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The complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and required personnel will be found in the __________. Oil Transfer Procedures Manual Code of Federal Regulations Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual Crude Oil Washing addendum to the Certificate of Inspection
You are planning to use a crude oil washing system. What precaution must be taken with the source tank for the washing machines? The inert gas system must lower the oxygen content in the source tank to a maximum of 12%. At least one meter must be decanted from the source tank. The source tank must have been crude oil washed at least once in the past 150 days. The oil in the source tank must be sampled for compatibility.
Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, the oxygen content in the tank must be measured at a position __________. one meter from the deck immediately above the level of the oil in the vent riser at the top of the tank
You are crude oil washing on a tanker with an inert gas system. What percentage of oxygen must the inert gas system produce and deliver to the tanks? 0 (%) 5 (%) 8 (%) 11 (%)
What is the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, allowed to be maintained in the cargo tanks prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing? 5 (%) 12 (%) 10 (%) 8 (%)
Tankers that are in service carrying "sour crudes" are faced with additional problems for their safe operation. One such problem is called "polyphoric oxidation" what does this result in? a second scrubber, known as an alkaline scrubber, to be added in series to the "normal" scrubber. particles of rust in the tanks reaching a high temperature during "gas free" operations. a lighter grade of crude being needed for tank washing. additional time for tank cleaning.
When cleaning a tank by the Butterworth process, you should begin to pump out the slops __________. at the end of the drop schedule when the tank is clean when the process is finished when the process is started
When cleaning cargo tanks with portable machines, how is the machine grounded? The water supply hoses contain internal wires that act as conductors The machines must maintain physical contact with the deck at the Butterworth opening. The water jets impinging on the vessel's structure form a pathway to ground. Bonding wires are secured from the machine to a convenient location on deck.
You are planning to use the crude oil washing system on your tankship. What is required to prevent electrostatic buildup in the tanks? The source tank for the tank cleaning machines must have least one meter decanted from it. The inert gas system must reduce the oxygen content in the tanks to a maximum of 18%. The portable machines must be set at the proper drop for the first wash before the fixed machines are used. The fixed machines must be operated simultaneously with the portable machines to equalize the electrostatic potential.
You have water washed your cargo tanks using the fixed machines. What should you do before using portable machines to clean areas screened from the wash of the fixed machine by structural members? Ventilate the tank to eliminate any electrostatically charged mist. Insure that the tanks are not stripped until the final wash is started. Attach the water supply hose to the portable machine after the cleaning head is positioned inside the tank. Ground the fixed machines to eliminate any electrostatic buildup on the cleaning head.
You are cleaning the tanks after carrying a cargo of crude oil. Which statement is TRUE? The hoses to portable cleaning machines should be disconnected before the machines are removed from the tank. Washing water should be recirculated if possible because it has the same electric potential as the cargo tank being cleaned. The principal hazard with steaming cargo tanks is raising the ambient temperature above the flame point of the cargo residue. Steam cleaning and water washing are both capable of generating electrostatic charges within a tank.
When tank cleaning with a portable machine, the weight of the machine is suspended from __________. the supply hose a wire rope suspension line the suspension line, usually manila or natural fiber line solid iron bars clamped to the Butterworth opening
You have completed a crude oil wash. What action should be taken with the oil in the lines running to the washing machines? Open a COW nozzle forward and one aft and drain the line into the after tank by gravity Blow the line out using compressed air Close off all valves in the system and leave the oil in the line primed for the next crude oil wash Pull a suction using the supply line pump
What is NOT a requirement for the safe and effective use of a crude oil washing system? Decant one meter from the source tank for the tank cleaning machines. Use an inert gas system while washing tanks. Use portable washing machines to reach areas obscured by structural members in the tanks. Strip all tanks and remove the bottom residue.
In order for you to operate your vessels crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be which of the following? gas free inerted opened to the atmosphere for ventilation full of cargo
Where will the complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and required personnel be found? Crude Oil Washing addendum to the Certificate of Inspection Oil Transfer Procedures Manual Code of Federal Regulations Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual
In controlling pollution, which action should be taken after all dirty ballast has been transferred to the slop tank and prior to discharge through the oily water separator? The clean tanks should be ballasted. Chemicals should be added to emulsify the oil. The slops should be allowed time to settle. The dirty ballast tank is crude oil washed.
You are planning to use the crude oil washing system on your tankship. What is required to prevent electrostatic buildup in the tanks? The source tank for the tank cleaning machines must have least one meter decanted from it. The portable machines must be set at the proper drop for the first wash before the fixed machines are used. The fixed machines must be operated simultaneously with the portable machines to equalize the electrostatic potential. The inert gas system must reduce the oxygen content in the tanks to a maximum of 18%.
What type of heat must be applied in order to raise the temperature of water from 60 degrees F to 180 degrees F? latent heat sensible heat crucial heat super heat
You have water washed your cargo tanks using the fixed machines. What should you do before using portable machines to clean areas screened from the wash of the fixed machine by structural members? Attach the water supply hose to the portable machine after the cleaning head is positioned inside the tank. Ventilate the tank to eliminate any electrostatically charged mist. Ground the fixed machines to eliminate any electrostatic buildup on the cleaning head. Insure that the tanks are not stripped until the final wash is started.
You are planning to use a crude oil washing system. What precaution must be taken with the source tank for the washing machines? The source tank must have been crude oil washed at least once in the past 150 days. At least one meter must be decanted from the source tank. The inert gas system must lower the oxygen content in the source tank to a maximum of 12%. The oil in the source tank must be sampled for compatibility.
You have completed a crude oil wash. What action should be taken with the oil in the lines running to the washing machines? Close off all valves in the system and leave the oil in the line primed for the next crude oil wash Blow the line out using compressed air Pull a suction using the supply line pump Open a COW nozzle forward and one aft and drain the line into the after tank by gravity
Which of the following shall be used to isolate fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker from the crude oil washing system? nonreturn valves automatic closing valves face blanks spade blanks
Oil product samples should be taken at the commencement and completion of loading operations. As the Person in Charge, where should the the final samples be taken? the dock riser the shore tank discharge the vessel's cargo tanks the shore line low points
Which of the terms best describes the process of the production of vapor above the surface of a boiling cargo due to evaporation on an LNG tanker? condensation adiabatic boil-off solidification
If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be which of the following? within the "explosive range" below the "explosive range" above the "lower explosive limit" above the "explosive range"
The boiling point of Methane is -161°C. How is the substance carried? Normal ambient temperature. Fully pressurized. Fully refrigerated. Atmospheric pressure.
Which of the following would be classified as grade "C" petroleum product? Reid vapor pressure of 7 psia, flash point of 85°F. Reid vapor pressure of 14 psia, flash point of 60°F. Reid vapor pressure of 5 psia, flash point of 70°F. Reid vapor pressure above 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia.
LNG is carried at approximately what temperature? -160 degrees C -160 degrees K -160 degress F -160 degrees R
Which of the following is an example of a example of a grade D product? kerosene aviation gas grade 115/145 commercial gasoline heavy fuel oil
What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas? temperature flammability toxicity pressure
What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas? temperature toxicity flammability pressure
Which of the following defines flammable liquids for the purpose of U.S. regulations? liquids that give off flammable vapors at or below 80°F (27°C) liquids that sustain combustion at a temperature at or below 100°F (38°C) liquids that give off flammable vapors only above 80°F (27°C) liquids that have a Reid vapor pressure of 18 pounds or more
Which of the following describes a liquified gas? A substance that at normal temperature and pressure would be a gas. A liquid that needs to be stored at absolute zero to prevent it becoming gaseous. A liquid that requires to be heated above normal ambient temperature to make it form a gas. A gas that is mixed with another substance that causes it to liquify.
What is Reid Vapor Pressure? exerted by liquid cargo on a cargo hose body the lowest temperature and pressure that will cause a flammable liquid to give off vapors a measurement of the amount of flammable vapors given off by a liquid at a certain temperature exerted by liquid cargo on the sides of a tank
What is the lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame? autoignition temperature vaporization temperature fire point flash point
What grade are most crude oils are classified as? A or B E C or D B
Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid? 160°F 87°F 155°F 65°F
What do the designations A, B, C, D, and E refer to in grades of cargo? degrees of quality of petroleum products grades of crude oil pour point, color, and viscosity index of petroleum products flash point range and Reid vapor pressure index of petroleum products
What is the standard unit of liquid volume used in the petroleum industry? liter barrel gallon drum
Which of the following describes the flash point temperature of a liquid? at which a liquid will explode at which a liquid will burn steadily at which a liquid will give off inflammable vapors that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily
What is the standard net barrel for petroleum products? 60 gallons at 100°Saybolt 48 gallons at 70°Fahrenheit 50 gallons at 50°Celsius 42 gallons at 60°Fahrenheit
In what condition is LNG transported? At its critical temperature. At a pressure in excess of 15.4 PSIA. At its boiling point. At its vapor stage
What is the most common liquified gas cargo? chemical gases butane ammonia hydrocarbons
Which of the following describes one of the principle dangers inherent in liquified petroleum gas? as it warms up it becomes heavier than air the way it reacts with sea water its low temperature causes frostbite or freezing the strong odor it produces
What do the designations A, B, C, D, and E grades of cargo define? grades of crude oil pour point, color, and viscosity index of petroleum products flash point range and Reid vapor pressure index of petroleum products degrees of quality of petroleum products
Grade E combustible liquids have a flash point of __________. 60°F to 100°F 80°F to 150°F 150°F or above 90°F to 120°F
Grade D combustible liquids have a maximum flash point of __________. 100°F 80°F 109°F 149°F
Most liquified gas cargoes are flammable, and are carried at or close to their boiling point. What will happen if they are released into the atmosphere? result in sloshing in the tank which could make the ship unstable burn, if it's within its flammable range and has an ignition source freeze and possibly cause structural damage allow air to enter the system causing polymerization
The designations A, B, C, D, and E grades of cargo refer to the __________. pour point, color, and viscosity index of petroleum products flash point range and Reid vapor pressure index of petroleum products degrees of quality of petroleum products grades of crude oil
Which of the following grade classifications is assigned to Camphor oil? A C D E
Which product is most likely to accumulate static electricity? Residual fuel oil Lubricating oil Crude oil Hard asphalt
Most crude oils are classified as grade __________. E A or B C or D B
A petroleum liquid has a flash point of 85°F. This is a grade __________. B flammable liquid C flammable liquid D combustible liquid E combustible liquid
Flammable liquid means any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or below __________. 40°F (4.4°C) 80°F (26.7°C) 110°F (43.3°C) 150°F (65.6°C)
Combustible liquids are divided into how many grades? One Two Three Four
Combustible liquid is defined as any liquid having a flash point above __________. 40°F ( 4°C) 80°F (27°C) 110°F (43°C) 150°F (66°C)
A combustible liquid with a flash point of 90°F would be grade __________. B C D E
A flammable liquid having a Reid vapor pressure of 8½ P.S.I.A. or less and a flash point of 80°F or below is grade __________. A B C D
A petroleum liquid has a flash point of 135°Fahrenheit. This liquid is classed as a grade __________. B flammable liquid C flammable liquid D combustible liquid E combustible liquid
Butadiene, inhibited, is labeled as a __________. flammable gas flammable liquid combustible liquid flammable solid
The vapor pressure of a substance __________. increases with the temperature may increase or decrease as the temperature rises is not affected by temperature decreases as temperature increases
When referring to quantity of barite in a P-tank, ullage is the __________. total weight of barite in UPC (ullages per centimeter) distance of the barite surface above the tank bottom distance of the barite surface below the tank cover percentage of barite in the tank
The vapor pressure of a gas is defined as the pressure necessary to keep it in what state? solid state soluble state liquified state inert state
What does the term "oil", as used in the U.S. regulations mean? liquefied petroleum gas petroleum oil of any kind fuel oil only crude oil only
Which of the following reacts dangerously with vinyl chloride? concentrated nitric acid alkalies saltwater organic acids
A combustible liquid is defined as any liquid having a flash point above what temperature? 40°F (4°C) 80°F (27°C) 110°F (43°C) 150°F (66°C)
What is the flash point of a Grade D liquid? 212°F or greater greater than 80°F and less than 150°F 80°F or less 150°F or greater but less than 212°F
You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is TRUE? Carbon disulfide may be carried in NOS. 1 and 2 center tanks and diisopropylamine in NOS. 1 and 2 wing tanks. A tank of pyridine may be used to separate a tank of carbon disulfide from a tank of diisopropylamine. Pyridine and diisopropylamine may be carried in tanks having a common header vent. Carbon disulfide must be separated from pyridine by two barriers (cofferdams, voids, empty tanks, etc.).
What is the flash point of vinyl chloride? -108°F (-78°C) 32°F (0°C) -20°F (-29°C) 97°F (36°C)
What happens to the volume of flammable and combustible liquids when temperature is increased? it expands it remains constant if pressure remains constant it remains constant it contracts
Which factor must be considered when determining the order of loading of dissimilar products through the same piping system aboard a tanker? Reid vapor pressures Flash points Contamination of the cargo Specific gravities
What is the temperature at which a vapor mixture, at a given pressure, begins to condense? boiling point critical point bubble point dew point
Some cargoes can react with air to form unstable oxygen compounds which could cause them to do which of the following? form CO2 form water explode polymerize
Which of the following will be the indication of the tendency of a grade "B" product to vaporize? flammable range ignition temperature convection index flash point
Which of the following describes the relationship between the vapor pressure of a substance and temperature? increases with the temperature is not affected by temperature decreases as temperature increases may increase or decrease as the temperature rises
What is the general name given to propane, butane, and mixtures of the two? LNG NGL LEG LPG
Which of the following describes one of the principle dangers inherent in liquified petroleum gas? as it warms up it becomes heavier than air its low temperature causes frostbite or freezing the way it reacts with sea water the strong odor it produces
Which of the following is a characteristic of Methane gas? it is corrosive it is odorless it is volatile it is active
The fitting at the end of a cargo line in a tank that allows suction to be taken close to the bottom of a tank is a __________. bell-mouth vacuum valve strainer suction end
The system of valves and cargo lines in the bottom piping network of a tank vessel that connects one section of cargo tanks to another section is called a __________. runaround crossover manifold come-along
The pipe used to connect two separate piping systems on a tank vessel is known as a __________. crossover connection transfer junction
The piping that routes an oil cargo from the manifold directly to a cargo tank and serves only one tank is known as a __________. branch line tank drop filler line cargo fill
The main underdeck pipeline on a tankship is connected to individual tanks by __________. line drops crossovers tank drops branch lines
The piping that routes an oil cargo from the manifold to underdeck pipelines is known as a __________. branch line cargo fill line drop transfer
Pinching of the cargo hose between the vessel and the dock should be prevented by __________. tying off the topping lifts and runners to winch heads laying out an excess length of hose on deck adjusting the hose supports All of the above.
A single fitting installed in a pipeline that either blanks off the pipe or allows a full flow passage of a liquid through the pipe is referred to as a __________. blind flange pivot coupling spectacle flange quick-release coupling
The main function of a stripping system is to __________. dispose of dangerous vapors within the cargo tanks maintain the temperature of the cargo throughout the vessel discharge liquid left in the cargo tanks after the main pumps have discharged the bulk increase the loading rate of the shoreside pumps
What will NOT increase friction of a liquid flowing in a pipe and cause a loss of suction head? Slowing the pumping rate Bends in the piping Pipeline valves Backing rings for pipe welds
Your non-oceangoing vessel is required to have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. What is required at each outlet of this system? A non-return valve A stop valve A 5-gallon can or a fixed containment system A means to stop each pump
Insulating flanges minimize the dangers arising from which of the following? smoking on deck accumulations of electrostatic charges loading asphalt tank over-pressurization
What is the most commonly used material for valve construction in LNG cargo piping? 9% nickel alloy steel. Stainless steel. Aluminum. 5% nickel alloy steel.
What should you use when hooking up a cargo hose to your vessel manifold? international shore connection oxygen analyzer insulating flange or single length of non-conducting hose self-contained breathing apparatus
In accordance with regulations, what is the required bursting pressure of a cargo hose used for transferring liquefied gases? 4 times the pressure of the cargo pump used for transferring 5 times the minimum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer one half the designed working pressure 5 times the maximum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer
On a vapor control system, what must each vessel's vapor connection flange have? pressure gauge permanently attached to the flange hose saddle stud at least 1" long projecting from the flange face 6" reducer
What is the first action you should take to prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system? open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump open block valves, then start the cargo pump start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
A relief valve for a cargo pump is generally installed __________. between the pump and suction valve after the discharge valve between the pump and discharge valve after the suction valve
Branch venting from safety relief valves on barges shall be constructed to discharge the gas at a vertical height above the weather deck to a minimum of __________. 6 feet 8 feet 10 feet 12 feet
Which statement is TRUE concerning deep well self-priming pumps? When loading oil cargo, it is always loaded via the discharge line through to the pump until the tank is topped off. In recent years deep well pumps have become increasingly unpopular in product tankers and medium size crude ships. Stripping systems are generally eliminated for the purposes of cargo handling. There is no danger of damaging the pump from overheating.
Which statement about a centrifugal cargo pump is TRUE? It is a positive displacement pump. Increasing rotation speed will decrease discharge pressure. It must have a positive suction. All of the above.
What is a characteristic of all centrifugal cargo pumps? Decreasing the speed of rotation will decrease the discharge pressure. Opening the discharge valve wider will increase the discharge pressure. They are self-priming. All of the above.
What is NOT an advantage of centrifugal pumps over reciprocating pumps? They pump more cargo in less time. They require priming for stripping. They are less expensive. They are smaller for equivalent pumping ability.
Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tankers? They are more expensive than reciprocating pumps. They are used for stripping pumps. They require extensive maintenance. They are gravity-fed.
Which pump must always be primed? Centrifugal pump Reciprocating pump Rotary pump All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tank vessels? They are positive displacement pumps. They are gravity-fed. They require more maintenance than a reciprocating pump. They produce a pulsating flow.
Centrifugal pumps have what advantage(s) over reciprocating pumps? They pump more cargo in less time. They are smaller for equivalent pumping ability. They are less expensive. All of the above.
A deepwell pump is a type of __________. gear pump centrifugal pump screw pump eductor
All of the following steps are taken in starting a centrifugal pump, EXCEPT to __________. check the lubrication system vent the pump casing set the relief valve open the pump suction and discharge valves
You may be able to avoid loss of suction in a pump by __________. using a full tank to keep the pump primed opening the vent cock on the pump closing down on the tank valve All of the above.
You start a centrifugal cargo pump to discharge cargo. The pump works for a while and then loses suction. This could be caused by __________. the pump running backwards the discharge head being too high incomplete priming All of the above.
Which method should be used to warm up the pump turbines prior to discharge? Run the turbine at slow speed with the pump disconnected Shut the discharge valve and run the pump at slow speed Lock the turbine rotor and slowly bleed in steam until operating temperature is reached Run the pump at high speed with the discharge valves closed
What is LEAST likely to be used to strip a cargo tank? Centrifugal pump Reciprocating pump Eductor Rotary pump
On what type of pump would you find an impeller? Piston Vane Gear Centrifugal
If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric motors, operating at unequal speeds are discharging an inflammable liquid through a common discharge line, the higher speed pump may cause the slower pump to do which of the following? overspeed the driving end turn backward overheat stop
Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations, sources of vapor ignition if the steam temperature is at least what temperature? 100°C 1200°F 212°F 500°F
Which of the following conditions would be hazardous if you were using two centrifugal pumps to discharge a flammable liquid? Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a common line. Each pump operating at a different speed and discharging into a common line. Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a common line. Both pumps operating at the same speed taking suction from a common line.
On many modern tankers, which of the following devices is used to reduce cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge? Clipper seals Flinger rings Shaft sleeves Mechanical seals
Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tankers? They are more expensive than reciprocating pumps. They are used for stripping pumps. They are used for stripping pumps. They are gravity-fed.
Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo pumps is correct? A pumproom is not necessary. The prime mover is connected at the lower portion of the shaft. The impeller is located at the upper end of the shaft. Special priming provisions are necessary.
The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist the discharging operation. You start the discharge, and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a result of which of the following? booster pump coming on the line and discharging properly booster pump being lined up in the wrong direction ships pump speeding up booster pump failing to start
What are submerged LNG pump bearings lubricated by? silicon grease graphite LNG Low Temp-a special cryogenic lubricant
What is the purpose of pressure-vacuum relief valves? Automatic regulation of pressure or vacuum in enclosed spaces. Regulation of discharge pressure from cargo pumps Maintaining constant velocity in cargo lines Regulation of suction head on cargo pumps
To insure proper seating when closing a valve on a tank, the valve should be __________. set up as tight as possible by hand closed against the stop and the locking pin inserted closed, opened a half turn, and then closed again set up tight using a valve wrench
The valve on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank vessel will usually be a __________. gate valve check valve butterfly valve globe valve
What is TRUE of pressure/vacuum valves? They are designed to provide for the flow of small volumes of tank atmospheres caused by thermal variations in a cargo tank. They should operate in advance of the pressure/vacuum breakers. They should be kept in good working order by regular inspection and cleaning. All of the above.
What is the purpose of the relief valve of a cargo pump? Permits the return of cargo to the suction side of the pump Provides for the removal of vapors Allows two or more tanks to be filled at the same time Provides for the emergency shutdown of the pump
Cargo pump relief valves are piped to the __________. atmosphere through pump vents crossover lines interconnecting two pumps cargo pump pressure gauges suction side of pumps
Which characteristic is an advantage of a butterfly valve as compared to a gate valve? No resistance to cargo flow when open Precise control over cargo flow Quick operation Less maintenance required
What is an advantage of a gate valve over a butterfly valve? Less frequent maintenance More compact Faster operation Cheaper
A device fitted over the discharge opening on a relief valve consisting of one or two woven wire fabrics is called a flame __________. filter restrictor stopper screen
What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position? From above the seat From below the seat Depends on seat configuration Direction is unimportant
Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)? 1 2 3 4
What type of valve will usually be on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank vessel? gate valve globe valve check valve butterfly valve
Which of the following applies to cargo tank safety valves? can be opened by pilot valves are not held closed by tank pressure are not to be "popped" in port All of the above.
What is a single fitting installed in a pipeline that either blanks off the pipe or allows a full flow passage of a liquid through the pipe? spectacle flange pivot coupling quick-release coupling blind flange
What is TRUE of pressure/vacuum valves? They should be kept in good working order by regular inspection and cleaning. They should operate in advance of the pressure/vacuum breakers. They are designed to provide for the flow of small volumes of tank atmospheres caused by thermal variations in a cargo tank. All of the above.
Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be kept in good working order to prevent __________. escape of explosive vapors oil spillage on deck contamination from other tanks damage to tank boundaries
The periodic weight testing of a vessel's cargo booms may be performed by the __________. American Bureau of Shipping Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers National Cargo Bureau U.S. Coast Guard
What would you use to adjust the height of a cargo boom? Topping lift Spanner guy Working guy Lizard
What is meant by the term "topping the boom"? Spotting the boom over the deck Swinging the boom athwartships Lowering the boom Raising the boom
What is meant by "spotting the boom"? Two-blocking it Lowering it into a cradle Spotting it with wash primer and red lead Placing it in a desired position
The process of lowering a boom to a horizontal position and onto its deck support is called __________. collaring a boom cradling a boom toppling a boom spotting a boom
The heel block is located __________. at the base of the boom near the spider band near the midships guy at the cargo hook
The head block is located __________. at the base of the boom on top of the jack staff at the head of the boom at the head of the mast
A band or collar on the top end of a boom to which the topping lift, midships guy, and outboard guys are secured, is called the __________. spider band guy band collar band pad eye collar
Which part of a cargo boom has the greatest diameter? It has the same diameter along its complete length. Head Heel Middle
What is required to be stenciled at the heel of a cargo boom? Date of the last quadrennial test Maximum angle of elevation permitted Maximum load when doubled up Safe working load
The safe working load for the assembled cargo gear and the minimum angle to the horizontal for which the gear is designed shall be marked on the __________. head of the boom heel of the boom deck mast or king post
The fitting that allows a boom to move freely both vertically and laterally is called the __________. swivel spider band gooseneck lizard
The main advantage and chief characteristic of a Steulchen boom is that it can be __________. operated by one winchman collared to the mast cradled on deck swung from one hatch to the adjacent hatch
With a given load on the cargo hook, the thrust on a cargo boom __________. is greatest at an angle of 45° and decreases as the boom is raised or lowered increases as the angle to the horizontal increases is least at an angle of 45° and increases as the boom is raised or lowered increases as the angle to the horizontal decreases
The greatest strain, when lifting a load with the jumbo purchase, is on __________. the parts in the movable block the hauling part because it must absorb the frictional losses of all the sheaves the standing part because it is directly connected to the weight all of the parts, dividing the load equally
For a given weight of cargo, the stress on the heel block of a cargo boom __________. is determined by the thrust stresses on the boom increases as the cargo closes the head while hoisting increases if the cargo runner is doubled up decreases as the boom is topped to a greater angle
The greatest horizontal stress between the heads of the booms in the yard and stay rig occurs when the load is in such a position that the __________. stay fall is at a greater angle to the horizontal than the yard fall stay fall is vertical yard fall is at a greater angle to the horizontal than the stay fall falls are at an equal angle to the horizontal
You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE? The thrust on the boom is greater at 20°. The stress on the head block is greater at 60°. The angle of elevation does not change the stresses in the masthead fairlead for the topping lift. The stress on the heel block is greater at 60°.
You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is true? The change in angle of elevation has no effect on the stresses in the head block. The thrust on the boom is greater at 20°. The stress on the heel block is less at 60°. The stress on the topping lift is greater at 60°.
You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses in the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE? The stress on the heel block is less at 20°. The thrust on the boom is greater at 20°. The stress on the topping lift is greater at 60°. The stress on the masthead fairlead for the topping lift is greater at 20°.
You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE? The stress on the topping lift is greater at 60°. The stress on the heel block is less at 20°. The stress on the head block is less at 60°. The thrust on the boom is greater at 60°.
The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended, thumb pointing downwards, flexing fingers in and out. This is the signal to __________. lower the load and raise the boom raise the load and lower the boom lower the boom and raise the load raise the boom and lower the load
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended with the palm down and holds this position rigidly. This is the signal to __________. lower stop hoist swing
How should you signal the crane operator to hoist? With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles. Extend arm with fingers closed and thumb pointing upward. With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal circles. Place both fists in front of body with the thumbs pointing upward.
How should you signal the crane operator to use the main hoist? First tap your elbow with one hand, and then proceed to use regular signals. Extend arm with the thumb pointing up and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. Use one hand to give any motion signal, and place the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. First tap the top of your head with your fist, and then proceed to use regular signals.
How should you signal the crane operator to lower? With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles. With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal circles. Extend arm and point finger in the direction to move the boom. Extend arm with thumb pointing downward, and flex fingers in and out.
How should you signal the crane operator to use the whip line? First tap your elbow with one hand, and then proceed to use regular signals. Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. Use one hand to give any motion signal, and place the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. First tap the top of your head with your fist, and then proceed to use regular signals.
How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom and lower the load? Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly. Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. Clasp hands in front of your body. Place both fists in front of your body with thumbs pointing toward each other.
How should you signal the crane operator to move slowly? First tap the top of your head with your fist and then proceed to use regular signals. Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. Use one hand to give any motion signal, and place the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. First tap your elbow with one hand and then proceed to use regular signals.
How should you signal the crane operator to stop? Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly. Clasp hands in front of your body. Place both fists in front of your body with the thumbs pointing outward. With both arms extended out and palms down, move arms back and forth.
How should you signal the crane operator to dog everything? Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly. Extend arm with the thumb pointing up, and flex the fingers in and out. Place both fists in front of your body with thumbs pointing toward each other. Clasp hands in front of your body.
How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom? With arm extended and fingers closed, point thumb downward. With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal circles. With hands clasped in front of your body. Extend arm with the palm down, and hold this position rigidly.
How should you signal the crane operator to swing? Place both fists in front of the body with the thumbs pointing outward. With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal circles. Extend arm and point finger in the direction to move the boom. With both arms extended out and palms down, move arms back and forth.
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended and is pointing his finger in the direction to move the boom. This is the signal to __________. hoist extend swing lower
How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom? Extend arm with the thumb pointing up and flex the fingers in and out. With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles. Extend arm with fingers closed and point thumb upward. Place both fists in front of the body with the thumbs pointing upward.
How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom and raise the load? With forearm vertical and forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles. Extend arm and point finger in the direction to move the boom. Extend arm with thumb pointing downward and flex fingers in and out. With arm extended downwards and forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal circles.
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended downwards, forefinger pointing down, and moves his hand in small horizontal circles. This is the signal to __________. hoist lower extend swing
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his forearm vertical, forefinger pointing up, and moves his hand in a small horizontal circle. This is the signal to __________. extend lower swing hoist
How should you signal the crane operator to stop in an emergency? Extend arm with the palm down and hold this position rigidly. Place both fists in front of the body with the thumbs pointing outward. Extend arm and move hand rapidly right and left with the palm down. Place clasped hands in front of your body.
The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended with his fingers closed and thumb pointing upward. This is the signal to __________. check the boom stop raise the hook raise the boom and hook raise the boom
The signal man has both arms extended out, palms down, and is moving his arms back and forth. This is the signal for __________. emergency stop swing right keep lifting swing left
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, with the thumb pointing up, and is flexing his fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. This is the signal to __________. raise the boom and lower the load lower the boom and lower the load raise the boom and raise the load lower the boom and raise the load
The signal man assisting the crane operator uses one hand to give any motion signal and places the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. This is the signal to __________. increase speed proceed with caution stop move slowly
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, his fingers closed, and his thumb pointing downward. This is the signal to __________. lower the load hoist the load raise the boom lower the boom
The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps his elbow with one hand and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________. use the main hoist use the whip line proceed slowly increase speed
The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps the top of his head with his fist and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________. use the main hoist use the whip line proceed slowly use the auxiliary line
The signal man assisting the crane operator has one hand occupied and one fist in front of his chest with the thumb pointing outward and is tapping his chest with the heel of his fist. This is the signal to __________. hoist the boom extend the boom retract the boom lower the boom
The signal man assisting the crane operator has his hands clasped in front of his body. This is the signal to __________. stop prepare for signal dog everything stand-by
What does item "K" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Cargo snaking cables Manual slewing cables Rider block taglines Jib luffing cables
What does item "G" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Pillar Turntable Pedestal Mast
What does item "E" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Tagline Cargo snaking wire Electric cable Hook release cable
What does item "A" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Slewing cable Cargo hoist falls Remote block tagline system Boom luffing falls
Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function? Luff travel limits Turntable limits Slew travel limits All of the above.
Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function? Slew travel limits Slew rate limits Swivel power limits Luff rate limits
What does item "C" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Equalizing beam Block/hook assembly Hoist fall spreader Rider block
What does item "D" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane? Hook block Heel block Gin block Rider block
The crane manufacturer's operating tables are posted near the __________. crane controls crane pedestal main deck wire-rope locker
Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal crane? Taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the topping lift. Taglines are wire ropes payed-out or taken-in for positioning the crane pedestal. Taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the jib. Taglines can be fastened to the corners of vehicles or containers during cargo operations.
Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal crane? The taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the topping lift. Taglines are wire rope purchases that raise and lower the jib. The crane might not have taglines installed in its rigging system. Taglines can be fastened to the corners of the jib when lifting containers.
What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in illustration D051DG can lift when married together in twin with the other pair of cranes at the opposite end of the hatch? 30 tons 90 tons 120 tons 60 tons
Which safety precaution(s) should be observed during crane operations? Using the proper slings or other lifting devices during cargo operations Checking for proper lifting from beneath the load during cargo operations Relaying communications to port agents on the pier during cargo hoists All of the above.
When a cargo boom or crane is rated at varying capacities, there will be a table at the controls which relates safe working load to __________. cable strength winch speed boom strength load radius
Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG? Crane house assembly Foundation assembly Turntable assembly All of the above.
It is the responsibility of the crane operator to, at all times, be aware of the location of the __________. boom hook load All of the above.
What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in illustration D049DG can lift in the twin mode? 15 tons 30 tons 60 tons 120 tons
Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG? Hook block assembly Boom assembly Operator's cab All of the above.
What should be given, as a minimum, to personnel who are involved in crane cargo handling? Protective head gear, gloves, and steel-toed safety shoes A life preserver for going aloft to work on the crane A survival suit for work on the stern or side port All of the above.
Which of the following is/are the optional component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG? Rider block tagline system Hook block assembly Boom assembly All of the above.
The load chart of a crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with boom length to determine the __________. allowable load maximum counter weight required hoist rope strength minimum horsepower required
The 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in the illustration D047DG can lift a maximum weight of how many tons in the single mode? 120 tons 60 tons 30 tons 15 tons
On a ship's crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of the boom length and __________. winch speed boom strength cable strength load radius
When should a crane boom-up so high that the boom hits the stops? Only if the load has not exceeded the limit at that angle Never Only if necessary to perform a given lift Only if the load contains non-hazardous materials
The boom stops on a pedestal crane prevent the boom from __________. being raised too high swinging at sea overloading when not in use being lowered too low
For any given pedestal crane, when the boom is lengthened, the lifting capacity is __________. decreased eliminated unchanged increased
The boom indicator on a crane will indicate the __________. direction of the boom length of the boom angle of the boom lifting capacity of the boom
The boom indicator tells the operator at what angle the boom is compared to the __________. horizontal position of the load being lifted vertical position of the load being lifted horizontal position of the boom vertical position of the boom
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding crane operations? The aft cranes can be operated from the aft steering station. The forward cranes can be operated from the bridge. Radio communications allow the crane operator to disregard the use of hand signals. The crane operators and signalman must be familiar with the correct hand signals.
Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations? Pre-operation checks and start-up Removing booms from stowage Luff, slew, and hoist operations All of the above.
Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations? Removing booms from stowage Emergency shutdown operation Normal boom stowage and shutdown operations All of the above.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes? Each single boom is of the partial-level luffing type and is capable of limited rotation. A slew drive system provides for rotation of each crane. An independent slew drive system rotates the turntable. All of the above.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes? Maintenance logs and records are to be kept for each crane. A slew drive system provides for rotation of each crane. Each single boom is of the partial-level luffing type and is capable of limited rotation. All of the above.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding a twin pedestal crane set? The cranes may be interconnected for twin operation. The cranes may be operated independently. When twinned, the crane rotation on the foundation assembly is unlimited. All of the above.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE regarding a twin pedestal crane set? The cranes may be interconnected for twin operation. The cranes may be operated independently. The cranes are powered by independent internal combustion power units. All of the above.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes? Each crane is supplied with luff, hoist, and slew functions for crane load handling. An independent slew drive system rotates the turntable. A slew drive system provides for rotation of each crane. All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE regarding the operation of a crane? The cargo block is raised and lowered by the luffing winch. The crane jib is raised and lowered by the luffing winch. The crane jib is raised and lowered by a jibing winch. The crane jib is raised and lowered by the hoisting winch.
Which statement is FALSE regarding the operation of a crane? The cargo block is raised and lowered by the luffing winch. The cargo block is raised and lowered by the hoisting winch. The crane jib is raised and lowered by the luffing winch. None of the above
Which statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding the operation of a crane? The cargo block is raised and lowered by the luffing winch. The crane jib is raised and lowered by the hoisting winch. The load is handled by the hoisting winch and cargo block. All of the above.
Who should be notified prior to starting up a crane? The engine room The stevedore foreman The pumpman All of the above.
Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations? Cargo handlers must be outfitted with adequate protection from personal injury. Do not exceed rated load capacity of crane and container spreader or slings. During any cargo handling operation, the safety of personnel is paramount. All of the above.
Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations? Lifting points on all equipment must be safely checked prior to commencing a lift. Cargo loaded into vehicles and/or containers prior to lifting needs to be properly secured so as to prevent shifting during transport. Never exceed crane manufacturer's limits concerning the safe working loads of cargo jibs. All of the above.
Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations? Never exceed crane manufacturer's limits concerning the safe working loads of cargo jibs. Lifting points on all equipment need not be checked prior to commencing a lift. Cargo loaded into vehicles and/or containers prior to lifting need not be secured. All of the above.
Which statement(s) is/are FALSE concerning crane cargo operations? Never exceed crane manufacturer's limits concerning the safe working loads of cargo jibs. Cargo loaded into vehicles and/or containers prior to lifting need not be secured. Lifting points on all equipment must be safely checked prior to commencing a lift. All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE concerning the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes when completing a quad lift? The discharge is slow due to the size of the cargo and all the cranes working together. The cargo discharge cannot be performed at anchor. The cranes require shoreside assistance to handle heavy cargos. The cargo discharge cannot be accomplished without pendulation.
Which action(s) should the operator of a pedestal crane take if crane control is lost? Let go of both control levers and return to neutral position. Press the emergency stop. Notify the mate on watch. All of the above.
During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations? Bunkering More than 3° list High winds Potable water spill on deck
During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations? Potable water spill on deck Crane hydraulic hose bursts Trim greater than 4 feet Bunkering barge alongside
During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations? Lightning Fire aboard High winds All of the above.
During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations? Lightning in the vicinity An approaching squall line A fire on the pier All of the above.
Which wire rope purchases may be used with a 30-ton pedestal crane? Rider block Luff Hoist All of the above.
Which wire rope purchase(s) is/are optional with a 30-Ton pedestal crane? Rider block Hoist Luff All of the above.
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE concerning cranes being installed on the centerline of vessels? They are more economical and weigh less. One crane is able to work one end of two adjacent hatches. One crane is able to work both sides of the ship. All of the above.
Which piece(s) of equipment is/are required to "twin-up" 30-ton pedestal cranes aboard a crane vessel? Portable power swivel Equalizing beam 20-foot container spreader All of the above.
What is the purpose of the equalizing beam aboard a crane vessel? It allows for rotation of the hook in the single mode. It is used to rigidly connect two cranes. It is used to pick up light loads. It is required to "twin-up" 30-ton pedestal cranes.
What is another name for the boom of a crane? Lift Rider Jib All of the above.
What does a jib refer to on a crane? Topping lift Liftline Boom Control cab
The electrical components for each single crane are installed in its __________. turntable machinery base crane house All of the above.
What describes a tandem crane lift? Single crane hoisting 30 tons Two sets of twin cranes hoisting 120 tons Two cranes on a single pedestal hoisting 60 tons All of the above.
What describes a twin crane lift? Two sets of twin cranes hoisting 120 tons Two cranes on a single pedestal hoisting 60 tons Single crane hoisting 30 tons All of the above.
What is another description for a tandem crane lift? Twin cranes hoisting 60 tons Quad lift hoisting 120 tons Single crane hoisting 30 tons All of the above.
What is used to power modern pedestal cranes? Water Steam Hydraulics All of the above.
Most pedestal crane power is provided by __________. Independent internal combustion power units Steam units Electro-hydraulic units All of the above.
What is the advantage of the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes when operating cargo? The cargo discharge can be accomplished with controlled pendulation The cranes enable the handling of heavy cargos without shoreside assistance The cargo discharge can be performed in port or at anchor All of the above.
What is/are the advantage(s) of cranes over conventional cargo booms? Simplicity of operation of the crane by its operator Cranes are able to pick up and drop loads over a greater spotting area Increased safety because the deck is clear of running and standing rigging All of the above.
What is meant by the term "luffing the boom" of a crane? Moving the boom left or right Topping or lowering the boom Stopping the boom All of the above.
What does "level-luffing" accomplish during crane operations? Less power is needed when topping the boom with a load on the hook. It maintains the height of the load above the deck. It prevents the load from swinging when the boom level is adjusted. All of the above.
What is meant by the term "level-luffing" a crane? Luffing while the load remains at a constant height Maintaining the boom at a constant height Slewing the boom left or right in a level plane None of the above
Before starting to hoist provisions, which should be checked? Hoist rope is not kinked The hook is centrally located over the load Multiple part lines are not twisted around each other All of the above.
What is TRUE about hoisting operations? If tag lines are used to control a suspended load, they should be secured to the deck. If a suspended load with no tag begins to spin, personnel should attempt to stop the spinning if the load is within reach. Personnel not involved in the hoisting operation should be kept clear of the transfer area. Personnel may work beneath suspended loads, as long as they are alert and wear hard hats.
Which part of a conventional cargo gear rig provides for vertical control and positioning of a boom? Gooseneck fitting Topping lift Spider band Cargo whip
When handling cargo, the majority of cargo gear breakdowns is due to __________. extension failure of the boom topping lift failures guy failures compression bending of the boom
On your vessel, a wire rope for the cargo gear shows signs of excessive wear and must be replaced. In ordering a new wire for this 10-ton boom, what safety factor should you use? Three Five Six Seven
The wire rope used for cargo handling on board your vessel has a safe working load of eight tons. It shall be able to withstand a breaking test load of __________. 32 tons 40 tons 48 tons 64 tons
It is permissible to place an eye splice in wire rope used as cargo gear providing the splice is made using __________. three tucks with whole strands and two tucks with 1/2 the wire cut from the tucking strand three tucks with whole strands two tucks with whole strands and one tuck with one-half strand two tucks with whole strands and three tucks with half strands
What is the minimum standard for making an eye splice in a wire to be used as cargo gear? Make six tucks with each strand, removing a few wires from each strand as each additional tuck is made. Make three tucks with full strands, remove half the wires from each strand, and make two more tucks. Make four tucks with each full strand. Make four tucks in each strand, cut away every other strand, and make two more tucks with each remaining strand.
Which ending is NOT acceptable in a wire rope that is free to rotate when hoisting? Liverpool eye splice Eye formed with a pressure clamped sleeve Eye formed by clips Poured socket
Why is 6X19 class wire rope more commonly used for cargo runners than the more flexible 6X37 wire rope? It is longer. It resists abrasion better. It hugs the winch drum better. It is less expensive.
Stress on the topping lift of a swinging boom can be reduced by __________. increasing the mechanical advantage of the cargo purchase taking all slack out of the preventer rigging a back stay raising the boom
With a given load on the cargo hook, tension in a single span topping lift __________. increases as the boom's angle to the horizontal increases is at a maximum when the boom is at a 45° angle to the horizontal increases as the boom's angle to the horizontal decreases decreases as the boom's angle to the horizontal decreases
The force acting on a single cargo runner which is vertically lifting or lowering a load is greatest when __________. decelerating when lowering the load lowering the load at constant speed raising the load at constant speed decelerating when raising the load
The maximum theoretical stress that can be developed on a guy in a yard and stay rig is limited by the __________. weight of the load lifting capacity of the winch position of the guy location of the boom
If an electric cargo winch is being used to lift a draft of cargo and the engine room loses all power, which will occur? The load will fall rapidly to the deck unless the foot brake is engaged. The load will slowly lower to the deck under control of the drag of the winch motor. A pawl, forced by a spring mechanism, will engage the teeth of the bull gear and hold the load. An electromagnetic brake will hold the load where it is suspended.
Which device is designed to automatically hold the load if power should fail to an electric winch? Pneumatic brake Motor controller Hand brake Electromagnetic brake
You are using an automatic tension winch by yourself. If you get caught in the turns of the line as they lead into the gypsyhead __________. the line will part and snap back the safety cutout will stop the winch before you're injured you may be pulled into the winch and injured or killed None of the above are correct
Electric cargo winches have an overload safety device which normally cuts the current to the winch motor __________. before the safe working load of the fall is reached before the line pull reaches the rated capacity of the winch when the line pull reaches the breaking strength of the fall after torque causes line pull to exceed the rated capacity of the winch
If an attempt is made to hoist a load that exceeds the capacity of an electric winch, an overload safety device causes a circuit breaker to cut off the current to the winch motor __________. after a short build-up of torque immediately after the line pull exceeds the rated winch capacity when the line pull reaches 99% of the rated winch capacity
If a hydraulic pump on a winch accidentally stops while hoisting, the load will stay suspended because __________. a centrifugal counterweight counteracts the force of gravity. the electric pump motor will cut out the control lever will move to the stop position a check valve will close and prevent reverse circulation
Where are the test certificates, for wire rope used as cargo runners, and loose gear certificates usually maintained? At the central records center of the agency testing the cargo gear At the Coast Guard Marine Safety Office with the vessel's inspection records With the Cargo Gear Register on the ship In the Official Log
In relation to cargo gear, what does "SWL" mean? Stress, weight, load Starboard wing lift Ship's working lift Safe working load
A pelican hook __________. is used for boat falls is used for light loads only can be released while under strain is used for extra heavy loads
Which is a TRUE statement concerning the examining of cargo equipment at the time of a vessels Inspection for Certification. Cargo booms must be weight tested at this time by the U.S. Coast Guard. No test at this time is required. Cargo booms must be weight tested at this time by the American Bureau of Shipping. Cargo booms must be weight tested at this time by the National Cargo Bureau.
For vessels fitted with cargo gear, an initial test of the units under a proof load shall be conducted. Subsequent tests and exams of the same nature shall be carried out at what time interval? 1 year 3 years 4 years 5 years
A periodic thorough examination of the cargo gear proves satisfactory. What percentage of the total gear must be dismantled to determine actual internal condition? None 10% 25% 100%
All wire rope used in shipboard cargo gear must be identified and described in a certificate. The certificate shall certify all of the following EXCEPT the __________. load at which a test sample broke name of the vessel date of the test number of strands and of wires in each strand
Who certifies the safe working load of cargo booms on a vessel? The Ship's Master U.S. Coast Guard Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers American Bureau of Shipping
The organization that certifies the safe working load of cargo cranes on a vessel is the __________. U.S. Coast Guard classification society National Cargo Bureau none of the above
A sling is a device used in __________. hoisting cargo aboard a vessel hoisting personnel aboard a vessel securing a small boat to a large vessel hoisting the anchor
The latch of a safety hook __________. prevents the sling ring from coming out of the hook if the strain is abruptly eased increases the strength of the hook prevents the sling ring from coming out of the hook if there is a strain on the sling ring All of the above.
The best way to lift many small articles aboard your vessel is with a __________. snotter barrel hook pallet spreader
Which statement is TRUE about hooks and shackles? Shackles are stronger than hooks of the same diameter. Hooks are stronger than shackles of the same diameter. Hooks and shackles of the same diameter are of equal strength. All the above may be true, depending on the hook's or shackle's overall length.
Mousing a cargo hook with marline or small line __________. protects the hook from the sling ring increases the lifting capacity of the hook prevents the sling ring from coming out of the hook All of the above.
When a two-leg sling is used to lift a load, a sling 40 feet long is better than one of 30 feet because the __________. sling will be easier to attach load can be lifted higher tension in the sling legs is less sling will be easier to remove
A spreader bar is used to __________. protect the slings increase the lifting capacity increase the lifting radius protect the upper part of a load
The best way to determine if a load is within maximum lift limits is to use __________. prior experience with similar lifts a boom angle indicator a load weight indicator material invoices for shipping weights
Regulations concerning the stowage, lashing, and securing of timber deck cargoes aboard general cargo vessels may be found in the __________. Load Line Regulations Rules and Regulations for Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels International Cargo Bureau Regulations vessel's classification society rules and regulations
Securing cargo by running timbers from an upper support down to the cargo, either vertically or at an angle, is called __________. shores toms braces dunnage
A case received for shipment is marked as shown in illustration D043DG below. Which of the following is the portion of the symbol indicated by the letter A? the consignee's marking the symbol for toxic contents a stowage sequence marking a stowage mark, showing the top of the case
To determine the weight capacity of a deck in a cargo hold, you would refer to the __________. deadweight scale deck capacity plan general arrangement plan cubic capacity tables
A lot of special cargo of similar cartons, as shown in illustration D042DG below, is to be loaded. What is the weight of the consignment? 50 pounds 1100 pounds 1200 pounds 1250 pounds
Odorous cargoes are those that __________. are susceptible to damage by tainting are exceptionally dusty and leave a residue are liquid, but in containers give off fumes that may damage other cargoes
Cargo that gives off fumes that may contaminate other cargo is known as a(n) __________. dirty cargo toxic cargo delicate cargo odorous cargo
Which is an example of cargo damage caused by inherent vice? Stevedore damage Heating of grain Wear and tear Sublimation of chemicals
A hygroscopic cargo is defined as a cargo __________. capable of giving off moisture in the form of a liquid capable of absorbing moisture in the form of a gas that is shipped in a liquid state that will ignite in contact with water
Damage to cargo caused by dust is known as __________. contamination vaporization oxidation tainting
Damage to cargo caused by fumes or vapors from liquids, gases, or solids is known as __________. oxidation vaporization tainting contamination
Cargo that is highly susceptible to damage by tainting from odorous cargo is called __________. dry cargo delicate cargo immune cargo clean cargo
Which is characteristic of a "special cargo"? It is of high value or easily pilferable. The cargo gives off toxic gases when heated. It must be stowed on deck. Periodic inspection is required while in transit to prevent spoilage.
