heave |
Yaw |
Sway |
|
A |
As Chief Engineer
or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions
of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "motion ahead
and astern" stability? |
Surge |
Heave |
Yaw |
Pitch |
|
C |
By what method
is the final light ship weight, longitudinal and vertical centers of gravity
of a vessel, and final assignment of the load lines determined? |
By relying on calculations
based on ballasting a light vessel to full load displacement. |
By relying on naval
architectural design calculations. |
By relying on resultant
calculations from an inclining experiment. |
By actually shifting
ballast horizontally and longitudinally and relying on resultant calculations. |
|
A |
As Chief Engineer
of an oceangoing passenger vessel, it is important to know the effect of
trim and stability of your ship in the event of damage to a compartment.
To minimize the impact of flooding in the event of a grounding, what should
be your ship's safe practice regarding watertight doors and hatches? |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept closed during navigation except
when necessarily opened for working of the vessel, and in such cases they
shall always be ready to be immediately closed. |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept open during normal operation,
except during adverse weather when they shall be closed. |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept open during navigation to facilitate
crew movement and in all cases they shall always be ready to be immediately
closed. |
All watertight
doors in subdivision bulkheads shall be kept closed when the vessel is anchored
except when necessarily opened for working of the vessel, and in such cases
they shall always be ready to be immediately closed. |
|
D |
As Chief Engineer
you should understand the fundamental principles of ship construction and
theory and factors affecting trim and stability, including the concept of
loll and its cause. An angle of loll is commonly caused by which of the
following conditions? |
An off-center weight. |
Free surface with
G remaining below M. |
High external force
such as wind and current. |
A negative GM. |
|
D |
As Chief Engineer
you should understand the concept of loll and its cause. An angle of loll
is commonly caused by which of the following conditions? |
An off-center weight. |
Free surface with
G remaining below M. |
High external force
such as wind and current. |
A negative GM. |
|
B |
Your ship is working
cargo in port when a hydraulic hose ruptures on the weather deck and oil
spills into the harbor. Once the source of the oil spill has been secured,
how would you proceed? |
Refer to Oil Record
Book for directions. |
Follow the procedures
outlined in the vessel's Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan (SOPEP)
manual. |
Follow the procedures
outlined in the vessel's SOLAS manual. |
Refer to the ship's
Fuel Oil T ransfer Procedures for directions. |
|
C |
IMO Resolution
A167, 1968, Res. No. 749(18) 3.1 (1995, amended 1999), and section 2.2 in
the 2008 IS Code, sets the general criterion for vessels of more than 100
meters in length. Your vessel is covered by this regulation. In review of
your vessels stability data, after refueling you notice that the GM of the
vessel is less than the required 0.15 meters. What should you instruct the
2nd engineer to do with the fuel just received? |
Transfer the fuel
to raise the ship's KG and ignore the free surface effect. |
Transfer the fuel
to increase the free surface effect and raise the ship's KG. |
Transfer the fuel
to lower the ship's KG and minimize the free surface effect. |
Do nothing because
the minimum GM required in 0.1meters. |
|
A |
After refueling
your vessel you notice that the GM of the vessel is less than the required
0.15 meters. What do you do? |
Transfer the fuel
to lower the ship's KG and minimize the free surface effect. |
Transfer the fuel
to increase the free surface effect and raise the ship's KG. |
Transfer the fuel
to raise the ship's KG and ignore the free surface effect. |
Do nothing because
the minimum GM required in 0.1meters. |
|
D |
Many uninspected
motor vessels require load lines. For the purpose of the Load Line Regulations,
the term 'surveyor' means __________. |
any person from
the Coast Guard who performs duties with respect to the inspection, enforcement,
and administration of Title 52 of the revised statute |
an officer of the
Coast Guard designated by the Commandant to command all Coast Guard activities
within his district |
any person from
the Coast Guard who is in charge of a marine inspection zone |
any person designated
by the American Bureau of Shipping who actually examines the vessel |
|
C |
After transferring
a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will
__________. |
decrease |
increase |
remain the constant |
change, depending
on the location of the LCG |
|
D |
The distance between
the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________. |
tonnage |
freeboard |
reserve buoyancy |
draft |
|
B |
The symbol shown
in the illustration and used as a reference from which the height of the
center of gravity is measured, is item number_______. Illustration SF-0022 |
5 |
2 |
4 |
3 |
|
D |
The important
stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________. |
metacentric height |
height of the metacenter
above the keel |
height of the center
of buoyancy above the keel |
height of the center
of gravity above the keel |
|
C |
A vessel's center
of gravity is lowered when the __________. |
reserve buoyancy
increases |
freeboard is increased |
tanks are ballasted |
trim is increased |
|
A |
With no environmental
forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel
is vertically aligned with the __________. |
original vertical
centerline |
center of flotation |
longitudinal centerline |
metacenter |
|
D |
As chief engineer
you should understand the concept of corrective measures and their purpose.