A "wet cargo" refers to __________. a cargo that will be damaged if it gets wet bulk liquids cargoes that will cause condensation liquids in containers
Cargoes that might leak from containers are known as __________. caustic cargoes dirty cargoes wet cargoes bulk cargoes
What is a wet cargo? A canned or bottled liquid such as beer A liquid cargo carried in the deep tanks A cargo particularly susceptible to damage by moisture A cargo that contains hygroscopic moisture
Which term describes goods having a stowage factor below 40? "Measurement" cargo "Deadweight" cargo "Heavy-lift" cargo "Full-and-down" cargo
A cargo that has a stowage factor over 40 is known as a __________. weight cargo hygroscopic cargo measurement cargo stowage cargo
The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside faces of the cargo battens, the lower side of the deck beams, and the top of the tank top ceiling is known as the __________. bale cubic deadweight space gross tonnage stowage area
The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside of the side shell, the underside of the deck, and the tank top is known as the __________. gross tonnage grain cubic measurement space deadweight space
What is NOT an advantage of filler cargo? Dunnage costs are reduced. Overcarriage is reduced or eliminated. Voids in the cargo stow are filled. The hold space has maximum utilization.
The stowage factor for a cargo is based upon __________. one long metric ton one short ton one short metric ton one long ton
Which vessel is most likely to be loaded full but not down? A bulk carrier loaded with steel A break bulk vessel loaded with palletized cargo A bulk carrier loaded with heavy ore A tanker loaded with heavy grain
Overcarriage is best prevented by __________. checking the vessel's load line calculations carefully inspection of the hold at completion of discharge assuring heavy cargo is stowed low in the vessel stowing the cargo which is to be discharged last on the bottom
A claim for cargo damages may be held against the ship owner if such damage is the result of failure of the ship's officers to __________. correct all defects in the ship's construction prevent delays due to quarantine restrictions ensure the fitness and safety of cargo spaces ensure adequate packaging of the cargo
Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises out of __________. inherent vice poor stowage of cargo in a container overloading fire caused by lightning
Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises from __________. lack of ventilation in transit perils of the sea an act of war an error in navigation
Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to a cargo when the damage arises from __________. unseaworthiness when sailing quarantine delays insufficient packing mismanagement of the vessel
Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to a cargo when the damage arises out of __________. delays due to seizure of the vessel improper stowage fire caused by fault of the carrier strikes or lockouts
Which is an example of failure to exercise due diligence? Sailing short of union manning requirements Sailing with less than 30% reserve fuel oil supply Overloading Sailing short of being full and down
What is an example of a fundamental objective of cargo stowage? Separate wet and dry cargoes into separate holds. Load so the trim does not exceed 3 feet by the stern. Make maximum use of existing dunnage. Prevent overcarriage by block stowage.
"Block stowage" means __________. using separation cloths to separate different kinds of cargo using port marks on the cargo having the cargo on pallets stowing all the cargo for a port in the same area
The temperature at which water vapor in an atmosphere condenses to a liquid is known as which of the following? the dew point the flash point the bubble point equilibrium
When a deck cargo is secured with chain or wire lashings and grab (pear) links, which statement is FALSE? The lashings should be inspected each day and any slack taken up. The amount of take-up is limited by the length of the turnbuckle. The turnbuckle should be secured with a stick or lock nuts. At the grab (pear) link, the slack end of chain should be led back and secured to the chain above the link.
Which material should NOT be used to secure cargo on deck for a voyage? Steel chain Fiber rope Steel strapping Wire rope
In the stowage of deck cargo, "cribbing" is __________. placed on deck to support the cargo separation pieces used to keep cylinders upright and steady shims for stowing baled cargo nets placed across the hatch opening to keep the cargo from falling in the hatch
"Cribbing" is __________. cardboard separation pieces placed between deck loads to prevent chafing a crate in which a deck cargo is packaged the chains and shackles used to secure a deck cargo wooden blocks or dunnage placed between a deck load and the deck
A vessel has an amidships superstructure. Which location would be most suitable for main deck stowage of vehicles? On top of the aftermost hatch on the vessel Beside the hatches, forward of the midships house On top of No.1 hatch On top of the hatch immediately aft of the midships house
What does it mean to "shore up" the main deck for the stowage of deck cargo? weld pad eyes on deck in proper position to secure the cargo strengthen the main deck by placing pillars underneath it in the tween-decks package the cargo in wooden crates so it will not damage the deck distribute the weight of the cargo by placing fore-and-aft planks on the main deck
It is possible, and sometimes necessary, to strengthen the deck of a vessel for carriage of deck cargo by __________. erecting vertical pillars under the deck to support the cargo welding steel "feet" to the deck, on which the cargo is placed building a stage on which to place the cargo placing bunker on the deck
Which cargoes require strips of common building lathe as dunnage in order to carry away heat generated by the cargo? Paper products packaged in rolls Refrigerated fruit that is ripening Canned soups packaged in crates Cardboard cartons of shoes
Battens are fitted in cargo holds across the frames of the vessel from the turn of the bilge upward. The purpose of these cargo battens is __________. to provide fittings to which cargo lashings may be secured for securing a snatch block when snaking cargo into the wings of the hold to prevent cargo from coming in contact with the vessel's frames or shell plating to support the dunnage floors which are laid down between tiers of cargo
What is the main purpose of dunnage? To provide ventilation and drainage for cargo To secure the tarpaulins in place To act as ballast for light vessels To support weakened bulkheads
A shore is a piece of securing dunnage that __________. is placed on the deck under the cargo to distribute its weight evenly runs from a low supporting level up to the cargo at an angle is run horizontally from a support to the cargo is also known as a "distance piece"
Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage by __________. inherent vice tainting hygroscopic absorption ship's sweat
In preparation for receiving chilled reefer cargo, the reefer space has been precooled for over twenty-four hours. Loading may begin when the space has been cooled to a temperature between __________. -10°F (-23°C) and +10°F (-12°C) 12°F (-11°C) and 20°F (-7°C) 28°F (-2°C) and 40°F ( 4°C) 42°F (6°C) and 55°F (13°C)
A survey of refrigerated cargo, to certify that proper methods of stowage were utilized, can be conducted by the __________. American Bureau of Shipping National Cargo Bureau U.S. Coast Guard Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Which organization would conduct a survey of the insulation in a reefer compartment prior to loading cargo? OSHA American Bureau of Shipping U.S. Customs Service National Cargo Bureau
If reefer spaces are not properly cleaned prior to loading cargo, it will most likely cause __________. malfunction of the refrigeration equipment contamination of the insulation in the space mold to develop on commodities All of the above.
If you are loading fruit in reefer spaces and you notice that the fruit is beginning to mold, you should __________. discharge CO2 into the compartment after loading refuse to carry the cargo write up exceptions on the cargo carry the cargo at a cooler temperature than originally planned
When fruit is carried as refrigerated cargo, the most frequent cause of its being infected at the discharge port is __________. leaks in the ship's refrigeration system carriage at the wrong temperature improper pre-cooling of the cargo spaces improper cleaning of the cargo spaces
Which can be prevented only by segregating two lots of cargo into separate holds? Contamination of a food cargo by an odorous cargo Contamination of a clean cargo by a dirty cargo Contamination of dry cargo by a wet cargo Overcarriage, overstowage, and short landing
Segregation of cargoes refers to __________. listing the cargoes in order of their flammability separating cargoes so that the inherent characteristics of one cannot damage the other separating cargoes by destination classifying cargoes according to their toxicity
Certain cargoes must be segregated because of their __________. inherent characteristics destination weight danger to humans
Keeping certain cargoes separated because of their inherent characteristics is known as __________. overstowage segregation spot loading cargo typing
Spontaneous heating of coal rapidly accelerates at the approximate minimum temperature of __________. 100°F 111°F 88°F 119°F
While loading cargo, a white trimming light on the starboard side comes on. This indicates that __________. the vessel has a list of about 1` to starboard the chutes should be directed to the starboard side a severe list to starboard has developed and all loading should cease the chutes in No. 1 hold should be directed to the starboard side
Before loading bulk grain, bilge wells must be covered to __________. permit rapid flow of water to the bilge wells prevent cargo sifting into the bilge wells prevent oil, water, or other liquid from reaching the cargo add strength to the bilge well strainer
The certificate of loading required by each vessel carrying grain in bulk is issued by the __________. owner or charterer of the vessel shipper of the cargo National Cargo Bureau American Bureau of Shipping
What is usually NOT required in preparing a hold for reception of a bulk grain cargo? Remove residue of previous cargo. Spray or fumigate any insect colonies. Remove loose rust and scale. Steam clean areas obstructed by structural members.
When loading a cargo of taconite, proper sequencing of loading by hatch number is necessary to __________. control list prevent excessive longitudinal stresses provide the proper trim prevent negative stability from developing
A list signal of one white light indicates that the vessel is __________. listing about 1° to the side the light is displayed on listing over 5° with the light displayed on the high side on an even keel listing, and the chutes should be directed to the side where the light is displayed
Which statement about shipping coal is TRUE? Anthracite will generate more methane than bituminous coal. Coal should not be shipped while wet. Coal should be surface ventilated to remove methane gas. The methane gas generated by coal will react with moisture on the ship's structure and accelerate corrosion.
What is NOT a problem when carrying coal? The requirement for through-ventilation The corrosion some types of coal will cause to the ship Generation of methane gas Spontaneous heating
While loading a cargo of grain, your vessel develops a list to starboard. This will be corrected by __________. the list man changing the discharge location of the chutes allowing the grain to level itself as the hold fills to the spar deck level trimming the final loading cone by hand the compensating tanks on the high side
Atmospheres laden with coal dust or grain dust caused by loading these cargoes __________. may be explosive in some concentrations are subject to spontaneous combustion require loading operations to be shut down until the atmosphere clears are toxic to human life
Which statement about the carriage of coal is true? Freshly worked coal is more dangerous than weathered coal. Wet coal is more liable to spontaneous heating than dry coal. Coal absorbs nitrogen from the air which reacts with methane and causes spontaneous heating. Most problems with spontaneous combustion will occur within 72 hours of loading and after that the risk decreases.
Which statement about the ventilation of bulk coal is TRUE? Coal should not be ventilated; all oxygen should be excluded from the cargo. Coal should be through-ventilated to remove methane and reduce the heat of spontaneous combustion. Coal should be surface ventilated only. Coal should be ventilated only if temperatures in the center of the cargo exceed 125°F.
When considering a vessel's stability, which spaces in a general cargo vessel are the best locations for the carriage of bulk grain? Lower holds Lower holds at the ends of the vessel Deep tanks 'Tween-decks
Ship's officers should check every cargo compartment after it is filled with bulk grain to ensure __________. all void spaces are filled the correct grade of cargo has been loaded the heavier grade is in the lower hold all lighting circuits are energized
Bulk cargo refers to __________. homogeneous cargo not enclosed in a container cargo which occupies a large volume of space cargo which is very dense cargo which requires refrigeration
When carrying a full or nearly full load of bulk ore in a general cargo type vessel which has engine spaces amidships, the cargo in each hold should be trimmed so that the bulk of the cargo lies __________. along the centerline toward the after bulkhead of the forward holds and the forward bulkhead of the after holds toward the forward bulkhead of the forward holds and toward the after bulkhead of the after holds toward the after bulkhead of all holds
Which statement is correct concerning the carriage of coal in bulk? Dunnage should be placed against ship's sides and around stanchions. Coal should be vented with surface ventilation only. Through ventilation, as well as surface ventilation, should be provided whenever possible. Because of its inherent vice, coal should not be loaded wet.
Prior to being able to sail, each vessel that carries grain in bulk must have a certificate of loading issued by the __________. National Cargo Bureau American Bureau of Shipping U.S. Salvage Lloyds of London
Who would normally certify that all preparations have been made and all regulations observed prior to loading a cargo of bulk grain? American Bureau of Shipping Master of the vessel National Cargo Bureau U.S. Coast Guard
Which agency issues a certificate of loading that is evidence that the rules and regulations concerning bulk grain cargoes have been observed? Public Health Service American Bureau of Shipping Department of Agriculture National Cargo Bureau
When referring to dry bulk cargoes, the term "flow state" __________. relates to the suitability of loading a cargo by flowing down inclined chutes refers to the saturation of a dry bulk product with water to the point where it acts as a liquid relates to the minimum granule size of a particular product where it will flow like a liquid at an angle of 30° designates the state of a commodity when the ship is heeled past the angle of repose
A Great Lakes bulk ore vessel would use an "Iron Deckhand" to assist in __________. making the vessel fast to a dock steering the vessel unloading bulk cargo removing hatch covers
What is the meaning of the term tare weight? Weight of a container Pounds of force necessary to damage a container Total weight of a container and contents Weight of the contents of a container
You are on a container vessel. What concerning the handling and stowage of containerized hazardous materials is TRUE? A portable cargo tank containing a cryogenic liquid must be shipped on deck unless forced ventilation is provided to the tween-decks. A portable cargo tank of a flammable, cryogenic liquid may not be in transit for a period exceeding its marked rated holding time unless the liquid is inhibited. Open-bed containers may be used to transport hazardous materials if the cargo is properly secured. A container loaded with packages of tear gas would display a placard reading "Irritant."
A high cube container is designed specifically to __________. protect fragile cargoes stow cargoes with concentrated weights such as machinery carry low density cargoes carry cargoes of very low stowage factors
How long is the standard container used to measure equivalent units? 10 feet (3 meters) 20 feet (6 meters) 35 feet (11 meters) 40 feet (12 meters)
You are in a tropical port. The refrigeration machinery on a container loaded with air-cooled fruit fails. It cannot be repaired for 18 to 24 hours. Which step should you take to reduce the temperature rise and spoilage of the fruit? Discharge a cylinder of nitrogen into the container Spread ice over the top layer and in any voids within the container Seal any ventilation openings and add dry ice Shade the container and periodically hose it down
Which statement concerning the carriage of containers is TRUE? With tiered containers, a 40-foot container may be stowed on top of two 20-foot containers. When stowed on deck of a break bulk ship, the bottom of the container must be evenly supported throughout. The Chief Mate and Master of a container ship should have the proposed stowage plan ready for the stevedore upon arrival in port. Deck load calculations must take into account the square footage of the entire container bottom.
When loading a container vessel, the operation is basically that of vertical loading. The important factors to be considered when loading containers are the port of discharge, and which of the following? weight, and refrigeration crushability, and inherent vice sweat, and weight available dunnage, and chocking
Because of the arrangement of the cell guides, the MOST important factor while loading containers is the __________. list of the vessel size of the shoreside crane weight of the container contents of the container
When loading containers into the cell guides in the hold of a container ship, which statement is TRUE? The container must be locked into the cell guide. Containers must have vertical lashings if they do not have twist lock securing. No further securing is usually required. All containers must have vertical and horizontal lashings.
What is NOT an advantage of containership operations over conventional break-bulk operations? Flexibility of operation Greater operational safety Lower stevedoring costs Reduction of cargo damage
Under normal weather and sea conditions when securing a stack of containers with twist locks, lashings are required when the tier exceeds what height? Lashings are always required Two containers One container Three containers
The lashings on a stack of containers with interlocking fittings restrain the forces that cause __________. buckling toppling crushing racking
Under normal weather and sea conditions when securing a stack of containers with non-locking fittings, lashings are required when the tier exceeds what height? Lashings are always required One container Two containers Three containers
Which statement concerning sweat damage in containers is TRUE? In general, containerized hygroscopic cargoes are the only ones subject to sweat damage. Sweat damage in containers is unusual due to the small enclosed volume of air. Sweat damage is not a problem except in insulated and refrigerated containers. Containers should be ventilated, dehumidified, or the contents physically protected against sweat damage.
A high cube container would most likely be used to stow __________. household appliances heavy industrial machinery fragile cargoes dense bulk cargoes
A half-height container is used __________. to double the stowage capacity of the vessel when stowage space is limited to carry cargoes of low density to carry cargoes such as steel products or drums
What is NOT a securing system used on a containership? Stacking system Buttress system Lashing system Locking system
With the buttress securing system, containers of different heights must be stowed __________. on the bottom tier on deck on the top tier in the hold next to the buttress tower
What provides the majority of strength to an aluminum-sided container? Framework, primarily the corner posts Corner fittings Framework and siding acting as a girder Aluminum side and end panels
The weight of the container and its contents is supported on deck by what part(s)? Bottom flooring, side, and end rails Bottom, side, and end rails Bottom flooring only Four lower corner castings
The securing systems for containers were developed to prevent container movement during which ship motion? Roll Yaw Sway Surge
What purpose does a bridge fitting serve when lashing containers? Ties a container stack to the deck Restrains the container against horizontal motion Restrains racking loads Ties a container to the container below it
Which statement concerning the lashings of containers with solid bar or wire rope lashings is TRUE? Solid bars should be used for lashing the first tier only, with wire lashings on the higher tier(s). Stack heights may be increased when using a solid bar lashing. Stack heights should be reduced when using a solid bar lashing. Stack weights should be less when using a solid bar lashing as compared to a wire lashing.
On the fully containerized ship, approximately one-third or more of the cargo is on deck above the rolling center. Top stowed containers are subject to __________. accelerations less than on conventional vessels accelerations the same as on conventional vessels accelerations greater than on conventional vessels no accelerations
When commencing cargo operations on a container ship, one cell at a hatch is generally discharged completely (to the bottom of the ship) before removing any containers from the adjoining cells to __________. allow longshoremen easy access to the hatch improve stability during cargo operations remove an existing list that would slow down cargo operations initiate loading in conjunction with unloading at the hatch
You are on a containership. Which statement about the stowage of hazardous materials in containers is TRUE? A refrigerated container with a fuel tank containing a flammable liquid must be stowed on deck. All packages within a container must be marked "This End Up" to indicate the correct stowage. Packages of liquids within a container should be stowed on top of packages of solids to prevent crushing. The containers provide automatic segregation of hazardous materials except for class A explosives.
You are on a containership. The cargo includes a container of small arms ammunition, a container of lead-acid storage batteries and a container of methyl acetylene bottles. Which statement is TRUE? The ammunition must be separated from the methyl acetylene by at least one hold. The storage batteries must be stowed on deck away from the ammunition. The storage batteries must be at least ten horizontal feet away from the methyl acetylene. No separation is required because freight containers are exempted.
A sling is rigged on a piece of pipe weighing 1000 lbs. The angle between the sling legs is 140° and the legs are of equal length. What stress is exerted on each sling leg when the pipe is lifted? 1318 lbs. 1366 lbs. 1414 lbs. 1462 lbs.
The lower hold of your vessel has a bale capacity of 60,000 cubic feet. How many tons of cotton in bales having a stowage factor of 85 can be stowed in the lower hold, assuming a broken stowage factor of 20%? 141 565 706 847
The lower hold of your vessel has a bale cubic of 52,000 cu. ft. You will load a cargo of cases, each weighing 380 lbs. and measuring 3 ft. x 2 ft. x 2 ft. The estimated broken stowage is 15%. How many tons of cases can be loaded? 137 tons 161 tons 625 tons 969 tons
The amount of strain on each runner of a married fall system lifting 2000 lbs. when the angle made by the legs is 90° would be __________. 1000 lbs. 1154 lbs. 1414 lbs. 2000 lbs.
A lot of special cargo as shown in illustration D042DG below is to be loaded aboard your vessel. You examine one of the cartons of the lot shown. Assuming no broken stowage what is the total cubic space the consignment will occupy? 51 cubic feet (1.5 cubic meters) 58 cubic feet (1.7 cubic meters) 336 cubic feet (10 cubic meters) 700 cubic feet (21 cubic meters)
Ten triangular piles of piping on the pier are to be loaded - each pile has a 20 foot base, is 15 feet high and 30 feet long. If the breadth of the hold is 60 feet and the piping is to be stowed fore and aft in a 30 foot space, how high will it stow? 16.6 feet 25.0 feet 50.0 feet 75.0 feet
The deck load capacity of a compartment into which you intend to load a cargo of soft brick is 380 lbs. per sq. ft. The stowage factor of the brick is 21.3. Disregarding broken stowage, what is the maximum height the brick may be stacked without endangering the structure? 1.7 feet 3.6 feet 5.0 feet 7.1 feet
A case received for shipment has the markings shown in illustration D043DG below. Each carton measures 13" X 15" X 23". What is the total cubic capacity the entire consignment will occupy if you assume 10% broken stowage? 779 cubic feet (22 cubic meters) 857 cubic feet (24 cubic meters) 1047 cubic feet (30 cubic meters) 112,125 cubic feet (3173 cubic meters)
A lot of special cargo of similar cartons as shown in illustration D042DG below is to be loaded. What is the total cubic capacity the consignment will occupy if you assume 10% broken stowage? 51 cubic feet (1.5 cubic meters) 58 cubic feet (1.7 cubic meters) 65 cubic feet (2.0 cubic meters) 336 cubic feet (10 cubic meters)
You are lifting a 3 ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom. 1 1/8 inch 1 1/2 inch 1 3/4 inch 2 inch
A case received for shipment has the markings shown in illustration D043DG below. Each carton measures 13" X 15" X 23". Ignoring broken stowage what is the total cubic capacity the entire consignment will occupy? 779 cubic feet (22 cubic meters) 992 cubic feet (28 cubic meters) 112,125 cubic feet (3173 cubic meters) 1,047 cubic feet (30 cubic meters)
Twenty-five hundred (2500) tons of iron ore with a stowage factor of 17 is stowed in a cargo hold. The dimensions of the hold are 55 feet long and 45 feet wide and 35 feet high. What is the height of the center of gravity of the ore above the bottom of the hold? 7.8 feet 8.6 feet 17.1 feet 34.6 feet
You are loading a cargo of cases into a hold which has a bale cubic of 44,000. The cargo consists of cases measuring 4 ft by 2 ft by 1.5 ft. Estimated broken stowage is 15%. What is the maximum number of cases which can be stowed in the hold? 3096 3116 3136 3156
A vessel has a deadweight carrying capacity of 10,500 tons. Fuel, water, and stores require 1500 tons. The cubic capacity is 500,000 cubic feet. Which cargo will put her full and down? Rolls of barbed wire, SF 55.5 Slabs of zinc, SF 7.1 Barrels of tallow, SF 66.8 Bundles of rubber, SF 140.2
You are lifting a 5-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 20° to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom. 1 3/8 inch 1 1/2 inch 1 3/4 inch 1 7/8 inch
If two falls are attached to lift a one-ton load, what angle between the falls will result in the stress on each fall being equal to the load being lifted? 60° 75° 120° 150°
You are lifting a 5-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom? 1 inch 1 3/8 inch 1 1/2 inch 1 7/8 inch
You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 100 in #3 lower hold which has a bale cubic of 72,000. How many tons of the wool can be stowed in the compartment, assuming 10% broken stowage? 493 577 602 648
Two falls are supporting a 1.5 ton load. The port fall is at an angle of 40° from the vertical. The starboard fall is at an angle of 70° from the vertical. What is the stress on each fall? Port 1.5 tons, starboard 1.0 tons Port 1.5 tons, starboard 1.5 tons Port 1.7 tons, starboard 1.3 tons Port 1.7 tons, starboard 2.0 tons
You are lifting a 3-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle 20° to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom. 1 3/8 inch 1 1/2 inch 1 5/8 inch 1 3/4 inch
You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 96 in #3 lower hold which has a bale cubic of 84,000. How many tons of wool can be stowed in the compartment? 577 602 654 875
You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 100 in #3 lower hold which has a bale cubic of 62,000. How many tons of the wool can be stowed in the compartment, assuming 10% broken stowage? 520 654 558 620
You must load as much of a large shipment of case goods as possible into a hold which has 24,000 cubic feet of space. Each case measures 2 feet by 2-1/2 feet by 4 feet and weights 448 pounds. If you allow for broken stowage of 15%, how many long tons can be loaded? 190 233 204 280
You must load as much of a large shipment of case goods as possible into a hold which has 24,400 cubic feet of space. Each case measures 2 feet by 2 feet by 4 feet and weighs 448 pounds. If you allow for broken stowage of 15%, how many long tons can be loaded? 54 259 207 351
There is a large shipment of case goods available to be loaded on your vessel. You are to load as many tons as possible in a hold which has 32,300 cubic feet left unfilled by cargo. Each case measures 2-feet high by 2-feet wide by 4-feet long and weighs 500 pounds. If you allow a broken stowage allowance of 10% of the 32,300 feet, what is the nearest whole number of tons which may be loaded? 324 tons 360 tons 363 tons 406 tons
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which reactive group(s) is/are not compatible with the products polybutene and o-xylene? Phenols, cresols Amides Alcohols, glycols Nitric acid
You are planning the stowage of two incompatible products on your multiple-product tankship. What will NOT provide the minimum required segregation? Empty tank Solid (non-intercostal) bulkhead Tank containing a third cargo compatible with the other two Diagonally adjacent tanks
You are on a multiple product tankship and carrying methyl acrylate, diethanolamine, and triethylamine. Which statement is TRUE? The heating coils to the cargo tank loaded with methyl acrylate must be blanked off. Valve components made of aluminum, copper, or zinc may not be in contact with the cargoes. Each crew member working on deck must have an emergency escape breathing apparatus. Methyl acrylate may be loaded in a tank adjacent to diethanolamine but not triethylamine.
You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is TRUE? A tank of carbon disulfide may be used to separate a tank of pyridine from a tank of diisopropylamine. Pyridine and diisopropylamine may be carried in tanks having a common header vent. Carbon disulfide may be carried in NOS. 1 and 2 center tanks and diisopropylamine in NOS. 1 and 2 wing tanks. Diisopropylamine must be separated from carbon disulfide by two barriers (cofferdams, voids, empty tanks, etc.)
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker. The loading plan includes cargoes of diethylenetriamine and formamide. Which statement concerning the stowage of these cargoes is TRUE? The cargoes must have individual venting systems. The valves in common piping systems must be chained closed and locked. They must be separated by a void space or empty tank. The minimum segregation required is a single bulkhead.
You are carrying cargoes of crotonaldehyde, phosphoric acid, and morpholine on your multiple-product tankship. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Each of the cargoes must be segregated from the other by at least two barriers. Aluminum, copper, and zinc are prohibited in all valve parts in contact with these cargoes. The minimum protective clothing required for taking samples of phosphoric acid is goggles or a face shield. The required warning sign must have the legend "cancer hazard" added to it.
You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is true? A tank of diisopropylamine may be used to separate a tank of pyridine from a tank of carbon disulfide. Pyridine and diisopropylamine may not be carried in tanks having a common header vent. Carbon disulfide may be carried in NOS. 1 and 2 center tanks and diisopropylamine in NOS. 1 and 2 wing tanks. Pyridine must be separated from carbon disulfide by two barriers (cofferdams, voids, empty tanks, etc.).
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of ethanolamine, methyl acrylate, and glycerine. Which statement is true? Methyl acrylate and ethanolamine are compatible but both must be segregated from glycerine. Glycerine may be stowed adjacent to methyl acrylate but must be segregated from ethanolamine. Glycerine is compatible with both of the other cargoes. All of these cargoes are mutually incompatible.
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of butyric acid, propylene oxide, and octyl alcohol. Which statement is true? All of these cargoes are compatible. Butyric acid is incompatible with octyl alcohol but not propylene oxide. Propylene oxide may not be stowed in a tank adjacent to butyric acid. Octyl alcohol is incompatible with both butyric acid and propylene oxide.
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of allyl alcohol, benzene, and propanolamine. Which of the following is true? All of these cargoes are mutually compatible. Propanolamine is compatible with allyl alcohol but must be segregated from benzene. Benzene may not be carried in a tank adjacent to either of the other two cargoes. Allyl alcohol is incompatible with propanolamine but both are compatible with benzene.
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of isophorone, ethylenediamine, and creosote. Which of the following is TRUE? Isophorone is incompatible with ethylenediamine but may be stowed adjacent to creosote. All of these cargoes are incompatible. Ethylenediamine is compatible with isophorone but both are incompatible with creosote. All of these cargoes are compatible.
You are on a multiple-product tankship and scheduled to load a cargo classed as an aromatic amine. This cargo is incompatible with cargoes classed as __________. phenols organic anhydrides esters ketones
Which product(s) is(are) compatible with the product ethylene cyanohydrin? Sulfuric acid Isocyanates Ammonia Nitric acid
Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes? Pump rooms Cofferdams Enclosed deck spaces Navigation spaces
Which statement is NOT true concerning the stowage of class 1 explosives? Class 1.4 explosives may not be stowed in the same hold with class 6.1 poisons. Class 1.4 explosives must be "separated from" a stow of class 5.1 oxidizing materials. Class 1.4 explosives must be "separated from" a stow of class 8 corrosive materials. Class 1.1 explosives may be stowed with class 9 dangerous substances
You receive a package, for shipment aboard your vessel, containing Class 1 explosives. The package is damp, moldy and stained. You must __________. repair or replace the packaging before stowage note an exception on the Bill of Lading seek the shipper's advice with regard to withdrawal, repair, or replacement have the U.S.C.G. Captain of the Port approve the shipment
You receive a package, for shipment aboard your vessel, containing Class 1 explosives. The package is damp, moldy and stained. You must __________. replace the packaging material before stowage seek the approval of the USCG Captain of the Port refuse to accept the package note the exception(s) on the Bill of Lading
You will load class 1.2 commercial explosives and need to construct a portable magazine. The magazine MUST __________. have a hinged cover be fastened with nails or screws be made of metal be elevated with skids 10cm (3.9 inches) above the deck
You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE? A portable container of a flammable liquid used as fuel for portable auxiliary equipment must be stowed in a paint locker or at a designated open location. Acetylene may be in a ship's storeroom in quantities not exceeding 6000 cubic feet. Stores such as line, rags, mattresses, linens, etc. must be treated to be fire retardant. Stores certified for use on uninspected vessels may be identified by the certification number used by Underwriter's Laboratories.
You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE? Cylinders containing compressed gasses must be constructed and tested in accordance with the Bureau of Standards. All distress flares when received must be stored in the portable magazine chest. All stores of line, rags, linens and other similar type stores must be certified by UL as being fire retardant. Up to five gallons of a flammable liquid may be stowed in the engine room.
You are ordering ships' stores that are NOT consumer commodities. Which statement is TRUE? Replacement CO2 cylinders for the fixed fire fighting system must have been tested within 8 years of receipt. Cartridges for the line throwing appliance must be stored in the portable magazine chest after receipt. The label of a hazardous ships' store must include instructions for safe stowage. All flammable liquids must be stowed in the paint locker or specially constructed integral tanks.
You are ordering ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE? Aerosol cans of engine starting fluid must be stowed in either the paint locker or portable magazine after receipt. Drugs and medicines must be stowed in accordance with the directives of the Food and Drug Administration. Properly labeled consumer commodities need not be labeled in accordance with Title 46 CFR. Flammable ship's stores must be certified for use on inspected vessels by Underwriter's Laboratories.
On a vessel proceeding from a very cold to a warm climate with a cargo of a non-hygroscopic nature in the holds, which is TRUE? Danger of heavy ship sweat exists; constant and vigorous ventilation is required. There is little danger of ship's sweat, slight possibility of cargo sweat; moderate ventilation is needed. The possibility of any sweat problem, either cargo or ship, is remote. There is danger of heavy cargo sweat if outside air is introduced by ventilation.
Your vessel is going from a warm climate to a cold climate with a hygroscopic cargo. Which statement is TRUE? There is little danger of any sweat problem. You must ventilate constantly and vigorously to combat ship sweat. There is danger of heavy cargo sweat if you ventilate. You should ventilate; there is little danger of ship sweat, but a possibility of cargo sweat.
Your vessel is loaded with non-hygroscopic cargoes and is going from a cold to a warm climate. You should __________. start the exhaust blowers ventilate the cargo holds not ventilate the cargo holds start the intake blowers
Hygroscopic cargoes should be ventilated when __________. the outside dew point is 60°F (16°C) and the cargo temperature is 54°F (12°C) the dew point of the outside air is greater than the dew point of the air in the hold the dew point of the air in the hold is very low going from a warm to a cold climate
Sweat damage will occur in a cargo hold containing cased machinery when the __________. dew point of the outside air is lower than the temperature of the cargo air temperature of the hold is higher than the temperature of the outside air dew point of the hold is higher than the temperature of the ship's skin outside air temperature is colder than the temperature of the cargo
Sweat damage in a hatch full of canned goods in cartons will occur when the __________. air temperature is lower than the temperature of the cargo air temperature is higher than the temperature of the cargo dew point is higher than the temperature of the cargo dew point is lower than the temperature of the cargo
The moisture equilibrium chart can be used to determine the __________. absolute moisture content of the air surrounding a hygroscopic cargo when moisture equilibrium exists enthalpy of the air surrounding a hydroscopic cargo which is in moisture equilibrium with the cargo dew point temperature that the air surrounding a hygroscopic commodity will have when in moisture equilibrium with that commodity temperature at which moisture equilibrium will occur in a cargo hold containing a hygroscopic cargo
Which data can NOT be found on a moisture equilibrium chart? Moisture content Wet bulb temperature Vapor pressure Dry bulb temperature
When the dew point of the outside air is higher than the dew point of the air in the cargo hold, you should __________. not ventilate the cargo holds energize the exhaust blowers energize the intake blowers ventilate the cargo holds
When the dew point of the outside air is lower than or equal to the dew point of the air in the cargo hold, you should __________. secure all ventilation shut down the intake blowers shut down the exhaust blowers ventilate the cargo holds
Which factor is MOST important in preventing sweat damage within a cargo hold? Dew point of the outside atmosphere Outside air temperature Temperature of the cargo Dew point of the cargo hold
Given a dry bulb temperature of 78°F and wet bulb temperature of 66.5°F, the dew point is __________. illustration D008DG 47.0°F 51.5°F 59.0°F 70.0°F
A heated bulkhead has the effect on a hygroscopic commodity of __________. lowering the dew point of the air raising the vapor pressure of the commodity causing moisture to accumulate against the bulkhead lowering the vapor pressure of the commodity
Using the available references determine the dew point when the dry bulb temperature is 74°F (23°C) and the wet bulb temperature is 60°F (16°C). illustration D008DG 14°F 20°F 28°F 50°F
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 55°F (13°C) and the wet bulb is 50°F (10°C), what is the relative humidity? illustration D008DG 55 (%) 70 (%) 75 (%) 82 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 58° and the wet bulb temperature is 53°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 56 (%) 61 (%) 66 (%) 72 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 68°and the wet bulb temperature is 65°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 66 (%) 74 (%) 85 (%) 90 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 76° and the wet bulb temperature is 59°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 35 (%) 47 (%) 76 (%) 79 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 76° and the wet bulb temperature is 58°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 31 (%) 47 (%) 61 (%) 76 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 77° and the wet bulb temperature is 69°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 67 (%) 70 (%) 77 (%) 81 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 80°F (27°C) and the wet bulb temperature is 70°F (21°C), what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 45 (%) 52 (%) 61 (%) 65 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 84° and the wet bulb temperature is 81°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 71 (%) 79 (%) 81 (%) 88 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 85°and the wet bulb temperature is 73°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 42 (%) 56 (%) 67 (%) 85 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 91° and the wet bulb temperature is 87°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 79 (%) 85 (%) 91 (%) 98 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 92° and the wet bulb temperature is 85°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 75 (%) 81 (%) 84 (%) 88 (%)
Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 98°and the wet bulb temperature is 87°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold? illustration D008DG 79 (%) 84 (%) 64 (%) 87 (%)
Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels are permitted by U.S. regulations to be located in which of the listed spaces? crew lounge Laundries Washrooms none of the above
According to the regulations, normally, manholes in LFG tanks are located __________. above the weather deck in the expansion trunk of each tank in the ends of each tank there are no requirements in the regulation
According to the regulations, to prevent excessive pressure buildup in cargo tanks containing LFG, they are fitted with __________. pressure vacuum relief valves excess flow valves flame screens safety relief valves
A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is in what state? completely full completely empty low in the vessel slack
Ullage measurements are taken from the top of the liquid to which of the following points? the base of the expansion trunk a line scribed within the ullage port an above-deck datum, usually the top of the ullage hole the base of the ullage port
Where are ullages measured from? the tank ceiling the thievage mark an above deck datum the tank top bushing
The flame screens installed on tank vents that may contain combustible gases, are designed to prevent explosions by which of the following? allowing the escape of flammable vapors dissipating the heat of an external flame absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank
U.S. regulations define several acceptable means of closure for ballast and fuel oil tank vents. Which of the following is an example of acceptable means? manually operated ball check valve automatically operated hinged closure permanently installed canvas hood corrosion resistant wire screen
The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the U.S. regulations as ballast water introduced into which of the following? oily water separator for segregation fuel settling tank for segregation from lighter fluids isolated tank for analysis because of its noxious properties tank that is completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil systems
According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), what is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI coupling? 6 bolts 8 bolts 2 bolts 4 bolts
U.S. regulations require that all oil spills in United States waters be reported immediately. Who is this report made to? state pollution board U.S. Coast Guard Corps of Engineers local port authority
Which of the following describes heavy fuel oils when they have been spilled? they are not a real threat to marine life they are more harmful to sea life than lighter oils they are easier to clean up than lighter refined oils they are less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
According to U.S. regulations, which of the following does not qualify as a discharge of oil? Pumping oil overboard through a fixed piping system. Leakage of oil to the water by an improperly blanked transfer hose. Spilling oil on the main deck and having it flow over the side. Discharging oil into the sea for pollution research.
What term is not considered a "discharge" as it applies to the U.S. pollution regulations? spilling a harmful substance pumping a harmful substance sampling a harmful substance leaking diesel fuel oil
Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference? Identity of the product to be transferred Estimated time of finishing cargo Details of transferring and receiving systems Emergency shutdown procedures
If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during the fuel transfer operations, which action should you take FIRST? Close the valves at the manifold. Notify the person in charge of the shore facility. Sound the general alarm. Shut down the operation.
What causes the most frequent incidents of pollution during tanker operations? groundings loading and discharging collisions routine discharge of oil during ballasting and tank crude oil washing
Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)? 1 2 3 4
Who enforces the U.S. pollution regulations that apply to ships? Corps of Engineers Port Authority U.S. Coast Guard State Pollution Board
Which of the following represents an emergency procedure used to stop the oil flow aboard tank vessels, of 250 tons or greater, as required by U.S. regulations? Self-closing emergency disconnect fitting Pressure-sensitive oil pressure controller Quick-acting power actuated valve Manually-operated quick-closing valve
Which of the following describes the depth of a product in a tank? Innage Outage Thievage Ullage
What does the MARPOL 73/78 convention deal with? International Marine Organization Gas Carrier Code International Convention of Safety of Life at Sea International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships International Convention on Standards of Training Certification and Watchkeeping
It would be prudent to perform which of the following actions prior to the commencement of bunkering? close the lids on the vents plug the sounding pipes plug the vents plug the scuppers
In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________. you first start to receive fuel hoses are being blown down hoses are being disconnected final topping off is occurring
Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, which of the following action should you perform? place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers notify the terminal superintendent replace the hose repair the hose with a patch
Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. What action should you take before you resume pumping? repair the hose with a patch place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers notify the terminal superintendent replace the hose
When you notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel, what should your first action be? determine whether your vessel is the source stop loading notify the terminal superintendent notify the senior deck officer
While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST? Search the vessel for leaks Notify the Coast Guard Notify terminal superintendent Stop loading
U.S. regulations require a meeting before starting any oil transfer operation. Who must be in attendance at this meeting? terminal supervisor, Master of the vessel and the Coast Guard master of the vessel and the terminal superintendent master and chief engineer of the vessel and the terminal supervisor person-in-charge of the oil transfer operations on the vessel and the person-in-charge of the oil transfer operations at the facility
U.S. regulations state that a person may not transfer oil or hazardous materials to or from a vessel unless each person-in-charge has signed which of the following documents? valve inspection record machinery log oil record book Declaration of Inspection
For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with a means in which the vessel's designated person-in-charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. Which of the following choices will accomplish this task as required by 33 CFR? a signal-board on the bridge a loudhailer from the vessel bridge a specific sequence of lights a pneumatically or mechanically operated device
Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of LFG? Make sure the raked ends of the barge are completely dry and mopped. Ascertain that the hoses to be used are in good condition. Report any leakage of cargo. Be on the lookout for work being accomplished ashore in the vicinity of the barges.
Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer? To designate smoking areas To indicate any health risk if applicable To indicate if the cargo is a marine pollutant To keep visitors away from the barge
According to 46 CFR there are specific alarms that are required to be tested prior to cargo transfer. Which of the following items does not require testing? quick closing loading valves high level visual alarm high level audible alarm low liquid level alarms
If a repair team is to enter a confined space for repair work, what minimum level of oxygen should be present? 18 (%) 19 (%) 20 (%) 21 (%)
Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel? The manager of the shore facility The designated person in charge The US Coast Guard. The American Bureau of Sipping.
The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer? The person in charge of either place that is doing the pumping The person in charge on the vessel The person in charge at the facility Both persons in charge
U.S. regulations state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless which of the following conditions is met? a representative sample has been taken from the oil being received an oil containment boom is available for immediate use oil residue has been drained from all hoses all parts of the transfer system have been properly lined up
To insure proper seating when closing a valve on a tank, what position should the valve be in? set up as tight as possible by hand closed, opened a half turn, and then closed again set up tight using a valve wrench closed against the stop and the locking pin inserted
What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air? lower explosive limit threshold limit value flash point fire point
Which statement is TRUE concerning insulating flanges? After the insulating flange is installed, hot work may be performed on deck. Switching off a cathodic protection system may be substituted for using an insulating flange The measured resistance value after installation should be less than 1,000 ohms. They should be inspected and tested periodically to ensure that the insulation is clean and in good condition.
When is it acceptable to use power-driven or manually-operated spark producing devices in the pump room, where grades A, B, C, and D liquid cargoes are involved? when all cargo tanks have been inerted when the vessel is gas free when all cargo tanks are empty when the compartment itself is gas free
Which of the following does not require cargo transfer operations on a tank vessel to be stopped? a large, fresh oil spill is discovered immediately adjacent to the side of the tanker there is an electrical storm in the vicinity a tug comes alongside while the tanker is loading grade D and E cargoes there is a fire on the dock or on a nearby vessel
You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed by a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo? A green light visible all around the horizon A flashing yellow light A red light visible all around the horizon An illuminated red and yellow caution flag
Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE? They must be explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamps. They can be used only when the compartment is gas free. The fixture must be explosion-proof and the line must have a ground wire. No portable electric equipment of any type is allowed.
U.S. regulations require an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil or LNG during transfer operations. The emergency means may be which of the following? self-closing automatic disconnect fitting manually-operated quick-closing valve emergency pump control on the cargo deck automatic pressure-sensitive oil flow regulator
Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators? They will detect a lack of oxygen. They do not work properly where there is a lack of oxygen. One sample of air is adequate to test a tank. They are calibrated to read the percentage chance of explosion.
According to U.S. regulations, which of the following is a requirement of the ventilation system of a pump room on a tanker? the regulation requires that the ventilation be non-spark producing the regulation only requires the installation of an exhaust fan the regulation makes exception for the ventilation requirements if a SCBA is mounted at the entrance the regulation only applies to vessels built prior to Jan 1, 1963
What is the inert gas system on a tanker used for? dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit blow out cargo lines to prevent gas concentrations prevent fires in the pumproom by continually displacing flammable vapors prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks
According to U.S. regulations, tank vessels are required to have a means of emergency shutdown. This device does which of the following? shuts off the main propulsion plant shuts off the firefighting foam systems stops the flow of oil to shore facility or other vessel secures electrical power to all motors
Who is responsible for the final inspection ensuring a tank barge is provided with the required equipment and has fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to loading cargo? tankerman or person in charge of loading charterer through the Master of the towing vessel owner of the barge terminal operator
Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, what position must the oxygen content in the tank must be measured at? one meter from the deck in the vent riser at the top of the tank immediately above the level of the oil
What are the flammable limits for motor gasoline? 2.5% to 12.8% mixture in air 5.3% to 7% mixture in air 0.9% to 5.9% mixture in air 1.4% to 7.6% mixture in air
Combustion can occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system. Which of the following will not aid in this combustion process? oxygen ignition nitrogen fuel
What are the primary concern(s) for safely transporting and handling Liquefied Gas? cargo tanks and piping strong enough to withstand the pressure a system of cargo tanks and piping free from leaks cargo tanks and piping located or protected to minimize physical damage All of the above.
Which of the following actions is not considered to have the potential for generating static electricity? discharging a fire hose on deck spraying or splashing of petroleum settling of solids or water in petroleum flow of petroleum through pipes
What is the minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame being present called? lower explosive limit autoignition temperature flash point fire point
Where would be the most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker? at the main deck manifold in the pumproom at the vent header in the midships house
Which of the following is the chief source of spontaneous combustion aboard tankers? kerosene cargo gasoline cargo JP4 cargo oil soaked rags or rubbish
U.S. regulations require that tank vessels handling grade B liquids shall have their cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by which of the following? areas equipped with power ventilation gas tight bulkheads cofferdams empty cargo spaces
What is the best method for extinguishing a fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas? interrupting the chain reaction cooling the gas below the ignition point stopping the flow of gas cutting off the supply of oxygen
Which of the following is a safety consideration when dealing with Liquefied Gas? it's caustic it's cold it's corrosive it's carcogenic
With reference to Liquefied Gas operations, what does the term "rollover" used to describe? vapor pockets forming at the bottom of a half-filled tank when two or more stratified layers of different density LNG in the same tank suddenly mix together, causing a rapid increase in boil-off vapors custody transfer at the terminal moving LNG from one tank to another
What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas? pressure temperature toxicity flammability
Which of the following conditions will cause a combustible gas indicator to become inoperative or give erroneous readings? compartment to be tested is free of CO2 hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere is less than the upper explosive limit atmosphere has sufficient oxygen inerted content of the atmosphere is less than the lower explosive limit
Span gas is used for what process? To calibrate a gas analyzer to ensure it indicates correct gas concentrations. The name of a gaseous state when the temperature of the vapor is the same as that of the liquid. To insure an inert atmosphere during the span of time when a system is being brought to a dry air condition from a flammable atmosphere. To find the zero point on a gas analyzer.
What is span gas used for aboard liquefied natural gas carriers? detect leaks in cargo piping odorize the cargo inert the barrier spaces calibrate the gas leak detectors
How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? De-energizes the "charged mist" effect. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the main vapor collection line to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the alarm must sound? 70 (%) 80 (%) 90 (%) 95 (%)
On a tanker vessel, what is the required combined capacity of the inert gas generating system as compared to the total capacity of all the cargo pumps which can be operated simultaneously? 50 (%) 75 (%) 100 (%) 125 (%)
Which of the following describes intrinsically safe equipment? an electrical circuit in which a spark is incapable of causing the ignition of a given explosive mixture electrical circuits under 2 amperes electrical circuits under 12 volts an electrical circuit normally limited to instrumentation in hazardous areas
The flame screens installed on tank vents that may contain combustible gases, are designed to prevent explosions by which of the following? preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank dissipating the heat of an external flame allowing the escape of flammable vapors absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity
The intakes for an air compressor on a tank vessel carrying grade A cargo may be located in which of the following areas? An enclosed machinery space containing cargo piping A cargo handling room An enclosed space connected to the cargo handling room An area aft of the cargo area 2.5 meters vertically above the deck
Which of the following choices does not depict the tank inerting process on a tank vessel? the introduction of inert gas into a cargo tank during cargo discharge operations to replace the volume of discharged cargo the introduction of inert gas into a gas free tank with the objective of reducing the oxygen content to below 8% by volume the introduction of nitrogen gas into a tank with the objective of reducing the oxygen content to below 8% by volume the introduction of oxygen into a gas free tank prior to entry
Your vessel is securely moored to the berth preparing to discharge a cargo of LPG. Which of the following items would not comply with a "Safety Checklist" and should be corrected? there is sufficient pumproom ventilation the inert gas system deck water seal is drained and secured cargo tanks atmosphere pressure is positive, with an oxygen content of 8% or below the fixed and portable oxygen analysers are calibrated and operational
Under which of the following conditions will the blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker remain operational? boiler combustion control indicates high oxygen level high temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks The tank atmosphere above 8% oxygen the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost
The cargo pump relief valve is usually piped to which of the following components? cargo pump pressure gauge atmosphere through pump vent suction side of pump crossover line
What is the required gas supply capacity of an inert gas system? 125% of forced draft rate 125% of fan capacity 125% of shore side loading rate 125% of cargo pump capacity
If the inert gas system was not in operation while loading crude oil on a tank vessel, what action would you take? Continue loading, as this is a normal procedure. Continue loading under "Emergency Procedures" Immediately stop loading. Immediately start up the inert gas system and admit gas to the deck main when oxygen content is below 8 (%).
Which of the following conditions will result in an automatic shut down of the flue gas inert gas system? High temperature gas entering the scrubber. Low temperature water leaving the scrubber seal. Oxygen content of the gas falls below 5 (%). High temperature gas discharge from inert gas blowers.
What is the maximum allowable oxygen content within the ships cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor recovery system? 4 (%) 5 (%) 8 (%) 10 (%)
When the inert gas system is temporarily unable to maintain a positive pressure, or an oxygen content less than 8%, how should cargo operations be adjusted? operations should be shut down immediately operations should continue only under "Emergency Procedures" operations should be monitored more frequently operations should continue at a slower rate until these requirements are met
When a tank vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels is transferring oil to a facility, U.S. regulations require an emergency means to stopping the flow of oil. Where must these emergency means must be operable from? two or more locations on the tank vessel the usual operating station of the person in charge of the oil transfer the engine room, cargo control room and bridge sequentially a remote location of equal distance from the tank vessel and facility
How is an inert gas system designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions? by reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion by eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks by removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks by blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam
What do the emergency shutdown requirements of U.S. regulations apply to? condensate pumps induced draft fans cargo transfer systems air compressors
Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system? Deck seal low water alarm Scrubber high water level alarm Low oxygen alarm Low pressure alarm
Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of Liquefied Gas? Report any leakage of cargo. Ascertain that the hoses to be used are in good order. Make sure the rake ends of the barge are completely dry and mopped. Be on the lookout for work being accomplished ashore in the vicinity of the barges.
What is the preferable way to extinguish an Liquefied Gas fire? Apply mechanical foam. Shut off the source of the gas feeding the fire. Apply "Purple K" dry chemical. Apply water fog.
What is generally, the first action in extinguishing an Liquefied Gas fire caused by escaping gas? use a chemical foam fire extinguisher call the local fire department shut off the leak sweep flames away with water spray
In order to reduce the accumulation of static electricity while loading petroleum products, you should __________. use the overall method of loading only start to load slowly increase the air flow into the tank start to load at maximum pressure
Where is the most likely location for a cargo fire to occur on a tanker? at the main deck manifold in the pumproom at the vent header in the midships house
What is the primary function of a flame screen on a tank vessel? prevents inert gas from leaving a tank permits the passage of vapor but not of flame prevents the passage of flammable vapors permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank
Which of the following is the primary function of the screens that are fitted to the Fuel oil tank vents? vapors from leaving the tank vent flames on deck from entering the tank vent air from entering the tank vent oil from flowing out of the tank vent
Protective clothing must be worn while sampling hazardous cargo on a tankship. This clothing includes which of the following at a minimum? chemical resistant gloves boots a face mask or goggles a hood or hard hat
Which of the following will prevent a flammable atmosphere from occurring in a cargo tank on a tank vessel? inert gas a combustion stabilizer an oxidizer a vortex eliminator
In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through machinery spaces. This is permitted provided that the only cargo carried through such piping is(are) which of the following? grade E grades D or E grades A or B LFG
Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much trim by the stern. What action should you take to obtain an even keel and still maintain profitability? shift bunkers forward discharge cargo midships add ballast forward load more cargo forward
46 CFR directs the location of fuel oil sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels. Where can the tubes be located? Laundries Washrooms Cargo holds Crew lounge
Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much trim by the stern. Which of the following action would reduce the excessive trim? discharge cargo from the after tanks shift bunkers forward load more cargo forward add ballast forward
What are flame screens used for? prevent flames from entering tanks protect firefighters from flames keep flames and sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust system contain flammable fumes
What is a cofferdam? Tube fitted to an ullage hole Void or empty space separating two tanks Opening in the deck used for cleaning a tank Area the product is loaded into
What type of valve is usually on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank vessel? butterfly valve globe valve check valve spectacle valve
On tankers with manually operated tank valves, which of the following is the type of valve most commonly used? butterfly valve gate valve check valve globe valve
On modern tankers with separate pump rooms, which of the following is used to minimize cargo pump shaft leakage? Stuffing box glands Shaft sleeves Mechanical seals Slinger rings
The condition of asphyxia arises from which of the following? an inadequate supply of oxygen too much oxygen sleep deprivation improper caloric intake
Compared to air, the weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors are which of the following? lighter the same heavier variable
What would likely happen if you were exposed to a 100% methane atmosphere for more than 15 minutes? be severely burned suffocate break out in a cyrogenic rash become quite ill due to the toxic nature of the gas
When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, what is the MOST important symptom to check for? slow and weak pulse unconsciousness suspension of breathing cold and moist skin
Cryogenic burns can result in frostbite, what is the proper immediate treatment? Apply ice to the area and gradually warm. Warm the area quickly by placing it in water at 108°F until it has thawed. Massage the affected area. Compress the affected area with cryogenic burn heat wrap.
What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye? Keep the eyelid close. Apply an ice pack to the eye. Flush the eye with plenty of water. Rub the eye area clean.
Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert gas system if the tonnage is more than __________. 50,000 DWT (metric tons) 50,000 DWT (long tons) 100,000 DWT (metric tons) 100,000 DWT (long tons)
During loading and discharging operations, in addition to when the cargo tanks have been properly filled, each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of __________. 75 millimeters of water pressure 125 millimeters of water pressure 150 millimeters of water pressure 100 millimeters of water pressure
Which statement about the pressure in a tank being inerted by an inert gas system is TRUE? A positive pressure should be maintained at all times. The maximum pressure permitted is 8 psi. The pressure must remain within the limits of +5 psi to -1 psi. None of the above
Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, and temperature of an inert gas system required to be located? Main deck and engine control consoles Cargo control and engine control consoles Bridge and tank(s) being inerted Bridge and engine control consoles
Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure __________. oxygen water vapor carbon dioxide nitrogen
Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gasses, that has an oxygen content by volume of __________. 20% or less 5% or less 15% or less 10% or less
Coast Guard Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels? A fixed water spray system An inert gas system The fire main system The deck foam system
The last 1.0 meter (3.3 feet) of vapor piping before the vessel vapor connection must be painted __________. hi-visibility yellow yellow/red/yellow international orange red/yellow/red
Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close automatically upon __________. low inert gas temperature blower failure deck seal low water level cargo pump failure
On a vapor control system, each vessel's vapor connection flange must have a __________. pressure gauge permanently attached to the flange 6" reducer hose saddle stud at least 1" long projecting from the flange face
Vapor recovery hoses must be tested yearly at what ratio to their maximum allowable working pressure? 1½ mawp 2 mawp 3 mawp 5 mawp
During loading, what is the minimum pressure required to be maintained by the inert gas system on cargo tanks? 2" water gauge 4" water gauge 20" water gauge 40" water gauge
When checking the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery, the atmosphere must be sampled __________. one meter from the tank bottom and one meter below the tank top at three meter intervals from the tank top one half the ullage of the tank and one meter above the tank bottom one half the ullage of the tank and one meter below the tank top
An on-board monitoring system, using level sensors permanently installed in each vessel compartment, will have a high level alarm set at not more than __________. 90% of compartment capacity 99% of compartment capacity 97% of compartment capacity 95% of compartment capacity
What is the combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to? shoreside loading rate size of the largest cargo tank boiler forced draft fan rate maximum cargo pump discharge rate
How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. De-energizes the "charged mist" effect.
How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks? Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the flammable vapors. De-energizes the "charged mist" effect. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep them below the lower explosive limit. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank spaces.
What is NOT a requirement for the safe and effective use of a crude oil washing system? Use portable washing machines to reach areas obscured by structural members in the tanks. Decant one meter from the source tank for the tank cleaning machines. Strip all tanks and remove the bottom residue. Use an inert gas system while washing tanks.
Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system? Low oxygen alarm Scrubber high water level alarm Low pressure alarm Deck seal low water alarm
The high-level overfill tank alarm, installed in the on-board monitoring system, must __________. sound when the tank is 90% full operate in unison with other alarms be both audible and visual be the same as the overfill alarm
In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the main vapor collection line to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the alarm must sound? 70 (%) 80 (%) 90 (%) 95 (%)
You are on an inerted tankship. A low pressure alarm must be set to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure in the tanks cannot be maintained at more than __________. 90% of the pressure drop through the scrubber 90% of the vacuum assist fan 4" water gauge 90% of the vacuum relief setting
On a tank vessel, each high level alarm and tank overfill alarm must be tested __________. anytime prior to loading no earlier than 24 hours prior to loading no later than 24 hours prior to loading weekly
What percent of oxygen content by volume, must each inert gas system be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gases? 15% or less 20% or less 10% or less 5% or less
The fresh air intake of the inert gas system __________. allows the inert gas piping to be used for gas freeing the tanks opens when there is excessive vacuum on the deck water seal enables outside air to mix with and to cool the hot flue gasses prevents the flue gas from falling below an oxygen content of 3%
Which part of the inert gas system is designed to relieve sudden large overpressures that exceed the capacity of the mechanical P/V valves? Pressure control valve Deck water seal Isolation valve Liquid filled P/V breaker
After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas system the gas is passed through what device for final cleaning? Demister Deck water seal Final filter Scrubber
Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system? Removes chemical impurities from the gas. Removes particulate matter like soot. Cools the inert gas. Maintains gas pressure in the tanks.
What is the major function of the deck water seal in an inert gas system? Relieves excessive pressures from the system. Removes any leftover water or soot after the gas has been scrubbed. Isolates hazardous areas from nonhazardous areas. Prevents the flow of inert gas into closed or isolated tanks.
The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________. cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceed the safe working pressure in the hazardous zone prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________. scrubber filter cooler purifier
Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system? Maintains flow to the water seal on the gas main. Cools the inert gas. Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume. Bleeds off static electricity in the inert gas.
After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume capacity of an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure, in any cargo tank, at a minimum of __________. 50 millimeters of water pressure 100 millimeters of water pressure 150 millimeters of water pressure 200 millimeters of water pressure
The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to the __________. cargo pump discharge rate boiler forced draft fan rate size of the largest cargo tank shoreside loading rate
In order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system, there must be __________. oxygen fuel ignition All of the above.
Each hose used for transferring vapors must __________. have a design burst pressure of at least 25 psig be capable of withstanding at least 2.0 psi vacuum without collapsing or constricting be electrically continuous with a maximum resistance of ten thousand ohms All of the above.
The liquid-filled PV breaker has acted to relieve a vacuum in a tank. What action must be taken in regards to the PV-breaker before continuing operations? Refill the breaker with liquid. Manually reset the vacuum side of the breaker. Install a new rupture disc. Check to make certain that it has reset itself.
What type of liquid is used in the liquid P/V breaker? Hydraulic oil Distilled water Water-antifreeze mixture Oil from the cargo
Which method is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks? High capacity fan Exhaust gas pressure from the stack Inert gas compressor Natural aspiration
The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent __________. flammable vapors from entering machinery space inert gas escaping to atmosphere air entering inert gas system flue gas escaping to atmosphere
The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if __________. normal water supply at the water seal is lost the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost the temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks is more than 150°F All of the above.
Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system? Cools the inert gas. Removes particulate matter like soot. Maintains gas pressure in the tanks. Removes chemical impurities from the gas.
Which of the following describes the fresh air intake of the inert gas system? it enables outside air to mix with and to cool the hot flue gases it allows the inert gas piping to be used for gas freeing the tanks it prevents the flue gas from falling below an oxygen content of 3% it opens when there is excessive vacuum on the deck water seal
Tank vessel inerting refers to __________. the introduction of inert gas into a tank with the object of reducing the oxygen content to below 8% by volume the introduction of inert gas into a gas free tank for the purpose of reducing the oxygen content to below 8% by volume the introduction of inert gas into a cargo tank during cargo discharge to replace the volume of discharged cargo All of the above.
An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to __________. dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit prevent fires in the pumproom by continually displacing flammable vapors prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks blow out cargo lines to prevent the build up of gas concentrations
An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions by __________. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam
The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __________. provide increase in cargo discharge pressure allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations prevent outside air from entering the tank
An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________. aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible increase the rate of discharge of cargo
On a hydrocarbon flammability chart the line which extends from 0% to 21.8% oxygen, lying tangent to the flammability range, is called the __________. critical displacement line critical dilution line minimum oxygen content line upper threshold limit
The maximum allowable oxygen content within the ship's cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor recovery system is __________. 4 (%) 5 (%) 8 (%) 10 (%)
Introducing inert gas into a tank already inert with the object of further reducing the oxygen or hydrocarbon content to prevent combustion if air enters the tank is called __________. bonding gas dispersion gas freeing purging
The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides __________. tank atmosphere with low oxygen content better fuel economy for faster loading All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels? Flue gases from the ship's boilers are used in some systems. Helium is the preferred inert gas. Using the system accelerates the rusting of the tanks. All of the above.
Which statement about the inert gas system is TRUE? Flue gas with excessive oxygen content is de-oxygenated in the scrubber. The boiler will produce the most quantity of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is very light. The boiler will produce the best quality of flue gas for the IG system when the boiler load is very light. Boiler soot blowers should never be used when the IG system is operating.
You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action should you take? Reduce the pumping rate. Open the tank isolation valve to the fully open position. Cut in another IG fan to increase gas flow. Open the pressure control valve until the pressure increases.
Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the prescribed limits? Loading Discharging Steaming tanks Crude oil washing
Which statement about inert gas pressures in a cargo tank is TRUE? The pressures of the inert gas in the tank may create excessive pressure at the pump while discharging. Gas pressures should be maintained at the highest permissible level throughout the discharging process. High gas pressures may cause loss of suction when stripping. High gas pressures may cause pyrophoric oxidation in the tank.
Which action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is closed off from the inert gas system by the tank isolation valve? The tank must be gas freed. The tank must be ballasted. The tank must be vented to the atmosphere. The bypass valve must also be closed.
Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank? Fresh air ventilation Removal of corrosion products and sludge Washing the tank interior with sea water Application of degreasing solvents
Which of the following describes excessive recirculation of inert gas? it is likely to over heat the deck water seal it is undesirable and it may lead to high oxygen content of the inert gas it is highly recommended it is likely to over pressurize the cargo tanks
Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks? Exhaust gas pressure High capacity fan Inert gas compressor Natural aspiration
While discharging cargo, the cargo tank pressures are falling too low. What can the Cargo Officer do to correct the problem? Slow the discharge rate. Ask the terminal to send more vapor to the ship. Stop the discharge rate. All of the above.
You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action should you take? Cut in another IG fan to increase gas flow. Open the pressure control valve until the pressure increases. Open the tank isolation valve to the fully open position. Reduce the pumping rate.
You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker with orders to load diethylamine. What is NOT a requirement for transporting this cargo? Each crew member must be provided with an emergency escape breathing apparatus. You must have a containment system made out of stainless steel other than types 416 and 422. You must have two toxic vapor detectors or the pumproom must meet special requirements. If you are also carrying allyl alcohol, the venting systems don't have to be segregated.
On a manned vessel carrying packaged hazardous cargo, the hazardous materials shall be inspected __________. every 24 hours unless equipped with a fire detecting system after stowage is complete prior to entry into a U.S. port All of the above.
Your tankship is carrying a 30% solution of hydrogen peroxide. The cargo containment system must have a permanent inert gas system. While discharging this cargo the inert gas system must maintain a minimum pressure of __________. 3.0 psig 0.5 psig 5.0 psig atmospheric pressure
In accordance with regulations, ethylene oxide shall be loaded below what temperature? 51°F 90°F 70°F its flash point
Protective clothing must be worn while sampling hazardous cargo on a tankship, and as a minimum includes __________. chemical resistant gloves a face mask or goggles boots a hood or hard hat
Which statement about the carriage of solid hazardous materials in bulk is TRUE? Hazardous materials that require separation must not be handled at the same time. The shipping papers can be used in lieu of a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for a vessel carrying solid hazardous materials in bulk. A certificate issued by ABS will be accepted as evidence that the vessel complies with all applicable loading regulations. A special permit issued by the Coast Guard is required before bulk solid materials that require special handling are loaded
You are on a cargo vessel carrying toluol in bulk in portable tanks. Which is a requirement for pumping the toluol? If transferring at anchor, you must display a red flag by day and a red light at night. Hose connections to the tank must be made with a minimum of three bolts. You must shut down if another vessel comes alongside. There must be water pressure on the fire main.
Your tankship is carrying a cargo of styrene. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for carriage of this cargo? P/V valves with galvanized parts must be replaced. You must have a "Certificate of Inhibition" provided by the shipper. The cargo tank heating coils must be blanked off. Authorization to carry styrene must be endorsed on the Certificate of Inspection.
Your U.S. tankship is designed to carry anhydrous ammonia in bulk. The keel was laid in 1980. Which statement concerning the carriage of this cargo is TRUE? Carriage of this cargo is authorized by issuance of an IMO Certificate. Aluminum, copper, zinc, and mercury are allowed in valve parts in contact with the cargo. The cargo may be gauged by automatic float type devices. A flammable gas detection system must be installed in each cargo pump room.
Your U.S. tankship is designed to carry anhydrous ammonia in bulk. The keel was laid in 1980. Which statement concerning the carriage of this cargo is TRUE? Aluminum and copper alloys are prohibited from being in valve parts in contact with the cargo. Carriage of this cargo is authorized by issuance of an IMO Certificate. Tanks may not be located "on deck". A flammable gas detection system must be installed in each cargo pump room.
You are on a vessel designed to carry compressed gasses in bulk with a cargo of butadiene. Which statement is TRUE? The shipping document must specify the exact quantity of butadiene being carried. The cargo tank may be sampled only when the tank is being filled. Silver and copper are prohibited in the parts of valves and fittings in contact with the cargo. The ullage must be padded with compressed air at a minimum pressure of 2 psig.
You are to load styrene in bulk, which is subject to self-polymerization. In accordance with 46 CFR Table 153 what are you required to do? use heating coils to maintain the styrene within the temperatures specified by the shipper be furnished with a Certificate of Inhibition to be maintained on the bridge inject nitrogen to pad any ullage above the styrene to prevent contact with oxygen not carry any cargo in the tanks surrounding the tank loaded with styrene
You are on a tankship designed to carry molten sulfur. Which statement is TRUE? Cargo temperature may be taken by portable thermometers. There must be two portable toxic vapor detectors on board. The pressure in the heating coils in the tanks must be less than that of the cargo exerted on them. The cargo tank ventilation system must maintain the H2S vapor concentration at 1.85% or more by volume.
You are on a cargo vessel carrying portable tanks of dangerous cargoes in bulk. Which statement is TRUE? If the tanks are pumped out while remaining on board, each hose connection must have a minimum of three bolts. When transferring sulfuric acid, you must display a red flag by day whether at anchor or moored. All electrical equipment within 10 feet horizontally must be explosion proof or intrinsically safe. If the tanks are off loaded, no more than two tanks may be lifted together in a hoist.
What type of gauging is required for a cargo of formic acid? Restricted Closed Open None of the above
You are on a tankship carrying benzene in bulk. Which statement is TRUE? No other cargoes may be carried due to the possibility of contamination by a carcinogen. Benzene is not a cancer-causing agent. Personnel working in regulated areas must use respirators. The crew quarters must have positive-pressure ventilation to prevent the fumes from entering the living spaces.
What is NOT required as special safety equipment on a tankship carrying hazardous cargoes in bulk? Shower and eyewash fountain Two portable vapor detectors suitable for the cargoes carried Equipment to lift an injured person from a pumproom A safety locker adjacent to the emergency shutdown station
You are on a vessel carrying liquefied butadiene in bulk. Which document is NOT required to be either in the wheelhouse or easily accessible to the person on watch while underway? Cargo manual Certificate of Inspection Shipping document Cargo information card
Which is NOT required on a tankship carrying hazardous liquid cargoes in bulk? Certificate of Adequacy for the hazardous cargoes carried Certificate of Inspection issued under the Tank Vessel Regulations Cargo piping plan showing loading rates for all applicable cargo lines A copy of 46 CFR parts 35 and 150
Your tank vessel is loading a hazardous cargo. The allowance for expansion is based on ambient temperatures of what maximum range? -18°C to 46°C -40°C to 50°C -10°C to 90°C 0°C to 100°C
You are on a vessel that carries liquefied gasses in bulk. The person on watch is required to have what information about the cargo easily accessible? Exact quantity on board Name and address of consignee Firefighting procedures Port of loading
You have a tow of chemical barges. The mate reports an ammonia smell around the head of the tow. You would suspect a leak in the barge carrying __________. propanolamine morpholine methyl chloride heptane
No hot work shall be performed on board a vessel with hazardous materials as cargo unless the work is approved by the __________. local U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port National Cargo Bureau American Bureau of Shipping harbormaster
In handling break bulk hazardous materials, it is forbidden to use __________. metal bale hooks slings cargo nets pallets
Once a vessel has loaded packaged hazardous cargo, the cargo spaces shall be inspected. The spaces shall also be inspected at least once in every 24 hours. The only exception to daily inspection is when __________. the cargo is of a nonflammable type a vessel is equipped with an automatic smoke or fire detecting system there is sufficient fire protection located on the main deck adjacent to the cargo hatch the cargo hatches are of steel construction
You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. The regulations require you to __________. keep a warning sign posted nearby allow no chipping or painting in the vicinity of the cargo periodically inspect it and make an entry in a log keep a fire hose run out and ready for use if needed
If a Master must jettison a container loaded with hazardous material, he must, as soon as possible, notify the __________. National Cargo Bureau Environmental Protection Agency nearest Captain of the Port National Hazardous Chemical Response Center
Your ship is carrying hazardous cargo. During a daily inspection, you notice that some of the cargo has shifted and several cases are broken. You should FIRST __________. log the facts in the rough log and inform the Chief Mate later call out the deck gang to jettison the cargo make a determination of the seriousness of the breakage, and do what you think best report the facts immediately to the Master, who will make a decision
When stowing hazardous materials on deck, lashing of such cargo is permitted if __________. the lashings are secured to deck pad eyes a wooden bin is constructed of at least 2-inch dunnage and bolted together the cargo is lashed to the adjacent guard rails there is at least 3 inches of dunnage on deck
What is NOT a requirement for the preparation of used, gasoline-propelled cars if they are to be carried as ordinary cargo and not as hazardous cargo? The fuel tank must be inerted with CO2. The engine must be run until it dies from lack of fuel. The ignition key may not be in the ignition. The vehicle must be inspected for fuel leaks.
Which agency is authorized to assist the Coast Guard in the inspection of vessels for the suitability of loading hazardous materials? U.S. Navy explosive loading details National Cargo Bureau, Inc. American Bureau of Shipping Environmental Protection Agency
What would NOT require that a detailed report of the release of hazardous cargo be made to the Department of Transportation? The valve on an empty portable tank that contained acetone is accidentally opened and some of the residue escapes to the open sea. Heavy weather causes damage to packages of a hazardous liquid that is subsequently pumped out at sea through the bilge pumping system. Part of your deck cargo of five gallon cans of paint is damaged and leaking so you jettison them to eliminate the fire hazard. A carboy of nitric acid is broken on deck while loading and is flushed overboard with no injury or damage.
You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. You must inspect this cargo __________. after encountering rough weather daily, at sea only after loading and prior to arrival in port only daily
You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. The Dangerous Cargo Manifest must be signed by the __________. Master or his authorized representative shipper Master only U.S. Coast Guard Marine Inspector
You have loaded dangerous cargo on your vessel and must fill out a Dangerous Cargo Manifest. In which publication would you find the requirements to complete this form? IMDG - International Maritime Dangerous Goods 33 CFR - Navigation and Navigable Waters 46 CFR - Shipping IMCO - Intergovernmental Maritime Consultative Organization
You are loading a cargo that includes cylinders of acetylene aboard your break bulk vessel. Which statement is true? The cylinders may be protected from the radiant heat of the Sun by laying a tarp on them. The cylinders must be stowed at least 10 horizontal feet from corrosive materials in the same space. Stowage in the upper deck-deck is considered to be the equivalent of "on deck" stowage for this cargo. The cylinders must have a red label for flammability and a green label for compressed gas.
All handling and stowage of packaged hazardous materials on board a domestic vessel engaged in foreign trade shall be done under the supervision of __________. a U.S. Coast Guard Marine Inspector the National Cargo Bureau an officer assigned to the vessel the American Bureau of Shipping
If you carry packaged hazardous cargoes on a break bulk vessel bound foreign, you must __________. log the receipt of hazardous cargoes in the Official Logbook stow the hazardous cargoes on deck available for jettisoning if necessary have the shipping papers indicate the proper shipping name and the technical name of n.o.s. cargoes remove the hazardous cargo labels from a portable tank after the tank is emptied
Many dangerous cargoes are stowed on deck because of the __________. necessity of periodic inspection danger to crew and cargo possible need to jettison All of the above.
You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes loaded on board. It should be kept in a conspicuous location __________. in the radio room in the ship's office outside the Captain's stateroom on or near the bridge
The National Cargo Bureau represents the __________. shipper operator agent All of the above.
Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes? Navigation spaces Cofferdams Enclosed deck spaces Pump rooms
What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids? Each cargo tank must have a vent. A vent header must be fitted with a pressure-vacuum valve. The diameter of the vent must be greater than 4 inches in diameter. The vent must extend to a reasonable height above the weather deck.
In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through machinery spaces, what are the type(s) of cargo permitted to be carried through such piping? grades A or B grades D or E grade E LFG
What must access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes be? at least 13.1 feet away from the galleys, living quarters or navigation spaces only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems isolated from any part of the vessel which normally contains sources of vapor ignition from the open deck
Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo? A cargo handling room A space in which cargo hose is stored An enclosed space containing cargo piping All of the above.
On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation? The vessel owner The OCMI who issued the Certificate of Inspection Smoking is not permitted during a loading operation. The senior deck officer on duty or certified tankerman
According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type. What is the time requirement to sufficiently effect a complete change of air? 1 minute 2 minutes 3 minutes 5 minutes
A vessel constructed after 1970, carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, has enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present. What is not required for the segregation of these spaces from cargo tanks? cofferdams galleys pump rooms tanks used to carry liquids having a flash point of 150°F or above
Regulations require that cargo pumprooms on tank barges (constructed in 1965) carrying grades B or C liquid cargoes have power ventilation systems. In what time period can these systems completely change the air? 1 minute 3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes
Regulations require that cargo tanks in which grades B or C liquids are carried must be vented with which of the following? Flame screens Gooseneck vents Pressure vacuum relief valves Forced draft blowers
What are tank vessels handling grade B liquids required to have their cargo pumps separated from all sources of vapor ignition by? gas tight bulkheads empty cargo spaces cofferdams areas equipped with power ventilation
What are the minimum ventilation requirements for pumprooms on tank vessels, constructed in 1960, carrying grades B or C liquid cargo with machinery spaces located below the freeboard deck? gooseneck vents and flame screens that it be fitted with at least two ducts extended to the weather deck that it be power ventilation that it be connected to a vent header system
In order to carry a cargo of triethanolamine, what hull type is required? I II III IV
Who must approve the carriage of a liquefied gas not appearing in table 4 of 46 CFR Part 154? Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection vessel owner Commandant (G-MTH) American Bureau of Shipping
Flammable liquids should have what kind of label? White Red Yellow Skull and crossbones
Flammable liquids should have what kind of label? Skull and crossbones Red Yellow White
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material is not compatible with vinylidene chloride (inhibited)? Nickel Copper or copper alloys Aluminum Stainless steel
Camphor oil is classified as a __________. Grade A flammable liquid Grade C flammable liquid Grade D combustible liquid Grade E combustible liquid
Grade E combustible liquids have a flash point of __________. 150°F and above 150°F and below below 80°F below 150°F and above 80°F
Grade E combustible liquids are those having flash points of __________. 150°F or greater greater than 115°F and less than 150°F greater than 80°F and less than 115°F 80°F or less
According to the Chemical Data Guide, fuel oil number 6 has a flash point (degrees F) of __________. 65 80 - 100 110 - 140 150 - 430(cc)
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use on a retinol fire? Foam Dry chemical CO2 Water spray
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is NOT a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethylene cyanohydrin fire? Dry chemical Alcohol foam Water fog CO2
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which material would corrode upon contact with aniline? Copper Nickel Mild steel Aluminum
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what are the flammable limits of ethylene oxide? 2 - 100 (%) 2.7 - 34 (%) 1.85 - 48.0 (%) 1.9 - 88.0 (%)
According to the Chemical Data Guide, ethylene oxide exhibits which fire and explosion hazard? It does not need oxygen for combustion. It reacts with water to provide flammable vapors. Its flash point is 80.4°F. It breaks down into highly toxic fumes of bromides.
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does ethyl chloride produce when ignited? Poisonous chlorine gas Toxic fumes of lead Poisonous phosgene gas Toxic fumes of oxides of nitrogen
According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. What does the last digit "2" of the rating mean? chemical vapors will cause a slight smarting of the eyes or respiratory system if present in high concentrations the chemical is severely hazardous, usually having threshold limits below 10 ppm the chemical poison presents some hazard if it enters the body and typically has threshold limits of 100 to 500 ppm the chemical contains fairly severe skin irritants, causing second- and third-degree burns after a few minutes contact
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethyl chloride fire? Carbon Tetrachloride Alcohol foam CO2 Water foam
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is recommended for use in fighting an ethylamine fire? Dry chemical Water foam Water fog Sand or Sawdust
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does the grade B flammable liquid carbon disulfide produce when burning? carbon tetrachloride phosgene gas sulfur dioxide gas sulfuric acid gas
According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for the grade B flammable liquid piperylene is __________. 108°F 43°C not available -20°F
According to the Chemical Data Guide, piperylene possesses which characteristic? A boiling point of 43°F Insoluble in water A Reid vapor pressure of 14 psia Specific Gravity of 0.86
According to the Chemical Data Guide, 1,3 - pentadiene possesses which characteristic? Colorless liquid, faint odor Straw-colored liquid, sweet-odor Colorless liquid, mild aromatic odor Pale yellow liquid, strong odor
According to the Chemical Data Guide, to what chemical family does 1,3 - pentadiene belong? Olefins Unsaturated hydrocarbons Esters Phosphorus
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is the Reid Vapor Pressure of tert-butylamine? 11 (psig) 12 (psig) 13 (psig) 14 (psig)
According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is a characteristic of allyl chloride? It has sour odor. It is classified as a grade B poison. It is chemically unstable It may be stored in steel tanks
According to the chemical data guide, what type of odor would you smell if a leak occurred while loading diethylenetriamine? gasoline rotten eggs ammonia None of the above
Grade D liquids are those having flash points of __________. 80°F or less 212°F or greater 150°F or greater but less than 212°F greater than 80°F and less than 150°F
According to the Chemical Data Guide, epichlorohydrin is a(n) __________. corrosive class B poison oxidizer explosive
According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent should be used on a petrolatum fire in an open area? Dry chemical Monoxide powders CO2 Foam
Nonflammable gases should have what kind of label? Red Skull and crossbones Green White
Nonflammable gases should have what kind of label? Skull and crossbones Red Green White
The flash point of vinyl chloride is __________. -20°F (-29°C) 97°F (36°C) 32°F (0°C) -108°F (-78°C)
Another name for coal naphtha that would appear on a dangerous cargo manifest is __________. tar middle oil benzene toluene
You are loading a cargo tank on your container ship. The tank displays the red label as shown in illustration D023DG below. Which statement is TRUE? The tank's volume is 1077 cubic feet. There are three tanks in the shipment. The tank contains an oxidizing material. The tank contains propylene.
Which statement concerning castor oil is TRUE? It has a specific gravity of 1.3. It is a grade E combustible liquid. It has a Reid vapor pressure of 9.5. The boiling point is 215°F (102°C).
What produces the MOST dangerous vapors? Camphor oil Pentane Methyl alcohol Anhydrous ammonia
What is the MOST irritating to the skin? Oleum Ethyl alcohol Isoprene Carbon disulfide
What is an explosion hazard when exposed to flame? Tallow Nitrous oxide Toluene Formic acid
Sulfuric acid is a __________. whitish liquid with a faint, pleasant odor colorless-to-brown liquid with a choking odor when hot colorless liquid with a pleasant fruity odor clear syrupy liquid with no odor
Which statement is TRUE concerning toluene? Its Reid Vapor Pressure is 9.4. The boiling point is 174°F. It is an aromatic hydrocarbon. It is classified as a grade A flammable liquid.
What is a solid at ambient temperature? Methyl chloride Napthalene Aniline Formic acid
Which flash point would indicate a grade E combustible liquid? 140°F 155°F 80°F 75°F
Vinyl chloride reacts dangerously with __________. alkalies saltwater concentrated nitric acid organic acids
Heavy fuel oils when spilled are __________. easier to clean up than lighter refined oils more harmful to sea life than lighter oils less harmful to sea life than lighter oils not a real threat to marine life
Containers of flammable solids should be conspicuously labeled by the shipper with a __________. yellow label orange label green label red and white label
The label required for magnesium scrap is __________. oxidizer yellow corrosive None of the above
Corrosive liquids and acids should have which kind of label? Yellow and white Red and white White and black Skull and crossbones
Cottonseed oil is classed as a __________. poison B flammable liquid combustible liquid flammable solid
Argon is classified as a __________. flammable liquid flammable gas nonflammable gas corrosive
The label required on containers carrying barium oxide in an international shipment must read __________. "Poison" "Infectious Substance" "Radioactive" "Spontaneously Combustible"
A package contains nitric acid solution and is radioactive. The radiation level at the package surface is .36 millirems per hour. How should this package be labeled? Radioactive II and oxidizer Radioactive II and poison Radioactive I and corrosive Fissile class I
You are on a containership carrying a tank container that had been filled with sodium hydroxide solution. The container is empty but has not been cleaned. Which, if any, placard is required? Black and white corrosive placard Empty placard with corrosive placard Residue label with the UN number No placard is required; the tank openings must be sealed
Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2206 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo? Xylenol Propadiene, inhibited Isocyanates, n.o.s. Hexanols
Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2282 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo? Furan Phosphine Isoheptene Hexanols
Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2199 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo? Adiponitrile Phosphine Xylenol Furan
Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2224 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo? Acrylic acid Propadiene, inhibited Hexanol Benzonitrile
Corrosive liquids and acids should have what kind of label? Red Skull and crossbones White Yellow
What is the threshold limit value (TLV) for a product of PHTHALIC ANHYDRIDE? 1 ppm 2 ppm 3 ppm 4 ppm
What is the TLV of cyclohexanol? 20 ppm 30 ppm 40 ppm 50 ppm
Which of the following product(s) would be classified as grade E? Bunker C Gasoline Kerosene All of the above.
The appearance of Bunker C and fuel oils are dark colored liquids, and __________. soluble oils cutting oils viscous oils slop oils
When heated to breakdown, tetraethyl or tetramethyl lead compounds emit highly toxic fumes of __________. lead bromide phosgene hydrogen gas
You are loading propanolamine and spill a small quantity on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you would expect its odor to be __________. fishy similar to ammonia similar to turpentine sweet
What is classified as a combustible liquid? Carbon tetrachloride Acetaldehyde Tetraethylene glycol Ethyl alcohol
If you came into contact with nitrobenzene while disconnecting the cargo hose, you should be aware that it is __________. highly toxic when absorbed through the skin a nerve poison a blood poison All of the above.
What are the health hazard ratings for a product of triethylbenzene? 1,1,1 2,2,2 0,1,1 Unavailable
In order to determine the health hazard data for carbolic acid, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical? Acetic oxide Carbinol Carbon bisulfide Phenol
Triethylene glycol fires may be extinguished by __________. carbon dioxide dry chemical alcohol foam All of the above.
What is NOT a grade E product? Creosote coal tar Formic acid Dioctyl-phthalate Gasoline
A synonym for chloroform is __________. sulfuric chlorohydrin trichloromethane 4-methyl phenol chlorine gas
You are loading benzyl chloride and a small quantity spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, which of the following may be used as a substitute for water for the cleanup procedure? Sodium carbonate Sodium bisulfite Alcohol Soda ash solution
Severe exposure to chlorine gas can be fatal. Chlorine gas is primarily a __________. blood poisoning agent respiratory irritant nerve paralyzing irritant skin burning agent
What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye? Keep the eyelid closed. Apply an ice pack to the eye. Rub the eye area clean. Flush the eye with plenty of water.
What is the Reid vapor pressure of a Grade A flammable liquid? 5 to 8 1/2 psia more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia 14 psia or more None of the above
You are transferring a cargo of ethyl chloride and a small amount spills into the water around your vessel. What does the Chemical Data Guide indicate is the solubility of ethyl chloride in water? negligible slight complete moderate
What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid? Ethyl acetate iso-Propylamine Morpholine Acetone
What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid? Methyl alcohol Ethylene dibromide Pentane Nonyl phenol
During transfer operations, ethyl chloride spills into the water. According to the Chemical Data Guide, at what temperature will the ethyl chloride boil off the water? above 46°F above 54°F above 60°F above 68°F
During transfer operations, a quantity of propylamine spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is the correct reaction? move to a position upwind of the spill and allow the product to boil off add sodium bisulfate on the contaminated surface and spray it down with water cover the contaminated surface with soda-ash-soaked lime solution immediately flush the spill with large quantities of fresh water
Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire? Absorbent C Foam Water fog Any isoprene inhibitor
What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air in the presence of an ignition source? autoignition temperature reid vapor index flash point flammable range
What is the flash point of iso-Hexane? -10°Fahrenheit 20°Centigrade 68°Fahrenheit 152°Centigrade
Which fire extinguishing agent can NOT be used on an ethylenediamine? Alcohol foam Water foam Dry chemical powder Water fog
What is the Vapor pressure of ethylene oxide at 46° C? 15.2 (psia) 48.0 (psia) 10.9 (psia) 38.5 (psia)
To what chemical family does ethylene oxide belong? Esters Alkylene oxides Glycol ethers Alcohols
What is the Reid vapor pressure of a grade B product? 9 1/2 psia and a flash point of 95°F more than 8 1/2 psia but less than 14 psia and a flash point of 72°F above 14 psia 7 psia and a flash point of 80°F
To what chemical family does chlorallylene belong? Substituted allyl Alcohols Glycol ethers Esters
What is the Reid vapor pressure of allyl chloride? 16.5 (psia) 14.0 (psia) 12.9 (psia) 10.3 (psia)
What is the boiling point of carbon disulfide? 167°F 115°F 111°F 46°F
Which of the following is classified as a flammable liquid? Bunker C Mineral spirits Methyl alcohol Butane
Which is an example of a grade B flammable liquid? Phenol Acetaldehyde Carbon disulfide Allyl alcohol
What is a grade B flammable liquid? Ethylene oxide Allyl alcohol Paraldehyde Chlorallylene
Which is a grade B flammable liquid? Carbon Disulfide Ethyl Chloride Butadiene Carbon Tetrachloride
Which extinguishing agent is recommended in the Chemical Data Guide for use on a carbon disulfide fire? Alcohol foam Water fog Dry chemical Chemical foam
Which of the following would be a good extinguishing agent for a grade B product of 1,3-Pentadiene? Foam Low Velocity Fog High Velocity Fog Water
What is a major health hazard of the product tert-butylamine? can be absorbed through the skin causes irreversible damage to eye tissue is a very unstable product it reacts to protective rubber gear
Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid? 65°F 87°F 160°F 155°F
Which flash point would indicate a grade D combustible liquid? 40°F 95°F 79°F 155°F
An example of a grade D product is __________. aviation gas grade 115/145 kerosene heavy fuel oil commercial gasoline
Which cargo is considered volatile? Bunker C Sweet oil Turkey-red oil iso-Propylamine
You are loading epichlorohydrin onto your barge. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you could expect to detect a leak by smell if the concentration in air was at least __________. 2 ppm 10 - 25 ppm 40 ppm 105 ppm
In order to determine the fire and explosion hazard data for naphtha, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical? Tar camphor Napthalene Treacle Mineral spirits
Depending on its concentration, which product(s) can be classified as either grade D or E? Sulfuric acid Formaldehyde solutions 37% to 50% 1,1,1-trichloroethane All of the above.
The flash point of a product is 100°F. What can happen if it is heated above 110°F? It may burn and explode if an ignition source is present. It will become less volatile and easier to handle. It will boil off to the atmosphere. None of the above
If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be __________. within the "explosive range" above the "explosive range" below the "explosive range" None of the above
If a crew member is exposed to phenol by way of skin or eye contact, you should IMMEDIATELY __________. give victim stimulant treat victim for shock administer oxygen flush skin and eyes with water
When measuring the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery, check it __________. one half the ullage of the tank and one meter above the tank bottom at three meter intervals from the tank top to the bottom one meter from the tank bottom and one meter below the tank top one half the ullage of the tank and one meter below the tank top
With an increase in temperature the volume of flammable and combustible liquids __________. contracts expands remains constant if pressure remains constant remains constant
Where would you expect to find a "charged mist" on a tanker? In a common vent header during tank ballasting. In a cargo tank during inerting operations. In the overflow line while topping off. In a cargo tank during "Butterworthing".
What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off? Reduce the loading rate. Maintain communications with the dock man. Give the operation your undivided attention. Notify the engine room of the procedure.
When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open? Trip the pump relief valve. Call the owner, operator, or terminal supervisor. Run out the vessel's or terminal's fire hose. Order the dock man to shut down.
Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level when loading on a cold day because __________. a subsequent temperature rise will cause the cargo to overflow the increased viscosity of the product requires higher loading pressure which increases the chances of a spill air pockets may cause the cargo to bubble out of the ullage hole the tank valve may be stiff and a spill will occur before the valve can be closed
Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much trim by the stern. To adjust the trim you may __________. add ballast forward shift bunkers forward load more cargo forward All of the above.
Your tank vessel is fully loaded, and you find that she is down slightly by the head. To adjust the trim, you may __________. add ballast aft load more cargo aft shift cargo aft All of the above.
Which factor must be considered when determining the order of loading of dissimilar products through the same piping system aboard a tanker? Reid vapor pressures Specific gravities Contamination of the cargo Flash points
When loading a tanker, you should __________. keep the seamen on watch on standby in the mess room close valves by closing them down, reopening one or two turns, and re-closing keep a strain on the loading hoses load only one tank at a time
A vessel loads edible oil in a deep tank through a manhole at the mid-length of the tank. In order to fill the tank to maximum capacity, what trim should the vessel have? Down by the bow Down by either the bow or stern Down by the stern In level trim
In controlling pollution, which action should be taken after all dirty ballast has been transferred to the slop tank and prior to discharge through the oily water separator? The dirty ballast tank is crude oil washed. The slops should be allowed time to settle. The clean tanks should be ballasted. Chemicals should be added to emulsify the oil.
According to U.S. regulations, how much hose should you use in transferring oil in bulk? One and one half times the distance between ship and dock. Sufficient for maximum vessel movement without straining the hoses. Twice the distance between ship and dock. Not over 300 feet (91.4 m) of hose.
The term "load on top" is used on many crude oil carriers, what is this a method for? loading ballast by gravity calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks the loading of new cargo into a decanted slop tank as a procedure to minimize pollution calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank
Where do you check when measuring the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery? at three meter intervals from the tank top to the bottom one half the ullage of the tank and one meter above the tank bottom one meter from the tank bottom and one meter below the tank top one half the ullage of the tank and one meter below the tank top
To prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due to expansion, where should you top off? to within 1% to 3% of its capacity to the bottom of the expansion trunk 1 to 3 inches from top of the vent pipe to within 1 to 3 inches of its capacity
A vessel loads edible oil in a deep tank through a manhole at the mid-length of the tank. In order to fill the tank to maximum capacity, what trim should the vessel have? Down by either the bow or stern Down by the bow Down by the stern In level trim
When loading a petroleum cargo which is below average ambient temperatures, You must do which of the following? verify vapor baffles are installed verify the vents are sealed verify there is room for expansion All of the above.
Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level when loading on a cold day due to which of the following? air pockets may cause the cargo to bubble out of the ullage hole a subsequent temperature rise will cause the cargo to overflow the tank valve may be stiff and a spill will occur before the valve can be closed the increased viscosity of the product requires higher loading pressure which increases the chances of a spill
The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist the discharging operation. You start the discharge, and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a result of the __________. booster pump coming on the line and discharging properly booster pump being lined up in the wrong direction ship's pump speeding up booster pump failing to start
When stripping a tank, excessive air in the suction line may cause __________. an over pressurized line increase of suction loss of suction back pressure
While discharging a tanker, list can be controlled by __________. using wing tanks near the longitudinal center, discharging as necessary using the after peak tank, loading as necessary using a center tank near the bow, discharging as necessary shoreside personnel
When discharging an oil cargo, the first consideration is to __________. discharge from the wings first get the bow up discharge from the centerline tanks first discharge from amidships first
Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient? Start discharging with most of the discharge coming from forward, but include some from midships and after tanks Start pumping from forward, midships, and aft with the discharge distributed equally among the tanks Start pumping from midships and then work forward and aft simultaneously as the midships tank is emptied Empty the forward tanks and start working aft, emptying each tank in sequence
You are on a tankship discharging oil. When all of the oil that the main cargo pumps can handle is pumped out of a tank, the remainder is __________. stripped out and pumped directly ashore into the mainline as the remaining cargo tanks are pumped out with the main pumps gravitated to the centers from the wings and pumped out with the main pumps stripped to one tank and then pumped out with the main pumps stripped out and pumped directly ashore after all the tanks have been emptied by the main pumps
Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient? Empty the forward tanks and start working aft, emptying each tank in sequence Start pumping from midships and then work forward and aft simultaneously as the midships tank is emptied Start discharging with most of the discharge coming from forward, but include some from midships and after tanks Start pumping from forward, midships, and aft with the discharge distributed equally among the tanks
You are on a tankship discharging oil. what happens to the remaining oil when all of the oil that the main cargo pumps can handle is pumped out of a tank? the remainder is gravitated to the centers from the wings and pumped out with the main pumps the remainder is stripped out and pumped directly ashore after all the tanks have been emptied by the main pumps the remainder is stripped out and pumped directly ashore into the mainline as the remaining cargo tanks are pumped out with the main pumps the remainder is stripped to one tank and then pumped out with the main pumps
While discharging a cargo, the stripping of the tanks falls behind schedule. What does this indicate? main pumps are leaving too much oil in the tanks stripping pump is not primed stripping line is cross-connected to the main line main pumps are working at a high discharge pressure
According to U.S. regulations, which conditions would not disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil? Evidence of internal or external deterioration. A small cut in the hose cover which just pierces the reinforcement. A slight oil seepage between the hose and flange connection. A leak in the flange gasket while hydrostatically testing the hose.