The following four actions will have which affect on the vessel?
{{{
1) Add weight low and symmetrically about the centerline.
2) Remove high weight symmetrically.
3) Move weight down symmetrically.
4) Eliminate any free surface present.}}} |
To correct for
the trim of a vessel to achieve parallel sinkage. |
To correct for
the trim of a vessel to achieve a desired trim by the head. |
To minimize the
righting moment a vessel has thereby increasing her stability. |
To move the center
of gravity down to a position below the metacenter and remove an angle of
loll. |
|
A |
As Chief Engineer
your vessel has been damaged and one compartment has partially flooded.
The vessel has free communication with the sea with water flowing in and
out as the vessel rolls. The most important factor contributing to free
communication loss of stability is which of the following? |
Distance from the
vessel centerline to the centerline of the wing tank. |
Whether or not
the wing tank on the other side of the vessel is full or empty. |
Breadth of the
wing tank affected. |
Depth from the
bottom of the tank to the waterline. |
|
A |
Which abbreviation
represents the height of the center of buoyancy? |
KB |
CB |
BM |
BK |
|
B |
The water in which
a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which
this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________. |
effort |
buoyancy |
gravity |
flotation |
|
D |
The center of
volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the __________. |
center of gravity |
metacentric height |
center of flotation |
center of buoyancy |
|
C |
When a vessel
is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused
by the __________. |
increased free
surface in the buoyant wedge |
upward movement
of the center of flotation |
movement of the
center of buoyancy toward the low side of the vessel |
movement of the
center of gravity |
|
B |
As Chief Engineer
your vessel has been damaged and one compartment has partially flooded.
You understand that you have lost buoyancy and have added weights. If transverse
stability in the flooded condition is poor or negative, every effort should
be made to reduce the free surface and to lower the center of gravity. Of
main importance is for you to assure which of the following is maintained? |
A no list condition. |
As much reserve
buoyancy as possible. |
A GM that is at
least neutral -G moved down to be at M. |
Transfer water
from ballast tanks to the opposite side of the damage. |
|
D |
The difference
between the starboard and port drafts caused by a transverse shift in weight
is called __________. |
trim |
squat |
flotation |
list |
|
B |
Your vessel is
loading cargo and you are monitoring the stability and trim. Currently,
the Longitudinal Center of Buoyancy (LCB) is vertically aligned and below
the Longitudinal Center of Gravity (LCG). The Longitudinal Center of Flotation
(LCF) is aft of both of these. How is the vessel trimming? |
Trim by the bow
about the LCF. |
Vessel trims level. |
Trim by the bow
about the LCB. |
Trim by the stern
about the LCF. |
|
D |
For a vessel with
a block coefficient of 1, the addition of weight at the center of flotation
will __________. |
increase the forward
draft and decrease the after draft |
decrease the forward
draft and increase the after draft |
have no effect
on the stability |
have no effect
on the trim |
|
A |
The difference
between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called __________. |
heel |
trim |
list |
flotation |
|
B |
The difference
between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after a change in load
has occurred is known as __________. |
change of draft |
change of trim |
trim |
final trim |
|
D |
If a vessel initially
has no list and no significant trim, which of the developments shown in
the illustration will result in the greatest list? Illustration SF-0025 |
B |
C |
A |
D |
|
C |
If your vessel
has a starboard list after taking on fuel, you would transfer fuel __________. |
aft |
to starboard |
to port |
forward |
|
B |
As an engineer,
you should be familiar with the conditions that will cause a vessel to transversely
incline, list, or trim. Which of the following conditions causes a vessel
to trim? |
Off center weight. |
Fore and aft shift
of G. |
Combination of
off center weight and a negative GM. |
Negative GM. |
|
B |
While serving
as Chief Engineer on a partially loaded container ship the vessel is involved
in a collision. An empty starboard side wing tank becomes open to the sea
and the ship takes a starboard list. After investigating the damage it is
found that no other adjoining tanks are open to the sea. What action should
be recommended to ensure the ship maintains an even keel position? |
Ballast a starboard