According to U.S. regulations, which of the following conditions would disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil? A cut in the cover which makes the reinforcement visible. Evidence of internal or external deterioration. The hose has not been tested in the last 180 days. A blown gasket when hydrostatic test pressure is applied.
According to U.S. regulations, no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed what document? oil record book declaration of inspection certificate of inspection valve inspection record
According to U.S. regulations, which of the following describes the declaration of inspection? paper issued by the Coast Guard marine inspector which allows you to conduct a transfer operation application you must complete and submit to the Coast Guard to have an inspector visit your vessel document signed by vessel and shore facility persons-in-charge declaring that all transfer requirements have been met annual report submitted by vessel personnel to the Coast Guard declaring that all transfer equipment has been inspected
Your tank vessel is fully loaded to the marks, and you find that she is down slightly by the head. Which of the following choices would be the best action to take to trim the vessel slightly by the stern? load more cargo aft shift cargo aft shift ballast from the aft to forward add ballast aft
What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off? Notify the engine room of the procedure. Give the operation your undivided attention. Reduce the loading rate. Maintain communications with the dock man.
U.S. regulations require which of the following upon completion of oil transfer operations? all soundings shall be entered in the oil record book all persons on duty during oil transfer shall be accounted for all hoses shall be blown down with air all valves used during transfer shall be closed
Which of the following describes the Declaration of Inspection required prior to the transfer of fuel? it requires the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard to be posted at the gangway it is the same as the Certificate of Inspection it describes the procedure for draining the sumps of oil lubricated machinery into the bilges of U.S. vessels it must be signed by both the person-in-charge of the pumping and the person-in-charge of receiving
On tankers ullages are measured from what point? an above-deck datum such as the top of the ullage pipe the tank ceiling aboard transversely framed vessels the tank top a thievage mark below the edge of the deck
What does the sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer read? "Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors" "Warning, Keep Off, Stay Clear" "Danger, Do Not Board" "Dangerous Cargo Being Transferred"
On tankers using manually operated tank valves, what does the deck hand wheel indicator register? exact lift position of the tank valve disk, through 100% of its operation oxygen content of the tank level of oil in the tank approximate number of turns the tank valve has been opened
Each pressure gauge used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within what percent? 1 (%) 3 (%) 5 (%) 10 (%)
Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to withstand a pressure of at least how many psi? 75 psi 100 psi 120 psi 150 psi
Each pressure gauge used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within what percent? 1 percent 3 percent 5 percent 10 percent
When loading a tanker, you should do which of the following? load only one tank at a time keep a strain on the loading hoses keep the seamen on watch on standby in the mess room close valves by closing them down, reopening one or two turns, and re-closing
What is the purpose of the relief valve of a cargo pump? Provides for the removal of vapors Allows two or more tanks to be filled at the same time Provides for the emergency shutdown of the pump Permits the return of cargo to the suction side of the pump
When two ballast pumps used for deballasting a single tank start cavitating, what action should you take? close the valve on the discharge side of the pump to re-acquire suction open all valves on the discharge side to permit improved flow shut down one pump close the valve on the suction side of the ballast pump to re-prime the pump
Which refers to the depth of a petroleum product in a tank? Thievage Ullage Outage Innage
When tank cleaning with a portable machine, how is the weight of the machine is suspended? a wire rope suspension line a natural fiber tag line, saddle and hose a portable davit solid metal bars clamped to the Butterworth opening
When discharging a tanker, how can list be controlled? by using a center tank near the bow, discharging as necessary by using wing tanks near the longitudinal center, discharging as necessary by shoreside personnel by using the after peak tank, loading as necessary
"Line Displacement" is a procedure that is followed at an oil terminal facility, when there is a change of which of the following? cargo lines at the terminal before loading product before the start of loading product after the final discharge product during the final phase of loading
When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the first action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open? Order the dock man to shut down. Run out the vessel or terminal fire hose. Call the owner, operator, or terminal supervisor. Unplug the deck scuppers.
While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams open, what is the first action you should take? unplug the deck scuppers call the chief engineer order the shore facility to shut down run out the vessels fire hose
Who must supervise functions aboard a tanker or tank barge such as connecting, disconnecting, and topping off? the Master of the vessel the officer of the watch any certificated tankerman the person designated as "person in charge"
When stripping a tank, what is caused by excessive air in the suction line? loss of suction increase of suction back pressure an over pressurized line
What is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the tank top in a cargo tank called? thievage ullage tankage innage
Which of the following is equivalent to a "barrel", which is a unit of liquid measure? 40 U.S. gallons at 50°F 43 U.S. gallons at 65°F 42 U.S. gallons at 60°F 45 U.S. gallons at 75°F
What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo? Siphoning off a few barrels of petroleum for shipboard use. Reducing the gross cargo calculations to net amounts. Adjusting the cargo figures to coincide with the draft. Determining the amount of water (if any) in each cargo tank.
What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off? Maintain communications with the dock man. Reduce the loading rate. Notify the engine room of the procedure. Give the operation your undivided attention.
You start a centrifugal cargo pump to discharge cargo. The pump works fine for awhile and then loses suction. What could have caused this? the pump running backwards incomplete priming the discharge head being too high head pressure on the suction side of the pump
What is litmus paste is used to determine? ullage the tank datum point innage thievage
According to U.S. regulations, no person may connect or disconnect an oil transfer hose or engage in any other critical oil transfer operation on a tank vessel unless which of the following is met? the designated person-in-charge supervises that procedure that person holds a tankerman assistant endorsement that person holds a license as master, mate, or engineer that person holds a valid port security card
Which of the following is the pipe used to connect two separate piping systems on a tank vessel? junction crossover transfer connection
How should pinching of the cargo hose between the vessel and the dock be prevented? tying off the topping lifts and runners to winch heads laying out an excess length of hose on deck adjusting the hose supports install hose preventers
Which of the following terms best describes the amount of product in a tank measured from the tank top to the level of liquid? Innage Thievage Outage Ullage
What should be the first consideration when discharging an oil cargo? discharge from the wings first get the bow up discharge from amidships first discharge from the centerline tanks first
How can you determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry? check the loading order ask the terminal supervisor or his representative examine the cargo tanks and fittings refer to the vessel's Certificate of Inspection
During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed? The oiler The designated person in charge The senior able seaman The tankerman
When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open? Run out the vessel or terminal fire hose. Call the owner, operator, or terminal supervisor. Order the dock man to shut down. Trip the pump relief valve.
The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer should state which of the following? "Danger, Do Not Board" "Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors" "Warning, Keep Off, Stay Clear" "Dangerous Cargo Being Transferred"
Which of the following procedures would insure proper seating of the valve when closing? set up as tight as possible by hand closed against the stop and the locking pin inserted closed, opened a half turn, and then closed again set up tight using a valve wrench
Which factor must be considered when determining the order of loading of dissimilar products through the same piping system aboard a tanker? Reid vapor pressures Flash points Specific gravities Contamination of the cargo
When loading a tanker, you should perform which of the following functions to ensure a safe operation? keep a strain on the loading hoses load only one tank at a time keep the seamen on watch on standby in the mess room close valves by closing them down, reopening one or two turns, and re-closing
Which lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be painted or soaked in oil when not in use? Webbing Wire rope. Chain All of the above.
Which of the following lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be stowed when not in use? Webbing Wire rope Chain All of the above.
Entries should be made in a Ro-Ro vessel's cargo-securing device record book for __________. procedures for accepting cargo securing devices record of cargo securing device inspections procedures for maintaining and repairing cargo-securing devices All of the above.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Ro-Ro vessel? Heavy vehicles only require lightweight securing equipment Long port stays necessary to secure vehicles Short in port turnaround times Passenger tours available upon docking
How could lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels be stowed when not in use? Hang vertically in a sheltered area Stow in bins at hatch coming side Drape along brackets All of the above.
What characterizes a Ro-Ro vessel? Lightweight securing equipment trailers May carry up to 24 passengers Long port stays required for cargo securing High freeboard and sail area
Which of the following lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be maintained when not in use? Webbing Wire rope Chain All of the above.
Which of the following is not a loading or transfer feature aboard a Ro-Ro vessel? Stuelcken boom Stern ramp and/or side ramp Hatch opening designed as a lift Cargo lift
The primary objective of a Ro-Ro vessel is to __________. transport vehicles load the vessel with palletized cargo transfer containers without chassis be loaded full and down to her marks
Cargo that is suitable for carriage on Ro-Ro vessels includes __________. trailers rolling vehicles containers All of the above.
Which of the following are considered to be "road vehicles" that can be carried on Ro-Ro vessels? Road train Semi-trailer Articulated road train All of the above.
Which of the following are considered to be "road vehicles" that can be carried on Ro-Ro vessels? Articulated train Train Semi-trailer All of the above.
Any vehicle to be loaded aboard a Ro-Ro vessel must __________. be provided with an effective braking system have securing points with each aperture capable of accepting more than one lashing weigh less than 22 tons All of the above.
Which operating procedure(s) should be adhered to on a Ro-Ro vessel? Periodic inspection and retensioning of lashings during the voyage One officer assigned to oversee the initial loading and lashing All lashings should be completed before leaving port All of the above.
Which standard operating procedure(s) should be adhered to on a Ro-Ro vessel? Battery cables must be disconnected to prevent fire hazard One deck engine mechanic assigned to oversee the initial loading and lashing Periodic inspection and retensioning of lashings as required during voyage All of the above.
When accepting vehicles for shipment, the Master should ensure that __________. all decks intended for the stowage of vehicles are, in so far as is practicable, free from oil and grease vehicles are in apparent good order and condition suitable for sea transport, particularly with regards to securing the ship has on board an adequate supply of cargo securing gear, which is maintained in sound working condition All of the above.
Onboard a Ro-Ro vessel many decks are used for the carriage of both rolling and container cargoes, as such it is most useful if a deck socket accepts both __________. twist-Locks and lashing hooks bridge fittings and lashing hooks container locks and bridge fittings twist-locks and container locks
Cargo securing for Ro-Ro is based on the concept of __________. palletized cargo rapid loading and discharge vessel loaded full and down to her marks solid packing
The securing of passenger cars on a Ro-Ro vessel requires __________. low labor intensive equipment specially designed equipment to avoid vehicle damage simple and lightweight equipment All of the above.
Which of the following is considered auxiliary securing equipment that provides extra reliability to lashing in Ro-Ro transport operations? Wheel chocks Trailer trestles Pedestals All of the above.
The lashings used on Ro-Ro vessels should be capable of withstanding the forces of __________. pitching heaving rolling All of the above.
Which variable factor affects the initial lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Changes in humidity Center of gravity of vehicle or cargo unit Age of vehicle or cargo unit Vessel's draft
Which variable factor affects the initial lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Size and weight of vehicle/cargo unit Air pressure in the vehicles tires Age of vehicle or cargo unit Reputation of shipper concerning condition of cargo
Which variable factor affects the initial lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Port of origin Vessel's draft ABS requirements Number, position and angle of lashings
Which lashing device(s) would be used in securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Chain Buckle or ratchet tensioner Webbing All of the above.
Which of the following lashing materials would be used in securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Buckle or ratchet tensioner Webbing Chain lever or turnbuckle All of the above.
Which lashing materials would be used in securing light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Chain Chain lever or turnbuckle Webbing None of the above
Which lashing material is preferred when securing new cars aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Webbing Wire Chain lever or turnbuckle None of the above
What is used when securing light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Manila rope Buckle or ratchet tensioner Wire Chain
What is used when securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Buckle or ratchet tensioner Webbing Manila rope None of these
What is used when securing light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Wire Chain lever or turnbuckle Chain None of these
What may NOT be used when securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Chain lever Chain Webbing Turnbuckle
An advantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________. absorbs shock is light weight has fine adjustment has long life
A disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________. is easily damaged does not absorb shock is affected by temperature can wrap around cargo
A disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it is __________. easily damaged costly relative to the strength ratio affected by temperature heavy
The disadvantage(s) of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that __________. it does not absorb shock it is heavy the links lose strength if placed over corners All of the above.
A disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that __________. it is easily damaged the links lose strength if placed over corners it is affected by temperature it has high initial cost
The disadvantage(s) of using web lashing on light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________. deteriorates in sunlight is vulnerable to damage and pilferage cuts on sharp edges All of the above.
What is/are the advantage(s) of using web lashing on light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Flexible Light and easy to handle Good working life All of the above.
The advantage(s) of using wire rope lashing on vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________. has a good working life is Lighter than chain is not affected by temperature All of the above.
Which tensioning device is used with wire rope lashing to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Ratchet tensioner Adjust-a-matic tensioner Chain lever Buckle tensioner
Which tensioning device is used with chain to secure heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Adjust-a-matic tensioner Chain lever Ratchet tensioner Buckle tensioner
Which tensioning device is used with webbing to secure light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Ratchet tensioner Turnbuckle Adjust-a-matic tensioner Chain lever
Which of the following tensioning devices is used with webbing to secure light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Adjust-a-matic tensioner Buckle tensioner Turnbuckle Chain lever
Which tensioning device is used with wire rope lashing to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Buckle tensioner Ratchet tensioner Adjust-a-matic tensioner Chain lever.
Which tensioning device is used with chain to secure heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Turnbuckle Adjust-a-matic tensioner Ratchet tensioner Buckle tensioner
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? The generally recommended lash angle is no greater than 45 degrees relative to the deck in any direction. It is not necessary for an adequate number of securing points on the vehicles themselves since setting the brakes is sufficient. The movements experienced by road borne cargo are the same as the movements of a ship at sea. The securing of cargo on flats and trailers must be adequate to withstand road motions only.
Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? It is necessary for an adequate number of securing points on the vehicles themselves in order that lashings may be properly and safely utilized. The generally recommended lash angle cannot be greater than 45 degrees relative to the deck in any direction. The securing of cargo on flats and trailers and in containers must be adequate to withstand both road and sea motions All of the above.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? For effective securing vehicles should be stowed athwartships whenever possible. The generally recommended lash angle should not be greater than 45 degrees relative to the deck in any direction. It is NOT imperative that the securing of cargo on flats and trailers and in containers be adequate for BOTH road and sea motions. It is not necessary to lash automobiles since setting the brakes is sufficient to keep them from moving.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels? It is necessary for adequate number and strength of securing points on the vehicles themselves in order that lashings may be properly and safely utilized. The movements experienced by road borne cargo differ significantly from the roll and sway movements of a ship at sea. It is imperative that the securing of cargo on flats and trailers and in containers be adequate for both road and sea motions. All of the above.
Which factor(s) affect lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Wide variations of air temperature Ship's characteristics and motion in a seaway Trim of the vessel All of the above.
What should you be concerned with when loading and securing vehicles on a Ro-Ro? Disconnecting the battery cables to prevent fire hazard Number, position and angle of lashes Minor air pressure changes in the tires Number of axles
What should you be concerned with when loading and securing vehicles aboard a Ro-Ro vessel? The size, weight, and center of gravity of vehicle/cargo unit The preferred stowage of vehicles is athwartships wherever possible That all fuel is drained from the vehicles' tanks to prevent fire hazard The vehicles' brakes should not be set to allow for adjusting the lashings
Which factor(s) should be considered when loading vehicles or trailers aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Vertical clearances Layout of decks Tie-down and lashing All of the above.
Which element(s) should be taken into account in the preparation of the "Cargo Securing Manual"? Geographical area of the voyage Weight of the vehicles Dynamic forces under adverse weather conditions All of the above.
According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum number of securing points that should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 3.5 Tons and 20 Tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels? Four Three One Two
According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum number of securing points that should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 30 tons and 40 tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels? One Two Three Four
According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum number of securing points that should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 3.5 tons and 20 tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels? Three Two One None of the above
According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum number of securing points that should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 20 tons and 30 tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels? Three Two One None of the above
What should be done after putting down the ramp on a Ro-Ro vessel, prior to loading or discharging cargo? Turn on ventilation for cargo holds. Call out the deck department for all hands. Turn on red cargo light. None of the above
What should be done before energizing the cargo hold ventilation on a Ro-Ro vessel, prior to loading or discharging cargo? Notify the engine room. Notify the boarding agent. Call out the deck department for all hands. All of the above.
What should be done immediately after putting down the stern ramp on a Ro-Ro vessel, prior to loading or discharging cargo? Turn on the red cargo light. Raise/open the stern door. Call out the deck department for all hands. Turn on pumproom ventilation.
Which of the following is NOT necessary, prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel? Lower the stern ramp. Turn on the red cargo light. Turn on ventilation for cargo holds. Raise/open the stern door.
Which of the following actions are stated in the correct order prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel? Lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door
Which of the following actions are stated in the correct order prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel? Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door Raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp
Which of the following actions are stated in the correct order prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel? Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open the stern door, lower the stern ramp Lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Raise/open stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open the stern door
Which of the following actions are stated in the correct order prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel? Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, lower the stern ramp, raise/open stern door Lower the stern ramp, raise/open stern door, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Raise/open stern door, lower the stern ramp, turn on ventilation for cargo holds Turn on ventilation for cargo holds, raise/open stern door, lower the stern ramp
Which of the following is the stated proper sequence before commencing cargo operations aboard Ro-Ro vessels? Notify engine room, lower the ramp, start ventilation Start ventilation, notify engine room, lower the ramp Lower the ramp, start ventilation, notify engine room Start ventilation, lower the ramp, notify engine room
Peck and Hale gear is used most commonly for securing __________. palletized cargo large wooden crates automobiles baled cargo
While loading or discharging vehicles, which is the most important safety consideration aboard a Ro-Ro vessel? Calling out the deck department for all hands periodically Notifying the engine room prior to completing operations Preventing the asphyxiation of personnel below decks Ensuring that a fuel barge cannot come alongside
The most important safety consideration during loading or discharge aboard a Ro-Ro vessel is __________. ensuring that visitors cannot come aboard having all crewmembers and longshoremen wear hard hats the thorough ventilation of all cargo spaces having the outboard anchor down
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0003 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference to determine the sagging numeral.
71.07 numeral 74.95 numeral 77.56 numeral 78.29 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0004 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.
49.73 numeral 52.76 numeral 55.29 numeral 57.93 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0009 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.
43.19 numeral 46.56 numeral 49.92 numeral 55.72 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0001 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.
86.72 numeral 89.98 numeral 91.40 numeral 93.18 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0014 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral. 81.79 numeral 89.68 numeral 91.92 numeral 85.02 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0002 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral.
29.49 numeral 31.97 numeral 33.61 numeral 35.12 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0023 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral 91.42 numeral 79.23 numeral 74.73 numeral 85.60 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0024 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral. 52.79 numeral 91.36 numeral 101.02 numeral 72.43 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0025 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability book to determine the hogging numeral.
84.46 numeral 98.23 numeral 95.70 numeral 81.37 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0026 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral. 72.42 numeral 78.98 numeral 83.46 numeral 91.48 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0027 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral. 49.82 numeral 58.33 numeral 29.70 numeral 33.63 numeral
The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0028 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral. 40.18 numeral 89.75 numeral 22.44 numeral 28.62 numeral
Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel? The stress on the hull The vertical center of gravity GM The longitudinal center of gravity
A tank holds 400 tons of sea water when filled. How many tons of liquid of specific gravity 0.9300 will it hold when filled to 90% capacity? 326.6 343.2 377.6 390.2
A tanker is loaded with 5,000 barrels of petroleum. The cargo was loaded at a temperature of 70°F, and the coefficient of expansion is .0004. What is the net amount in barrels of cargo loaded? 4800 4980 5020 5200
A cargo of 10,000 barrels of gasoline is loaded at a temperature of 90°F, and a cargo temperature of 55°F, is expected on this voyage. It has a coefficient of expansion of .0006. How many barrels would you expect to discharge at your destination? 9790 9994 10210 10410
A tanker is loaded with 12,000 barrels of #2 fuel oil. The temperature of the product is 88°F. API gravity is 39°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. The net amount of cargo in gallons, loaded is __________. 496944 511056 650760 669240
Your ship departed Venezuela for New York, loaded with 10,000 barrels of crude oil, whose average cargo temperature was 30°C (86°F). API is 25°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .00045. If this cargo is heated to 100°F prior to discharge, how many barrels will you offload? 10315 10063 9937 9685
Your ship departed Venezuela for New York, loaded with 10,000 barrels of crude oil, whose average cargo temperature was 30°C (86° F). API is 25°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .00045. If this cargo is heated to 100°F prior to discharge, how many gallons will you offload? 417354 422646 546535 553465
Your ship has loaded 6,000 barrels of gasoline, at a cargo temperature of 50°F, departing New Jersey bound for Florida. API gravity is 55°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 90°F at the discharge port? 5856 5982 6018 6144
Your ship has loaded 6,000 barrels of gasoline, at a cargo temperature of 50°F, departing New Jersey bound for Florida. API gravity is 55°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 90°F at the discharge port? 337920 322080 295952 258048
Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 85°F, departing Aruba bound for New Jersey. API gravity is 55°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 50°F at the discharge port? 7880 7832 8168 8120
Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 85°F, departing Aruba bound for New Jersey. API gravity is 55°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 50°F at the discharge port? 449240 430760 343056 328944
Your ship has loaded 20,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for San Francisco. When loaded the cargo temperature was 96°F. API was 15°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 56°F at the discharge port, how many barrels will be offloaded? 19680 19712 20288 20320
Your ship has loaded 20,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for San Francisco. When loaded the cargo temperature was 96°F. API was 15°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 56°F at the discharge port, how many gallons will be offloaded? 853440 1082400 826560 1117600
Your ship has loaded 22,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for Panama. When loaded the cargo temperature was 90°F. API was 15°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 100°F at the discharge port, how many barrels will be offloaded? 21252 21912 22088 22748
A tank is loaded with 9,000 barrels of gasoline. The temperature of the product is 90°F (32°C), and it has a coefficient of expansion of .0008. What is the net amount of cargo loaded? 8856 bbls 8784 bbls 8820 bbls 9216 bbls
Your ship has loaded 22,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for Panama. When loaded the cargo temperature was 90°F. API was 15°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 100°F at the discharge port, how many gallons will be offloaded? 1214840 1205160 927696 920304
Your ship has loaded 9,000 barrels of fuel oil at a cargo temperature of 35°C (95°F). API gravity is 44°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. You are bound to New Jersey from Venezuela. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55°F at the discharge port? 9180 9090 8820 8910
Your ship has loaded 9,000 barrels of fuel oil at a cargo temperature of 35°C (95°F). API gravity is 44°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. You are bound for New Jersey from Venezuela. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55°F at the discharge port? 504900 485100 370440 85560
Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 36°C (97°F). API gravity is 54°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. You are bound for New Jersey from Ecuador. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55°F at the discharge port? 7798 7827 8173 8202
Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 36°C (97°F). API gravity is 54°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. You are bound for New Jersey from Ecuador. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55°F at the discharge port? 327533 344484 451110 428890
A tank is loaded with 9,000 barrels of gasoline. The temperature of the product is 80°F (27°C), and it has a coefficient of expansion of .0008. The net amount of cargo loaded is __________. 8,944 barrels 8,856 barrels 9,144 barrels 9,072 barrels
A cargo of oil has a coefficient of expansion of .0005 per degree F. If this cargo is loaded at 70°F, and a cargo temperature of 90°F is expected at the discharge port, how many barrels would you expect to unload if you loaded 10,000 barrels? 9900 9990 10010 10100
A cargo of fuel oil is loaded whose temperature is 66°F. API gravity is 36°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. A cargo temperature of 80°F is expected at the discharge port. If 9,000 barrels were loaded, how many barrels would you expect to unload? 8910 8937 9063 9090
A cargo of fuel oil is loaded whose temperature is 66°F. API gravity is 36°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. A cargo temperature of 80°F is expected at the discharge port. If 9,000 barrels were loaded, how many gallons would you expect to unload? 375354 380646 491535 498465
A tanker is loaded with 8,000 barrels of fuel oil. The temperature of the cargo is 50°F. API gravity is 37°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. What is the net amount in barrels of cargo loaded? 7984 7960 8040 8016
A tanker is loaded with 8,000 barrels of fuel oil. The temperature of the cargo is 50°F. API gravity is 37°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. What is the net amount in gallons of cargo loaded? 334320 337680 437800 442200
A tanker is loaded with 12,000 barrels of #2 fuel oil. The temperature of the product is 88°F. API gravity is 39°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. The net amount of cargo in barrels, loaded is __________. 11832 12006 12168 11994
You are loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0900 you find that you have loaded 207,000 barrels. At 1030 you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________. 2100 that night 0730 the next day 0910 the next day 1215 the next day
You are loading 530,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0945 on 13 April, you find that you have loaded 202,000 barrels. At 1130, you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. If you continue at the same rate, you will finish at __________. 1322, 13 April 1920, 13 April 1120, 14 April 1305, 14 April
You are loading 475,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0800 on 8 July, you find that you have loaded 174,000 barrels. At 1000, you find that you have loaded 192,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________. 1752, 8 July 1940, 8 July 0143, 9 July 1727, 9 July
You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. At 1200 you find that you have loaded 218,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________. 1510, 5 November 1104, 6 November 1242, 6 November 0735, 7 November
You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. At 1200 you find that you have loaded 218,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________. 0735, 7 November 1104, 6 November 1510, 5 November 0140, 6 November
You are loading 530,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0945 on 13 April, you find that you have loaded 202,000 barrels. At 1130, you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. When will you complete loading if you continue at the same rate? 1322, 13 April 1920, 13 April 1120, 14 April 1305, 14 April
The process of adding mercaptans to gas, is known as which of the following? smelling stenching saturating reeking
A centrifugal ballast pump has a capacity of 200 gpm. If suction is taken on a ballast tank containing 200 long tons of seawater, how much water will be remain in the tank after discharging for one hour? 45.83 long tons 101.63 long tons 154.16 long tons 199.87 long tons
What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo? Adjusting the cargo figures to coincide with the draft Determining the amount of water (if any) in each cargo tank Reducing the gross cargo calculations to net amounts Siphoning off a few barrels of petroleum for shipboard use
Which of the following best describes the heat value of a fuel? the amount of fuel added to a fuel to cause it to burn the amount of heat released when a fuel is burned the temperature to which a fuel must be raised to cause ignition the cost per BTU of a fuel
What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo? Adjusting the cargo figures to coincide with the draft Siphoning off a few barrels of petroleum for shipboard use Determining the amount of water (if any) in each cargo tank Reducing the gross cargo calculations to net amounts
What is the heat given to or given up by a substance while changing state? condensation latent heat vaporization evaporation
A tank holds 400 tons of sea water when filled. How many tons of liquid of specific gravity 0.9300 will it hold when filled to 90% capacity? 390.2 326.6 377.6 343.2
Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________. repair the hose with a patch place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers notify the terminal superintendent replace the hose
The most likely time for oil pollution while bunkering is when __________. hoses are disconnected and being capped final topping off is occurring hoses are being blown down first starting to receive fuel
When bunkering is complete, the hoses should be __________. drained, blanked off, and stored securely cleaned internally with a degreaser stowed vertically and allowed to drain washed out with hot soapy water
Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during fueling operations? All windows, doors, hatches, etc. should be closed. Fuel tanks should be topped off with no room for expansion. All engines, motors, fans, etc. should be shut down when fueling. A fire extinguisher should be kept nearby.
If you are bunkering and you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will __________. stop decrease increase remain constant
Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the day while bunkering? A red and yellow flag A red light A red flag A yellow flag
Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed at night while bunkering at a dock? Two red lights One red light One red light over a yellow light One red light over a white light
When bunkering at a dock which of the following signals must be displayed? A red flag by day, red light by night A red flag by day, a blue light by night A yellow flag by day, red light by night A green flag by day, green light by night
When bunkering at anchorage which of the following signals must be displayed? A red flag by day, red light by night A red light by night ONLY A red flag by day ONLY No signal required at anchorage
The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time an oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the transfer, the engine room should first be informed and then __________. spread an absorbent material, such as sawdust rig a fire hose and call for water on deck remove the plugs from the scuppers sound the general alarm
A precaution you should take before bunkering is to __________. plug the vents plug the scuppers plug the sounding pipes close the lids on the vents
When selecting the fuel oil tanks for the "burn-out" of bunkers during a voyage consideration of all of the following must be taken with the EXCEPTION of __________. stability trim list flashpoint
In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________. final topping off is occurring hoses are being disconnected hoses are being blown down you first start to receive fuel
The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he/she knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment of what time period? 1 year 3 years 2 years 5 years
Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __________. vapors from leaving the tank vent air from entering the tank vent oil from flowing out of the tank vent flames on deck from entering the tank vent
A flame screen __________. prevents the passage of flammable vapors permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank permits the passage of vapor but not of flame prevents inert gas from leaving a tank
The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________. in the midships house at the vent header in the pumproom at the main deck manifold
Static electricity may be built up by the __________. settling of solids or water in petroleum spraying or splashing of petroleum flow of petroleum through pipes All of the above.
Your vessel is taking on cargo oil when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________. repair the hose with a patch place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers replace the hose notify the terminal superintendent
Which of the following terms best defines the spontaneous mixing of a tank's liquid contents when a heavier layer forms above a less dense lower layer? flash over boil off cascading rollover
In order to reduce the accumulation of static electricity while loading petroleum products, you should __________. increase the air flow into the tank start to load at maximum pressure start to load slowly use the overall method of loading only
Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference? Emergency shutdown procedures Estimated time of finishing cargo Details of transferring and receiving systems Identity of the product to be transferred
When carrying a cargo of asphalt or molten sulfur, which are carried at temperatures of over 300°F, one of the biggest dangers is __________. inadequate ullage space explosion of vapors after discharge water in the tanks or pipelines having the cargo too cool
A tank vessel transferring non-flammable hazardous cargo in bulk must display warning signs. These signs must __________. be visible from both sides and from forward and aft be displayed only while transferring cargo and fast to a dock indicate "NO SMOKING" use black lettering on a white background
How should cargo tank hatches be protected when the ullage opening is open and the tank NOT gas free? With warning signs With flame screens With gooseneck vents With pressure-vacuum relief valves
Open ullage holes in tanks which are not gas-free must be protected by __________. warning signs PV valves stop-check valves flame screens
What is acceptable flame screening? A fitted single stainless steel screen of 15 x 15 mesh Two fitted brass screens of 10 x 15 mesh spaced 1/2 inch apart A fitted single brass screen of 10 x 10 mesh A fitted stainless steel screen of 30 x 30 mesh
What must be present in order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system? fuel oxygen ignition All of the above.
What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye? Keep the eyelid close. Flush the eye with plenty of water. Apply an ice pack to the eye. Rub the eye area clean.
When discharging clean ballast prior to entering a loading port, what must you do if it is determined the ballast exceeds 15 parts per million of oil? the deballasting must be completed only after "load on top" has been completed the deballasting must be completely discharged in order to load the deballasting must be terminated automatically the deballasting must be stopped until the oil can settle out, then resumed at a slower discharge rate
When planning the loading or discharging of a VLCC (100,000 DWT+) what is the most important consideration? Draft and trim Rate of discharging Rate of loading Limits of the bending moments
Asphyxia is generally limited to enclosed spaces, and the deficiency of breathable air in an enclosed space can occur with any of the following conditions. Indicate the condition that will NOT cause asphyxia. When large quantities of cargo vapor is present Where rusting of internal tank surfaces has taken place. When 21% of oxygen is present. Where large quantities of inert gas is present.
What is a enclosure which will withstand ignition of a flammable gas, and which will prevent the transmission of any flame able to ignite a flammable gas, which may be present in the surrounding atmosphere called? gas-safe enclosure primary gas barrier explosion proof a flame proof screen
What can be used to prevent a flammable atmosphere from occurring in a tank container? inert gas a vortex eliminator a combustion stabilizer an oxidizer
Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire? Foam Dry chemicals CO2 All of the above.
What type of gas detection device is used to determine when gassing up is complete? Oxygen meter CO2 meter Methane detector Dew point meter
What must cargo tanks be fitted with to prevent over pressurization when loading liquid petroleum products? equalizing line pressure-vacuum valve overpressurization valve ullage opening
Which signal must you display at night on a docked tank barge to show that it is loading or discharging flammable liquid cargo? ICC yellow light. Flashing amber light. Red light. Two orange lights.
What color must the last 1.0 meter (3.3 feet) of piping before the vessel vapor connection be painted? yellow/red/yellow red/yellow/red hi-visibility yellow international orange
What percent of oxygen content by volume, must each inert gas system be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gases? 10% or less 20% or less 15% or less 5% or less
Which of the following describes (auto) ignition temperature? the temperature at which a 1% mixture of the fuel with air will explode the temperature at which a fuel begins to give off explosive vapors the temperature at which no spark or flame is required to ignite gas or vapor the temperature at which a fuel if ignited will continue to burn
A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by which organization? National Fire Protection Association Mine Safety Appliance Association Marine Chemists Association American Chemical Society
Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be certified by __________. the American Bureau of Shipping the Coast Guard the shipyard fire department a certified marine chemist
A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a(n) __________. certified marine chemist ABS marine surveyor Coast Guard marine inspector port engineer
You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE? The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely. The Captain of the Port may give specific approval to make hot work repairs. You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo is on the facility. Hot work repairs at such a facility are prohibited.
You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo from your barge. You must complete topside repairs on the barge involving hot work before sailing. Which statement is TRUE? Hot work repairs at such a facility are prohibited. The facility operator must notify the Captain of the Port before conducting welding or hotwork. The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely. You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo is on the facility.
Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or declared as which of the following? not safe for personnel not safe for hot work safe for personnel safe for hot work
Who will certify the vessel to be gas free before entering the shipyard? The chief officer. A representative from the vessel's class society. A shoreside gas chemist. A dedicated company representative.
A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by the __________. National Fire Protection Association American Chemical Society Mine Safety Appliance Association Marine Chemists Association
The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is __________. battery fed approved explosion proof self-contained All of the above.
Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE? Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poisonous quantities. After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by at the tank entrance while you are inside. You should always wear a gas mask. A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the tank with you.
Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank? Removal of corrosion products and sludge Application of degreasing solvents Washing the tank interior with sea water Fresh air ventilation
Which statement about entry into a space that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE? The natural ventilation through the installed vents is sufficient to provide the proper oxygen content. A tank that has been used to carry hazardous liquids should be tested for oxygen content, toxicity, and explosive gases. The heat of the sun on upper ballast tanks, such as in a bulk carrier, may generate carbon monoxide. You can safely enter the space without a breathing apparatus if the oxygen content exceeds 14%.
Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE? If the oxygen content tests at less than 12% you should wear an approved gas mask. The tank should be tested only once to ensure the oxygen content is at least 14% before entry. The tank need not be tested for oxygen content if it is ventilated for more than 24 hours. The tank must be tested at frequent intervals to ensure that hazardous gasses have not regenerated.
You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men to enter? 0.15 (%) 0.85 (%) 1.05 (%) 7 (%)
Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free? An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp A three-cell flashlight A spark resistant and flame retardant lamp None of the above
What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good? For the instant that it is made For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are reopened Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor content in the space
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 24'-08", AFT 25'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 180 long tons are loaded in No. 23 hatch. FWD 24'-04 2/3", AFT 25'-10 3/4" FWD 24'-06 1/2", AFT 25'-08 2/3" FWD 24'-08 1/4", AFT 25'-00 2/3" FWD 24'-10 1/4", AFT 25'-00 1/4"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 29'-05", AFT 30'-07". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 540 long tons are loaded in No. 18 hatch. FWD 29'-05", AFT 31'-03" FWD 30'-01", AFT 31'-03" FWD 30'-04", AFT 29'-06" FWD 29'-09", AFT 30'-11"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-03", AFT 18'-09". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the new draft if 450 long tons are loaded in No. 16 hatch. FWD 16'-11", AFT 19'-04 2/3" FWD 17'-01", AFT 18'-11 1/4" FWD 17'-04", AFT 19'-03 3/4" FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-11 1/4"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-08", AFT 20'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 840 long tons are loaded in No. 1 hatch. FWD 18'-08", AFT 21'-06" FWD 18'-09", AFT 21'-07" FWD 18'-11", AFT 21'-09" FWD 22'-00", AFT 19'-02"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 25'-04", AFT 24'-08". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 634 long tons are discharged from NO. 19 hatch. FWD 25'-00 1/4", AFT 25'-04 1/8" FWD 25'-02 3/4", AFT 23'-08 5/8" FWD 25'-05 1/4", AFT 23'-08 5/8" FWD 25'-10 1/4", AFT 23'-11 3/4"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 14'-00", AFT 16'-00". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 350 long tons are discharged from No. 13 hatch. FWD 13'-03 5/8", AFT 15'-03 1/8" FWD 13'-04 3/4", AFT 15'-03 1/4" FWD 13'-05 1/5", AFT 15'-04 3/5" FWD 13'-08 4/5", AFT 15'-08 4/5"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 17'-04", AFT 18'-08". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 765 long tons are discharged from No. 7 hatch. FWD 15'-04 3/4", AFT 18'-04" FWD 15'-11 3/5", AFT 18'-11" FWD 18'-08 2/5", AFT 18'-05" FWD 18'-05 3/4", AFT 18'-10"
Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-02", AFT 20'-10". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 170 long tons are discharged from No. 8 hatch. FWD 19'-00.4", AFT 20'-08.6" FWD 18'-10.8", AFT 20'-10.4" FWD 19'-03.4", AFT 20'-05.6" FWD 19'-05.4", AFT 20'-03.4"
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 35 lbs. 785 tons each 820 tons each 880 tons each 900 tons each
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No.1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 39.5 lbs. 155 tons each 170 tons each 190 tons each 200 tons each
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs. 1010 tons each 1025 tons each 1050 tons each 1070 tons each
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 34 lbs. 1150 tons each 1180 tons each 1220 tons each 1250 tons each
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 1 (P&S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 43 lbs. 23 tons each 50 tons each 75 tons each 150 tons each
Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 3 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 37.6 lbs. 930 tons each 955 tons each 975 tons each 990 tons each
Using sheet 25 in the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs. 1010 tons each 1025 tons each 1045 tons each 1070 tons each
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 8 & 12 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-03"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN). 460 tons per hatch 520 tons per hatch 690 tons per hatch 730 tons per hatch
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-06"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 1550 tons 2920 tons 3010 tons 3515 tons
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 23 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-00"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 2930 tons 3110 tons 3170 tons 3240 tons
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 3 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 2500 tons 2550 tons 2600 tons 2650 tons
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 20 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 24'-10"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 1540 tons 1590 tons 1645 tons 1670 tons
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 2, 6, & 10, while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 27'-07"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN) 510 tons per hatch 530 tons per hatch 590 tons per hatch 610 tons per hatch
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 5 & 7 while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 25'-02"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.) 1410 tons 1450 tons 1490 tons 1520 tons
Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 1 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 29'-11"? (use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN) 2230 tons 2270 tons 2310 tons 2350 tons
There are basically three categories of water level fluctuations on the Great Lakes. What is NOT included as one of these? Seasonal fluctuations Long range fluctuations Controlled outflow fluctuations Short period fluctuations
You are transiting the Straits of Mackinac by way of an improved channel. You have information which indicates that the channel's Federal project depth is 28 ft. Which of the following statements is true with regards to this channel? The maximum depth which may be expected within the limits of the channel is 28 ft. The channel has 28 ft. in the center but lesser depths may exist in the remainder of the channel. The design dredging depth of the channel is 28 ft. The least depth within the limits of the channel is 28 ft.
A channel is stated as having a controlling depth of 38 feet. Which statement is TRUE? The sides of the channel conform to at least 50% of the controlling depth. At least 50% of the channel is cleared to the charted depth. At least 80% of the channel is cleared to the charted depth. 100% of the channel width is clear to 38 feet.
Which basic category of water level fluctuations on the Great Lakes is the most regular? Long-term fluctuations Seasonal fluctuations Short-term fluctuations Outflow fluctuations
On the Great Lakes, the term "controlling depth" means the __________. minimum amount of tail water available behind a dam distance in units of the chart (feet, meters or fathoms) from the reference datum to the bottom least depth within the limits of the channel which restricts the navigation designed dredging depth of a channel constructed by the Corps. of Engineers
Which two Great Lakes are considered hydraulically as one? Lakes Erie - Ontario Lakes Michigan - Huron Lakes Erie - St. Clair Lakes Superior - Huron
Distances on the Great Lakes System are generally expressed in __________. statute miles miles above the head of the passes (AHP) miles above the entrance to the St. Lawrence Seaway (MASLW) nautical miles
Which of the Great Lakes is most affected by short-term Lake level fluctuations? Lake Erie Lake Michigan Lake Superior Lake Huron
Which of the Great Lakes experiences the least amount of water level fluctuation between seasonal high and low water marks? Lake Michigan Lake Superior Lake Erie Lake Huron
Which of the Great Lakes is generally the last to reach its seasonal low and seasonal high water marks? Lake Michigan Lake Huron Lake Superior Lake Ontario
Which of the Great Lakes lies entirely within the United States? Lake St. Clair Lake Superior Lake Michigan Lake Ontario
Which of the Great Lakes generally has the shortest navigation season? Lake Michigan Lake Erie Lake Huron Lake Superior
Assume that your vessel has just entered Lake Michigan via the Straits of Mackinac and is proceeding south to Chicago. Which statement is TRUE with respect to the aids to navigation you will encounter along this route? Aids to navigation are serviced jointly by the U.S. and Canadian Coast Guard. Red buoys should be passed down your starboard side. Green buoys mark the location of wrecks or obstructions which must be passed by keeping the buoy on the right hand. All solid colored buoys are numbered, the red buoys bearing odd numbers and green buoys bearing even numbers.
The Lake Carriers Association and the Canadian Shipowners Association prescribe separation routes for upbound and downbound vessels on the Great Lakes. The recommended courses for these routes are shown on the Great Lakes Charts in the form of __________. black figures over a segmented course line track red or magenta figures over a segmented course line track red figures over a solid course line track green figures over a solid course line track
Nautical charts published by the Canadian Hydrographic service which are referenced in the United States Coast Pilot are identified by __________. the letter "C" in parentheses following the chart number a footnote number an asterisk preceding the chart number the abbreviation "can" preceding the chart number
Assume that your vessel has just entered Lake Erie by way of the Welland Canal and is proceeding in a southwesterly direction. Which statement about the aids to navigation you can expect to encounter along the route is TRUE? Lighted aids, fog signals, and radio beacons maintained by Canada are not included in the Great Lakes Light List. The characteristics of buoys and other aids are as if "returning from seaward" when proceeding in this direction. All aids are maintained by the U.S. Coast Guard, 9th Coast Guard District, Cleveland, Ohio. All red even-numbered buoys should be kept on your port side when proceeding in this direction.
How are aids to navigation on the Great Lakes arranged geographically? In an easterly and southerly direction, except on Lake Erie In a westerly and northerly direction, except on Lake Michigan In an easterly and southerly direction, except on the New York State Barge Canal In a westerly and northerly direction, except on Lake St. Clair
Your vessel is approaching the International Bridge on the St. Marys River. If the gage on the bridge, read from top to bottom, indicates 124 ft. and the IGLD (1955) is 600 ft., determine the actual vertical clearances between the existing water level and the lowest point of the bridge over the channel. 124 feet 476 feet 724 feet 840 feet
The vertical reference for all water levels and bench marks on the Great Lakes - St. Lawrence River System is known as __________. Great Lakes Low Water Datum International Great Lakes Datum North Central Reference Datum Mean Sea Level Datum
Your vessel has been ordered to proceed to the United Grain Growers Wharf at Thunder Bay, Lake Superior, for the purpose of taking on a load of wheat. Which publication(s) would you consult for such information as the length of the wharf, the depth of the water alongside, and the loading capacity at the facility? The United States Coast Pilot #6 The International Guide to Canadian Ports and Facilities The Lake Carriers Association Facilities Directory The Navigational Chart and Light List Vol. VII
Which publication offers information on Great Lakes ice services? National Weather Service, Ice Outlooks Marine Weather Log Light List volume VII U.S. Coast Pilot #6
Who publishes the "Canadian List of Lights, Buoys and Fog Signals"? The U.S. Hydrographic Service The Canadian Coast Guard The U.S. Coast Guard The Canadian Hydrographic Service
Which statement is FALSE with regards to the Great Lakes Light List? The Light List does not contain information on any of the navigational aids maintained by Canada. The Light List should be corrected each week from the appropriate Notice to Mariners. Volume VII does not include information on Class III private aids to navigation. The Light List does not include Coast Guard mooring buoys, special purpose buoys, or buoys marking fish net areas.
Your vessel is underway and approaching an overhead obstruction on Lake Superior. Given the following information, determine the clearance between your vessel and the obstruction. Highest point on vessel: 74 ft. Lowest point of obstruction: 126 (LWD) Monthly lake level: +2 (LWD) International Great Lakes Datum: 600.0 (182.88 meters) 474 feet 400 feet 175 feet 50 feet
A list man would expect to see any of the following light signals EXCEPT __________. two red lights one amber light one white light one green light
Your vessel is on a voyage from Ogdensburg, NY, to Chicago, IL, via the Great Lakes. The date is October 3 of the current year. If your vessel is subject to the load line requirements, using illustration D031DG below, to which of her marks should she be loaded? Illustration D031DG Salt water - Winter Fresh water - Winter Fresh water - Intermediate Salt water - Intermediate
Which statement is TRUE with respect to the load line markings shown in illustration D031DG below? Vessels engaged solely on Great Lakes voyages are not required to show these marks. A vessel displaying these marks may load in the salt waters of the St. Lawrence River. U.S. flag vessels less than 100 feet in length and less than 200 gross tons are not required to show these marks. U.S. flag vessels of 100 gross tons and upward must show these marks.
A vessel is loaded to her summer marks for a voyage from Montreal, Canada to Duluth, MN via the Great Lakes System. The voyage has been estimated to take nine (9) days. If the vessel departs Montreal on September 28th, which of the following statements is TRUE? The vessel is in violation of the load line requirements. The vessel's intermediate load line marks may not be submerged after September 30. The vessel must be at her summer marks when she arrives at Duluth. The vessel must be at her winter marks by the evening of the third day.
What does the line labeled "MS" indicate on the Great Lakes load line model shown in illustration D031DG below? Midsummer Mean sea level Midseason Maximum submergence
Where on a vessel are the load line markings shown in illustration D031DG inscribed? port and starboard sides starboard side stern port side
In illustration D031DG below, what does the single line located directly above the diamond indicate? load line deck line water line freeboard line
On Great Lakes vessels, when do midsummer load lines apply? June 16 through September 16 July 16 through August 30 April 16 through April 30 and September 16 through September 30 May 1 through September 15
Which vessel is exempt from the load line and marking requirements for vessels operating on the Great Lakes System? A 500 GT dry cargo river barge operated continuously between Calumet Hbr Chicago, IL and Burns Hbr, IN A 79-foot, 150 GT pleasure craft operating on the St. Lawrence River A 200 GT passenger vessel operating between Duluth, MN and Munising, MI A 300 GT tank barge operating exclusively on Lake Michigan
Advection fog, a common occurrence on the Great Lakes, forms when __________. frigid arctic air moves across the lakes and becomes saturated cool air contacts warm river currents relatively warm air flows over cooler water air comes in contact with a rapidly cooling land surface
Advection fog holds longest over which portions of the lakes? Southeast Northwest Northeast Southwest
The phenomenon known as a "seiche" is most likely to occur on Lake Erie __________. during the passage of a rapidly moving warm front when the Moon and Sun are in alignment during the months of May through August when strong winds from the Northeast suddenly diminish
Nearly half of all storms that enter the Great Lakes Basin during the period from October through May come from __________. highs which originate in north eastern and eastern Canada lows which originate in the central and western USA lows which originate in north central and western Canada highs which originate in the east and east central USA
Storms that enter the Great Lakes Basin from the west and northwest at a peak in October are the products of pressure systems known as __________. Fata morgana Alberta lows Northwesters Polar highs
Which type of fog is the most dense and widely spread of those that occur on the Great Lakes? Steam fog Lake effect fog Radiation fog Advection fog
Which statement is TRUE concerning weather conditions on the Great Lakes? When a vessel is north of an eastward-moving storm center, changes in the weather are less distinctive than when sailing south of the center. The most destructive storms usually come from the northwest or north. When a vessel is south of an eastward-moving storm center, the approach of the low is evidenced by winds from the north to northeast. Thunderstorms are most likely to develop from November through April.
Which statement concerning storm surges on the Great Lakes is FALSE? They are common along the deeper areas of the lakes. They cause rapid differences in levels between one end of the lake and the other. The greatest water level difference occurs when the wind is blowing along the axis of the lake. If the wind subsides rapidly, a seiche effect will most likely occur.
A vessel operating on the Great Lakes, and whose position is south of an approaching eastward-moving storm center, would NOT experience __________. a southwest to west wind a falling barometer lowering clouds and drizzle rain or snow
On the Great Lakes, winter storms compound the ice threat by bringing a variety of wind, wave, and weather problems on an average of every __________. four days three days five days two days
Fog can form in any season on the Great Lakes, but it is most likely to occur over open waters in __________. winter and early spring spring and early summer autumn and early winter summer and early autumn
What is NOT characteristic of the conditions which would be experienced by a vessel located southeast of an approaching eastward-moving storm center on the Great Lakes? Lowering clouds Rain or snow Falling barometer A westerly wind
"Seiche" is defined as a(n) __________. higher than normal high water or lower than normal low water unusually strong storm system which approaches the Great Lakes System generally from the Northeast oscillation caused by the diminishing of forces which cause lake level fluctuations lake current which is predominant during the spring and fall navigation season on the Great Lakes
On the Great Lakes, short-term fluctuations in water levels may be a result of any of the following EXCEPT __________. seiches sudden changes in barometric pressure strong winds below normal rain fall
On which of the Great Lakes would shore ice be the most pronounced? Lake Huron Lake Superior Lake Erie Lake Michigan
Generally speaking, the more destructive storms occurring on the Great Lakes usually come from the __________. northeast or east northwest or north southeast or south southwest or west
A vessel operating on the Great Lakes, and whose position is southeast of an eastward-moving storm center, would NOT experience __________. a northeast wind rain or snow lowering clouds and drizzle a falling barometer
Which statement concerning storm surges on the Great Lakes is FALSE? They cause rapid differences in levels between one end of the lake and the other. If the wind subsides rapidly, a seiche effect will most likely occur. The greatest water level difference occurs when the wind is blowing along the longitudinal axis of the lake. They are common along the deeper areas of the lakes.
Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems for OSVs to __________. limit the ascent rate stop the winch just before the survival craft reaches final stowage position limit the amount of cable on the drum stop the winch in case the craft's weight exceeds the load lift limit
The light on a personal flotation device on an OSV must be replaced __________. when it is no longer serviceable each year after installation every six months when the power source is replaced
The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue boat on an OSV is lowered to the water, launched and operated at least once every __________. week two months three months six months
The Master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall insure that each deck from which rescue boats are launched is __________. posted with a list of persons assigned to the rescue boat kept clear of any obstructions that would interfere with launching surfaced with a nonskid texture roped off to prevent unnecessary access
On an OSV, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached? Three ring life buoys One ring life buoy on each side of the OSV One ring life buoy Two ring life buoys on each side of the OSV
On an OSV, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life jacket? For use during fire drills For use during boat drills To replace a damaged life jacket At no time
The rescue boat on an OSV is not required to carry a __________. radar reflector searchlight sea anchor fishing kit
The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________. compass one can opener one 50 meter line All of the above.
The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________. one 50 meter line one first aid kit buoyant oars All of the above.
Of the required ring life buoys for an OSV, how many must be equipped with a water light? 8 4 2 1
What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on an OSV certified for ocean service? 4 8 12 16
The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________. 1 knot 10 knot 2 knot 5 knot
The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on an OSV vessel must be stowed __________. so that it is accessible from the pilothouse of the vessel in an inside passageway so that it will float free if the vessel sinks in an approved bracket
Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going OSV carry? Class C Class B Category I Class A
Regulations require that OSV's under 100 GT must have a steering system that is capable of moving the rudder __________. by a required auxiliary steering system under emergency conditions when duplicated main steering power systems are provided at one-half the maximum astern speed without damage from 35° on one side to 30° on the other side, in no more than 28 seconds, while making maximum headway from 15° on one side to 15° on the other side, in 30 seconds at 7 knots, or one-half the maximum speed
Each OSV must carry __________. at least one life buoy on each side of the vessel fitted with a buoyant life line at least 12 rocket parachute flares one category I 406 Mhz satellite EPIRB All of the above.
The instructions for rescue boats and liferafts on an OSV must be approved by the __________. Minerals Management Service lease operator person-in-charge of the unit Coast Guard
For an OSV not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected type line throwing appliance is a __________. heaving line shoulder type line throwing gun spring-loaded line thrower hand thrown buoyant line
Each EPIRB required on an OSV shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________. month week two weeks two months
The immersion suit requirements for OSVs apply to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean __________. above 20 degrees North and below 20 degrees South above 25 degrees North and below 25 degrees South above 30 degrees North and below 30 degrees South above 32 degrees North and below 32 degrees South
Each buoyant work vest on an OSV must be __________. marked with the name of the unit Coast Guard Approved equipped with a waterlight All of the above.
Each personal flotation device light on an OSV that has a non-replacement power source must be replaced __________. every six months after initial installation every 24 months after initial installation every 12 months after initial installation on or before the expiration date of the power source
Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws? Hazardous substances Garbage Oil All of the above.
Which of the following is considered "discharge" as it applies to the pollution regulations? pumping leaking spilling All of the above.
In the navigable waters of the United States, Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 is NOT applicable to a(n) __________. uninspected towing vessel uninspected passenger vessel under 100 GT U.S. government vessel in non-commercial service recreational yacht
The pollution prevention regulations in MARPOL apply to U. S. flag vessels __________. only on the western rivers and international waters only on international voyages outside U.S. territorial waters on all international and inland waters only on the Great Lakes and international waters
Which vessel in ocean service is not subject to Annex V of MARPOL 73/78? A 26-foot tug and tow An uninspected 35-foot passenger vessel A 20-foot sailing vessel A Navy Destroyer
The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. flag vessel that sails on which waters? International waters Great Lakes only Inland waters only All of the above.
A U.S. merchant vessel in ocean service is NOT subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 __________. in the waters of those countries not signatory to MARPOL outside of the navigable waters of the United States A U.S. vessel in ocean service is ALWAYS subject to MARPOL. outside of 25 nautical miles from nearest land
Which international body is responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL)? International Maritime Organization International Association of Shipping Maritime Advisory Council Association of Seafaring Nations
While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep a record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. When should these entries be made? before the end of the voyage no later than 24 hours after disposal of the garbage at the time the garbage was disposed before arriving at your next port
Under the Pollution Regulations, how long must garbage disposal records be retained onboard for? until the end of the voyage two years until the next Coast Guard inspection one year
Which statement is TRUE? You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to a shore facility. You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on the ship. You need not keep a record of ground garbage dumped into the sea more than 25 miles offshore. You must keep a record of the approximate weight of the garbage dumped.
Under the Pollution Regulations, which action is required when you dump garbage in to the sea? make an entry in the Official Logbook No action is required if you are more than 25 miles from land and no plastic materials are dumped. notify the U.S. Coast Guard keep a record for two years
You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records must identify that ship by name and show her __________. official number Master home port next port-of-call
Your oceangoing vessel is required to have a waste management plan. This plan must be in writing and describe procedures for __________. collecting and discharging garbage segregating the different types of shipboard waste reducing the amount of shipboard waste disposing waste from marine sanitation devices
You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. The amount of garbage disposed must be stated in __________. cubic meters both kilos and pounds both cubic meters and cubic feet barrels of 55 gallon capacity
You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________. latitude, longitude, course, speed, and a copy of that days noon position slip latitude, longitude, and estimated distance from shore latitude, longitude and approximate depth of water latitude and longitude only
Which statement is TRUE? You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on the ship. You must keep a record of the approximate weight of the garbage dumped. You need not keep a record of dumping ground garbage in to the sea more than 25 miles offshore. You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to a shore facility.
Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78? A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for flotation. Garbage accumulation on board has exceeded storage space. The garbage to be discharged will sink. The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage.
You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea? 3 25 12 Must be retained aboard
Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea? 3 nm 6 nm 12 nm 25 nm
You intend to discharge medical or hazardous wastes ashore. MARPOL Annex V requires you to notify a receiving port or terminal in advance. How much advance notice is required? 48 hours 24 hours 12 hours Advance notification is not required.
If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, which of the following cannot be discharged anywhere at sea? metal glass plastic paper
No person on board any vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage of any type when __________. less than 12 nautical miles from nearest land less than 12 nautical miles from the United States less than 25 nautical miles from nearest land in the navigable waters of the United States
According to Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage containing plastic is permitted to be disposed of by __________. grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 12 nautical miles from nearest land incinerating offshore grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 25 nautical miles from nearest land discharging when at least 12 nautical miles from nearest land
A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located in a MARPOL designated special area, 14 nautical miles from nearest land. What type of garbage is permitted to be discharged? Glass ground to less than 1" Metal ground to less than 1" Paper products Food waste
Which area is designated a special area by Annex V to MARPOL 73/78? Gulf of Saint Lawrence Sargasso Sea Great Lakes Red Sea
Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage discharged from vessels that are located between 3 and 12 nautical miles from nearest land must be ground to less than __________. 1" 1-1/4" 1-1/2" 2"
At what distance from shore may plastic material may be thrown overboard from a vessel? 25 miles from shore 3 miles from shore 12 miles from shore None of the above are correct.
You are in the North Sea, which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the side? 6 nm 25 nm 12 nm Must be retained aboard
How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard? Call an all hands meeting before sailing. Have each person read and sign a copy of the regulations. Keep placards prominently posted. Give each crewmember a copy of ANNEX V of MARPOL.
You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many nautical miles from land must you be to discharge ground garbage that will pass through a one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea? 6 nm 25 nm 3 nm 12 nm
Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw wooden dunnage into the sea? 6 nm 25 nm 12 nm 3 nm
Your oceangoing vessel has medical waste to be disposed of ashore. How many hours advance notice must you give the port or terminal? 6 12 24 48
Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw packing materials that will float into the sea? 25 nm 12 nm 6 nm 3 nm
If you are operating on the Inland Waters of the United States, which of the following may you discharge overboard? metal bottles dunnage None of the above
A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is 24 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged? Dunnage Metal Crockery Glass
A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged? Rags ground to less than 1" Paper ground to less than 1" Food waste, not comminuted or ground None of the above
What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash? 25 nautical miles 12 nautical miles 10 nautical miles 5 nautical miles
Vessels to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage containing plastics __________. 12 nautical miles from nearest land 5 nautical miles from nearest land 25 nautical miles from nearest land None of the above
What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? Octanol Cetyl-Eicosyl methacrylate Acetonitrile Hog grease
What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? Sulfur (molten) Latex Dodecyl methacrylate Asphalt
What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? Acetonitrile Sulfur (molten) Dodecanol Trimethyl phosphite
What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes? Formaldehyde (>50%) Methyl ethyl ketone Nonane Sulfur (molten)
According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________. a one-line schematic of the plan to be implemented an explanation and purpose of the plan the operating instructions for any and all oily-water separators installed aboard the vessel all information ordinarily provided in the Oil Record Book
Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? Reporting requirements List of individuals required to respond Planned exercises Removal equipment list
Which list is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? A list specifying who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority in which they must be notified. A list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports. A list of agencies or officials of Coastal State Administrators responsible for receiving and processing incident reports. A list of personnel duty assignments.
When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________. one month before the anniversary date of the plan six months before the end of the approval period and cannot be implemented without approval and can be implemented without immediate approval as long as final approval is received within six months of submission
Which of the following is required to have a Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above, or other ship of 400 gross tons and above any barge or ship constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any form can be carried aboard an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 gross tons and above
What is the approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? two years three years four years five years
At what frequency do Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan to be reviewed? annually once every two years once every four years once every five years
Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plans must be reviewed __________. only once every five years, with a letter submitted six months before expiration annually by the owner, with a letter submitted six months before expiration and the entire plan resubmitted for approval once every five years, six months before expiration annually by the owner, with a letter submitted to the Coast Guard within one month of the anniversary date of the plan approval
A ship that, at any time, operates seaward of the outermost boundary of the territorial sea is required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(n) __________. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan vapor recovery procedures plan oil discharge plan synthetic plastic discharge plan
Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to U.S. Regulations? Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage. The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water accumulated in machinery spaces. The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo. All of the above.
Which vessel is required to have a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan? an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 gross tons and above an oil tanker of 150 gross tons or above, or other ship of 400 gross tons or above any barge or other ship which is constructed or operated in such a manner that no oil in any form can be carried aboard all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application
International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificates are required for each U.S. oil tanker at or above how many gross registered tons? 300 gross registered tons 150 gross registered tons 400 gross registered tons 100 gross registered tons
Remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)? 1 2 3 4
According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves? Manual cut off switch A fusible link Electrical cut off switch A water spray actuator
U.S. regulations require all tankships of 150 GT and above and all other ships of 400 GT and above, to prepare and maintain which of the following? a USCG approved oil discharge plan a USCG approved vapor recovery procedures plan a USCG approved shipboard oil pollution emergency plan a USCG approved synthetic plastic discharge plan
Which of the following vessels is NOT exempt from mandatory requirements on ballast water management for control of non-indigenous species in waters of the United States? A crude oil tanker engaged in the coastwise trade. A vessel engaged in the foreign export of Alaskan North Slop Crude Oil. A passenger vessel equipped with a USCG approved system designed to kill aquatic organisms in ballast water. United States Navy frigate.
When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible? Credentialed officers only Owners only Master only Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the operation
Regardless of local requirements, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be reported to which of the following agencies? National Response Center (USCG) Environmental Protection Agency Minerals Management Service All of the above.
Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention regulations? Sludge Oil mixed with dredge spoil Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes Petroleum and fuel oil
What does the term "oil" as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations mean? oil refuse fuel oil sludge All of the above.
A tankerman who permits or causes oil to go into a navigable waterway may be federally punished with which of the following? imprisonment fine suspension or revocation of tankerman's document All of the above.
When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator before using which of the following? chemical agents skimmers sawdust straw
If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, how long may be imprisoned for? 1 year 2 years 3 years 5 years
The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment up to __________. 5 years 3 years 2 years 1 years
The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is __________. too expensive for common use generally safe to sea life authorized only with prior approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator the most common method used in the United States
It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using __________. suction equipment skimmers a boom chemical agents
As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST? Call the Coast Guard. Inform the Environmental Protection Agency. Rig a boom for recovery. Alert the fire department.
When authorized to use chemical agents on an oil spill they would __________. dissolve the oil in the water sink the oil facilitate the removal of the pollutant from the water absorb the oil for easy removal
In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a __________. sorbent blocker chemical agent None of the above
After making the required notification that a large oil spill into the water has occurred, what is the FIRST action that should be taken? contain the spread of the oil have the vessel move out of the spill area apply straw or sawdust on the oil throw grains of sand into the oil
A cargo hose is marked with which of the following? safety relief valve setting bursting pressure maximum temperature maximum working pressure
How is the minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly determined? three times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head twice the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head four times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose unless it meets certain requirements. Which of the following is NOT among those requirements? Metallic reinforcement A working pressure that is more than the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head Identification markings A bursting pressure that is at least four times the sum of the relief valve setting and the static head
According to U.S. regulations, normally, where are manholes in LFG located? in the ends of each tank above the weather deck in the expansion trunk of each tank there are no requirements in the regulation
According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of butadiene? Closed None Open Restricted
According to regulations, a cargo hose used for transferring liquefied gases must have a bursting pressure of __________. 4 times the pressure of the cargo pump used for transferring 5 times the minimum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer one half the designed working pressure 5 times the maximum working pressure on the hose during cargo transfer
According to U.S. regulations what is the maximum allowable working pressure (MAWP) for each hose assembly used for transferring oil? at least 600 psi (4.14 MPa) more than the sum of the pressure of the relief valve setting more than the maximum pump pressure when a relief valve is not installed at least four times the sum for the pressure of the relief valve setting
According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of butadiene? Restricted Closed Open None
According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves? A fusible link A water spray actuator Electrical cut off switch Manual cut off switch
A large metallic device, mounted directly in the piping (usually located at the dock near the point where the vapor hose is attached), designed to prevent the passage of a rapidly moving flame through the piping is called a __________. detonation blocker detonation arrestor flame arrestor flame screen
For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line must hold a minimum of __________. three barrels four barrels six barrels eight barrels
Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"? It must be located at the bilge and ballast pump control station. It must be located in a conspicuous place in the wheelhouse. It is required on all vessels. All of the above.
Who may serve as the "person in charge" of loading and discharge operations aboard a tankship? The bosun A credentialed officer who holds a tankerman-PIC endorsement The Master The pumpman who has a tankerman assistant endorsement
Which vessel is NOT required to have a Pollution Placard posted on board? 215-foot naval auxiliary vessel 75-foot towing vessel 50-foot cabin cruiser used for pleasure only 150-foot unmanned tank barge
To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on board a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must hold/be which of the following? a valid officer credential for inspected vessels a letter from the company stating his qualification be 30 years old a tankerman-PIC endorsement
Which of the following best describes the requirement of the emergency pump control when used as the emergency shutdown on tank vessels? stop the flow of oil at the main deck manifold prevent the oil from leaving the shore facility prevent the oil from siphoning through the pump None of the above
What can be done to prevent small oil spills on deck from going overboard? plugging the sounding pipes closing the lids on the vents driving wooden plugs into the vents plugging the scuppers
What do pollution regulations require of each scupper in an enclosed deck area? soft rubber plug mechanical means of closing wooden plug two-piece soft patch
Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches. The container around the loading manifold must hold __________. three barrels four barrels six barrels eight barrels
A 100-GT vessel, constructed before July 1,1974, is loading diesel fuel. What is the minimum capacity of the drip pans required for placement under or around each fuel tank vent, overflow, and fill pipe? 1 gallon 5 gallons 1 barrel 2 barrels
Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of 14 inches. When four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container around the manifold must hold a total of how many barrels? Three Four Twelve Sixteen
You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 300 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________. are not obstructed by on-deck cargo have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area have containment capacity for at least one half barrel are opened and the flame screen replaced
You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 1,600 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________. have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area are not obstructed by on-deck cargo are opened and the flame screen replaced have containment capacity for at least one barrel
You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 300 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________. are opened and the flame screen replaced have a fire extinguisher within the immediate area have portable containment capacity for at least 5 gallons are not obstructed by on-deck cargo
Which type of vessel shall be required to have an emergency towing arrangement fitted at both ends? A 30,000 dwt ton oil barge An 18,000 dwt ton tanker constructed in 1998 A 5,000 dwt ton coastal tanker A 22,000 dwt ton tanker operated after Jan. 1, 1999
What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed for a 100 gross ton vessel constructed after June 30,1974? At least 5 gallons At least 1 barrel At least 2 barrels At least 3 barrels
Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil? Mixing it with dispersants before draining it overboard Adding sinking agents and discharging it into the water Placing it in proper disposal facilities Draining it overboard when the vessel gets underway
You are operating a non-ocean going vessel, how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain on board? 25 (%) 50 (%) 75 (%) 100 (%)
A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast must have __________. a discharge outlet for the ballast system on each side of the weather deck one portable adapter for a shore connection to the ballast line a fixed piping system for ballast discharge to a reception facility All of the above.
What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT to 400 GT be fitted with for oily mixtures? A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility A portable system to discharge the slops overboard A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility
If you must pump bilges while a vessel is in port, you should pump only __________. on the outgoing tide during the hours of darkness if discharge is led to a shore tank or barge as much as is necessary
What must Inland vessels of 100 GT and over be fitted with for oily mixtures? A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility A portable system to discharge the slops overboard
Fuel for use on a vessel (300 GT or more constructed before July 1, 1974) may be carried in independent tanks forward of a collision bulkhead if the __________. shell of the tank is of the same thickness or greater than that of the vessel's hull tanks were designated, installed, or constructed for fuel oil carrying before July 1, 1974 fuel has a flash point above 180°F tank is 18 inches inboard of the hull structure
What would you consult to determine the number of persons required on duty while loading a cargo of leaded gasoline on your tanker? Oil Transfer Procedures Manual IOPP Certificate Certificate of Inspection 46 CFR Part 15 (Manning)
What is NOT required to be contained in the oil transfer procedures? Any special procedures for topping off tanks The number of persons on duty during oil transfer operations The location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the vessel A line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping
The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT required to contain __________. a description of the deck discharge containment system a line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping special procedures for topping off tanks the name of each person designated as the person in charge of transfer
Where are the transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted? in the upper pumproom flat in the pilothouse where they can be easily seen or readily available in the officer's lounge
During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed? The tankerman The oiler The designated person in charge The senior able seaman
The operator of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations shall keep a written record available for inspection by the COPT or OCMI. What will this record contain? the name of each person currently designated as a person in charge hose information including the minimum design burst pressure for each hose the date and result of the most recent test on the system relief valves All of the above.
The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of __________. hose information not marked on the hose cargoes carried and dates delivered, including destinations the date and results of the most recent equipment inspection the name of each person designated as a person in charge
An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove an on-deck oil spill of at least __________. one barrel two barrels five barrels ten barrels
The equipment required to remove an on-deck oil spill on a barge transferring oil must either be carried on board or __________. kept at the shoreside hose connection during transfer on a tug standing by available by contract with the shore facility kept in a protected shoreside location readily accessible
The transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships shall contain __________. a list of each port of discharge a current crew list the duties by name of each person in charge required for each transfer operation a line diagram of the vessel's transfer piping
Before operating a non-oceangoing ship greater than 100 gross tons it must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. This system must include __________. a spare pump in case the main pump is inoperative approved oil-water separating equipment at least one outlet accessible from the weather deck a fixed or portable containment system at the shore connection
You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast to a shore facility. This system must include __________. at least two outlets accessible from the weather deck at least two pumps that may be put in line containment capacity for at least 5 gallons at the tank vents a means to stop each pump near the discharge outlet
You are operating a ship greater than 400 gross tons. You are NOT permitted to carry oil or hazardous materials in a(n) __________. on-deck portable tank forepeak tank deep tank after peak tank
The the U.S. regulations require an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil during oil transfer operations. Where must these emergency means be operable from? engine room bridge emergency operating station of the person-in-charge usual operating station of the person-in-charge
Which of the following must be included in the "oil transfer procedures" required by U.S Pollution Prevention Regulations? the emergency cleanup and containment procedures to be followed in the event of an oil spill any special procedures inherent to that particular vessel for topping off tanks the location, size, and barrel capacity of each tank that is capable of carrying oil All of the above.
An individual must be which of the following to serve as the person in charge of oil cargo transfer operations onboard a self-propelled tank vessel? be licensed only be 30 years old have a letter from the company stating his qualification be a certified tankerman (PIC)
Your vessel is at a dock taking bunkers. If oil begins to flow out of a tank vent, what should you do FIRST? Close the valve on the tank vent line. Signal the shore control point to shut down. Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill. Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank.
While your vessel is taking on fuel you notice oil on the water around the vessel. What should you do FIRST? Notify the Coast Guard. Stop the fueling. Determine the source of the oil. Notify the terminal superintendent.
If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what action should you take FIRST? Notify the person in charge of the shore facility Shut down the transfer operation Close the valves at the transfer manifold Sound the fire alarm
You may not act as person-in-charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________. unless radio communication is set up between the vessels under any circumstances unless authorized by the Captain of the Port unless the vessels are moored clear of all docks
How long must a "Declaration of Inspection" be kept on board? One week Two weeks One month Three months
How long shall the operator of a vessel employed in the transferring of oil to other vessels keep the Declaration of Inspection of those transfers? 1 week from date of signature 2 weeks from date of signature 1 month from date of signature 6 months from date of signature
While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose leaks causing a sheen on the water. What action should you take? shut down operations repair the leak with duct tape reduce the rate of transfer apply dispersants to the sheen
When the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer operations, it __________. must be in writing before it takes effect includes a statement of each condition requiring corrective action is always effective immediately All of the above.
What is the FIRST action to take if you detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging? have the pumpman check the discharge piping try to find out where the oil is coming from shut down operations call the Master
The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer? The person in charge of either place that is doing the pumping The person in charge on the vessel The person in charge at the facility Both persons in charge
Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel? The manager of the shore facility The U.S. Coast Guard The person(s) designated in-charge The American Bureau of Shipping
How long must the operator of each vessel engaged in a vessel-to-vessel oil transfer operation keep a signed copy of the declaration of inspection for? 10 days 1 month 6 months 1 year
Who must sign the Declaration of Inspection made before oil transfer operations? Master of the vessel Captain of the Port person(s) in charge All of the above.
Hoses used for cargo transfer operations must be tested and inspected at specified intervals by __________. a representative of the Captain of the Port a representative of the American Bureau of Shipping the operator of the vessel or facility a representative of the National Cargo Bureau
During the annual inspection by the owner, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static liquid pressure of at least __________. 100 pounds per square inch the relief valve setting pressure the shoreside pump discharge pressure 1½ times the maximum allowable working pressure
You are inspecting the nonmetallic oil transfer hoses on the vessel you operate. The maximum allowable pressure of the hose is 70 psi. Your inspection confirms the hose did not burst, bulge, leak or abnormally distort under the required static liquid pressure of __________. 70 psi 105 psi 140 psi 210 psi
33 CFR 156 deals with matters concerning __________. operation of nautical school ships vessel construction and design oil and hazardous material transfer operations lifesaving and firefighting equipment
Who has the authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil transfer operations? Captain of the Port Area Commander nearest Coast Guard office Officer-in-Charge, Marine Inspection
Application for a waiver of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted to the __________. Commandant District Commander nearest Coast Guard office Captain of the Port
How far in advance must applications for waivers of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations be submitted? the day before the operations 5 days before the operations 10 days before the operations 30 days before the operations
Each pressure gauge used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within __________. 1 percent 3 percent 5 percent 10 percent
What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporary bolted flange oil hose coupling? 6 4 3 A bolt must be used in every hole.
How many bolts are required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI (American National Standards Institute) coupling? 2 4 6 8
What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling? A bolt must be used in every hole. 6 4 3
While taking on fuel oil from an offshore supply vessel, the transfer hose leaks, causing a sheen in the water. You should __________. continue transfer operations repair the leak with duct tape reduce the rate of transfer immediately shut down operations
According to U.S. regulations, which of the following describes the declaration of inspection? paper issued by the Coast Guard marine inspector which allows you to conduct a transfer operation application you must complete and submit to the Coast Guard to have an inspector visit your vessel document signed by vessel and shore facility persons-in-charge declaring that all transfer requirements have been met annual report submitted by vessel personnel to the Coast Guard declaring that all transfer equipment has been inspected
According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin? The designated person-in-charge Any local Coast Guard representative The captain of the port The senior deck officer present
What type of information is found in 33 CFR part 156? oil and hazardous material transfer operations lifesaving and firefighting equipment vessel construction and design operation of nautical school ships
Which of the following applies in determining if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations prior to bunkering from a shoreside facility? vessel and bunker facility must be independently inspected by the designated persons-in-charge the bunker facility must be inspected by the designated person-in-charge of the vessel and vice versa for the vessel the vessel is responsible to provide an inspected oil hose vessel and bunker facility must be inspected by a representative of the Coast Guard Captain of the Port
What shall the transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships contain? the duties by name of each person in charge required for each transfer operation a current crew list a list of each port of discharge a line diagram of the vessel transfer piping
According to the U.S. regulations, what must be agreed upon by the person-in-charge of transfer operations, both ashore and on the vessel? the status of the oily water separator whether or not the transferring ship is a "Public Vessel of the United States" the identity of the product to be transferred the size of the slop tank required under 155.330
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), when may a person serve as the person-in-charge of both a vessel and a facility during oil transfer operations? Whenever the vessel is short of manpower. When authorized by the Captain of the Port. Whenever the facility is unmanned. When licensed as a certified refueling officer.
During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed? The senior able seaman The designated person in charge The oiler The tankerman
U.S. regulations require that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless which of the following criteria are met? the transfer system is connected to an automatic back pressure shutoff nozzle the transfer system is connected to a flexible overflow fuel hose all necessary components of the transfer system are lined up before the transfer begins all unnecessary parts of the transfer system are open and drained
To allow for the rise or fall in tide and for change in draft of a tankship during cargo transfer, cargo hoses must be suspended with __________. topping lifts and runners tied off to winches slings or saddles placed at 25-foot (8 meter) intervals enough slack in their bight All of the above.
According to U.S. regulations, if a cargo hose shows a small leak in its fabric, when may it be used to transfer oil? after a drip pan is placed under the leak never the hose must be replaced after the hose leak is securely wrapped after the terminal foreman is notified
According to U.S. regulations, how often are you are required to test cargo discharge piping? 6 months 18 months 24 months 12 months
According to U.S. regulations, when a tank vessel is discharging cargo, each sea suction valve connected to the vessel's oil transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems must be which of the following? fitted with an anti-siphon device fitted with a blank flange sealed or lashed closed lined up for immediate use
What does Title 33 CFR Part 156 of the Pollution Prevention Regulations concern? pumping equipment design oil and hazmat transfer operations large oil transfer shoreside facilities cargo vessel design
What does the term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the Pollution Regulations, mean? greatest distance between two opposite cargo tank bulkheads diagonal measurement of a cargo tank length of any individual cargo space, from bulkhead to bulkhead length from the forward bulkhead of the forwardmost cargo tanks to the after bulkhead of the aftermost cargo tanks
A oil tanker may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless which of the following conditions is present? is within "Special Areas" defined in Regulation 1 (10) of Annex I to MARPOL 73/78 at anchor or stopped discharging at an instantaneous rate of oil content not exceeding 30 liters per nautical mile more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land
Which type of marine sanitation device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature? Type I Type II Type III Type IV
According to U.S. regulations, what vessels are required to have the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard? U.S. vessels less than 26 feet in length Foreign vessels when engaged in noncommercial service foreign vessels not in U.S. navigable waters U.S. Vessels 26 feet or more in length
In the event of an oil spill a report must be made to which of the following entities? local police U.S. Corps of Engineers local fire department U.S. Coast Guard
Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE? The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the cleanup of the spill. The Department of Interior is responsible for the cleanup of the spill. The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast Guard. A warning broadcast must be made by radiotelephone.
Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of __________. the galley trash can sewage an oily mixture of one part per million All of the above.
The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is(are) __________. straw booms skimmers chemical dispersants
When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge? Throw sand on the water to sink the oil. Obtain your permit from the Corps of Engineers Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water. Throw chemical agents on the water to disperse the oil.
Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill? It will sink more rapidly than crude oil. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill. It is not covered by the pollution laws. It does little harm to marine life.
Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills? A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the area. They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative. They usually stay in a small area. They usually disappear quickly.
Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________. equipment failure major casualties unforeseeable circumstances human error
Single hull vessels operating exclusively on the Great Lakes must be dry docked at intervals not to exceed __________. 24 months 60 months 12 months 48 months
By regulation, your cargo vessel must have __________. sufficient facilities for the crew to wash their clothes a wash basin in each room separate toilet facilities for engineers where their number exceeds six All of the above.
The largest crew a cargo vessel may carry without having a hospital space is __________. 6 11 12 16
What is the maximum number of crew members that may be berthed in one room aboard your cargo vessel? Two Four Six Eight
Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE? The hospital may be used for disciplinary confinement if it is not being used for treatment. The hospital space must have both a bathtub and shower. If a ship has a crew of forty-five who do not have their own room, the hospital must have four berths. A hospital is required on all vessels with a crew of 12 or more if it makes overnight voyages.
The regulations governing the sleeping accommodations of a cargo vessel are found in __________. 46 CFR subchapter B 46 CFR subchapter S 46 CFR subchapter I 46 CFR subchapter T
The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection? One B-I extinguisher One B-II extinguisher One B-II and one C-II extinguisher One B-V extinguisher
The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire protection? One B-I extinguisher One B-II extinguisher One B-II and one C-II extinguisher One B-V extinguisher
In the subchapter for Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels of the Code of Federal Regulations, what is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed? 5 8 12 15
A B-III foam extinguisher contains __________. 2-1/2 gallons of foam 8 gallons of foam 10 gallons of foam 12 gallons of foam
For a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or over, on an international voyage, the required minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets when two fire pumps are operating simultaneously is required to be which of the following? 35 psi 100 psi 70 psi 50 psi
What is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher? 2 pound dry chemical 2-1/2 gallon foam 4 pound carbon dioxide All of the above.
The number of fire axes required to be carried on a cargo vessel of 14,000 GT and on an international voyage is __________. 4 6 8 12
On a vessel of 900 GT, the minimum number of fire axes required is __________. 2 4 6 8
The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit is __________. one A-I two A-IIs one B-II one C-II
How many fire axes should be carried by a 700 GT cargo vessel, navigating the Great Lakes? 4 6 2 8
The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried in the vicinity of the radio room exit for a tank vessel on an international voyage is one __________. B-I B-II C-I C-II
The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels is __________. one C-I none required one A-I one B-I
Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire detection system? Any compartment containing explosives Enclosed spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles" Any compartment adjacent to one containing explosives All of the above.
The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required for a galley having an area of 3,500 square feet is __________. one B-II one C-II two B-II's or C-II's two A-II's or B-II's
On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable? B-III C-II A-II All of the above.
On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any "tight" space shall be completed within __________. 1 minute 2 minutes 4 minutes 6 minutes
In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT __________. in connection with the fire-detecting system to ventilate the space in connection with the water sprinkler system to run the emergency wiring to the space
The space containing the cylinders for the carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguishing system must be designed to preclude an anticipated ambient temperature over __________. 80°F 95°F 130°F 150°F
CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must __________. NOT contain more than 200 pounds of CO2 have an audible alarm be automatically operated by a heat actuator All of the above.
Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed __________. 150 lbs 300 lbs 450 lbs 600 lbs
The number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo vessel is equal to __________. one pound of CO2 per square foot of deck area one pound of CO2 per cubic foot of space the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 30 the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 100
You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel is 45 feet by 36 feet by 62 feet. How many pounds of carbon dioxide is required for this space? 1674 2511 3348 5022
On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connection flange(s) must be provided? 1 2 3 4
What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT? 1 2 3 4
What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT? 4 2 1 3
The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________. on the main deck as close as possible to the house on each level of the accommodation space to each side of the vessel
On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connection flange(s) must be provided? 1 2 3 4
What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT? 1 2 3 4
What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT? 3 2 4 1
The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________. as close as possible to the house on each level of the accommodation space to each side of the vessel on the main deck
Aboard a cargo vessel, the carbon dioxide supply used in a fixed extinguishing system MUST at least be sufficient for what space(s)? all cargo spaces the engine room and largest cargo space all the spaces of a vessel the space requiring the largest amount
The letter and number symbols, such as B-II, used to classify portable fire extinguishers indicate the __________. class of fire and location aboard vessel extinguishing agent and location aboard vessel class of fire and size of the extinguisher extinguishing agent and relative size of the extinguisher
The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________. not less than 50 feet in length made of steel or bronze wire rope corrosion resistant All of the above.
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"? The spaces are prohibited from being fitted with fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems. The spaces shall have designated smoking areas. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system. All of the above.
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"? The Commandant may permit the installation of an approved water sprinkler extinguishing system. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system. All of the above.
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2300 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 600 brake horsepower? 5 4 3 2
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2200 brake horsepower? 5 4 3 2
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 4000 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3200 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2000 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 75-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 1200 brake horsepower? 1 2 3 4
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 2500 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines with 3300 brake horsepower? 2 3 4 5
Category 1 EPIRBs are required to be carried on board __________. small passenger vessels all deep draft vessels fishing industry vessels small passenger vessels on the Great Lakes
An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________. near the wheelhouse so as to float free with the vessel's emergency equipment as far forward as possible
Cold water, in commercial fishing, means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally __________. 39°Fahrenheit or less 44°Fahrenheit or less 49°Fahrenheit or less 59°Fahrenheit or less
Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________. emergency towing fire on board minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding rescuing an individual from the water
Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel? Steering casualty Loss of propulsion power Emergency towing Recovering an individual from the water
A new crew member aboard your fishing vessel, who has not received any safety instructions or participated in any drills, reports on board. The Master must provide a safety orientation __________. before sailing on reporting day if it occurs within normal work hours within one week within 24 hours
A documented oceangoing fishing vessel is required to have emergency instructions posted if it __________. exceeds 49 feet in length is over 25 gross tons has sleeping accommodations carries more than 16 persons
A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________. a life line a hydrostatic release smoke flares a signal mirror
After 1 September 1992, in the North Pacific area, a documented 75-foot fishing vessel operating in cold waters 25 miles off the coast must have at least a(n) __________. inflatable liferaft with a SOLAS pack approved rescue boat buoyant cushion for each person on board inflatable buoyant apparatus with EPIRB attached
The hydrostatic release on the inflatable liferafts on a fishing vessel must be __________. replaced annually tested monthly serviced annually overhauled quarterly
You are operating 10 miles offshore with three people aboard. What kind of survival craft must you carry? A life float No survival craft is required. An inflatable buoyant apparatus An inflatable liferaft with a coastal pack
The survival craft carried aboard a commercial fishing vessel must safely accommodate __________. the number of people required by the certificate of inspection the entire crew all of the people aboard None of the Above
An undocumented vessel with 10 people aboard and operating 25 miles off the seacoast must carry a survival craft of the __________. life float type inflatable buoyant apparatus type buoyant apparatus type All of the above.
What do regulations allow to be marked with EITHER the name of the fishing vessel OR the name of the person to whom it is assigned? Life float Buoyant apparatus Ring buoy Immersion suit
The name of the fishing vessel is NOT required to be marked on a(n) __________. EPIRB inflatable liferaft buoyant apparatus life float
Each commercial fishing vessel must have at least one immersion suit, exposure suit, or life preserver for each __________. person working on deck person aboard crew member None of the above are correct.
Each life preserver must be readily accessible to the person for whom it is intended while he or she is __________. in his or her berthing area, only at work, only BOTH at work and in his or her berthing area None of the above
On a commercial fishing vessel, a wearable personal flotation device must be marked with the name of the __________. vessel assigned individual owner of the device Any of the above.
You are on a commercial fishing vessel 78 feet long. At least one of your ring buoys or throwable flotation devices must have a line of what minimum length attached? 60 feet 70 feet 80 feet 90 feet
Your fishing vessel operates more than 25 miles from the coastline on the Great Lakes. Which distress signal is NOT required to be on board? 6 red hand flares 1 electric distress light 3 orange smoke signals 3 red parachute flares
A fishing vessel that is required to have a fireman's outfit, must have all of the following in the outfit except a __________. combustible gas indicator fire axe self-contained breathing apparatus flashlight
A vessel must have at least two fireman's outfits aboard if she __________. is under foreign articles is documented is over 100 gross tons has more than 49 people aboard
Your fishing vessel is required to have a compass. It must also have a(n) __________. radar reflector electronic position-fixing device deviation table copy of the Sailing Directions
You are on a 92 foot fishing vessel with 35 individuals on board. Which one of the following items are you NOT required to have on board? Gyro compass Magnetic compass VHF radiotelephone Electronic position fixing device
Radar reflectors are required for __________. sail-propelled fishing vessels all fishing vessels of less than 200 GT wooden hull fishing vessels with a poor radar echo all fishing vessels over 39 feet in length
The bilge pump on a fishing vessel __________. must be capable of pumping at least 450 gpm may be used as a fire pump must be portable if there are more than 4 watertight compartments must be fixed if the vessel exceeds 12 meters in length
Which lifesaving equipment must be tested monthly? EPIRB Dated batteries Inflatable PFD's Hydrostatic releases
A vessel operating outside of coastal waters must carry an automatically activated Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) if she __________. has berthing and galley facilities is a workboat and her mother ship carries an EPIRB does not have berthing facilities None of the above are correct.
Every fishing vessel required to have a general alarm system must test it __________. once every day that the vessel is operated prior to operation of the vessel once every week that the vessel is operated Both B and C
Every injury aboard a commercial fishing industry vessel must be reported to the __________. National Fisheries Service Coast Guard Occupational Safety and Health Administration vessel owner or owner's agent
The Master or other vessel representative must contact the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office within five days of a(n) __________. accident which requires $(SA)2500 of repairs injury which requires first aid grounding All of the above.
A fishing vessel casualty must be reported to the Coast Guard if it involves __________. an injury requiring only first aid loss of equipment which doesn't reduce the vessel's maneuverability loss of life $(SA)10,000 in property damage
You are in charge of a fishing vessel with 18 individuals on board. You are required to conduct drills and give safety instruction at least once __________. before you begin fishing every 15 days every week every month
A bilge suction line, in a fishing vessel with more than 16 individuals aboard, must have a strainer with an open area not less than how many times the open area of the suction line? one two three four
Which of the following would be considered downflooding on a fishing vessel as defined in regulation? Vessel takes on water due to the hatches being left open in heavy rain. Vessel takes on water by the propeller shaft due to failure of the stern gland. Vessel heels until water enters a hatch. Vessel in collision floods through a damaged area above the waterline.
Your vessel is 79 feet long with 20 people aboard. The coaming of a deck above the lowest weather deck (except an exposed forecastle deck) must be at least __________. 6" high 12" high 24" high Not required
In commercial fishing, "cold water" means water where the monthly mean low water temperature is normally __________. 39°Fahrenheit or less 44°Fahrenheit or less 49°Fahrenheit or less 59°Fahrenheit or less
A documented vessel operating over 50 miles offshore must carry an inflatable liferaft with a __________. SOLAS B pack coastal pack SOLAS A pack small vessel pack
The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________. secured inside the wheelhouse tested annually secured in the emergency locker tested monthly
The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________. tested monthly secured in the emergency locker tested annually secured inside the wheelhouse
Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________. 2 2 STARBOARD 3 4
Which item may be substituted for, in the fireman's outfit, on a cargo vessel? fire ax flashlight rigid helmet flame safety lamp
A marine radar system for surface navigation must be fitted on all ocean or coastwise vessels of over __________. 1,400 GT 1,500 GT 1,600 GT 1,700 GT
An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient means must be provided for a pilot whenever the distance from the sea level is more than __________. 20 feet 30 feet 40 feet 50 feet
On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit? Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves Flame safety lamp Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached Combustible gas indicator
Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is TRUE concerning fireman's outfits? Each fireman's outfit shall contain a fresh-air breathing apparatus. If a vessel carries two outfits, they may be stored in the same location. Each fireman's outfit shall contain a flame safety lamp of an approved type. All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE concerning vessels over 1600 gross tons certificated for service solely on the Great Lakes? They must carry a deep-sea hand lead. They must have gyro compasses. They must have magnetic compasses. All of the above.
A vessel in Great Lakes service shall carry anchors in accordance with standards established by the __________. U.S. Coast Guard American Bureau of Shipping Canadian Coast Guard underwriter of the vessel
Cargo vessels being navigated, and fitted with emergency lighting and power systems, shall have their emergency systems tested at least once __________. in each week a month in every 6 months in every 12 months
Who must ensure that the emergency lighting and power systems on cargo vessels are operated at least weekly? Engineering officer assigned Master Deck officer assigned Chief Engineer
On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, regulations require that __________. fire pumps be tested by starting within 12 hours prior to departure the entire steering gear be tested within 12 hours prior to departure the emergency generator and lighting system be tested by starting and operating within 12 hours prior to departure a lifeboat drill be held within 12 hours prior to departure
Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage, the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested prior to departure no earlier than __________. 1 hour 4 hours 8 hours 12 hours
What is required to be posted in the pilothouse of a vessel? Official Crew List Company Mission Statement Maneuvering Characteristics Certificate of Inspection
Maritime Administration personnel may be allowed in the pilothouse upon the responsibility of the __________. officer in charge of the watch most senior person present from the Maritime Administration Chief Officer Navigator
Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name? Lifeboat oar Immersion suit Hand-portable fire extinguisher Life preserver
When can a work vest be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear? When working near or over the water When it is approved by the Coast Guard When stowed away from the ring buoys A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket.
In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________. should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieu of approved life jackets because they are less bulky and permit free movement in confined spaces should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets in an emergency may be used as a substitute for approved life preservers during routine drills, but never during an emergency All of the above.
Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters and figures must be at least __________. 1/2 inch 1 inch 1-1/2 inches 2 inches
Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters and figures must be at least __________. 1/2 inch 1 inch 1-1/2 inches 2 inches
According to regulations when, if ever, may cargo hatches on Great Lakes vessels, with more than 6 feet of freeboard, be left uncovered or open while the vessel is being navigated? If a Mate deems it necessary for ship's maintenance At the discretion of the Master, for reasonable purposes The hatch may never be uncovered On the authority of the Bosun
The Great Lakes Edition of the Notice to Mariners is published __________. weekly by the 9th Coast Guard District monthly by the Army Corps of Engineers monthly by the Naval Oceanographic office biweekly by the Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard
It is recommended that drip collectors required on all updraft carburetors be drained by __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) a device to automatically return all drip to the engine air intakes no means whatsoever a pump leading to a point outside the hull a separate pipe leading to the bilges
Air-cooled radiators for gasoline propulsion engine cooling __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) must have a double fan installation must be approved for marine use are permitted on vessels less than 65 feet carrying not more than 12 passengers must be filled with fresh water
Air-cooled gasoline auxiliary engines are allowed on vessels not more than 65 feet in length, carrying not more than 12 passengers if __________. they are rated at not more than 4.5 horsepower they have a self-contained fuel system and are installed on an open deck it is not practicable to supply water to the engine All of the above.
What is required for a dry exhaust pipe? (small passenger vessel regulations) Noncombustible hangers and supports An automatic damper Insulation from combustible material A rain spray and spray cap
Starting motors, generators, and any other spark producing devices shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) rated for at least 12 volts of the alternating current type mounted as high as practicable above the bilges All of the above.
Starting motors, generators, and other spark producing devices should be mounted as high above the bilges as possible to __________. prevent accidental ignition of any gasoline vapors that may have accumulated in the bilges make them more accessible for repairs keep them cool when the vessel is underway keep them dry when the bilges are full of water
Switchboards shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) Grounded to the main engine on a wooden hulled boat. Watertight. The dead-front type, totally enclosed Equipped with switch locks
Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will be __________. locked up on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times readily accessible for use inaccessible to passengers
Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons must __________. not contain sluice valves that allow water to flow freely from one watertight compartment to another be kept as high and as far inboard as possible have some means to make them watertight All of the above.
Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________. should be stowed adjacent to lifeboats and emergency stations should be used when carrying out duties near a weather deck's edge may be used by boat crews and line handlers during lifeboat drills may be substituted for 10 percent of the required life preservers
How many ring life buoys must a small passenger vessel, of less than 65 feet in length, carry? 1 2 3 4
A vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it carries more than __________. 49 passengers 6 passengers 12 passengers 36 passengers
What do the small passenger vessel regulations require when installing a hydraulic accumulator or other unfired pressure vessel? It be installed to the satisfaction of the cognizant OCMI It be operated at one and one half times normal operating pressure for ten minutes. Safety and/or relief valves settings be checked at two and one half times normal operating pressures. All of the above.