wing while checking the free surface effect. |
Ballast a port
wing and check the free surface effect for both damaged and intact tanks. |
Discharge ballast
from a port wing while checking the free surface effect. |
Discharge ballast
from a center line double bottom tank to increase the vessels GM and give
her more stability. |
|
C |
Adverse effects
due to free surface will result when __________. |
the vessel's draft
is decreased exposing more surface area to the wind and current |
the vessel's draft
is increased, thus increasing the vessel's wetted surface area |
a portion of liquid
is removed from a full tank |
the vessel is trimmed
by the stern |
|
C |
A vessel's stability
is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Which of the listed conditions
would develop the greatest adverse effect? |
Tanks which have
been pressed up to full capacity. |
Tanks which are
95% full. |
Tanks which are
40% full. |
Tanks which have
been completely emptied. |
|
C |
Reducing the free
surfaces within a vessel, reduces the __________. |
waterplane area |
uncorrected height
of the center of gravity |
natural roll period |
metacentric height |
|
D |
The factor contributing
to the greatest effect on the ship's period of roll is the __________. |
moment to trim
1 inch (MT1) |
virtual rise in
the center of gravity |
Vertical position
of KB |
vertical weight
distribution |
|
C |
You can generally
improve the vessel's stability in a hazardous situation by __________. |
pumping double
bottoms to the forepeak |
transferring ballast
athwartships |
ballasting appropriate
port or starboard deep tanks |
deballasting double
bottoms |
|
D |
A ballast tank
is one-third full when additional ballast is added until it is two-thirds
full. The increased amount of liquid in the tank will have the greatest
influence on the __________. |
free surface effect |
virtual rise in
the center of gravity |
value of the moment
to trim 1 inch (MT1) |
transverse stability |
|
C |
A vessel which
is subjected to 'sagging' __________. |
is said to be under
a form of transverse bending |
is supported on
a wave whose crest is amidships |
has its bottom
plating under tensile stress |
has its main deck
under tensile stress |
|
A |
The 2nd assistant
engineer has just finished fueling operations. After entering the fuel data
into the loading computer you notice a greater than allowable at-sea bending
stress. After the chief mate checks the voyage cargo data the vessel still
has an excessive at-sea hogging bending stress. As Chief Engineer and after
consulting with the Chief Mate, what should your instructions be to reduce
the bending moment when ballasting the vessel? |
Add ballast to
a mid ships tank. |
Add ballast to
the fore peak tank. |
Add ballast to
the aft peak tank. |
Remove ballast
from a mid ships tank. |
|
C |
Following cargo
loading operations, your vessel is experiencing an excessive at-sea hogging
bending stress as shown in the illustration. What should you do to reduce
the bending moment? Illustration SF-0047 |
Remove ballast
from a mid ships tank. |
Add ballast to
the fore peak tank. |
Add ballast to
a mid ships tank. |
Add ballast to
the aft peak tank. |
|
B |
Following cargo
loading operations, your vessel is experiencing an excessive at-sea sagging
bending stress as shown in the illustration. What should you do to reduce
the bending moment? Illustration SF-0047 |
Remove ballast
from a mid ships tank. |
Add ballast to
the fore peak and aft peak tanks. |
Remove ballast
to the aft peak tank. |
Add ballast to
a mid ships tank. |
|
D |
Pitching is the
rising and falling motion of the bow of a ship oscillating about which axis? |
Longitudinal |
Centerline |
Vertical |
Transverse |
|
D |
The motion of
a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration
affects the governing "transverse" stability? Illustration SF-0048 |
Sway |
Surge |
Pitch |
Roll |
|
A |
Yawing is the
angular motion of the vessel about what axis? |
Vertical |
Longitudinal |
Centerline |
Transverse |
|
B |
The horizontal
port or starboard movement of a vessel is called __________. |
heave |
sway |
surge |
yaw |
|
A |
The 3rd engineer
on watch reports than the ship has an erratic rolling behavior and it does
not appear to stabilize at an even keel position. As Chief Engineer, after
consultation with the Chief Mate, what instruction would you give him? |
Add ballast to
a center line double bottom tank. |
Discharge dirty
ballast from a center line double bottom tank. |
Discharge water
from the fore peak tank. |
Add ballast to
wing tank to the side of the ship with an angle of list. |
|
D |
The motion of
a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration
affects the governing "motion ahead and astern" stability? Illustration