On small passenger vessels after loading and prior to departure, the master shall determine the vessel complies with all stability requirements in which of these documents? Load Line Certificate Certificate of Inspection stability letter All of the above.
On Subchapter T small passenger vessels, after loading and prior to departure, the master shall determine the vessel complies with all stability requirements in which of these documents? stability letter Load Line Certificate Certificate of Inspection All of the above.
A Certificate of Inspection issued to a small passenger vessel describes __________. any special conditions or restrictions on her operation the minimum fire extinguishing equipment, lifejackets, survival and rescue craft she must carry the name of the managing operator All of the above.
The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________. be resistant to ultraviolet sunlight deterioration be stowed to pay out freely if the vessel sinks have a minimum breaking strength of 3,000 lbs. if the capacity of the lifesaving gear is 50 persons or greater All of the above.
Which vessel is required to carry a Category I, 406 MHz EPIRB installed to automatically float free and activate? (small passenger vessel regulations) A vessel operating on the ocean within 5 miles from the coastline. A vessel operating within 3 miles from the coastline in the Gulf of Mexico. A vessel operating beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes. A vessel operating exclusively on inland waters.
Your vessel is greater than 100 GRT and carries more than 12 passengers. In addition to the deck officer in the pilothouse, where should there be an additional crew member on watch? always in the pilothouse in or near the pilothouse on lookout on the fore deck on the bridge wing
Which river passenger vessel must have a copy of the vessel's plans permanently displayed? A 200 GT vessel carrying more than 50 passengers A 325 GT vessel on a voyage in excess of 8 hours A 550 GT vessel with sleeping accommodations A 1100 GT vessel making daylight excursion trips only
A passenger vessel of 600 GT is required to have how many fire axes? 6 2 4 1
When a passenger vessel's plans must be permanently exhibited, they are NOT required to show information on the __________. lifeboats, liferafts, and life preservers portable fire extinguishers fire detection system ventilation systems
General arrangement plans shall be permanently exhibited on all passenger vessels of at least __________. 200 GT and over 500 GT and over 1000 GT and over 1500 GT and over
The patrolman, while on duty on a passenger vessel, must have in his possession a(n) __________. A-I fire extinguisher flashlight passenger list showing assigned berths nightstick
A passenger vessel is required to have a supervised patrol when __________. there are passengers berthed on board navigating in excess of eight hours the vessel has substantial wood in its construction there is no automatic fire-detection system installed
On a passenger vessel with stateroom accommodations, which space would NOT be required to be checked by the patrol between 10 pm and 6 am? weather decks pilothouse public spaces with an automatic fire detection system galley
If your passenger vessel is fitted with a loudspeaker system, it must be tested at least once __________. a watch or once a trip, whichever is shorter a day every week every trip
How many means of escape must be provided from passenger areas on a passenger vessel of 500 GT? One Two Three Two, unless there is an elevator provided
According to the regulations for passenger vessels, a "motor vessel" is one which is propelled by machinery other than steam and is more than __________. 16 ft. in length 34 ft. in length 45 ft. in length 65 ft. in length
A passenger vessel in river service which operates in fresh water at least 6 out of every 12 months since the last dry dock examination must be dry-docked at intervals not to exceed __________. 12 months 24 months 48 months 60 months
If your passenger vessel has been issued a stability letter, it must be __________. posted adjacent to the Certificate of Inspection posted in the pilothouse posted in a passenger area filed in the ship's office
Which passenger vessel is required to permanently exhibit a fire control plan? any vessel over 500 Gross Tons a vessel 500 Gross Tons on an international voyage a vessel 500 Gross Tons on a domestic voyage None of the above
When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means of communication between the pilothouse and the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more than how many hours prior to departure? 4 8 12 24
Small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross registered tons must be inspected by the Coast Guard when they carry more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 12 passengers 50 passengers 6 passengers 1 passenger
According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the definition of a ferry includes vessels that __________. have provisions only for deck passengers, vehicles, or both operate on a short run on a frequent schedule between two points over the most direct water route operate in other than ocean or coastwise service All of the above.
Unless otherwise stated, the term "approved" applied to a vessel's equipment, means approved by the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) Congress of the United States American Bureau of Shipping Commandant of the Coast Guard Board of Fire Underwriters
In the regulations that apply to small passenger vessels an "open boat" is a vessel __________. on which gambling and consumption of alcoholic beverages is permitted that is not protected from entry of water by means of a complete weathertight deck that is docked and open for visitors that is used for charter fishing or tours and is open to the public
In the small passenger vessel regulations a coastwise route is defined as one that is __________. on ocean waters more than 200 nautical miles from shore in the Gulf of Alaska not more than 50 statute miles from shore in the Gulf of Mexico not more than 20 statute miles from the nearest safe harbor in the Pacific Ocean not more than 20 nautical miles offshore in the ocean
The definition of "partially protected waters", as used in the Regulations does not include __________. sheltered waters presenting no special hazard waters within 20 nautical miles from the mouth of a harbor of safe refuge the Great Lakes during the summer season harbors, lakes and similar waters determined by the OCMI to be protected waters
What is the maximum number of passengers a "T-Boat" may carry? is the number authorized by your credential depends on the number of lifejackets you carry is stated on the vessel's Certificate of Inspection is the number authorized in the Navigation Rules
The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by applying the __________. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of deck space available for passenger use Any or a combination of the above criteria "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger to rest his/her buttocks upon "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's sides and transom for each passenger
No "T-boat", however propelled, may operate with more than six passengers onboard __________. until a permit is obtained from the Collector of Customs unless the operator has a Coast Guard Credential unless the vessel has a valid Permit to Proceed until the Boarding Officer has checked the papers
A damaged "T-Boat" that is unable to meet the requirements of its Certificate of Inspection but is able to travel to a shipyard under its own power should __________. request an Expiration Certificate if the vessel displays a tendency to sink hire a tug and pilot instead get underway as soon as possible make the trip only after obtaining a "Permit to Proceed to Another Port for Repair", Form CG-948
On vessels subject to 46 CFR Subchapter T, Certification Expiration Date Stickers __________. must be readily visible to each passenger prior to boarding and to patrolling Coast Guard law enforcement personnel are issued along with a valid Certificate of Inspection (COI) to indicate the date the COI expires must be placed on glass or other smooth surfaces where they may be removed without damage to the vessel All of the above.
Whenever a "T-Boat" is hauled out for repairs or alterations affecting its safety you must __________. schedule a full safety equipment inspection notify the cognizant OCMI provide a complete set of plans to the Commandant for review Both B and C
A SOLAS passenger ship safety certificate is required on all __________. T-Boats that carry more than 12 passengers on an international voyage T-Boats carrying more than 49 passengers for hire T-Boats carrying more than 150 passengers for hire large excursion vessels on lakes, bays, sounds, and river routes
You must make a written application to obtain or renew your "T" boat's Certificate of Inspection __________. on form CG-3752 every time your boat is hauled out at the shipyard where you are hauled out on form CG-835
When a vessel is not in compliance with its Certificate of Inspection, which certificate may be issued to allow its movement to a repair facility? (small passenger vessel regulations) Change of Employment Permit to Proceed Application for Inspection Temporary Certificate of Inspection
Whenever an inspected vessel is dry-docked for major repairs, the person in charge of the vessel, the owner or the agent should report this to the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection American Boat and Yacht Council, Inc. National Cargo Bureau, Inc. All of the above.
Whenever practicable, the Certificate of Inspection must be posted __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) in any location desired as high as feasible in the pilot house in a conspicuous place where it will most likely be observed by the passengers near the area where passengers embark
The Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) posted on the dock where passengers are embarked retained at the owner's principal place of business posted on board under glass, if practical kept on file by the Collector of Customs
A vessels Certificate of Inspection will show the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) minimum fire fighting and lifesaving equipment route permitted crew requirements All of the above.
How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel regulations) As many as possible Use your own judgment The amount on the Certificate of Inspection No more than 40 passengers
A small passenger vessel engaging in international voyages must be dry docked at least once every __________. 6 months 12 months 36 months 60 months
A small passenger vessel, operating only on domestic routes, which is operated in salt water for more than three months in a year must undergo a dry dock and internal structural examination at least once every __________. 2 years 3 years 4 years 5 years
Each vessel shall be dry-docked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 2 years if operated in salt water for a total of more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3 months in any 12 month period since it was last hauled out 6 months in the 3 year period since it was last hauled out 12 months in the 5 year period since it was last hauled out whenever ownership or management changes
The inspection of small passenger vessels of 60 feet in length carrying more than twelve persons on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) once every 6 months once every year once every 2 years with a minimum of one reinspection during that period once every 3 years with a minimum of two reinspections during that period
A Certificate of Inspection for vessels of less than 100 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage will be issued for a period of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) four years three years two years one year
The inspection of a 50 ft. vessel of 65 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard once in every __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) four years with a minimum of three reinspections during the four year period year two years three years with a minimum of two reinspections during the three year period
As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer? Subchapter B Subchapter D Subchapter F Subchapter T
Before issuing an initial Certificate of Inspection, the construction arrangement and equipment of a vessel must be acceptable to the __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) American Bureau of Shipping Surveyor U.S. Customs Collector Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection U.S. Salvage Marine Surveyor
Which circumstance concerning an inspected passenger vessel would require knowledge and approval of the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection? (small passenger vessel regulations) The removal of a watertight bulkhead Renewal of a FCC Certificate for a radiotelephone A minor overhaul of the propulsion machinery All of the above.
Which type of fire extinguishers are permitted on inspected vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations) Foam Dry chemical Carbon dioxide All of the above.
A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel regulations) One percent Five percent Seven percent Ten percent
The premixed foam agent in fixed and semi portable fire extinguishing systems should be replaced __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) every 18 months every 12 months every 36 months only when used
The carbon dioxide cylinders of all fixed fire extinguishing systems shall be retested and remarked whenever a cylinder remains in place on a vessel for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 5 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder 7 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder 10 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder 12 years from the latest test date stamped on the cylinder
At each initial and subsequent inspection for certification, all carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard a vessel are __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) weighed discharged and recharged checked for pressure loss sent ashore to an approved service facility
Paint and oil lockers on small passenger vessels must be constructed of or lined with __________. steel or equivalent material fiberglass sheetrock, asbestos, or other material that retards the spread of fire marine plywood
On small passenger vessels bunks installed in overnight passenger accommodation spaces __________. must be immediately adjacent to an aisle leading to a means of escape must not be located more than 3 high, fitted with a suitable aid to access bunks more than 5' above deck with suitable aids to access bunks more than 5' above deck must be no less than 74" long and 24" wide with 24" of clear space above All of the above.
What is the minimum height of rails on passenger decks of ferryboats, excursion vessels, and vessels of a similar type? (small passenger vessel regulations) 18 inches (.5 m) high 24 inches (.6 m) high 39-1/2 inches (1 m) high 42 inches (1.1 m) high
How many escape routes must normally exist from all general areas accessible to the passengers or where the crew may be quartered or normally employed? (small passenger vessel regulations) Two Three Four Five
Fixed ballast, if used, may be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) discharged or moved at any time moved temporarily for examination or repair of the vessel, when done under the supervision of an inspector moved under the supervision of the owner, Master or shipyard moved under any condition except extreme emergency
A small passenger vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it __________. is more than 40 feet in length and operates on partially exposed waters operates on exposed waters carries more than 49 passengers All of the above.
A small passenger vessel operating on exposed or partially protected waters may not have a port light below the weather deck unless __________. it is made of thick transparent plastic it opens and has a solid, inside, hinged cover it is sealed shut its sill is at least 30 inches above the deepest load waterline
On small passenger vessels each inlet or discharge pipe penetrating the hull less than six inches above the deepest load waterline __________. must be fitted with a gate valve except for engine exhausts must have a means to prevent water from entering the vessel if the pipe fails must have a check valve to prevent water from entering must be sealed
On a small passenger vessel, if an inlet or discharge pipe is not accessible, its shut off valve __________. may be operable from any accessible location above the bulkhead deck must be operable from the weather deck must be labeled at its operating point to show its identity and direction of closing All of the above.
On small passenger vessels, which material must not be used in a valve or fitting for a hull penetration? Cast iron Cast bronze Stainless steel Plastic
All inlet and discharge fittings below the waterline shall have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) an efficient and accessible means of closing a wooden plug with a 36 inch lanyard a blank-off flange of similar material cast-iron shut-off valves
What is correct with respect to required watertight bulkheads on small passenger vessels less than 100 GT? Sluice valves are not permitted. Each bulkhead must be stepped at its midpoint. Penetrations are prohibited. All of the above.
Hatches on small passenger vessels operating on exposed waters and exposed to the weather __________. need not be watertight must be watertight must be open at all times None of the above
Where should life jackets be stowed? (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations) In locked watertight and fireproof containers on or above the main deck In the wheelhouse Throughout the accommodation spaces In the forepeak
Electric generators can be protected against overload __________. with a governor on the engine with switches with fuses or circuit breakers by using heavy wire
Painters fitted to life floats and buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 49 or less persons must __________. be at least 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of 3,000 lbs. be of manila rope or equivalent, not less than two inches in circumference and not less than four fathoms long be 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of at least 1500 lbs. be made of 90 feet of 3/8" nylon
You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is __________. inaccessible to passengers readily accessible for use on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times locked up
On small passenger vessels painters fitted to life floats shall be at least __________. 20.0 meters (65.5 feet) in length 30.5 meters (100 feet) in length 10 fathoms (60 feet) in length 90 feet (27.5 meters) in length
Small passenger vessels on rivers routes in cold water must be provided with life floats of an aggregate capacity to accommodate __________. 25% of the crew and 50% of all passengers allowed to be carried not less than 50% of all passengers on board at the time at least 50% of all persons on board or meet certain construction standards All persons on board (100% of all passengers and crew)
With certain exceptions a suitable rescue boat is required __________. on most "T-Boats" regardless of length only on "K-Boats" on most "T-Boats" more than 65 feet in length None of the above
On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving equipment is carried but not required __________. it must be destroyed in the presence of a marine inspector it must be removed from the vessel as excess equipment it may remain aboard the vessel as excess equipment regardless of its condition the equipment must be approved by the Commandant
Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB that __________. is protected against all physical hazards is in good operating condition and is stowed near its charger will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and automatically activate All of the above.
Which small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to carry a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB? A coastwise vessel whose route does not take it more than three miles from shore A vessel operating within three miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes A vessel operating on lakes, bays, sounds, and rivers All of the above.
Distress flares and smoke signals for small passenger vessels __________. must be Coast Guard approved and stowed in a portable, watertight container are not required aboard vessels on runs of less than 30 minutes duration must be marked with an expiration date not more than 42 months from the date of manufacture All of the above.
Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessels on oceans or coastwise routes are required to be what color? Orange Any highly visible color easily seen from the air White White or international orange
Small passenger vessels not limited to service during daylight hours must carry __________. a radar maintained in good operating condition a collision bulkhead at least one floating water light a white 20 point anchor light
What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations) They may be substituted for up to 50% of the required life jackets. They shall be stowed separately from required lifesaving equipment. They may be worn by crew members when working near or over the water. They shall be of an approved type.
Regulations require that approved buoyant work vests __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) may be substituted for 10% of the required life jackets shall be stowed separately from the required life jackets shall be stowed in a place inaccessible to passengers may not be carried on inspected vessels
Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests on a small passenger vessel? They need not be an approved type They may be worn during drills They must be stowed separately from approved life jackets They may be substituted for up to 10% of the required life jackets on board
When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 60 feet long 90 feet long 30 feet long 120 feet long
On vessels subject to the provisions of 46 CFR Subchapter T, life jackets shall be __________. kept locked up at all times when underway inaccessible to passengers on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times stored in convenient places throughout the accommodation spaces
Which of these approved lifesaving devices must a small passenger vessel carrying passengers for hire carry for each person on board? (small passenger vessel regulations) Buoyant vest Life jacket Ring buoy Buoyant cushion
A vessel carrying passengers for hire shall have on board an approved life jacket __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) for every passenger on board or buoyant cushion for every person on board plus 10% for children for every person on board, plus 10% additional on upper deck in box for every person on board, plus 10% childrens' life jackets
Unless the COI is endorsed for adults only, there shall be provided a number of approved life jackets suitable for children equal to at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 10% of the passengers carried 20% of the total number of persons carried 10% of the total number of persons carried 20% of the passengers carried
If your vessel is certificated to carry 10 persons, including both adults and children, how many life jackets are you required to carry on board? (small passenger vessel regulations) 10 adult and 5 child 10 adult and 1 child 10 adult 11 adult
Your vessel is certificated to carry 50 persons. You are required to have __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 50 adult life jackets and 2 child life jackets 50 adult life jackets and 5 child life jackets 40 adult life jackets and 10 child life jackets 50 adult life jackets
Aboard small passenger vessels the number of children's' life jackets carried must be at least what percentage of the total number of persons aboard? 4 (%) 7.5 (%) 10 (%) 15 (%)
The number of approved adult life jackets that shall be carried is equal to __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 90% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection 120% of the number of persons listed in the vessel's Certificate of Inspection 90% of the number of persons on board at the time the number of persons on board at the time
Distress flares and smoke signals are not required on vessels operating on short runs. A "short run" is limited to __________. (small passenger vessel regulation) where land is always in sight water of less than 20 feet in depth about 30 minutes away from the dock no more than 5 miles
For emergency communications, vessels operating on oceans, coastwise, or Great Lakes routes, on runs of more than 30 minutes shall carry in a portable watertight container at or near the operating station __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) one 3-cell flashlight six orange hand smoke distress signals six red hand flare distress signals six red hand flare distress signals and six orange hand smoke distress signals
All small passenger vessels operating on lakes, bays, sounds, or river routes on runs of more than 30 minutes are required to carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 8 red hand flare distress signals and 8 orange smoke hand distress signals 3 red hand flare distress signals and 3 orange smoke hand distress signals 6 red hand flare distress signals and 6 orange smoke hand distress signals None of the above
All vessels not limited to daylight service shall be fitted with a ring life buoy __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) with a water light to be attached during nighttime operation on the stern of the vessel with a twenty fathom line attached with no line attached
A 50-foot passenger vessel not limited to daylight operation is required to be equipped with at least __________. 1 ring life buoy with a water light 2 ring life buoys with a water light 2 ring life buoys with 2 water lights 3 ring life buoys with 2 water lights
Painters on life floats shall be not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 20 feet in length 30 feet in length 70 feet in length 100 feet in length
What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations) Water-light, painter, and signal mirror Water-light and painter only Two paddles, painter, and six red flares Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline and pendants
Which equipment is not required for a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations) Paddles Painter Compass Light
Each life float on an inspected vessel shall be fitted and equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) two paddles, a light, a lifeline, a painter and pendants a lifeline, a painter, and a water light a lifeline, a painter, and one paddle two paddles, a light, and a lifeline
Life floats must be equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) paddles a sea anchor an EPIRB a signal mirror
Life floats and buoyant apparatus shall be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) with the vessel's name with the vessel's name on all paddles the number of persons capacity the device is equipped for All of the above.
On a life float or buoyant apparatus, the life line is __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) woven into a net and secured in the center of the float secured around the sides and ends in bights of not longer than three feet the lanyard for securing provisions used for securing unconscious persons to the sides
Buoyant apparatus are required to be fitted or equipped with all of the following equipment EXCEPT __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) life lines water lights paddles painters
Life floats and buoyant apparatus may be stowed in tiers, one above the other, to a height of not more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 3 feet 4 feet 5 feet 6 feet
Survival craft required on a steel small passenger vessel operating in cold water must __________. have sufficient capacity for at least 50% of all persons on board for vessels in ocean service international orange in color only for vessels in lakes, bays and sounds service be only inflatable liferafts have sufficient capacity for all persons on board the vessel in ocean service.
A wooden small passenger vessel operating on a coastwise route in cold water shall carry sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for _____________ or meet alternate requirements regarding collision bulkhead standards and the provision of life floats. (small passenger vessel regulations) all persons aboard 67% of the total number of persons permitted on board. 50% of all persons aboard 30% of all persons aboard
Vessels in ocean service shall carry sufficient life floats for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 25% of all persons on board 50% of all persons on board 75% of all persons on board 100% of all persons on board
Vessels in ocean service shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) life floats for 50% of all persons on board buoyant apparatus for all persons on board life jackets for 50% of all persons on board sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for all persons on board
Vessels operating in warm water whose routes are restricted to 20 miles from a harbor of safe refuge shall carry life floats or buoyant apparatus for not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 100% of all persons on board 25% of all persons on board 50% of all persons on board 75% of all persons on board
Small wooden hull passenger vessels, whose routes are limited to coastwise warm water routes on the high seas, must carry approved life floats or buoyant apparatus __________. for not less than 100% of all persons permitted on board for not less than 67% of all persons permitted on board in place of ring life buoys for all persons on board
Small passenger vessels in cold water ocean routes, that do not meet the standards for collision bulkheads or subdivision in subchapter S, must carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) at least two EPIRBs at least one hand fire pump 100% inflatable buoyant apparatus All of the above.
Small passenger vessels in coastwise service must carry approved __________. inflatable buoyant apparatus life floats inflatable liferafts Any of the above.
What is the minimum length of a life floats paddle on a small passenger vessel? Six feet Five feet Three feet Four feet
The lifesaving equipment on all vessels shall be __________. readily accessible stowed in locked compartments tested yearly inspected weekly
U.S.C.G. approved buoyant work vests are considered to be items of safety equipment and may be worn by members of the crew __________. when carrying out duties near a weather deck's edge in lieu of life preservers during an actual emergency in lieu of life preservers during fire drills in lieu of life preservers during boat drills
The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________. inspected weekly readily available worn at all times tested yearly
Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be continued in use on the vessel if __________. maintained in good and serviceable condition kept on board no more than 2 years destroyed if more than 5 years old inspected and serviced every 6 months
The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________. inspected weekly readily available worn at all times tested yearly
When a lifeline is required to be attached to a ring life buoy it must be at least __________. 30 feet long 60 feet long 90 feet long 120 feet long
Your vessel must have a B-II fire extinguisher. Which extinguisher fulfills this requirement? (small passenger vessel regulations) 4 lb. carbon dioxide 4 lb. dry chemical 15 lb. carbon dioxide 12 gallon foam
What would be an example of a B-I extinguisher? (small passenger vessel regulations) 2.5 gallon foam 2 pound dry chemical 10 pound carbon dioxide 5 pound foam
On a small passenger vessel, 58 feet in length, carrying 52 passengers the fire pump shall have a minimum pumping capacity of __________. 10 gallons per minute 100 gallons per minute 50 gallons per minute 100 gallons per minute
All vessels not required to have a power driven fire pump shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) an emergency hand fire and bilge pump at least three 2-1/2 gallon fire buckets a suitable, detachable pump usable for fire fighting purposes not less than three hand fire pumps
Which statement is TRUE concerning fire hose on a small passenger vessel? All fittings on hoses shall be of steel or other ferrous metal. A length of hose with nozzle attached shall be attached to each fire hydrant at all times. Fire hose shall be at least 3/4" outside diameter. One length of fire hose shall be provided for every two fire hydrants.
Which portable fire extinguisher is required just outside the exit of the propulsion machinery space of a 75-ton passenger vessel? 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher 2-1/2 gallon foam extinguisher 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher None of the above
On vessels that are required to have fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems, the controls to operate the system shall be installed in an accessible location __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) at the carbon dioxide cylinders in a padlocked waterproof metal box inside the space protected outside the space protected
How many portable fire extinguishers are required to be located inside the machinery space of a small passenger vessel? None are required One B-I, C-I One B-II, C-II One B-II
Fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems shall be installed to protect enclosed machinery and fuel tank spaces of all vessels using gasoline or other fuel having a flash point of __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 0°F or lower 75°F or lower 90°F or lower 110°F or lower
If your vessel is required to have a fire ax on board, where should it be located? (small passenger vessel regulations) In below-decks passenger accommodations In or adjacent to the primary operating station In the galley near the stove Just outside the engine room access
Which statement is TRUE concerning the number of portable fire extinguishers required at the operating station of a small passenger vessel? (small passenger vessel regulations) None are required. One B-II extinguisher is required. One B-I extinguisher is required. Two B-I extinguishers are required.
According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic and other nonmetallic piping materials __________. are preferable to steel pipe may not be used on inspected vessels may only be used in non-vital systems may replace metal pipe or tubing in any installation
On small passenger vessels which parts of a water-cooled gasoline or diesel engine must be water-jacketed and cooled? The exhaust manifold The engine's head The block All of the above.
On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines? Shut-off valves Drain valves Fuel gauges Clean out plates
Which is/are required for engine exhaust pipe installations on small passenger vessels? Piping must be arranged so that water backflow cannot reach the engine exhaust ports Protection where people or equipment can contact the pipe. Dry exhaust pipe ending at the transom should be located as far outboard as possible All of the above.
Gasoline fuel tank vents should terminate __________. in the fuel tank space in the engine compartment above or outside the hull at the most convenient location
Which statement is TRUE concerning a power driven fire pump on board a small passenger vessel? It shall be painted red. The hand fire pump shall be located adjacent to the main engine spaces. It may also serve as a bilge pump. It shall be of at least 2 gallons per minute capacity.
On board small passenger vessels the minimum fill pipe size for a gasoline or diesel tank is __________. Large enough so it does not cause backpressure and fuel spillage Not specified by the Regulations 1 1/2 inches nominal pipe size 2 1/2 inches nominal pipe size
Which type of ventilation is required for enclosed spaces containing gasoline, machinery, or fuel tanks? (small passenger vessel regulations) Mechanical supply and mechanical exhaust Natural supply and mechanical exhaust Natural supply and natural exhaust Mechanical supply and natural exhaust
On small passenger vessels a gasoline tank vent pipe must __________. terminate in a U-bend as high above the weather deck as practicable have a cross sectional area not less than that of 19 millimeters OD tubing. be connected to the tank at its highest point All of the above.
For pumping the bilges, a 54 foot long "T-Boat", which is not a ferry, but is certificated to carry 30 passengers, must be fitted with at least __________. one fixed power pump and one portable hand pump one fixed hand pump and one portable hand pump two portable hand pumps either "A" or "B"
What material is allowed in construction of the hull of a vessel with an integral diesel fuel tank? Steel or aluminum Sandwich style fiberglass with a natural rubber core Copper-nickel or copper silicon alloys Any or all of the above.
If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be fitted with __________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations) An extra five gallon tank for reserve fuel A good air vent of sufficient diameter a separate sounding tube or an installed marine type fuel gauge A glass tube to visually observe the fuel
When a vessel is required to have a power-driven fire pump, the pump may also be used for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) the drinking water supply system engine cooling water the bilge pump None of the above
46 CFR Subchapter T requires that rigid plastic or other nonmetallic piping __________. not be used in gasoline or diesel fuel systems have approved metallic fittings and cutoff valves where it penetrates a watertight deck or bulkhead only be used in non-vital systems All of the above.
When water-cooled engines are installed on small passenger vessels, the cooling system __________. may use a closed fresh water system must have a suitable hull strainer in the raw water intake pump must operate whenever the engine is operating All of the above.
A gasoline fuel tank vent on a small passenger vessel should terminate __________. Midway between the fuel tank and the engine Below the waterline to eliminate the accumulation of explosive vapors As close to the deck plates as possible On the hull exterior as high above the waterline as practicable and remote from any hull opening
On small passenger vessels, which device(s) must be fitted to a fuel line's tank connection? A fuel strainer A tubular glass gauge to indicate the fuel level A shut-off valve All of the above.
Aboard a 60 foot long small passenger vessel (other than a ferry) which is certificated to carry 33 persons, the minimum capacity required per bilge pump is __________. 10 gallons per minute 19 gallons per minute 38 gallons per minute 50 gallons per minute
Why is it necessary to extend ventilators of gasoline powered vessels to the bilges? To remove fuel vapors which are heavier than air To cool the machinery areas To provide adequate air to the engines To keep them dry, and thus easier to clean
On board small passenger vessels, fill lines and sounding pipes of gasoline tanks must extend directly __________. to within one-half of their diameter from the bottom of the tank Midway between the top and bottom of the tank To within one-half foot from the bottom of the tank To the tank top
In addition to a portable hand-operated bilge pump, a 55 foot long ferry must have a fixed power operated bilge pump capable of pumping at least __________. 5 GPM 10 GPM 25 GPM 50 GPM
On small passenger vessels, shut-off valves must be installed on both gasoline and diesel fuel supply lines __________. at the tank and the engine end of the fuel line only at the engine end of the fuel line outside the engine room on the fill and vent lines only at the tank end of the fuel line
Your vessel has a gasoline engine and a mechanical exhaust ventilation system. BEFORE starting the engine, the exhaust blower should be run long enough to __________. warm up the exhaust blower motor insure at least one complete change of air in the compartments concerned see the system is in good operating condition provide a proper supply of fresh air for the engine(s)
A fill pipe for a gasoline tank on board a small passenger vessel must be __________. terminated on the weather deck and extend to within one-half of its diameter from the bottom of the tank arranged so neither liquid gasoline nor its vapors can overflow or escape inside the vessel fitted with a suitably marked watertight deck plate or screw cap All of the above.
On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents should __________. terminate in a U-bend fitted with a single corrosion resistant wire screen of at least 30x30 mesh be installed with an upward gradient to prevent fuel from being trapped in the line be connected at the highest point in the tank All of the above.
A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a(n) __________. pressure release automatic shut off flow valve backfire flame arrestor
Which device is required in the fuel supply line at the engine? Filter Shut-off valve Flow meter Pressure gauge
The shut off valve at the gasoline tank which can be operated from outside the tank space __________. shuts off the gasoline supply at the tank controls the amount of gasoline to the engine is used if the gasoline tank leaks All of the above.
Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are __________. those with large engines only all those with gasoline engines those with diesel engines None of the above
Which device is required to be installed under the carburetor of a gasoline engine? Vent Flame arrestor ONLY Drip collector Box of sawdust
Backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________. distributors spark plugs fuel tanks carburetors
Gasoline fuel tanks on small passenger vessels must be installed __________. in a cool and insulated place independent of the hull so the fuel line to the engine leads from a shut-off valve at the bottom of the tank on a level higher than the engine
On small passenger vessels gasoline tanks must be __________. electrically bonded to a common ground fitted with vertical baffle plates if the tank is longer than 30 inches in any horizontal dimension built without flanged-up top edges All of the above.
On small passenger vessels a gasoline engine must be fitted with __________. A means of backfire flame control Jacket water discharge temperature gauges A lubricating oil pressure gauge and a tachometer All of the above.
On small passenger vessels what device must you install under carburetors, other than the downdraft type, to allow ready removal of fuel leakage? A drip collector A sponge Suitable absorbent material A funnel and a tin can
According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, where practicable carburetor drip collectors should drain to __________. a separate pipe leading to the bilges a suitable absorbent material the engine air intakes the fuel tanks
On small passenger vessels which type of internal combustion engine carburetor does not require a drip collector? Updraft Four barrel Two barrel Downdraft
ABYC equipment standards are published by the __________. Association of Boat and Yacht Classifiers American Boat and Yacht Council American Boat and Yacht Convention 1991 American Boat and Yacht Club
On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline powered machinery must be __________. intrinsically safe ignition protected for use in a gasoline atmosphere explosion-proof All of the above.
On small passenger vessels, cooling water for the exhaust lines from an internal combustion engine must be __________. flushed and changed periodically obtained from the engine's cooling water system or from a separate engine-driven pump obtained from a fresh water storage tank or an expansion tank chemically treated to prevent corrosion
Gasoline tank vent lines on board small passenger vessels must be fitted with removable flame screens __________. consisting of a single screen of at least 30 X 30 mesh, corrosion resistant wire three inches in circumference inside the fill pipe three inches in diameter with a check valve to prevent water from entering in heavy weather and 30 square inches of louvers
On small passenger vessels, fuel lines may be made of __________. plastic, rubber, or seamless steel tubing annealed tubing of copper, nickel-copper, or copper nickel stainless steel, iron, or brass copper, plastic, stainless steel, or galvanized iron
Aboard small passenger vessels, which material may be used for diesel fuel line installations but not for gasoline fuel lines? Copper-nickel tubing Seamless steel pipe or tubing Annealed copper tubing Nickel-copper tubing
On board small passenger vessels, fittings used in a gasoline supply line must be __________. an interlocking type an asbestos covered type made of non-ferrous metal, and be a flare or non-bite flareless type a silver-soldered type
On small passenger vessels, when may a flexible hose be used in gasoline or diesel fuel lines? In diesel installations only In gasoline installations only In both diesel and gasoline installations In neither diesel nor gasoline installations
On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers __________. must be extended to an external area of the hull must be located at the lowest portion of the tank must have only a gravity-forced flow are permitted
On small passenger vessels, outlets in fuel lines are permitted __________. for inspection purposes only to bleed fuel lines to tap fuel for cleaning parts and engine wash down under no circumstances in gasoline installations
On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks? 4 of each 3 of each 2 of each 1 of each
Spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks on small passenger vessels should have ventilator ducts that extend to the bilges because __________. Gasoline vapors are heavier than air, tend to settle in the bilges, and create an explosion hazard oil and water mix there air is heavier than gas fumes it prevents air from entering or leaving the space
Aboard small passenger vessels which type(s) of ventilation must be provided for enclosed spaces containing gasoline engines or gasoline fuel tanks? Mechanical supply and natural exhaust At least one opening to the exterior of the hull Natural supply and mechanical exhaust All of the above.
On small passenger vessels, how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks? 1 of each 2 of each 3 of each 4 of each
On small passenger vessels, all spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks must be ventilated with __________. mechanical air supply fans and natural exhaust natural air supply and mechanical exhaust fans cowls and scoops which can be closed during foul weather air conditioning to control moisture
According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, how long should exhaust blowers be operated in enclosed spaces containing gasoline powered machinery before starting the engine? Long enough to achieve a minimum of two complete air changes For at least four to five minutes Long enough to achieve at least one complete change of air No fixed amount, but the blower should run until you don't smell any gas
On board small passenger vessels, ducts for compartments which contain gasoline powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks __________. must not allow any appreciable vapor flow except through their normal openings must lead as directly as possible and be properly fastened and supported must be of rigid, permanent construction All of the above.
What is the minimum diameter allowed for bilge piping on small passenger vessels which are more than 65 feet in length? 1" 1-1/2" 2" 2-1/2"
Hand tillers are only accepted as an auxiliary means of steering if __________. they are found satisfactory by the cognizant OCMI they are not operated through a reduction gear they are at least 6 feet long Both A and C above
Most small passenger vessels have an auxiliary steering arrangement. According to the regulations, which is acceptable as a substitute for the auxiliary steering system? A suitable hand tiller, approved by the OCMI A spare rudder, stowed so it can be readily mounted A threefold purchase, rove to advantage All of the above.
On a small passenger vessel, backfire flame arrestors are installed on a/an __________. oil fired turbine or reciprocating steam engine natural gas (propane) engine gasoline powered engine turbocharged diesel engine
On small passenger vessels, backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________. turbocharged diesel engines gasoline engines all electric motors both A and C
The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________. prevent overloading the circuits reduce voltage to the branch circuits permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits allow for cutting out branch circuits
If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically-activated emergency lighting system, the vessel must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) equipped with luminous tape markings on emergency equipment operated only in daylight hours provided with gasoline or kerosene lights equipped with individual battery-powered lights
On small passenger vessels all connections to electrical conductors MUST be __________. installed only by a licensed marine electrician served and parceled with the lay, turned and wormed the other way made within enclosures inspected annually by the Coast Guard
In general, batteries aboard small passenger vessels should be __________. as high above the bilge as practicable accessible for maintenance and removal stowed in well-ventilated spaces to allow dissipation of any gases generated All of the above.
Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because __________. less water would be used ventilation supplies extra oxygen for the battery ventilation avoids CO2 buildup ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation
Storage batteries on "T-Boats" must be located __________. in sight of the main engine(s) near the bilge to lower the center of gravity and improve stability in locked closets with restricted ventilation in a tray lined with suitable material that resists damage from the electrolyte
Electrical wiring on all "T-Boats" must be __________. in an accessible place behind the ceiling concealed so the boat can be maintained more easily protected from the weather concealed to prevent mechanical damage
Individual wires, used in systems greater than 50 volts, __________. should be supported at 24 inch intervals with plastic tie wraps must be installed in conduit should never be located in a tank All of the above.
According to the T-Boat regulations the reason for providing adequate ventilation for a battery storage area is to prevent __________. accumulation of carbon dioxide gas that chokes the battery battery failure including battery case meltdown caused by excessive heat mildew or dry rot in the battery box accumulation of explosive and toxic gases the battery can generate
On small passenger, vessels spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because it __________. helps dissipate flammable gas accumulations adds as much as 2 volts to battery performance supplies extra nitrogen for the battery allows less soda water to be used in the diodes
Lead-acid batteries used aboard "T-Boats" must have terminal connections that are __________. located so as to be easily greased the spring slip style a permanent type temporarily clamped on the top of the battery
To prevent damage by and to storage batteries aboard small passenger vessels they should be located __________. so as to prevent movement when the vessel pitches and rolls in trays constructed of material that is resistant to the electrolyte in a well ventilated area All of the above.
On board small passenger vessels, storage batteries containing an electrolyte must be set in trays constructed of __________. a fireproof material suitably strong to hold the weight of the batteries a porous material that permits drainage of any acid overflow a material resistant to damage by the electrolyte
According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to __________. reduce voltage to the branch circuits permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits prevent overloading the circuits allow for cutting out branch circuits
According to the regulations for small passenger vessels, fuses and circuit breakers are used in electrical circuits to __________. keep the circuit from becoming overloaded or overheated prevent voltage fluctuations make the operator inspect his wiring periodically after the fuses blow keep equipment from shutting off unexpectedly
For what purpose may gasoline be used on small passenger vessels? Cooking Lighting Heating None of the above
Which T-Boat must be fitted with a suitable compass? The regulations do not require a compass on any vessel A vessel operating on a short, restricted route on lakes, bays, and sounds A vessel in river service A vessel engaged in ocean or coastwise service
As appropriate for the voyage, all vessels must carry adequate and up-to-date __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) Light Lists charts Coast Pilots All of the above.
Which vessel must carry a compass on board? (small passenger vessel regulations) A vessel operating in protected waters with a short restricted route A vessel operating on the Gulf of Mexico A non-self-propelled vessel A vessel operating on the Ohio River
Which fuel cannot be used for cooking on vessels carrying passengers for hire? (small passenger vessel regulations) Kerosene Coal Gasoline Wood
On small passenger vessels cooking and heating equipment __________. cannot use gasoline may use liquefied petroleum gas shall be suitable for marine use All of the above.
A "T-Boat" accident resulting in loss of life, serious injury or more than $25,000 property damage must be reported to __________. the owner or his insurance agent the Coast Guard the Maritime Administration (MARAD) All of the above.
According to small passenger vessel regulations, while serving as Master on board your vessel, what should be done with your credential? displayed in the company office on shore displayed in your home kept in the Coast Guard office where you sat for your license in your possession on board the vessel
When an autopilot is being used aboard small passenger vessels, who must make or supervise the changeover from automatic to manual steering and vice versa? The Master or Mate on watch A qualified Engineer A credentialed state or federal pilot A certified quartermaster
Who shall test every small passenger vessel's steering gear prior to getting underway for the day's operations? the Master a credential Engineer the Mate on watch a Mate or Designated Duty Engineer
The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a small passenger vessel involved in a marine casualty is NOT required to notify the Coast Guard in cases where there is __________. death or injury to a shipyard worker or harbor worker not resulting from the vessel casualty no injury which requires more than first aid treatment property damage less than $25,000 All of the above.
The Master of a small passenger vessel fitted with loading doors must ensure that the doors are closed, watertight and secured __________. at all times when underway unless operating on protected or partially protected waters at all times, at the dock or underway when the loading door is not actually being used for passage when loading cargo when leaving the dock
On small passenger vessels, when must watchmen patrol throughout the vessel to guard against and give alarm in case of fire or other danger? When the rest of the crew is asleep At all times outside normal work hours At all times when the vessel is underway During the nighttime when the vessel carries overnight passengers
The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills and give sufficient instruction as necessary __________. Every week To ensure that all crew members are familiar with their duties during emergencies At each crew change Every month
Where must the draft marks be placed on a small passenger vessel? On each side, amidships Near the stern post or rudder post At each end of the vessel On each side of the stem
Life floats and buoyant apparatus used aboard small passenger vessels shall be marked in clearly legible letters and numbers __________. with the parent vessels name and the number of persons allowed by a Coast Guard inspector after inspecting the equipment by the American Bureau of Shipping (ABS), another recognized, authorized classification society or the vessels underwriters by all of the above
A documented vessel's name is marked on a clearly visible exterior area of both sides of the bow and on the stern in block letters not less than __________. 6 inches in height 5 inches in height 4 inches in height 3 inches in height
On a documented small passenger vessel, what information must be permanently affixed in block-type letters and/or numerals to the main beam or other clearly visible interior structural part of the hull? The vessel's name and home port The vessel's official number Draft markings The vessel's name and gross tonnage
A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be marked___________. in block type Arabic numerals not less than 3 inches high or mounted so that any alteration, removal, or replacement would be obvious on some clearly visible interior structural hull part All of the above.
A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be marked___________. in block type Arabic numerals not less than 1-1/2 inch high or mounted so its alteration, removal, or replacement would be obvious on some clearly visible exterior structural hull part All of the above.
According to the "T-Boat" regulations, the permanent marks placed on each side of a vessel forward, aft, and amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and trim are called __________. the air draft Plimsoll marks loading marks depth marks
All life jackets carried on board small passenger vessels are required to be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) with the vessel's name with the vessel's official number with the maximum weight to be held by the life preserver with the maximum serviceable life of the life preserver
All life jackets and life buoys shall be marked with the vessel's name in letters at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) 1-1/2 inches high 1/2 inch high Height not specified 1 inch high
The Master of a vessel shall make sure the EPIRB is tested __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) daily weekly every two weeks monthly
Certain equipment aboard vessels, inspected under the small passenger vessel regulations, is required to be marked with the vessel's name. This includes __________. (small passenger vessel regulations) life jackets, life floats and paddles bunks, silverware, china, and glassware anchors, line, paint cans, and fuel drums whistles, searchlights, navigation lights, and ship's bell
What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the Master and crew? Instructions on artificial respiration A tide table for the area The location of the first aid kit Emergency Instructions
Who is required to prepare and post Emergency Instructions in a conspicuous place accessible to crew and passengers? (small passenger vessel regulations) The owner or Master of the vessel The builder of the vessel The U.S. Coast Guard The classification society
On board small passenger vessels, how often shall the Master test the steering gear? Once a month Every 72 operating hours while underway Once a week Before getting underway for the day's operations
Aboard small passenger vessels the steering gear, signaling whistle, controls, and communication system shall be tested by the Master __________. at every inspection and reinspection at least once in every 48 hours once a week before getting underway for the day's operation
Which information are you required to report to the Coast Guard when an accident occurs in which loss of life results? (small passenger vessel regulations) Number and name of vessel Names of owners Location of the occurrence All of the above.
When would it NOT be necessary to immediately notify the U.S. Coast Guard? (small passenger vessel regulations) Major damage affecting the seaworthiness of a vessel Damage amounting to $2,000 Injury to a person which requires medical treatment beyond first aid Loss of life
How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of an uninspected towing vessel with 1,400 B.H.P.? 2 3 4 5
How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of an uninspected motor vessel with 1,400 BHP? 2 3 4 5
How many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of a 260 GT uninspected tow vessel with 2400 B.H.P.? 5 2 6 3
In the machinery space of all uninspected motor vessels, there must be one type B-II hand portable fire extinguisher for which of the following? 500 S.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof 1000 S.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof 500 B.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof 1000 B.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof
All uninspected motor vessels constructed after 25 April 1940, which use fuel with a flash point of 110°F (43°C) or less, shall have at least what number of ventilator ducts for the removal of explosive or flammable gases from every engine and fuel tank compartment? 1 2 3 4
According to uninspected vessel regulations which is a B-II fire extinguisher? A 2-1/2 gallon water (stored pressure) extinguisher A 15 lb. CO2 extinguisher A 2 lb. dry chemical extinguisher A 1-1/4 gallon foam extinguisher
In the uninspected vessel regulations what does the "B" on a "B-II" fire extinguisher refer to? Class of fire that the extinguisher should be used on Size of the nozzle Size of the applicator Size of the extinguisher
Uninspected vessels must have one approved ring life buoy on board if the length is over how many feet? 26 feet 16 feet 6 feet 36 feet
By regulation, life preservers aboard an uninspected towing vessel must be which of the following? stowed with the emergency provisions securely stowed stored in sealed containers readily accessible
On an uninspected vessel which sizes of fire extinguishers are considered to be semi-portable? I, II, III, IV, and V I, II, and III only II, III, and IV only III, IV, and V only
According to uninspected vessel regulations what is NOT listed on the metallic name plate required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers? An identifying mark of the actual manufacturer The rated capacity in gallons, quarts, or pounds The hydrostatic test date of the cylinder The name of the item
According to uninspected vessel regulations, what is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot motorboat having a fixed fire system on board? 1 B-I 2 B-I 3 B-I 4 B-I
What is the number of fire extinguishers required on an uninspected "motor vessel" based on? vessel draft number of crew members vessel gross tonnage vessel length
A 98 GT uninspected towing vessel with a 1500 B.H.P. engine capability would be required to carry how many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers on board? 2 4 6 8
What is the minimum number of B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required on board a 105 GT uninspected towboat with a 7500 B.H.P. plant (including the machinery space)? 6 8 9 11
Which type of fixed fire-extinguishing system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels? Carbon dioxide Steam smothering Chemical foam All of the above.
What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot uninspected towing vessel having a fixed fire system on board? 1 B-I 2 B-I 3 B-I 4 B-I
What is the minimum number of Type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required to be aboard a 3,000 BHP, 99 GT uninspected harbor tug? 2 3 5 6
An uninspected 6,000 BHP, 199 GT tug operating on the Great Lakes is required to carry how many B-II extinguishers? 2 3 6 9
What is the minimum number of portable B-II fire extinguishers required in the machinery space of a 199 GT uninspected motor towing vessel of 8000 B.H.P.? 3 6 8 9
Which statement is TRUE concerning the ventilation of engine and fuel tank compartments on uninspected towing vessels using fuel with a flash point of 100°F? Only vessels using fuel with a flash point above 110°F need ventilate engine and fuel compartments. There shall be at least 3 ventilator ducts open to the atmosphere. At least one exhaust duct shall extend from the open atmosphere to the lower portion of the bilge. At least one intake duct shall extend from the open atmosphere to the lower portion of the bilge.
The remote control for a fixed fire extinguishing system, on an uninspected vessel, should be which of the following? painted red and labeled padlocked protected by plexiglas concealed from the crew
On uninspected vessels where shall controls for a fixed carbon dioxide system be mounted? on the main deck near the bow directly outside the space protected by the system in the pilothouse as near the gas cylinders as possible
What does the minimum amount of lifesaving equipment required aboard an 85-foot uninspected towing vessel consists of? one approved flotation cushion for each person on board one approved inflatable vest for each person on board one approved life preserver for each person on board and one lifebuoy lifeboat capacity equal to 1 1/2 times the number of persons on board
An 85 foot uninspected towing vessel with a crew of ten (10) persons on board must carry which of the following? at least ten approved life jackets and one approved ring life buoy at least ten approved ring life buoys and ten approved life preservers at least ten approved work vests at least eleven approved life preservers
Which personal lifesaving device(s) is(are) approved for use on an uninspected towboat 150 feet in length? Life preserver Special purpose safety device Buoyant vest or cushion All of the above.
On uninspected vessels when may U. S. Coast Guard approved work vests may be substituted life jackets? under no circumstances aboard work vessels aboard towing vessels aboard sailing vessels
On uninspected vessels which statement is TRUE concerning work vests? They may be substituted for up to 10% of the required lifesaving gear aboard. They must be stowed separately from approved life preservers. They need not be of an approved type. They may be worn during drills.
Which uninspected vessel is required to carry an efficient daylight signaling lamp? 99 GT towing vessel on Inland Waters 299 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage 199 GT towing vessel on an international voyage 199 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage
Who may certify a towing vessel's fire detection system to comply with the Coast Guard's fire protection regulations? a registered professional engineer the owner or Master of the vessel a licensed electrician a Coast Guard inspector
Which type of fixed fire protection system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels? Dry chemical Chemical foam Steam smothering Water mist
You are the operator of a 295 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Which type of fire extinguishing system is required on your vessel, if its construction was contracted for before August 27, 2003? Fixed CO2, AND another fixed fire-extinguishing system Type B-V semi-portable OR a fixed fire-extinguishing system Type B-IV semi-portable OR a fixed fire-extinguishing system Type B-III semi-portable AND a fixed fire-extinguishing system
You are the operator of a 296 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Its construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. In addition to the hand portable fire extinguishers, how much other fire extinguishing equipment are you required to have on board? Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and a fixed fire-extinguishing system Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and an approved water mist fire protection system An approved water mist fire protection system and a fixed CO2 fire-extinguishing system Either an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system
Either one approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system is required to protect the engine room on uninspected towing vessels whose construction was contracted for before what date? April 29, 2004
August 27, 2003
April 29, 2005
February 1, 2002
Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system and a fixed fire-extinguishing system are required to protect the engine room on uninspected towing vessels whose construction was contracted for on or after what date? April 29, 2004
April 29, 2005
August 27, 2003
February 1, 2002
You are the operator of a 290 GRT uninspected towing vessel whose construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. Which type of semi-portable fire-extinguishing system is required on your vessel? B-III B-IV B-V None of the above
Uninspected towing vessel fire protection regulations apply to which of the following vessels? operating on the Western Rivers operating for assistance towing operating in restricted service such as making up or breaking up larger tows operating for pollution response
Fire protection regulations apply to those towing vessels __________. used only for pollution response used only within a barge fleeting area owned and operated by the US government used only on inland waters
Towing vessel fire protection regulations distinguish between "new" and "existing" towing vessels. A "new" towing vessel is one that was __________. not previously owned built within the last three years contracted for on or after August 27, 2002 contracted for on or after August 27, 2003
When a standard in the fire protection regulations for towing vessels is "incorporated by reference," it means that the __________. standard, and where it can be obtained or referred to, are listed in the Code of Federal Regulations Coast Guard accepts a commercial or military standard as part of a specific regulation standard is readily available to the public All of the above.
Towing vessel fire protection regulations define a "fixed fire-extinguishing system" to include all of the following EXCEPT a __________. manually-operated clean-agent system manually-operated water-mist system halon system carbon-dioxide system
The regulations for a general alarm system on a towing vessel require all of the following EXCEPT that it __________. have a contact maker at the operating station be used instead of the public address system be capable of notifying persons in any accommodation, work space and the engine room have a flashing red light in areas that have high background noise
The control panel of a fire detection system must have all of the following EXCEPT __________. a power-available light a way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions an audible alarm to notify the crew and identify the origin of the fire a means to silence audible alarms while maintaining visible alarm lights
In the towing vessel fire protection regulations, all of the following are fire detection requirements, EXCEPT that __________. there must be a circuit-fault detector test-switch in the control panel the detection system must be powered from two sources, with the switchover being either manual or automatic the control panel must have labels for all switches and indicator lights none of the above
Which towing vessels are NOT required to have an internal communication system between the engine room and the operating station? Vessels on limited routes Fleet boats making or breaking tows Vessels serving a single company or facility Twin-screw vessels that have operating station control for both engines
Which devices may be used as part of an internal communication system on a towing vessel? Sound-powered telephones Portable radios Either fixed or portable equipment All of the above.
When is direct voice communication allowed in place of an internal communication system between the engine room and the operating station on a towing vessel? When the controls at the operation station are within 10 feet of the engine room access When the vessel is ruled to be an "existing vessel" When a person's voice can be heard better than a portable radio with existing background noise When the vessel is less than 26 meters in length
When do the towing vessel fire protection regulations allow a towing vessel to carry portable fuel systems on board? When permanently attached to portable equipment such as bilge and fire pumps When used for outboard engines If the portable tanks used for portable equipment meet published safety standards All of the above.
Fire protection regulations for towing vessels allow all of these types of fuel piping, EXCEPT __________. steel schedule 80 fire resistant plastic pipe nickel-copper, copper-nickel or annealed copper aluminum in an aluminum-hulled vessel
Fire protection regulations for towing vessels allow you to use a nonmetallic flexible hose in fuel line installations under all of the following conditions EXCEPT when __________. fitted with Coast Guard approved garden hose fittings used in lengths of not more than 30 inches reinforced with wire braid visible and easily accessible
Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require any fuel line subject to internal head pressure from fuel in the tank to __________. have a gate valve easily accessible in the space where the tank is located be fitted with a positive fuel shut-off valve located at the tank have a drain cock at the lowest point in the fuel line have a shut-off valve at the top of the tank
Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require training in all of the following, EXCEPT __________. donning a self-contained breathing apparatus, if the vessel is so equipped putting on a fireman's outfit, if the vessel is so equipped refilling and servicing all expended fire extinguishing equipment activating the general alarm and reporting inoperative alarm systems and fire-detection systems
Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require that drills be conducted on board the vessel as if there were an actual emergency. Drills include all of the following, EXCEPT __________. testing all alarm and detection systems one person putting on protective clothing, if the vessel is so equipped breaking out and using the vessel's emergency equipment participation by selected crew members
Fire protection and manning regulations for towing vessels state that the Master or person in charge must ensure that all crew members who have not participated in the drills or received the safety orientation __________. receive a safety orientation or view a videotape before the vessel gets underway view a videotape on safety procedures within 48 hours of reporting for duty receive a safety orientation within 24 hours of reporting for duty none of the above
Towing vessel fire protection regulations require that all fuel tank vent pipes comply with all of the following provisions EXCEPT that the vent __________. must have a positive-acting shut-off valve to prevent water from entering the tank in heavy weather be fitted with a 30-by-30 corrosion resistant flame screen connects to the highest point of the tank system discharges on a weather deck through a U-shaped 180 degree pipe bend
Which BEST describes the term "reaching"? The wind comes directly over the bow of your sailboat while underway The wind comes from broad on the bow to the quarter while underway The wind has no effect on the vessel while underway The wind comes directly over the stern of your sailboat while underway
You are at the helm of a sloop-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "head up quickly". Which action will utilize your sails to assist with the turn? Trim the foreguy Slack the jib sheet Slack the main outhaul Slack the main sheet
One of the sailboat's crew has just fallen overboard. Which is the most efficient way to stop the vessel to recover the victim? Ease out the mainsheet Head the vessel downwind Trim in the mainsheet Head the vessel into the wind
Which is the major lift-producing part of a sail? The head The leading edge The foil The trailing edge
Which is the ideal situation to set your sails in a wing and wing configuration? When tacking When sailing with the wind aft When on a close reach When anchored or drifting
What is the name of the metal spring-piston hooks used to bend a sail onto a stay? Hanks Shackles Gudgeons Warps
When shifting to a course where the wind comes more from astern, what will easing the mainsheet accomplish? It will bring the boom more fore and aft It decreases the force needed to haul on the mainsheet It allows the sail to catch more wind It will bring the head of the sail down from the top of the mast
Which phrase describes a sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative? Running before the wind Close hauled on the starboard tack Close hauled on the port tack On a broad reach on a port tack
A small sailing vessel is anchoring to wait out rough weather. Which combination of material is BEST suited for this boats anchor rode? Chain-nylon Chain-wire All chain Chain-manila
When experiencing heavy winds, which is accomplished when you reef sails? The sails are brought parallel to the wind Allow the sails to catch more wind The sail area exposed to the wind is reduced Remove all tension on the main and jib sheets
Which item is designed to resist the sideways movement of the mast on a sailing vessel? The shrouds The halyards The sheets The forestay
On a sailing vessel, which is the BEST way to approach a person that has fallen into the water? Aim the vessels bow directly at the person Aim your vessel to the leeward side of the person Turn the vessel 180 degrees and aim the transom at the person Aim your vessel to the windward side of the person
What are reef points used for? Reduce the draft if the boat runs aground Reduce the area of a sail Increase the strength of the mast Keep the sail taut in light airs
Which line would NOT be used in handling a mainsail? Uphaul Downhaul Halyard Sheet
A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 050° relative would be __________. close hauled on the starboard tack reaching on a starboard tack on a broad reach on a port tack running before the wind
A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 090° relative would be __________. reaching on the starboard tack close hauled on the port tack on a broad reach on the starboard tack close hauled on the starboard tack
A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180° relative would be __________. close hauled on the port tack on a broad reach on a port tack close hauled on the starboard tack running before the wind
A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 140° relative would be __________. running before the wind on a broad reach close hauled on the port tack close hauled on the starboard tack
A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 290° relative would be __________. on a broad reach on a port tack close hauled on a starboard tack on a close reach on a port tack on a beam reach on a starboard tack
A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 260° relative would be __________. on a broad reach on a starboard tack on a close reach running before the wind
A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 220° relative would be __________. running before the wind close hauled on the starboard tack on a broad reach close hauled on the port tack
A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 020° relative would be __________. coming about on a broad reach on the starboard tack close hauled on the port tack running before the wind
Which line would be used to hoist a sail? Forestay Halyard Foreguy Mainsheet
When repairing a torn sail at sea, you should __________. be sure to orient the weave of the patch material, on large patches, in the same orientation as the sail cloth being repaired avoid using glued patches on old sail cloth use perfectly aligned stitches in old sail cloth so as to get the strain properly aligned All of the above.
To prevent a wooden hull from leaking you caulk it __________. afloat, where it is leaking after dry docking, while the hull is moist afloat, in all accessible areas after dry docking, and the hull has dried
On small sailing vessels, the PRIMARY reason for using nylon in a combination chain-nylon anchor line is to __________. reduce the cost reduce the weight provide elasticity increase the strength
A deep keel on a sailing vessel increases the __________. length-depth ratio resulting in a faster hull design resistance to lateral movement mast height to compensate for increased lateral resistance height of the center of gravity above the hull resulting in a more stable vessel
You are sailing at 8 knots on a beam reach in an apparent wind of 25 knots. Which statement is TRUE? If you turn to a close reach, the apparent wind will reduce in strength. The true wind is a little abaft your beam, at just under 25 knots. The apparent wind at the top of your mast will be slightly stronger than 25 knots and slightly farther forward than the wind at deck level. None of the above are true.
With regard to aerodynamic lift, which statement is TRUE? When a sail is trimmed too tight, turbulence will break out on the windward side of the sail and cause a telltale there to flutter. If the thrust on a sail becomes excessive when close-hauled, it is likely to capsize the vessel rather than drive it. A properly trimmed sail should have laminar flow on the windward side and turbulent flow on the leeward side. Adjusting the angle of attack on a mainsail is accomplished by adjusting the outhaul or the vang, if fitted.
What is the proper method to fix running rigging to a cleat? One round turn A round turn, figure eights, and a half-hitch Half-hitches then a round turn A series of half-hitches
When shifting to a course where the wind comes more from astern, easing the mainsheet will __________. bring the head of the sail down from the top of the mast allow the sail to catch more wind bring the boom more fore and aft decrease the force needed to haul on the mainsheet
Which statement is TRUE concerning a sailing vessel with the sails properly trimmed? As the sails are sheeted in on a close hauled course, speed will increase as the side forces on the vessel decrease. The more the sails are sheeted in, the greater your speed will be when sailing downwind. Sheeting in the sails will allow the vessel to sail closer to the wind but will decrease speed. As the sails are sheeted in, the vessel will heel less when close hauled.
Your sails are properly trimmed while on a reaching course. Changing to a close hauled course will __________. cause a greater heeling force to leeward require you to sheet in for best speed result in a reduction of speed All of the above.
To get the best speed when tacking and using a mainsail and jib, the sails should be trimmed such that __________. the jib is on one side of the vessel and the mainsail on the other one sail is as close to a right angle as possible to the other as much of a gap as possible exists between the two sails in order to catch the most wind an air slot is formed between the two sails
Your vessel is drifting with the wind broad on the port beam. The marconi sail is set and flapping free. As you sheet in the maximum drive is attained when the sail __________. is at right angles to the true wind is 45° from the apparent wind first takes the shape of an airfoil is filled with a slight flap at the leech
You are sailing on a close reach when a strong wind suddenly heels the vessel hard over. To reduce the heeling and yet maintain speed, you should __________. ease all sheets and bear more into the wind ease the mainsheet and bear more away from the wind haul in on the mainsheet and ease the jib sheet haul in on the mainsheet and steer more towards the wind
The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close-hauled the __________. heeling moment decreases side slip decreases speed increases apparent wind moves forward
The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads up from a beam reach to close-hauled the __________. heeling moment decreases side slip decreases apparent wind remains steady speed decreases
You are under sail on a close reach, and the wind is steady. While steady on course, you reef the mainsail and your speed slows. The apparent wind __________. increases and draws forward decreases and draws aft is unchanged increases and draws aft
In order to maintain speed while changing course from a close reach to a broad reach, the sails should be __________. hauled in lowered reefed eased out
When properly set and drawing, a fore-and-aft sail has a cross-section that __________. approximates a straight line is a curve with more curve at the leach is a uniform curve is a curve with more curve at the luff
You are running before the wind in a fresh breeze. The boom may be prevented from accidentally jibing by using a(n) __________. preventer clewline outhaul buntline
Which action will NOT reduce heeling of a vessel when sailing on a tack? Changing to larger sails Heading up until your sails begin to luff Reefing sails Easing sheets
Which action will NOT reduce heeling of a vessel when sailing on a tack? Heading up until your sails begin to luff Reefing sails Changing to larger sails Easing sheets
Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE? If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you can sail closer to the wind and decrease leeway. If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you will luff. If you ease the sheets you will be in irons. If you ease the sheets and change heading, you can sail faster but not so close to the wind.
Which statement about sailing close-hauled is TRUE? If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster and closer to the wind. If you steer closer to the wind, you will slow down. If you ease the sheets, you can sail faster on the same course. If you sheet your sails closer to the centerline, you must bear away from the wind.
Your 20-ton ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing close hauled on the port tack in a moderate breeze with all sails properly trimmed. You wish to bear off quickly to avoid a floating hazard. To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________. put your rudder hard to port slack the mizzen sheet slack the jib sheet All of the above.
You are at the helm of a ketch-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________. trim the main outhaul trim the mizzen vang slack the mizzen sheet slack the jib sheet
You are at the helm of a sloop-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "head up quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________. trim the foreguy slack the main outhaul slack the jib sheet slack the main sheet
You are at the helm of a schooner-rigged sailing vessel under sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to assist with the turn, you should __________. slack the fore-staysail sheet slack the foresail sheet slack the jib sheet slack the main sheet
You can slow or stop a sailing vessel by __________. bring the vessel's head into the wind and let the sails luff put the wind off the stern and ease all sheets put the wind off the beam and sheet in raise the centerboard when running before the wind
As a vessel falls off the wind from close-hauled to a beam reach, the tendency for the vessel to move sideways through the water will __________. increase decrease change only if the vessel comes about on the opposite tack not change
Your vessel is sailing on a port tack when a sudden gust of wind heels the vessel sharply to starboard. Which action will reduce the heeling of the vessel? Ease the sheets to allow air flow to spill off the sail Shift weight to the port side of the vessel Attempt to sail the vessel closer to the wind Any of the above.
A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward with the wind about 50° on the port bow. All the sails are set and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE? If you slack the mizzen sheet, the center of effort will move aft. If you sheet in the mainsail without changing course, the vessel will heel farther and speed up. If you strike the mainsail, the center of effort of the whole rig will move down. If you slack the main sheet, the lift to drag ratio of the mainsail will increase.
You are attempting to recover a mooring buoy. If you approach the object on the port tack, how would you slow the vessel as you draw near? Bring the wind so that it comes over the stern and ease all the sheets. Quickly change to a starboard tack as you reach the object. Bring the wind directly over the bow and allow the sails to luff. Shift the rudder from port to starboard several times as you reach the object.
You are sailing into a harbor with the intention of picking up your mooring. There is no current. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE? On a yawl, the last sail you will strike after you have picked up the mooring will normally be the mainsail. On a sloop, if your initial approach is to be downwind you could slow your approach by striking the jib and letting your main sheet out as far as it will go. On a ketch, you will most likely strike the jib before making your final approach. All of the above.
When experiencing heavy winds, you should reef sails to __________. reduce sail area exposed to the wind bring the sails parallel to the wind allow the sails to catch more wind remove all tension on the main and jib sheets
You are Master of a 20-ton ketch. You wish to heave-to on the starboard tack in 35 knots of wind. Which action would be appropriate? Set your storm jib aback to port and secure your rudder hard to starboard. Sheet your mizzen in flat and secure your rudder amidships. Secure your reefed mizzen aback to starboard and your storm jib aback to port. Secure your rudder hard to port. Secure your storm jib aback to starboard and sheet your reefed mizzen in flat. Secure your rudder hard to starboard.
Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent? The designated responsible person must be instructed to call the Coast Guard search and rescue authorities immediately if your call does not come in on schedule. There must be a designated responsible person who knows they are expecting your call at a certain time. Two responsible persons should be designated so that one can relieve the other as necessary. There must be a designated responsible person available at all times to receive your call.
When crossing a bar in rough weather, you should enter on a(n) __________. tidal bore flood current ebbing current All of the above.
A sail plan, including the vessel's itinerary, name, number, and persons aboard, should be filed with __________. a responsible person the FAA U.S. Customs the Coast Guard
A storm is forecast for the area where your vessel is moored. For its safety you should put __________. chafing gear on the mooring lines more slack in the mooring lines a strain on the mooring lines grease on the mooring lines
Your sailing vessel is docked during a storm and is in continuous motion. If a mooring line parts due to vessel motion, it will most likely do so __________. at the chock where it is made fast on the vessel at the eye midway between the vessel and the dock
Your 40-foot auxiliary sailing vessel has just run aground on a bar. She has a relatively long, deep keel and the tide is falling. You have checked the bilges for damage and found none. Which is the most prudent action to take immediately? Take soundings visually, by sounding pole, or lead line all around the vessel to locate the deepest water. Sheet the sails in flat to try to heel her over with the wind and sail off. Strike the sails. Then run a kedge anchor out to one side, hook the main halyard to it, and heave the boat down onto one side. Start the engine and run it hard in forward to try to drive over and off the bar.
On a sailing vessel, it is best to approach a person in the water by placing them on your __________. windward side transom bow leeward side
A marker pole, with a horseshoe buoy and a sea anchor attached, should be used to __________. indicate location of a man overboard mark the position of a lost mooring determine your speed through the water determine your vessel's sideslip underway
You are running before a strong wind in a sloop. The most dangerous thing to do is __________. jibe strike the jib reef the mainsail tack about
You are sailing in a strong wind and may accidentally jibe when __________. tacking in irons running-free reaching
You are running before a rough sea and a strong wind. Your sailing vessel is yawing. If the wind should catch the mainsail on the reverse side you will __________. tack broach go in irons jibe
If you were to jibe in a strong wind, the part of the rigging most likely to fail would be the __________. jumper stay backstay halyard forestay
You are sailing before the wind in heavy weather. The failure of what will affect the vessel's safety most? The helm The outhaul The jib sheet The main halyard
A capsized small sail vessel is best righted when what part of the vessel is downwind? Stern Centerboard Mast Bow
How should you try to right a capsized small sailing vessel? Lock the centerboard in the down position, stand on the centerboard, and pull on a shroud or a halyard. Put the centerboard in the up position and have all personnel haul in on the line attached to the mast. Position all personnel around the mast and lift the vessel upright. Position all personnel at the stern and rock the vessel upright.
When anchoring a small sailing vessel in rough weather, the best anchor line would be composed of __________. all chain chain-nylon chain-wire chain-manila
The old sailors admonition "Beware the lee shore" warns of the danger due to __________. the ground swell making it difficult to tack off the wind blowing stronger at this location there being less wind in the lee of the shore the current flowing directly on shore
Every different type of sailing rig can be dangerous in certain circumstances. Which situation would most likely be dangerous? A gaff rig is dangerous in a calm wind and large swell. A tall, marconi, sloop rig is dangerous to tack. A square rig, such as a ship rig, is dangerous to jibe. A gaff rig is dangerous in a calm wind and sea.
Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent? There must be specific instructions for the designated responsible person to follow if your call does not come in on schedule. The designated responsible person must be instructed to call the Coast Guard search and rescue authorities immediately if your call does not come in on schedule. There must be a designated responsible person who will be available to receive your call at anytime. The designated responsible person should be over 18 years of age.
You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean passage. Your 120-foot schooner carries a yard on the foremast, about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs about 1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on deck for the trip, you will __________. increase the reserve buoyancy give the vessel a gentler roll increase your vessel's GM decrease the metacentric height
You must pick up an individual who has fallen overboard from a sailboat. The final approach should be __________. on a broad reach downwind on a close reach upwind
Your 80-ton schooner is hove to on the starboard tack under storm trysail and fore-staysail in 45 knots of wind. Your heading is averaging about 000° true and the wind is from the northeast. There is a dangerous shoal bearing 270° true, range 5 miles. Which action would be appropriate? You should set a reefed foresail and strike the jib. You should tack or jibe to the port tack and make all possible headway to the south. You need only stay alert for changes, as your present drift will carry you away from the danger. You should strike all sails and get underway under bare poles, making as much way as possible to the north.
The term "lee side" refers to the __________. side of the vessel exposed to the wind port side starboard side side of the vessel sheltered from the wind
A shroud is __________. a sheet a light sail standing rigging a topmast stay
A sloop is a sailing vessel with __________. two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post one mast two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post two masts: a foremast and a mainmast
A yawl is a sailing vessel with __________. a single mast two masts: a foremast and a mainmast two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
As shown in illustration D002SL below, which of the following describes the three corners of the main sail? luff, leech, and spar head, fore, and aft head, tack, and clew headboard, foot, and tail
In illustration D001SL below, what is the edge of the sail labeled "A" called? headboard leech luff clew
Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE? Polyester sailcloth, such as Dacron, is resistant to rot due to moisture but susceptible to UV degradation and should be kept covered as much as possible. Canvas sailcloth is susceptible to rot due to moisture and should never be covered when wet. Kevlar sail cloth is susceptible to weakening due to repeated folding and therefore should be draped loosely over the boom when stowed. All of the above.
Dacron sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________. folded frequently left in the sunlight stowed wet washed with soap
Canvas sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________. left in the sunlight stowed wet washed with soap and water folded frequently
Kevlar sails, when not in use, may be damaged if __________. left in the sunlight washed with water and bleach folded frequently All of the above.
Which statement is TRUE about sail shape? You can reduce the belly in a boomed mainsail by easing the sheet. A high-aspect ratio marconi mainsail is more efficient for downwind sailing than a gaff-rigged mainsail. You can move the belly up in a mainsail by easing the luff tension. You should put more belly in a sail in light airs than in a strong breeze.
The major lift-producing part of a sail is the __________. head foil trailing edge leading edge
Sails may be wing and wing when __________. on a close reach tacking sailing with the wind aft anchored or drifting
When sailing with the wind aft, a vessel may carry sails on both sides at the same time. The sails are __________. luffed cringled wing and wing reefed
Sails may be wing and wing when __________. sailing with the wind aft tacking close hauled wearing
Most recreational sailing craft have triangular sails and are said to be __________. Square rigged Spinnaker rigged Gaff rigged Marconi rigged
When a sail is reefed, the sail area is __________. reduced increased widened unchanged
A sailing vessel with the wind coming over the port side is said to be on a __________. port tack starboard tack port jibe starboard jibe
A "reaching" course is one in which the wind __________. comes directly over the stern comes directly over the bow has no effect on the vessel comes over an area extending from broad on the bow to the quarter
The hinge fitting used to attach the boom to the mast is the __________. gooseneck pintle swivel step
What fitting on the mast works in conjunction with the shrouds to control side bend of the mast? Spreader Chainplate Hound Crowfoot
The bottom of the mast rests on a part of the keel called the mast __________. sole foot heel step
A schooner is a fore-and-aft rigged vessel with __________. two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post a single mast at least two masts: a foremast and a mainmast
A ketch is a sailing vessel with __________. two masts: a foremast and a mainmast two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post one mast two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder post
The metal horseshoe-shaped pieces used to bend a sail onto a stay are called_________. shackles warps hanks gudgeons
A boom vang __________. douses the gaff topsail tautens the standing rigging holds the boom down and flattens the main sail draws the head of the sail to windward
What standing rigging supports the mast in the fore-and-aft and athwartships directions? Guys and vangs Shrouds and stays Vangs and shrouds Sheets and guys
Which is standing rigging? Sheets Halyards Stays Downhauls
A stay is __________. standing rigging a halyard a downhaul a jib
Which is a part of a vessel's standing rigging? Topping lift Backstay Sheet Downhaul
What is NOT running rigging? Downhaul Halyard Sheet Backstay
Sideways movement of the mast is resisted by the __________. shrouds forestay halyards sheets
What is part of a vessel's standing rigging? Downhaul Sheet Topping lift Backstay
What is the purpose of a centerboard when sailing on a tack? To prevent the vessel from jibing To reduce side slip of the vessel To reduce heeling of the vessel To add weight stability
You are at the helm of a sailing vessel under sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, and you are instructed to "head up". You should __________. turn the wheel to port if you are steering with a wheel turn the rudder to starboard push the tiller to starboard if you are steering with a tiller All of the above.
Changing direction by bringing the stern of the vessel through the eye of the wind is known as __________. running before the wind jibing tacking reefing
If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area __________. moves aft becomes less becomes larger does not change
Which fitting is used to connect the boom to the mast? Clevis pin Gunter-lug Transom Gooseneck
Which statement is TRUE concerning the gooseneck? It is a sailing condition where there is a loss of air flow over the sails. It is a sailing maneuver which brings the vessel's head through the wind. It connects the boom to the mast and allows the boom to swing freely. None of the above
Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE regarding heaving-to? A ketch will heave to with her jib and mizzen aback. A sloop will heave to with her jib and mainsail aback. A yawl will heave to with her jib aback, main sheet eased, and her mizzen sheeted in. All of the above.
The nautical term "lee shore" refers to the __________. shore on the lee side of the vessel shore in a harbor of refuge western shore of the Lesser Antilles shore that is in the lee
What is the mechanical advantage of a threefold purchase when rove to disadvantage and neglecting friction? 3 4 5 6
Disregarding friction, what is the mechanical advantage of a twofold purchase when rove to disadvantage? 2 3 4 5
What is the name of tackle number 1 as shown in illustration D029DG below? Gun tackle One-fold purchase Whip Runner
What is the name of tackle number 2 as shown in illustration D029DG below? Whip Gun tackle Single purchase Onefold purchase
What is the name of tackle number 11 as shown in illustration D029DG below? Gun tackle Topping lift Three-two purchase Double luff tackle
What is the name of tackle number 12 as shown in illustration D029DG below? Davit tackle Deck tackle Gin tackle Threefold purchase
What is the name of tackle number 3 as shown in illustration D029DG below? Double whip 1-2 purchase Single luff tackle Gun tackle
What is the name of tackle number 4 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 2-2 tackle Luff tackle Two-fold purchase Double whip
What is the name of tackle number 5 as shown in illustration D029DG below? Four-fold whip 3-2 purchase Two-fold purchase Double luff tackle
What is the name of tackle number 6 as shown in illustration D029DG below? Threefold purchase Clew garnet tackle Triple purchase Boat falls
What is the name of tackle number 7 as shown in illustration D029DG below? Whip Runner Inverted whip Single purchase
What is the name of tackle number 8 as shown in illustration D029DG below? Parbuckle Gun tackle Single purchase Single luff tackle
What is the name of tackle number 9as shown in illustration D029DG below? Single purchase Double whip One-two tackle Luff tackle
What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 9 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 1 2 3 4
What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 10 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 4 4.5 5 5.5
What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 11 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 5 7 5.5 6
What is the mechanical advantage, neglecting friction, of tackle number 12 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 3 5.5 6 7
What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 1 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 2 1 0.5 1.5
What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 2 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 0.5 1 2 3
What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 3 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 1 2 3 4
What is the mechanical advantage, neglecting friction, of tackle number 4 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 1 2 3 4
What is the mechanical advantage, neglecting friction, of tackle number 5 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 2 4 5 5.5
What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 6 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 3 5 6 5.5
What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 7 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 0 0.5 1 2
What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 8 as shown in illustration D029DG below? 0.5 3 1.5 1
What is the stress on the hauling part when lifting a 4,200 lbs. weight using a threefold purchase rove to advantage? (Allow 10 percent of the weight per sheave for friction.) 960 571.4 1066.7 715.2
The sheave diameter to be used with a 3-inch manila rope is __________. 3 inches 6 inches 9 inches 12 inches
A breeches buoy is being rigged from the shore to a stranded vessel. The initial shot line passed to the vessel is normally made fast to a __________. hawser which is used to pass a tail-block and whip to the vessel tail-block and whip which may be used to pass a hawser to the vessel hawser which should be made fast to the vessel below the intended location of the tail-block hawser with breeches buoy and harness attached
How much force would be required to lift a weight of 200 lbs. using a gun tackle rigged to disadvantage (do not consider friction)? 50 lbs. 100 lbs. 150 lbs. 200 lbs.
Unless extremely flexible wire rope is used, the sheave diameter should always be as large as possible, but should never be less than __________. 2 times the rope diameter 20 times the rope diameter the rope diameter 10 times the rope diameter
How much weight can you lift by applying 100 lbs. of force to a twofold purchase rigged to disadvantage (do not consider friction)? 200 lbs. 300 lbs. 400 lbs. 500 lbs.
What is meant by the term "two-blocked"? You have two blocks. There are turns in the fall. The bottom block touches the top block. The line has jumped the sheaves.
Separating both blocks of a tackle to prepare it for reuse is called __________. two-blocking out-hauling over-hauling chockablocking
To facilitate passing the end of a large rope through a block, you could use a __________. reeving line head line gantline sail line
To reeve a right-angle threefold purchase start with the __________. middle sheave top block left sheave bottom block left sheave top block right sheave bottom block
You are ordering a new block to use with a 3-inch circumference manila line. Which represents a proper size block for this line? 9-inch cheek, 6-inch sheave 6-inch cheek, 4-inch sheave 8-inch cheek, any size sheave At least a 12-inch sheave
What size block shell should be used with a 4-inch manila line? 8" 12" 16" 24"
The cheek length of a block in inches should be about __________. twenty times the diameter of a manila line twice the diameter of its sheaves for manila line five times the diameter of a manila line three times the circumference of a manila line
Which tackle arrangement has the LEAST mechanical advantage? Single whip Luff tackle Gun tackle Twofold purchase
A block that can be opened at the hook or shackle end to receive a bight of the line is a __________. bight block heel block snatch block gin block
The grooved wheel inside a block is called a __________. drum sheave cheek gypsy
A metal ring on the bottom of a block, to which the standing part of a tackle is spliced, is known as a(n) __________. loop eye becket swivel
The standing part of a tackle is __________. that part to which power is applied that part of the falls made fast to one of the blocks all the fall except the hauling part the hook that engages the weight to be moved
A block and tackle is "rove to advantage". This means that the __________. hauling part leads through the movable block blocks have been overhauled hauling part leads through the standing block hauling parts of two tackles are attached
Safety shackles are fitted with __________. round pins and locknuts a threaded bolt a round pin, with a cotter pin a threaded bolt, locknuts, and cotter pins
A small light tackle with blocks of steel or wood that is used for miscellaneous small jobs is called a __________. snatch block handy-billy threefold purchase chockablock
A sheave is a __________. partial load of grain grooved wheel in a block line to hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck seaman's knife
A snatch block is a __________. block used only with manila rope chock roller hinged block strong block used for short, sharp pulls
A snatch block would most likely be used as a __________. fairlead boat fall riding pawl topping lift
You are using tackle number 7 in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 100 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling part required to lift the weight? 55 lbs. 110 lbs. 200 lbs. 150 lbs.
You are using tackle number 8 in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 100 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling part required to lift the weight? 55 lbs. 37 lbs. 120 lbs. 40 lbs.
You are using tackle number 12 shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 300 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling part required to lift the weight? 80 lbs. 55 lbs. 50 lbs. 69 lbs.
You are using tackle number 2 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 100 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling part required to lift the weight? 50 lbs. 55 lbs. 60 lbs. 110 lbs.
You are using tackle number 3 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 120 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling part required to lift the weight? 52 lbs. 27 lbs. 40 lbs. 49 lbs.
You are using tackle number 5 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 300 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling part required to lift the weight? 50 lbs. 75 lbs. 90 lbs. 112 lbs.
You are using tackle number 4 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 10. What is the mechanical advantage of this rig? 5 9 4 20
You are using tackle number 4 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook of tackle number 11. What is the mechanical advantage of this rig? 4 6 10 24
You are using tackle number 5 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook of tackle number 9. What is the mechanical advantage of this rig? 9 4 5 20
You are using tackle number 5 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 8. What is the mechanical advantage of this rig? 10 5 20 15
You are using tackle number 6 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 8. Disregarding friction, what is the mechanical advantage of this rig? 11 16 18 24
You are using tackle number 10 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 4. What is the mechanical advantage of this rig? 24 20 13 9
You are using tackle number 12 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 2. What is the mechanical advantage of this rig? 9 10 14 21
Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is TRUE? The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected. The chipping mechanism is made of non-sparking material that is safe to use near explosive atmospheres. The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted more than ½ of their diameter. The equipment must be grounded to prevent shock hazard.
You should NOT use a power tool if __________. the power source is alternating current hand tools can be used instead the insulation of the power wires is worn it has a three-prong plug
When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to __________. bend his back and stoop bend his knees and lift with his legs bend his back and stoop with arms straight arch the back to add strength to the muscles
Safety goggles or glasses are NOT normally worn when __________. painting with a spray gun letting go the anchor using a rotary grinder with an installed shield handling wire rope or natural fiber line
When chipping rust on a vessel, the MOST important piece of safety gear is __________. a long sleeve shirt goggles gloves a hard hat
When using a pneumatic chipping tool all of the following are TRUE except? It is not intended to be used in an explosive atmosphere. The equipment is not required to be grounded to prevent shock hazard. The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted more than ½ of their diameter. The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.
How is a safety shackle is identified? The shape The color code The certification stamp The design of the pin
What is a grapnel? type of clam bucket used for discharging bulk cargo hook to prevent the anchor cable from slipping device used to drag for a submerged cable or line device for securing a chain topping lift
Which of the following is a hook that will release quickly? margin hook pelican hook marginal hook longshore hook
A "skiff hook" is a device used to do which of the following? join a towline to a pair of towing bridles attach a towline to the eye bolt to the bow of a trailer-able boat shorten the length of catenary in the towline to create a temporary fairlead
Which of the following is a rope ladder with wooden rungs? jury ladder drop ladder Jacob's ladder life ladder
What is a serving mallet is used for? splicing lines forcing fids into a line covering wire or fiber rope dogging hatches
On a small boat, which knot is best suited for attaching a line to the ring of an anchor? Figure-eight knot Overhand knot Clove hitch Fisherman's bend
A monkey fist is found on which of the following? lead line heaving line mooring line manrope
Which kind of hitch should you use to secure a spar? Two half hitches Blackwall hitch Timber hitch Stage hitch
What type of knot is indicated by the Letter "I" in illustration D030DG below? square knot bowline on a bight round knot timber hitch
Which knot in illustration D030DG below should be used to secure a line to a spar when the pull is parallel to the spar? G F P Q
What is the MAIN use of the knot lettered M in in illustration D030DG below? secure a heaving line to a hawser provide a seat for a man to work over the side form a temporary eye in the end of a line marry two hawsers
When improperly tied, which knot shown in illustration D030DG below is called a granny or thief's knot? F M R W
Which knot in illustration D030DG below should be used to secure a line to a spar when the pull is perpendicular to the spar? E F N P
Which knot in illustration D030DG below is secure only when there is a strain on the line? H I L P
What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "J"? plain whipping marline hitch becket bend bowline
What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "Q"? bowline square knot round knot clove hitch
What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "R"? fisherman's bend round turn and two half hitches double becket bend bowline
What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "S"? hook hitch bowline blackwall hitch half hitch
What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "W"? stopper knot square knot barrel hitch clove hitch
Which knot shown in illustration D030DG below represents a square knot? H W R P
Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a bowline? G H L Q
Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a double sheet bend? T F R L
Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a blackwall hitch? S F H P
Which knot shown in illustration D030DG below is a French bowline? L T Q W
Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a half hitch? S H U K
Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a double blackwall hitch? F G L R
Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a carrick bend? M L J H
What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "N"? rolling bowline heaving line hitch timber hitch stopper
Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a barrel hitch? E P U O
Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a stopper hitch? L R N M
Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a timber hitch? E F N U
Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a single becket bend? E F G H
Which letter in illustration D030DG below represents a bowline on a bight? H I M W
Which letter in illustration D030DG below represents a plain whipping? F E J V
Which letter shown in illustration D030DG below represents a clove hitch? X T U R
What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "O"? blackwall hitch timber hitch carrick bend barrel hitch
What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "P"? rolling hitch clove hitch marline hitch round turn and two half hitches
What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "E"? bowline on a bight stopper hitch timber and half hitch blackwall hitch
What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "G"? barrel hitch round turn and two half hitches fisherman's bend timber hitch
Which of the knots, bends, or hitches shown in illustration D030DG below would you use to properly secure a bosun's chair to a gantline? I P R X
Which tool is used to open the strands of fiber lines when making an eye splice? Fid Heaver Belaying spike Pricker
What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "U"? plain whipping half hitch round knot becket bend
A short splice in a line __________. should be used if the line is going through a block doubles the size of the line decreases the size of the line should only be used in wire rope
A "figure eight" knot is used to __________. shorten a line join lines of equal size be a stopper keep a line from passing through a sheave
Instead of whipping an end of a line, a temporary means of preventing the line from unraveling is to tie a __________. figure-eight knot becket bend square knot blackwall hitch
A whipping on a fiber line __________. protects your hands becomes part of a splice strengthens it keeps the ends from fraying
Which statement about two lines spliced together is TRUE? Splicing is used to increase the circumference of each line. Splicing is used to prevent rotting of the lines bitter end. Splicing two lines together is stronger than knotting two lines together. Splicing is used to increase the overall strength of the line.
Which of the following is a knot used to join two lines of different diameters? carrick bend square knot becket bend sheepshank
The metal, teardrop-shaped object sometimes used within an eye splice is a __________. thimble reinforcement splice form grommet
Which knot reduces the strength of a line by the LEAST amount? Square knot Sheet bend Bowline Carrick bend
What is a "bowline" used for? keep a line from fraying join lines of equal size form a temporary eye (loop) at the end of a line be a stopper
Which weakens a line the LEAST? Long splice Square knot Short splice Clove hitch
Which of the following should splices made in nylon be? be short splices only be long splices only have extra tucks taken be around a thimble
What is a "square knot" used for? joining two lines of equal size keeping line from unlaying or fraying forming temporary eyes in lines joining two lines of different size
Which statement about splices is TRUE? A long splice is used to connect two lines that will pass through narrow openings. A short splice is used to temporarily connect two lines. A back splice is used to permanently connect two lines together. In splicing fiber rope, you would splice with the lay of the line.
What is a "sheepshank" used for? shorten a line stop off a line join lines of unequal size keep a line from fraying
Which splice is used to connect two separate lines together? Long splice Eye splice Back splice Chain splice
Which line cannot be spliced? Double-braided line Any line can be spliced Braided line with a solid core Braided line with a hollow core
What is the best splice for repairing a parted synthetic fiber mooring line? Locking long splice Long splice Liverpool splice Short splice
What can a rolling hitch be used for? secure a line around a spar mouse a hook make a temporary eye shorten a line
Which of the following is the strongest way to join the ends of two ropes? square knot back splice carrick bend short splice
Which of the following describes a fid? tapered steel pin used to separate wire rope sharp pointed crow bar used to unlay wire rope mallet used when splicing wire rope tapered wooden pin used when splicing heavy rope
Which bend or knot is used to tie a small line to a larger one? Bowline Becket bend Lark's head Clove hitch
Which knot is used to attach two different sized lines together? Sheet bend Thief knot Square knot Granny knot
What is the knot at the end of the heaving line used to pass the towing hawser called? heaving knot three strand Turk's head ball or baseball knot monkey's fist
What is the knot used to join two lines or two large hawsers for towing called? bowline square knot carrick bend sheet bend
What is a "carrick bend" is used for? add strength to a weak spot in a line be a stopper to transfer a line under strain join two hawsers join lines of different sizes
Which is a method used to make an eye in a bight of line where it cannot be spliced? seizing braiding plaiting serving
Which is NOT a type of seizing? Throat seizing Flat seizing Racking seizing Tube seizing
Which of the following describes a "whipping"? a stopper for nylon line a U-bolt for securing a cargo whip to the winch drum turns of twine around a rope end a messenger
What is the purpose for whipping the bitter end of a fiber rope? makes for easier handling prevents moisture from entering the bitter end increases the circumference of the rope prevents fraying of the bitter end
The "rolling hitch" could be used to __________. act as a stopper to transfer a line under strain add strength to a weak spot in a line join two lines of equal sizes join two lines of different sizes
Which knot should be used to send a man over the side when he may have to use both hands? Running bowline Bowline Bowline on a bight French bowline
Which knot is suitable for hoisting an unconscious person? French bowline Fisherman's loop Bowline in a bight Spider hitch
Which knot would serve best as a safety sling for a person working over the side? Jug sling French bowline Bowline on a bight Lifting hitch
When making a short splice in wire rope __________. all tucks go with the lay the first three wires are tucked with the lay and the last three go against the lay the first three wires are tucked against the lay and the last three go with the lay all tucks go against the lay
Which statement concerning a short splice is TRUE? A short splice is stronger than two lines joined by a knot. It is used to temporarily join two lines together. A short splice decreases the diameter of the line. None of the above
A long splice in a line __________. doubles the size of the line is only used on fiber rope is used in running rigging is very weak
Which splice should you use in order to make a permanent loop in a line? Back splice Long splice Short splice Eye splice
A smooth, tapered pin, usually of wood, used to open up the strands of a rope for splicing is called a(n) __________. fid bench hook awl batten
Chafing gear is used to __________. strengthen mooring lines pick up heavy loads protect fiber rope from abrasion anchor the boat
Chafing gear is normally used __________. for portable fenders on mooring lines for ground tackle on the inside of the hawsepipe
Chafing gear __________. prevents corrosion of running rigging protects the body against extreme cold reduces and prevents corrosion of standing rigging reduces and prevents wear caused by the rubbing of one object against another
Which position shown in illustration D019DG below is the most dangerous when tying up? III IV II I
Marline is __________. sail twine four-stranded sisal line three-stranded cotton line two-stranded hemp cord
Which line is two-stranded, left-handed small stuff? Houseline Lagline Ratline Marline
In order to correctly open a new coil of manila line, you should __________. unreel the coil from a spool secure the outside end and unroll the coil pull the tagged end through the eye of the coil pull the tagged end from the top of the coil
The strongest of the natural fibers is __________. sisal manila cotton hemp
Which term describes a part of a natural fiber line? Fibers Lacings Lays Twines
The larger sizes of manila line are measured by their __________. weight per foot diameter circumference radius
Which type of line would have the LEAST resistance to mildew and rot? Polypropylene Dacron Manila Nylon
Manila lines in which the strands are right-hand laid __________. should be coiled in a counterclockwise direction may be coiled either clockwise or counterclockwise should be coiled in a clockwise direction should never be coiled
Uncoiling manila line improperly can result in a(n) __________. 50% loss of efficiency of the line kink in the line increase in deterioration of the line number of fishhooks
As you hold a piece of manila line vertically in front of you, the strands run from the lower left to the upper right. Which type of line is this? Cable-laid Sennet-laid Right-hand laid Water-laid
As you hold a piece of manila line vertically in front of you, the strands run from the lower right to the upper left. Which type of line is this? Water-laid Left-hand laid Plain-laid Shroud-laid
The "lay" of a line refers to __________. the manner in which it is rigged the manner in which it is coiled the direction of twist in the strands its normal location of stowage
"White Line" is made from __________. cotton hemp manila sisal
Line is called "small stuff" if its circumference is less than __________. 1" 1 3/4" 3/4" 1/2"
In the manufacture of line, plant fibers are twisted together to form __________. strands yarns cable line
A piece of small stuff (small line) secured to an object to prevent it from going adrift is a __________. lanyard stopper keeper noose
To coil a left-hand laid rope, you should coil the line in __________. a counterclockwise direction only either a clockwise or a counterclockwise direction a clockwise direction only an alternating clockwise and counterclockwise direction
To coil a right-laid rope, you should coil the line in __________. a counterclockwise direction either a clockwise or counterclockwise directions a clockwise direction alternating clockwise and counterclockwise directions
Which term describes a rope in which three right-handed strands are laid up left-handed? Hard-laid Shroud laid Hawser-laid Soft-laid
Which method is used to detect rot in manila lines? Feeling the surface of the line for broken fibers Opening the strands and examining the inner fibers Observing for the appearance of mildew on the outer surface Measuring the reduction in circumference of the line
A natural fiber rope can be ruined by dampness because it may __________. unlay stretch rot shrink
In order to help protect a natural fiber rope from rotting, the line must be __________. stowed in a hot, moist compartment stowed on deck at all times dried, and stowed in a place with adequate ventilation stowed in any compartment
Roundline is a __________. four-stranded, left- or right-handed line small tarred hempline of three strands laid left-handed three-stranded, left-handed line three-stranded, right-handed line
An example of a messenger is a __________. heaving line fairlead stay warp
Faking a line means to __________. stow it below coil it down on deck arrange it on deck in long bights put a whipping on it
When using natural-fiber rope, you should NEVER __________. try to lubricate the line dry the line before stowing it use chafing gear reverse turns on winches periodically to keep out kinks
When caring for natural-fiber line, you should NEVER __________. dry the line before stowing it protect the line from weather lubricate the line slack off taut lines when it rains
When taking a length of new manila rope from the coil, you should __________. mount the coil so it will turn like a spool and unreel from the outside lay the coil on end with the inside end down, then pull the inside end up through the middle of the coil roll the coil along the deck and allow the rope to fall off the coil lay the coil on end with the inside end up then unwind the rope from the outside of the coil
When natural fiber rope gets wet, the __________. overall strength of the line will decrease line will become more elastic line will be easier to handle line shrinks in length
Which is NOT a recommended practice when handling nylon line? Nylon lines which become slippery because of oil or grease should be scrubbed down. When easing out nylon line, keep an extra turn on the bitt to prevent slipping. Manila line stoppers should be used for holding nylon hawsers. Iced-over nylon lines should be thawed and drained before stowing.