SF-0048 |
Heave |
Pitch |
Yaw |
Surge |
|
D |
The motion of
a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration
affects the governing "positional motion" stability? Illustration
SF-0048 |
Surge |
Sway |
Pitch |
Heave |
|
B |
The motion of
a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration
affects the governing "longitudinal" stability? Illustration SF-0048 |
Yaw |
Pitch |
Heave |
Surge |
|
C |
The motion of
a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration
affects the governing "directional" stability? Illustration SF-0048 |
Pitch |
Sway |
Yaw |
Surge |
|
B |
Reserve buoyancy
is the __________. |
unoccupied space
below the waterline |
volume of intact
space above the waterline |
difference between
buoyancy in salt and fresh waters |
excess of the buoyant
force over gravitational force |
|
C |
If the cause of
a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter flooding
into empty ballast tanks may __________. |
cause an increase
in the righting arm |
bring the unit
to an upright equilibrium position |
cause the unit
to flop to a greater angle |
increase the righting
moment |
|
C |
In the absence
of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located
directly above the __________. |
center of flotation |
amidships |
geometric center
of the displaced volume |
metacenter |
|
B |
Stability is determined
principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________. |
keel |
center of buoyancy |
center of flotation |
aft perpendicular |
|
C |
If additional
weight is placed on the main deck of the vessel shown in the illustration
__________. Illustration SF-0023 |
KB will go down |
GM will increase |
G will rise |
K will rise |
|
B |
Clogged limber
holes can endanger a ship's stability by __________. |
increasing water
area on the keelson |
preventing water
from draining to the bilge well |
decreasing off
center weight |
preventing the
free surface effect |
|
D |
Static water pressure
on the hull of a ship is greatest at the __________. |
bow |
stern |
boot topping |
keel |
|
B |
What standard
mathematical formula is commonly used to calculate a vessels waterplane
area for stability purposes? |
Reynolds Number
Rule |
Simpsons Rule |
Pythagorean Rule |
Standard Logarithmic
Rule |
|
C |
The weight of
the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water is equal to the __________. |
displaced submerged
volume |
weight required
to sink the vessel |
total weight of
the vessel |
reserve buoyancy |
|
D |
If the cause of
severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter flooding
into empty tanks will __________. |
increase list or
trim |
increase the righting
arm |
increase the righting
moment |
decrease list or
trim |
|
A |
The symbol shown
in the illustration used to represent displacement is __________. Illustration
SF-0022 |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
|
A |
Symbol #3, shown
in the illustration, represents __________. Illustration SF-0022 |
amidships |
baseline |
forward perpendicular |
displacement |
|
A |
Symbol number "3"
shown in the illustration represents which of the following? Illustration
SF-0022 |
amidships |
baseline |
forward perpendicular |
displacement |
|
B |
The symbol shown
in the illustration and is used as the reference from which transverse measurements
are made is __________. Illustration SF-0022 |
4 |
5 |
3 |
1 |
|
C |
The distance between
the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________. |
freeboard |
reserve buoyancy |
draft |
tonnage |
|
D |
After transferring
a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will
__________. |
change, depending
on the location of the LCG |
decrease |
increase |
remain the constant |
|
A |
Many uninspected
motor vessels require load lines. For the purpose of the Load Line Regulations,
the term 'surveyor' means __________. |
any person designated
by the American Bureau of Shipping who actually examines the vessel |
an officer of the
Coast Guard designated by the Commandant to command all Coast Guard activities
within his district |
any person from
the Coast Guard who is in charge of a marine inspection zone |
any person from
the Coast Guard who performs duties with respect to the inspection, enforcement,
and administration of Title 52 of the revised statute |
|
B |
With no environmental
forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel
is vertically aligned with the __________. |
center of flotation |
original vertical
centerline |
metacenter |
longitudinal centerline |
|
B |
A vessel's center
of gravity is lowered when the __________. |
freeboard is increased |
tanks are ballasted |
trim is increased |
reserve buoyancy
increases |
|
B |
The important
stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________. |
height of the center
of buoyancy above the keel |
height of the center
of gravity above the keel |
metacentric height |
height of the metacenter
above the keel |
|
D |
The symbol shown
in the illustration and used as a reference from which the height of the
center of gravity is measured, is item number_______. Illustration SF-0022 |
3 |
5 |
4 |
2 |
|
D |
When a vessel
is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused
by the __________. |
upward movement
of the center of flotation |
movement of the
center of gravity |
increased free
surface in the buoyant wedge |
movement of the
center of buoyancy toward the low side of the vessel |
|
C |
The center of
volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the __________. |
metacentric height |
center of gravity |
center of buoyancy |
center of flotation |
|
B |
The water in which
a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which
this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________. |
effort |
buoyancy |
gravity |
flotation |
|
D |
Which abbreviation
represents the height of the center of buoyancy? |
BM |
CB |
BK |
KB |
|
D |
If a vessel rolls
to the starboard side, and there are no movable or moving weights onboard,
the center of gravity will __________. |
move to starboard |
move to port |
move directly down |
stay in the same
position |
|
D |
A vessel trimmed
down by the bow has __________. |
a low mean draft |
a greater draft
aft than forward |
zero trim |
a greater draft
forward than aft |
|
A |
The tendency of
a ship to resist a change in trim is __________. |
longitudinal stability |
metacentric height |
the righting arm
couple |
transverse inclination |
|
B |
In the absence
of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will
cause the vessel to __________. |
decrease draft
at the center of flotation |
list until the
center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center of gravity |
heel until the
angle of loll is reached |
trim to the side
opposite TCG until all moments are equal |
|
D |
What effect will
transferring fuel oil from #1P double bottom to #3P double bottom have on
the trim of a vessel? |
The after draft
will decrease. |
The mean draft
will decrease. |
The mean draft
will increase. |
The forward draft
will decrease. |
|
D |
You may improve
a vessel's stability by __________. |
keeping at least
one fuel tank empty for slops |
keeping the fuel
tanks at least half full |
increasing the
free surface effect |
keeping the fuel
tanks topped off |
|
A |
Increasing the
free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________. |
virtual height
of the center of gravity |
uncorrected 'KG' |
metacentric height |
metacenter |
|
A |
Excessive free
surface occurring in tanks carrying liquid cargo should be avoided in order
to __________. |
maintain good stability |
maintain hog and
sag |
prevent oil pollution |
All of the above. |
|
C |
Adverse effects
due to free surface will result when __________. |
the vessel's draft
is increased, thus increasing the vessel's wetted surface area |
the vessel is trimmed
by the stern |
a portion of liquid
is removed from a full tank |
the vessel's draft
is decreased exposing more surface area to the wind and current |
|
A |
A vessel which
is subjected to 'hogging' __________. |
has its main deck
plating under tensile stress |
has its main deck
under compressive stress |
has its bottom
plating under ductile stress |
has its bottom
plate under tensile stress |
|
A |
A vessel having
a concentration of weight toward the top of the vessel is said to be __________. |
tender |
stiff |
neutral |
buoyant |
|
B |
What is the usual
effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to above the main deck? |
The stability is
increased. |
The stability is
decreased. |
The draft is increased. |
The reserve buoyancy
is decreased. |
|
C |
Which of the listed
conditions will occur to the ship's center of gravity if 200 tons of steel
is transferred to the ship's cargo hold from shore side? |
The center of gravity
will remain in the same position. |
The reserve buoyancy
will rise. |
The center of gravity
will be lowered. |
The reserve buoyancy
will remain the same. |
|
A |
The horizontal
fore-and-aft movement of a vessel is called __________. |
surge |
sway |
heave |
yaw |
|
C |
The vertical motion
of a floating vessel is known as __________. |
surge |
pitch |
heave |
sway |
|
D |
The angular movement
of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is __________. |
heaving |
pitching |
swaying |
rolling |
|
A |
Pitching is the
rising and falling motion of the bow of a ship oscillating about which axis? |
Transverse |
Centerline |
Longitudinal |
Vertical |