Which type of line will stretch the most when under strain? Dacron Polypropylene Manila Nylon
Nylon line is NOT suitable for __________. towing lashings mooring lines stoppers
Under identical load conditions, nylon, when compared with natural fiber line, will stretch __________. less and have greater strength less and have less strength more and have less strength more and have greater strength
Which type of line is best able to withstand sudden shock loads? Nylon Manila Polypropylene Dacron
If given equal care, nylon line should last how many times longer than manila line? Three Four Five Six
Compared to manila line, size for size, nylon line __________. is equivalent to manila line will rot quicker than manila line has more strength than manila line has less strength than manila line
Nylon line can be dangerous because it __________. breaks down when wet kinks when wet stretches is not elastic
An advantage of nylon rope over manila rope is that nylon rope __________. can be used in conjunction with wire or spring-lay rope can hold a load even when a considerable amount of the yarns have been abraded can be stored on decks exposed to sunlight gives audible warning of overstress whereas manila does not
A new coil of nylon line should be opened by __________. unreeling from a spool pulling the end up through the eye of the coil taking a strain on both ends uncoiling from the outside with the coil standing on end
The critical point in nylon line elongation is about __________. 20 (%) 30 (%) 40 (%) 50 (%)
A normal safe working load for used nylon rope in good condition is __________. 10% of its breaking strain 25% of its breaking strain 33% of its breaking strain 50% of its breaking strain
Which statement is TRUE about nylon line? Manila line will usually last longer than nylon line. A normal safe working load will stretch nylon line 50%. Nylon line is excellent for use in alongside towing. Nylon stoppers should be used with nylon line.
Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________. secured or stowed out of the way stowed anywhere left on deck conspicuously marked
Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook is called __________. mousing worming flemishing down faking
Safety is increased if __________. power tools are kept plugged in for immediate use extra line and wire are laid out on deck for emergency use spare parts are kept on deck for ready access all lashings are made up, and the decks are clean and clear
You should keep clear of __________. any line under a strain lines that are coiled down only lines that are paying out None of the above are correct
A rope made of a combination of wire and fiber is known as __________. spring lay preformed lang lay independent
Coiling new rope against the lay, bringing the lower end up through the center of the coil, then coiling with the lay, in order to remove the kinks, is known as __________. thoroughfooting flemishing faking coiling
Stuffer-braid rope has __________. three strands a yarn core no core 12 threads
Which is a characteristic of stuffer-braid rope? A yarn core 12 threads The line has no core Three strands
Right-laid line should be coiled __________. on a reel either clockwise or counterclockwise counterclockwise clockwise
Laying out a line in successive circles flat on deck with the bitter end in the center is known as __________. flemishing lining coiling faking
When a line is spirally coiled about its end and lying flat on deck, it is said to be __________. seized coiled faked flemished
When a line is laid down in loose, looping figure-eights, it is said to be __________. flemished coiled faked chined
During the manufacture of line, yarns are twisted together in the __________. opposite direction from which the fibers are twisted together to form the line same direction the fibers are twisted to form strands opposite direction from which the fibers are twisted together to form strands opposite direction from which the fibers are twisted together forming cables
Which factor is most likely to impair the strength and durability of synthetic line? Washing with mild soap Sunlight Mildew Dry rot
Which rope has the greatest breaking strength? Polypropylene Manila Polyester Nylon
Which synthetic rope has the greatest breaking strength? Polyethylene Polyester Polypropylene Polyglycine
Which line would be least likely to kink? Left-handed laid Right-handed laid Braided Straight laid
Which type of line floats? Dacron Polypropylene Nylon Old manila
What type of line melts easiest? Polypropylene Dacron Wire Nylon
In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "E" called? after spring line bow spring line forward breast line bow line
In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "A" called? onshore stern line after spring line offshore stern line after breast line
In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "B" called? after spring line after breast line offshore stern line inshore stern line
In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "C" called? breast line shore line stern line spring line
In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "D" called? after spring line forward spring line waist breast line stern line
In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "H" called? onshore bow line offshore spring line forward breast line offshore bow line
In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "F" called? bow line breast line forward spring line None of the above
In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "G" called? forward spring line offshore bow line forward breast line inshore bow line
In order to pay out or slack a mooring line which is under strain, you should __________. surge the line stopper the line slip the line sluice the line
Which method of adjusting mooring lines is MOST useful for leaving a boat free to rise and fall with the tide? Slacking bow and stern lines Doubling up on spring or breast lines Crossing the spring lines Slacking all forward running lines while keeping all after running lines taut
Two mooring lines may be placed on the same bollard and either one cast off first if __________. the mooring lines are doubled the eye of the second line is dipped the bollard has two horns one of the lines is a breast line
When passing a hawser to the dock you would first use what line? Warp Preventer Heaving line Gantline
If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST? It makes no difference how the lines are placed. Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the other line up through the eye of the first, and place it on the bollard. Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye from the second line directly over the first. Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to the same winch head on the vessel and secure them on the winch.
What should you do to a line to prevent fraying where it passes over the side of the vessel? Worm that part of the line. Cover it with chafing gear. Splice that part of the line. Install a cleat.
When a line is subject to wear where it passes through a mooring chock, it should be __________. wormed, parceled, and served wrapped with heavy tape wrapped with chafing gear wrapped in leather
The usual method of arranging a line on deck so that it will run out easily without kinking or fouling is __________. racking the line flemishing the line coiling the line faking down the line
A mooring line that checks forward motion of a vessel at a pier is a __________. bow line forward bow line stern breast line stern line
You want to double the strength of a mooring line by using two lines. To accomplish this, the second line must __________. be of the same length be 1 1/2 times the diameter of the first be married to the first not cross the first
A Chinese stopper (two lines) will hold best when you __________. fasten the bitter ends to the mooring line with half hitches twist the ends together and hold them at right angles to the mooring line twist the ends together and hold them in the direction of the pull twist the ends together and hold them in the direction opposite to the pull
The main advantage of a Chinese stopper over the one line stopper is that it __________. is easier to use when under heavy tension will not jam on the mooring line is stronger is safer to use when under heavy tension
Your vessel is to dock bow first at a pier without the assistance of tugboats. Which line will be the most useful when maneuvering the vessel alongside the pier? Bow breast line Inshore head line Bow spring line Stern breast line
Your vessel is to dock bow in at a pier without the assistance of tugboats. Which line will be the most useful when maneuvering the vessel alongside the pier? Bow breast line Bow spring line Inshore head line Stern breast line
Your vessel is docking, but not yet alongside. Which line will be the most useful when maneuvering the vessel alongside the pier? Offshore head line Inshore head line Bow breast line Bow spring line
Nylon line is better suited than manila for __________. holding knots and splices towing astern towing alongside resisting damage from chemicals
The line with the most stretch is __________. dacron manila polypropylene nylon
The rope which is the lightest is __________. polypropylene dacron nylon manila
Using a safety factor of five, determine the safe working load of a line with a breaking strain of 20,000 pounds. 4000 5000 20000 100000
Using a safety factor of 6, determine the safe working load of a line with a breaking strain of 30,000 pounds. 5,000 lbs. 100,000 lbs. 20,000 lbs. 4,000 lbs.
Using a safety factor of 6, determine the safe working load of manila line with a breaking stress of 8 tons. 0.75 tons 1.25 tons 1.33 tons 8.00 tons
Using a safety factor of five, determine what is the safe working load for 3-1/2 inch manila line with a breaking stress of 4.9 tons. 0.82 ton 0.98 ton 2.45 tons 12.25 tons
What is the computed breaking strength of a 4-inch manila line? 5,280 lbs. 7,700 lbs. 12,200 lbs. 14,400 lbs.
What minimum size manila line is required to hold a weight of 932 pounds, if you use a safety factor of six? 2.0" 2.5" 3.0" 3.5"
What is the breaking strain of steel wire rope with a 5/8" diameter? 1.0 tons 6.6 tons 9.6 tons 15.6 tons
A nylon line is rated at 15,000 lbs. breaking strain. Using a safety factor of 5, what is the safe working load (SWL)? 3,000 lbs 5,000 lbs 15,000 lbs 65,000 lbs
A nylon line is rated at 12,000 lbs. breaking strain. Using a safety factor of 5, what is the safe working load (SWL)? 2,000 lbs. 2,400 lbs. 12,000 lbs. 60,000 lbs.
A wire rope rove through two single blocks with two parts at the moving block is used for a boat fall. The weight of the 100-person boat is 5 tons. Compute the required breaking strain. Safety Factor - 6, weight per person - 165 lbs., 10% friction per sheave (2 sheaves). 18.30 tons B.S. 20.29 tons B.S. 22.27 tons B.S. 24.31 tons B.S.
Close link chain of not less the 3/4" (or the wire rope equivalent) is required for lashing deck cargoes of timber. What size flexible wire rope would provide the strength equivalent to 3/4" chain, using a safety factor of 5? 9/16" 1" 1 1/4" 1 3/8"
The rope which is rove from the truck to be used with a bos'n's chair is called a __________. life line whip strop gantline
You are preparing to lubricate standing rigging on your vessel. When rigging a bosun's chair on a stay with a shackle, __________. tie the bitter end of the gantline to the shackle before shackling it to the bosun's chair connect the shackle to the bosun's chair with a hook never allow the shackle pin to ride on the stay run the gantline through the shackle and then make fast to the bosun's chair
You would properly secure a gantline to a bosun's chair with a __________. double sheet bend double blackwall hitch fisherman's bend bowline
After having been pulled aloft in a bosun's chair on a mast, you must now make yourself fast in the chair prior to painting the mast. You should first __________. have the sailor on deck make the hauling part fast to a cleat on the mast make the tail of the line leading from the becket bend fast to a padeye on the mast seize the hauling part and the standing part firmly in one hand to support your weight frap yourself to the mast to take the strain off the hauling part
You have been pulled aloft in a bosun's chair rigged to a mast that you intend to paint. You are now supporting your weight by seizing the hauling part and the standing part of the gantline in one hand. Your next procedure in securing the bosun's chair is to __________. dip the bight of the hauling part around your back and up in front of you to form the hitch secure the tail of the standing part leading from the becket bend to the mast secure the standing part of the gantline to the hauling part by taking turns of marlin and tying off take a strain on the hauling part by having it led to the gypsy head on a winch
The normal and safest way for a sailor to be lowered in a bosun's chair when descending vertically is __________. for that sailor to feed the hauling part through a bosun's chair hitch to lead the hauling part to a cleat on the mast and slacking the sailor down by leading the bight of the hauling part to a rail and taking several turns, then slacking away with the bight by taking several turns of the gantline on a winch drum and then lower the sailor by backing off on the winch
The normal and safest way for a sailor in a bosun's chair to be raised aloft is __________. by taking the gantline to a winch drum and heaving away with the winch manually by two or three sailors heaving away on deck by fairleading the gantline with a snatch block and pulling with a cargo runner for the sailor to pull himself aloft and then make fast with a bosun's chair hitch
You are preparing to slush a stay on your vessel by lowering yourself down the stay in a bosun's chair. The proper way to do this is to ride down the stay on a riding shackle __________. with the pin of the shackle riding on the stay with the pin of the shackle through the chair's bridle eye with a hook attaching the chair to the riding shackle connected to a second shackle on the chair
Which of the following statements concerning the rigging of bosuns' chairs and their use is TRUE? Always secure the gantline to the chair with a bowline. Always have the chair hoisted with at least three turns on a winch drum. When riding a stay, make sure that the bow of the shackle passes through the becket of the bridle. Any tools, paint pots etc. should be secured by lanyards.
When rigging a bosun's chair, a tail block or lizard is used to __________. guide the bosun's chair down a stay when applying a protective coating run paint or tools up to a sailor in a chair with a heaving line reeve the gantline through keep a bosun's chair from swinging with the ship's motion
What should you inspect to be sure that it is safe to go aloft in a bosun's chair? The tail block The gantline The chair and bridle All of the above.
You are rigging a stage over the ship's side to serve as a working platform. For stability of the stage, the downhaul to one end of the stage and the downhaul to the other end, which are used for lowering the stage, should be led __________. one to the inboard and the other to the outboard both to the outboard side of the stage both to the inboard side of the stage either both to the inboard or both to the outboard side of the stage
A vessel is underway with a work stage rigged over the side. A seaman may work on the stage, but only when __________. the vessel is not making way wearing a life jacket wearing a safety harness secured to the stage wearing both a life jacket and a safety harness secured to the stage
You are rigging a stage over the vessel's side and are securing the downhaul with lowering turns at your end of the stage. When finished, the remainder of the line should be __________. coiled on the stage with the bitter end on top coiled on the stage with the bitter end on the bottom lowered down into the water coiled on deck to be slacked down by a seaman as needed
To properly rig the downhaul to your stage for lowering, you must __________. pass the downhaul through the bridle formed by the standing part and then take round turns take only figure eights around the horns take 2 round turns around the stage and then dip the third turn to form a clove hitch take 2 or 3 round turns around the stage and then belay the downhaul around the horns
The knot used to form the bridle at the standing part of a gantline rigged to a stage is a __________. sheet bend fisherman's bend bowline carrick bend
The hitch used to secure the standing part of a gantline to the horns of a stage is a __________. blackwall hitch clove hitch Killick hitch marlinespike hitch
When rigging a stage, the standing part should be fastened to the horns of a stage with which of the following hitches? Timber hitch Double blackwall hitch Marlinespike hitch Clove hitch
A stage should only be rigged __________. over the open water over the bow or stern of a vessel over the dockside over the flat sides of a vessel
What should be readily available on deck while seamen are working over the side on a stage? Fire extinguisher First aid kit Ring buoy Stokes basket
What equipment is customarily used when seamen are working on a stage rigged over the side of a vessel? Jacob's ladder Heaving lines Manropes All of the above.
When lowering manropes alongside a stage rigged over the side of a vessel, they should be allowed to trail in the water __________. only for short periods of time since they will become waterlogged and be very heavy to pull up to allow the seamen on the stage to know the direction and strength of the current to provide the seaman something to hold onto if he or she falls from the stage into the water to easily remove the kinks that form in the lines
A bench hook is used for __________. sewing canvas handling of cargo cases hanging oilskins splicing small stuff
A sail hook is used for __________. parceling testing canvas sewing canvas hoisting a windsail
"Herringbone" is a term associated with __________. splicing anchoring sewing mooring
Serving is __________. marline tightly wound on the rope by means of a board or mallet a splice made by laying the strand of one rope into the vacated grooves of another rope narrow strips of light canvas or cotton cloth spiral-wrapped along the rope marline or ratline wound along the grooves of a rope
Sluicing or slushing wire rope __________. reduces internal friction within the wire reduces chafing and increases its useful service life prevents internal and external rust and corrosion All of the above.
Using illustration D058DG below, which of the figures is the preferred method of forming a temporary eye splice using wire rope clips? A. B. C. D.
When securing a hook to the end of a wire rope you should use __________. an overhand knot with a wire rope clip a bowline knot wire rope clips with a thimble eye a long splice
To find the distance the strands should be unlaid for an eye splice, multiply the diameter of the wire in inches by __________. 12 24 36 48
Using illustration D058DG below, which of the figures protects the stress bearing end of a wire rope from being crushed while forming a temporary eye splice using wire rope clips? C. A. B. All the above.
What is an advantage of the 6X19 class of wire rope over the 6X37 class of wire rope of the same diameter? More resistance to elongation Greater holding power Better for towing More resistance to corrosion
A metal eye spliced into a wire is called a __________. cyclops chip fish eye thimble
Which is normally used to hold wire rope for splicing? Sealing clamp Jigger Rigger's screw Come along
Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning wire rope? Wire rope should be condemned if the outside wires are worn to one-half their original diameter. Wire rope should be condemned if the fiber core appears moist. Wire rope which is right-hand laid should be coiled counterclockwise to prevent kinking. All of the above.
Wire rope should be renewed when the __________. outer wires are worn to half their original diameter outer wires are rusted inner core appears dry certification period expires
The correct way to make an eye in a wire rope with clips is to place the clips with the __________. first and third U-bolts on the bitter end and the second U-bolt on the standing part U-bolts of all clips on the bitter end U-bolts of all clips on the standing part first and third U-bolts on the standing part and the second U-bolt on the bitter end
The main function of the core of a wire rope is to __________. give flexibility support the strands laid around it allow lubrication inside the rope allow some circulation around the strands
Which of the following should you do when using wire rope clips to form a temporary eye in a wire rope? place the U-bolt of the wire rope clips on the dead end of the rope check the clips after an hour of operation to determine if the clips loosened due to wire rope expansion wire rope clips should never be used to form a temporary eye splice replace the entire wire rope if broken wires are detected around the clips
What is an advantage of having wire rope with a fiber core over that of a wire rope of the same size with a wire core? Fiber core rope offers greater flexibility. Fiber core rope is the only type authorized for cargo runners. Fiber core rope offers greater strength. Fiber core rope can be used at higher operating temperatures.
Temporary seizings on wire rope are made with __________. tape sail twine marline wire
The ultimate or maximum strength of a wire rope is referred to as the __________. lifting load breaking strength operating strength working load
A temporary wire eye splice made with three wire rope clamps will hold approximately what percentage of the total rope strength? 20 (%) 50 (%) 80 (%) 99 (%)
What is the main reason to slush a wire rope? Lubricate the inner wires and prevent wear Prevent rotting Prevent kinking Keep the wire soft and manageable
When cutting wire rope, seizings are put on each side of the cut. The seizings prevent the wire from unlaying and also __________. maintain the original balance of the tension in the wires and strands forces lubricant from the core to protect the raw, cut end prevent moisture from entering between the wires at the cut end All of the above.
When cutting regular-lay wire rope, what is the minimum number of seizings to be placed on each side of the cut? One Two, and three on rope diameters over 1 inch Three, and more on larger diameter wire ropes Four
Which will cause a wire rope to fail? Operating a winch too slow A sheave diameter of 24 times the wire's diameter Using a medium graphite grease as a lubricant Using a sheave with an undersized throat
When you "end for end" a wire rope, you __________. remove the wire rope from the drum and turn it over, so the wire bends in the opposite direction cut off the free end and bitter end of the rope splice two wire ropes together remove the wire rope from the drum and reverse it so that the free end becomes the bitter end
What material may be substituted for zinc when making a poured metal socket ending to a wire rope? Babbitt Nothing Lead Solder
The strongest method of forming an eye in wire rope is using __________. a thimble fastened with four or five tucks a wire rope socket attached with zinc an eye splice with four or five tucks three wire rope clamps
If you were to pass a stopper on a wire rope, what should the stopper be made of? Wire Nylon Manila Chain
Galvanizing would not be suitable for protecting wire rope which is used for __________. cargo runners stays shrouds mooring wires
A wire rope that has been overstrained will show __________. a decrease in diameter where the strain occurred a kink in the wire where the strain occurred a bulge in the wire where the strain occurred no visible effects of an overstrain
If kinking results while wire rope is being coiled clockwise, you should __________. twist out the kinks under a strain not coil it coil it counterclockwise take a turn under
After splicing an eye in a piece of wire rope, the splice should be parceled and served to __________. prevent hand injury by covering loose ends make the line more flexible increase its efficiency strengthen the line
When inspecting wire rope before a hoisting operation, one must look for __________. worn spots kinks fishhooks All of the above.
When working with wire rope, which must be considered? It should be lubricated annually. The diameter of a sheave over which a rope is worked should be ten times that of the rope. Metal sheaves should be lined with wood or leather. It needs better care than hemp or manila.
Which molten substance is poured into the basket of a wire rope socket being fitted to the end of a wire rope? Bronze Zinc Lead Babbitt
What is a step in attaching a poured metal socket to a wire rope? Install a wire seizing on the wire that will be inside the socket. Ensure the fiber core is well lubricated. Pour molten babbitt metal into the socket. Etch the wire with acid.
Which type of stopper should be used to stop off wire rope? Manila Polypropylene Chain Wire
Galvanizing would be suitable for protecting wire rope which is used for __________. topping lifts stays cargo runners All of the above.
Wire rope is galvanized to __________. increase its circumference protect it from corrosion due to contact with saltwater increase its strength make it bend more easily
In the manufacture of wire rope, if the wires are shaped to conform to the curvature of the finished rope before they are laid up, the rope is called __________. preformed composite left-lay improved
When talking about wire rope, the lay of the wire is the __________. direction the core is twisted number of strands in the wire direction wires and strands are twisted together material used in the core
A six-strand composite rope made up of alternate fiber and wire strands around a fiber core is called __________. alternate lay spring lay cable lay lang lay
A 6x12, two-inch wire rope has __________. 6 strands and a two-inch circumference 12 strands and a two-inch diameter 12 strands and a two-inch circumference 6 strands and a two-inch diameter
A mooring line is described as being 6x24, 1-3/4 inch wire rope. What do the above numbers refer to? Wires, yarns, diameter Strands, circumference, wires Strands, yarns, circumference Strands, wires, diameter
A 6x19 wire rope would be __________. 6 inches in circumference with 19 strands 19 strands with 6 wires in each strand 6 strands with 19 wires in each strand 6 inches in diameter and 19 fathoms long
The size of wire rope is determined by the __________. diameter circumference number of strands number of wires in each strand
A common class of wire rope is the 6X37 class. What does the 37 represent? Number of wires per strand Number of wires in the inner core Number of strands per wire rope Tensile strength of the wire
The safe working load (SWL) of wire rope with a safety factor of 6 is what percent of its strength? 10 (%) 17 (%) 50 (%) 80 (%)
When taking a Pilot from a pilot vessel in a seaway, which way should you head your vessel if the ladder is on the leeward side? Bow to the sea and no way on your vessel Sea on the weather bow and ship moving ahead slowly Sea on the lee quarter with ship moving ahead slowly Sea on the quarter with sternway on the ship
You are approaching the pilot station with the wind fine on the starboard bow and making about 3 knots. You can help to calm the seas by taking what action just before the pilot boat comes along on the port side? Stopping the engines Giving right full rudder A short burst of ahead full with left full rudder Backing full
Which statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE? It will allow you to hold a position when the current is from astern. It is fully effective at speeds up to about six knots. It provides lateral control without affecting headway. It can be used to slow the ship in addition to backing down.
The bow thruster generally is ineffective at __________. over 1 knot sternway at any speed astern over 3 knots headway at any speed ahead
Which statement about tunnel bow thrusters fitted to large vessels is TRUE? Because of their location, most modern installations have as much power as a tug. They are fully effective at all drafts. They are effective on most vessels at speeds up to 10 knots. When going astern at slow speed, they provide effective steering control.
"An electronic or electric device that indicates the rate of turn of a vessel," defines a/an __________. magnetic compass odometer gyro-compass swing meter
Leeway is the __________. difference between the true course and the compass course lateral movement of a vessel downwind of her intended course momentum of a vessel after her engines have been stopped displacement of a vessel multiplied by her speed
As a rule, ships of most configurations, when drifting in calm water with negligible current, will lie __________. beam to the wind bow to the wind stern to the wind with the wind on the quarter
A VLCC (100,000 DWT+) with a 30,000 Shaft Horsepower Steam Turbine is slow to respond to engine movements and has less stopping power than normal ships because it has a __________. larger power to weight ratio smaller propeller bigger propeller smaller power to weight ratio
Most of your vessel's superstructure is forward. How will the vessel lie when drifting with no way on? With the wind off the starboard beam With the wind from abaft the beam With the wind from ahead With the wind off the port beam
You are drifting in a locale where there is no current. As a rule, your vessel will lie __________. bow to the wind beam to the wind stern to the wind with the wind on the quarter
Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE? A fully loaded vessel will be slower to respond to the engines. A fully loaded vessel will maintain her headway further. A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water. A light vessel will be more affected by the wind.
The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when __________. going full ahead turning backing going slow ahead
When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to __________. back down with the rudder hard to one side, if on a single-screw vessel take advantage of the tendency to back to port, if on a twin-screw vessel turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a single-screw vessel go ahead on both engines with the rudder hard to one side, if on a twin-screw vessel
Which statement about stopping a vessel is TRUE? A vessel is dead in the water when the back wash from astern operation reaches the bow. A lightly laden vessel requires as much stopping distance as a fully laden vessel when the current is from astern. When a vessel is dead in the water any speed displayed by Doppler log reflects the current. A tunnel bow thruster can be used in an emergency to reduce the stopping distance.
A vessel reduces speed without backing. The rate that her speed through the water decreases depends primarily on the __________. vessel's displacement vessel's horsepower sea state number of propellers
The maneuvering information required to be posted in the wheelhouse must be based on certain conditions. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions? The hull must be clean. The depth of the water must be at least one and one-half times the draft. There must be no current. There must be calm weather-wind 10 knots or less and a calm sea.
You are heading into the sea during rough weather. Having too much weight forward can cause your small boat to __________. rise rapidly over the wave plunge into the wave broach list
Usually the most gentle way of riding out a severe storm on a larger vessel is __________. running before the seas to rig a sea anchor hove to head on at slow speeds
Which measure should NOT be taken to reduce the pounding of a vessel in a head sea? Add ballast forward. Reduce speed. Alter course. Add ballast in the after peak.
You are underway in heavy weather and your bow is into the seas. To prevent pounding, you should __________. secure all loose gear decrease speed change course, in order to take the seas at an 85 degree angle from the bow increase speed
When running before a heavy sea, moving weights aft will affect the handling of a vessel by __________. increasing rolling increasing yawing reducing yawing reducing rolling
Your vessel is off a lee shore in heavy weather and laboring. Which action should you take? Heave to in the trough of the sea. Put the sea and wind about two points on either bow and reduce speed. Put the bow directly into the sea and proceed at full speed. Put the sea and wind on either quarter and proceed at increased speed.
When a boat turns broadside to heavy seas and winds, thus exposing the boat to the danger of capsizing, the boat has __________. pitchpoled yawed broached trimmed
With a following sea, a vessel will tend to __________. reduce speed yaw pound heave to
In which situation could a vessel most easily capsize? Running in the trough Running with following seas Running into head seas Anchored with your bow into the seas
When the period of beam seas equals the natural rolling period of a vessel, what will most likely occur? Excessive pitching Excessive yawing Excessive rolling No change should be evident
When making way in heavy seas you notice that your vessel's screw is being lifted clear of the water and racing. One way to correct this would be to __________. decrease speed shift the rudder back and forth several times move more weight forward increase speed
If your propeller is racing in rough weather, you should __________. decrease your engine speed ignore it increase your engine speed stop your engine until the rough weather passes
Which action reduces the yawing of a vessel in a following sea? Increasing GM Pumping out tanks aft Shifting weights to the stern Shifting weights to the bow
What is meant by the term "broaching to"? Having the vessel filled with water Having the vessel head toward the sea Being turned broadside to the sea Running before a sea
You are steaming in a heavy gale and find it necessary to heave to. Under most circumstances, this is best done by __________. going slow astern and taking the seas on the quarter taking the sea fine on the bow and reducing the speed to the minimum to hold that position stopping the engines and drifting beam to the seas maintaining speed and taking the sea broad on the bow
When a vessel is swinging from side to side off course due to quartering seas, the vessel is __________. rolling broaching pitchpoling yawing
Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the danger of capsizing by __________. moving all passengers to the stern rigging a sea anchor constantly shifting the rudder moving all passengers to one side of the boat
In a following sea, a wave has overtaken your vessel and thrown the stern to starboard. To continue along your original course, you should __________. increase speed use more right rudder decrease speed use more left rudder
Which statement about ships operating in ice is FALSE? Light and partly loaded ships should be ballasted as deeply as possible. In brash-filled channels, operating with a shallow draft forward is most effective. Good searchlights should be available in the event of night navigation with or without icebreaker escort. Traditionally, operating ships light in the ice has been effective in the spring.
An icebreaker assisting a vessel through an ice field would display a visual signal consisting of the code letter "E" (Echo) to signify that "__________". I am altering my course to port I am altering my course to starboard I am operating astern propulsion My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water
An icebreaker assisting a vessel through an ice field would display a visual signal consisting of the code letter "M" (Mike) to signify that "__________". I am altering my course to port I am altering my course to starboard I am operating astern propulsion my vessel is stopped and making no way through the water
A vessel which is being assisted by an icebreaker should indicate that he is ready to cast off the towline (if one is used) by __________. sounding one prolonged blast of his whistle displaying code numeral "5" sounding five short blasts of his whistle displaying code letter "Y" (Yankee)
An icebreaker assisting a vessel through an ice field would display a visual signal consisting of the code letter "I" (India) to signify that "__________". My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water I am altering my course to port I am altering my course to starboard I am operating astern propulsion
An icebreaker assisting a vessel through an ice field would display a visual signal consisting of the code letter "S" (Sierra) to signify that "__________". I am altering my course to port I am operating astern propulsion My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water I am altering my course to starboard
When more than one vessel is being assisted by an icebreaker, distances between vessels should be constant. Which signal should be given by a vessel which is ahead of another and whose speed suddenly begins to drop? A flag hoist consisting of the code figure "4" Four short blast on the whistle A flag hoist consisting of the code letters "FE" (Foxtrot-Echo) A flag hoist consisting of the code figure "5"
An icebreaker may use the code letter "K" to remind ships of their obligation to listen continuously on their radio. This signal may be made by any of the following EXCEPT __________. radiotelephone light signal sound signal visual signal
An icebreaker displaying a flag hoist which consists of the code letters "WO" (Whiskey Oscar) is indicating that __________. the icebreaker is beset icebreaker support is commencing icebreaker support is finished the icebreaker is icebound
What is the meaning of a flag hoist consisting of the code letters "WM" (Whiskey Mike) when displayed by an icebreaker? "Icebreaker support is finished." "You should stop your vessel instantly." "I am going ahead; follow me." "Icebreaker support is now commencing."
Which vessel, if navigating independently in ice, is more likely to become beset due to inadequate horsepower? A 254 ft. "Whaleback" tanker with 1800 H.P. A 309 ft. cement carrier with 2000 H.P. A 385 ft. shallow draft tanker with 2400 H.P. A 630 ft. bulk ore carrier with 3500 H.P.
Which single-letter signal, when used by icebreakers on the Great Lakes, may be made by using the ship's whistle? E M I None
Adequate horsepower is of great importance when a ship is navigating independently in ice. Adequate horsepower is generally considered to exist when the horsepower to length ratio is at least __________. 6 to 1 or better 8 to 1 or better 4 to 1 or better 5 to 1 or better
Your vessel is being assisted through an ice field in Thunder Bay by the Canadian Coast Guard icebreaker Alexander Henry. The starboard lookout reports that the icebreaker has run up the code flag "N" (November). What action should you take? Reverse your engines Reduce speed Stop your engines Stop your vessel instantly
A U.S. Coast Guard icebreaker, while escorting ships in ice, may sound four short and one long blasts on the whistle to indicate that the icebreaker __________. is increasing the distance between vessels is increasing speed; watch for broken ice has become beset in fast ice has its engines full astern
What is NOT a basic shiphandling rule for navigating in ice concentrations on the Great Lakes? Excessive speed means ice damage. Transit ice along pressure ridges when possible. Keep moving - even very slowly, but keep moving. Work with the ice movement, not against.
Which statement is TRUE with respect to shiphandling procedures in ice? Enter ice at medium speeds to reduce impact. Go astern in ice with extreme care - always with rudder amidships. The presence of a snow cover on the ice assists a vessel's progress through an ice field. Never go "full astern" at any time while in ice.
Ice is often strong enough to halt navigation through the St. Lawrence Seaway by mid- __________. November December October January
Your ship is navigating independently in heavy ice when it becomes beset. Which statement is FALSE? The propeller is more susceptible to ice damage when turning slowly than when stopped. It is advisable to clear the rudder area of ice by using ahead turns before backing down. The vessel may be able to free herself by pumping ballast from side to side. The vessel will most likely require an icebreaker to free her.
Commercial ships or other persons or agencies requiring the assistance of Canadian Coast Guard icebreakers should first contact __________. the Canadian Coast Guard Ice Sarnia the Ice Navigation Center the icebreaker assigned to the area
A vessel which is being assisted by an icebreaker would display a flag hoist consisting of the code numeral "4" when the vessel __________. speed begins to drop receives ice damage stops becomes icebound
Which type of ice is the most difficult to combat and presents the greatest hazard to shipping on the Great Lakes during the winter months? Pack slush ice Slow ice Fast ice Icebergs
Which statement concerning the navigation of a vessel in ice is FALSE? The "Free and Proceed" system of escorting a beset vessel cuts down on the number of freeing operations. When anchoring in ice, it is advisable to increase the scope of the chain over what is normally used for non-icing conditions. Towing a vessel through an ice field is not recommended except in an emergency. Anchoring in the presence of ice is not recommended except in an emergency.
How does an icebreaker normally free a ship which has become beset while navigating independently? By approaching the vessel from astern and towing the beset vessel stern first By approaching from the stern and crossing ahead at an angle of 20° to 30° to the beset ship's course By overtaking the beset ship, running ahead and then backing down the track to the beset vessel By backing down the track and cutting out ice on either bow
A U.S. Coast Guard icebreaker may use all of the following distinctive lights when escorting ships in ice EXCEPT __________. a single red rotating light a single blue rotating light a single amber rotating light red aircraft warning lights
While being assisted by an icebreaker on Lake Superior, you receive a single letter code instructing you to slow your vessel. Which signal could you use to signify that you are complying with the request? Four blasts of the whistle, namely 1 short 2 long and 1 short The code flag "A" (Alpha) displayed from a halyard The code flag "L" (Lima) displayed from a halyard Three blasts of the whistle
Which publication would give detailed information on the commercial vessel traffic reporting system for connecting waters from Lake Erie to Lake Huron? The appropriate Great Lakes Navigation Chart Code of Federal Regulations - Title 33 United States Coast Pilot Number 6 - Great Lakes U.S. Coast Guard Light List - Vol. VII
A vessel which is being assisted by an icebreaker should indicate that she is ready to cast off the towline by __________. displaying code numeral "5" sounding one prolonged blast on his whistle displaying code letter "Y" (Yankee) sounding five short blasts on his whistle
Before entering an ice area, the ship should be __________. trimmed down by the head trimmed down by the stern either trimmed by the head or the stern on an even keel
For operations in pack ice, a vessel should __________. be on an even keel have a drag of not more than 2 to 3 feet be trimmed slightly by the head be ballasted so the forefoot is near the surface
Ice concentration is measured in tenths. What concentration range of ice corresponds to "Open Pack"? 4 - 6 tenths < 1 tenth 1 - 3 tenths 7 - 8 tenths
Ice concentration is measured in tenths. What concentration range of ice corresponds to 1- 3 tenths? Very Close Pack Open Pack Very Open Pack Close Pack
In general, an un-reinforced vessel can safely navigate in ice provided the concentration does not exceed how many tenths? 4 - 6 tenths 1 - 3 tenths 6 - 8 tenths 9 - 10 tenths
Ice concentration is measured in tenths. What concentration range of ice corresponds to "Close Pack"? 7 - 8 tenths 1 - 3 tenths 4 - 6 tenths 9 - 10 tenths
In general, a reinforced vessel can safely navigate in ice provided the concentration does not exceed how many tenths? 1-2 tenths 3-4 tenths 5- 7 tenths 8- 9 tenths with ice breaker assistance
You are on an ice-reinforced vessel about to enter pack ice. You should __________. enter the pack on the windward side where there is a well defined ice edge take maximum advantage of coastal leads caused by offshore winds trim to an even keel or slightly down by the bow to take maximum benefit of the ice reinforcement look for areas of rotten ice and enter perpendicular to the ice edge
What should NOT be used as an indicator that ice may be nearby? A yellowish glare in the sky A dark appearance of the sky A gradual drop in sea water temperature to below 32°F The presence of seals or certain type birds
The proximity of pack ice may be indicated by __________. icebergs glare on clouds on the horizon changes in air temperature changes in seawater salinity
What is NOT an indication that pack ice may be nearby? Sighting a walrus in the Arctic The presence of icebergs Ice blink Absence of wave motion
"Ice blink" is __________. the dark appearance of the underside of a cloud layer due to reflection of a surface of open water the soft light appearance on the underside of a cloud layer due to reflection from a surface of open water "water sky" the yellowish-white glare on the underside of a cloud layer
Small floes of rough, hummocky sea ice capable of damaging a vessel __________. are indistinguishable from sea return on the PPI are invisible to radar when covered with a thick layer of snow are usually seen at night before they are close enough to provide a radar echo can usually be detected by radar in a smooth sea at a range of 4 to 6 kilometers
When operating in an area where sea ice and icebergs are present, which statement is TRUE? Both icebergs and sea ice will move in approximately the same direction and at the same speed. Icebergs and sea ice will move in the same direction, but the iceberg will move slower because of its underwater bulk. Icebergs may travel in a direction many degrees different from the sea ice. Icebergs and sea ice will move in the same direction, but at different speeds due to the sail effect of the berg.
Which is NOT a potential hazard of approaching close to an iceberg? The brash ice in the vicinity may clog sea intakes. There may be underwater rams extending out from the berg. The berg may suddenly tilt or capsize due to uneven melting and hit the vessel. The berg may calve with the bergy bit hitting the vessel.
During a period of "whiteout", you should expect which of the following? Harsh contrast between sun-illuminated snow cover and the background Snowfall or blowing snow Lack of ability to estimate distance Hazy horizons with extensive mirage effects
In polar regions you should NOT expect to see __________. mirage effects extensive snowfall sea smoke false horizons
Multi-year ice is the hardest sea ice and should be avoided if possible. It is recognizable because of what tone to its surface color? Grey Greenish Bluish Grey-white
Which type of ice is a hazard to navigation? Pancake ice Frazil ice Ice rind Growlers
What form of ice is of land origin? Bergy bit Floe Shuga Spicule
What is NOT a form used by ice support services to disseminate information? Ice Outlooks Ice Bulletins Ice Analyses Ice Forecasts
When moored with a Mediterranean moor, the ship should be secured to the pier by having __________. all regular lines leading to the pier in opposition to the anchor a stern line and two quarter lines crossing under the stern a stern line, 2 bow lines, and 2 quarter lines leading aft to the pier two bow lines and two midship lines leading aft to the pier
A "Mediterranean moor" should be used when __________. when anchoring in a strong current when docking bow to a berth when docking stern to a berth when anchoring in the Mediterranean
The anchors should be dropped well out from the pier while at a Mediterranean moor to __________. increase the anchor's reliability by providing a large catenary in the chain eliminate navigational hazards by allowing the chain to lie along the harbor bottom prevent damage to the stern caused by swinging against the pier in the approach permit the ship to maneuver in the stream while weighing anchors
To ensure the best results during the Mediterranean moor, the chains should __________. tend out at right angles to the bow tend aft 60° from each bow tend forward 30° on either bow be crossed around the bow
You are making mooring lines fast to bitts, stern to, as in some Mediterranean ports. A swell is liable to make the vessel surge. How should you tie up? Use wires only from the stern and each quarter. Use synthetic fiber and/or manila hawsers as required. Use manila or synthetic fiber hawsers only. Use wires from each quarter and manila hawsers from the stern.
When using a Mediterranean Moor, the vessel is moored with her __________. bow to the pier anchors crossed stern to the pier anchor chains forward, side to the pier
The anchor chain should be kept moderately taut during a Mediterranean moor to __________. indicate the anchor's location to passing or mooring ships prevent damage to the stern in the event of a headwind provide a steady platform for the gangway between the fantail and pier facilitate speed of recovery during the weighing process
What best describes an anchor buoy? A buoy attached to the scope of an anchor chain A mark of the number of fathoms in an anchor chain A buoy attached to the anchor A black ball that is hoisted when the ship anchors
After casting off moorings at a mooring buoy in calm weather, you should __________. go half ahead on the engines and put the rudder hard right go half ahead on the engines and pass upstream of the buoy back away a few lengths to clear the buoy and then go ahead on the engines go full ahead on the engine(s)
When picking up your mooring at the buoy, the correct method is to __________. approach the buoy with wind and sea abeam approach the buoy with the wind and current ahead stop upwind and up current and drift down on the buoy approach the buoy with the wind and current astern
You are mooring to a buoy. You should approach the buoy with the current from __________. broad on the bow ahead astern abeam
The pitch of a propeller is a measure of the __________. number of feet per revolution the propeller is designed to advance in still water without slip angle that the propeller makes with a free stream of water angle that the propeller makes with the surface of the water positive pressure resulting from the difference of the forces on both sides of the moving propeller in still water without slip
As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the trailing and leading edges of the propeller blades causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the blades, and vibration. These voids are known as __________. edging advance slip cavitation
The force exerted by a propeller which tends to throw the stern right or left is called __________. thrust sidewise force slip rotational force
Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel's stern to the right or left, depending on rotation. This force is caused by __________. back current from the rudder greater pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending on rotation lower pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending on rotation torque from the velocity and angle at which the surrounding water impinges upon the propeller blades
Which type of rudder may lose its effectiveness at angles of 10 or more degrees? Contra-guide Flat plate Balanced spade Unbalanced
If a tug equipped with flanking rudders is to be turned in a confined circle, when going astern, the stern will move to port the quickest if __________. the rudder is hard to port and the flanking rudders are hard to port all rudders are hard to starboard the rudder is hard to port and the flanking rudders are hard to starboard the rudder is amidships and the flanking rudders are hard to port
Flanking rudders effect a vessel's heading because of the __________. effect of the propeller flow on the rudders water flow due to the vessel's movement through the water discharge current being channeled to impinge on the vessel's deadwood tunnel affect of the water flow past opposing rudders
Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has __________. sternway no way on, with engines full ahead no way on, with engines stopped headway
You are on a single-screw vessel with a left-handed propeller making no way in the water. How will your vessel react when you apply right rudder? Rudder alone has no effect on the vessel Bow will kick to starboard Stern will kick to port, then slowly swing to starboard Bow will kick to port
You are aboard a single-screw vessel (right-hand propeller) going full ahead with good headway. The engine is put astern and the rudder is placed hard left. The stern of the vessel will swing to __________. port until headway is lost and then may possibly swing to starboard port starboard until headway is lost and then to port port slowly at first and then quickly to port
Your ship is dead in the water with the rudder amidships. As the right-handed screw starts to turn ahead, the bow will tend to go __________. as influenced by the tide and sea to starboard to port straight ahead
You are on a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller. The vessel is going full speed astern with full right rudder. The bow will swing __________. probably to starboard probably to port quickly to port, then more slowly to port slowly to port, then quickly to starboard
In order to back a right-handed, single-screw vessel in a straight line, you will probably need to use __________. very little rudder some right rudder some left rudder full left rudder
You are aboard a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller. The vessel is dead in the water and the rudder is amidships. If you reverse your engine you would expect your vessel to __________. swing its stern to starboard, then to port kick its stern to starboard move astern without swinging kick its stern to port
You are landing a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller port side to a dock. As you approach the dock, you back down on your engine with rudder amidships. You would expect the vessel to __________. swing its stern away from the dock drift away from the dock lose headway without swinging swing its stern towards the dock
You are aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel with headway on. The engine is put full astern and the rudder hard left. What will the bow do? It will swing to the left, and will swing left faster as the vessel loses way. It will swing to the left without increasing or decreasing its swing. It will swing to the left, straighten out and then swing to the right as the vessel loses way. The bow will swing to the right.
Your vessel is a single-screw ship with a right-hand propeller. There is no current. The easiest way to make a landing is __________. dropping anchor and swinging the ship in to the pier port side to starboard side to either port or starboard side to, with no difference in degree of difficulty
You are on a large vessel fitted with a right-handed controllable-pitch propeller. When making large speed changes while decreasing pitch, which statement is TRUE? The stern will immediately slew to starboard due to unbalanced forces acting on the propeller. You may lose rudder control until the ship's speed has dropped to correspond to propeller speed. You will probably have full directional control throughout the speed change. The stern will immediately slew to port due to unbalanced forces acting on the propeller.
You are on a large vessel fitted with a right-handed controllable-pitch propeller set at maximum forward pitch. Which statement about reversing is TRUE? The vessel will respond to the rudder until sternway is developed, then the stern will slew to starboard. The vessel will have full rudder control throughout the speed change from ahead to astern. There will probably be a loss of steering control. When the pitch is reversed, the stern will slew to port even with headway.
You are landing a single-screw vessel, with a right-hand propeller, starboard side to the dock. When you have approached the berth and back the engine, you would expect the vessel to __________. head into the wind, regardless of the side the wind is on turn her bow toward the dock lose headway without swinging turn her bow away from the dock
You are landing a single-screw vessel with a left-handed propeller, starboard side to the dock. As you approach the dock you back your engine with your rudder amidships. You would expect the vessel to __________. turn its stern towards the dock lose headway without swinging turn its bow towards the dock drift away from the dock
It is easier to dock a right-hand, single-screw vessel __________. starboard side to the wharf port side to the wharf either side to the wharf stern to the wharf
A single-screw vessel going ahead tends to turn more rapidly to port because of propeller __________. sidewise force suction current discharge current thrust
When a vessel with a single right-hand propeller backs to port the __________. bow falls off to starboard vessel moves to starboard without changing heading vessel moves to port without changing heading bow swings to port
On a single-screw vessel, when coming port side to a pier and being set off the pier, you should __________. approach the pier on a parallel course at reduced speed point the vessel's head well up into the slip and decrease your speed swing wide and approach the pier so as to land starboard side to make your approach at a greater angle than in calm weather
On a vessel with a single propeller, transverse force has the most effect on the vessel when the engine is put __________. full astern half ahead full ahead slow astern
A large vessel is equipped with a controllable pitch propeller. Which statement is TRUE? When the vessel has headway and the propeller is in neutral, there is no effect on rudder control. When going directly from full ahead to full astern, there is complete steering control. When dead in the water, it is often difficult to find the neutral position and slight headway or sternway may result. When maneuvering in port, full ahead or astern power can usually be obtained without changing shaft RPM.
Which characteristic is a disadvantage of a controllable- pitch propeller as compared to a fixed-pitch propeller? Slightly higher fuel consumption Inefficient at high shaft RPM Lack of directional control when backing Some unusual handling characteristics
Which of the following is an inherent advantage possessed by a twin-screw vessel in opposition to a single-screw vessel? The drag effect will be cancelled out The vessel's speed will be increased The side forces will be cancelled out The correct trim will be obtained more easily
You are backing on twin engines with rudders amidships, when your port engine stalls. To continue backing on course, you should __________. apply right rudder apply left rudder increase engine speed keep your rudder amidships
A twin-screw vessel is easier to maneuver than a single-screw vessel because the twin-screw vessel __________. can suck the water away from the rudder generates more power can turn without using her rudder permits the rudder to move faster
You are backing on twin engines with rudders amidships. Your starboard engine stalls. To continue backing on course, you should __________. apply right rudder apply left rudder increase your engine speed keep your rudder amidships
When comparing twin screw tug to single-screw tugs, which statement about a twin-screw tug is FALSE? If one engine fails, you do not lose control of the tow. It is more maneuverable. It develops more bollard pull for the same horsepower. It is generally subject to more propeller damage from debris in the water.
Your twin-screw vessel is moving ASTERN with rudders amidships. The starboard screw suddenly stops turning. Your vessel's head will __________. go to port remain stationary suddenly drop down go to starboard
A vessel is equipped with twin propellers, both turning outboard with the engines half ahead. If there is no wind or current and the rudders are amidships, what will happen? The vessel will steer a fairly straight course. The bow will swing to port. The bow will swing to starboard. The vessel will steer a zigzag course.
You are going ahead on twin engines with rudder amidships. Your starboard engine stalls. To continue on course, you should __________. apply right rudder increase engine speed apply left rudder keep your rudder amidships
A twin-screw vessel with a single rudder is making headway. The engines are full speed ahead. There is no wind or current. Which statement is FALSE? Turning response by use of the rudder only is greater than on a single-screw vessel. If one screw is stopped, the ship will turn toward the side of the stopped screw. The principal force which turns the ship is set up by the wake against the forward side of the rudder. With the rudder amidships, the ship will steer a fairly steady course.
You are going ahead on twin engines with rudders amidships. Your port engine stalls. To continue your course you should __________. apply right rudder apply left rudder keep your rudder amidships increase engine speed
You are operating a twin-screw vessel and lose your port engine. You continue to operate on your starboard engine only. Which action would you take to move your vessel ahead in a straight line? Compensate with right rudder. Surge the starboard engine. Compensate with left rudder. Rudder amidships - no compensation is necessary on a twin-screw vessel.
With rudders amidships and negligible wind, a twin-screw vessel moving astern with both engines backing will back __________. in a fairly straight line in a circular motion to port to starboard
A twin screw vessel, making headway with both engines turning ahead, will turn more readily to starboard if you __________. reverse starboard engine, apply right rudder reverse port engine, apply right rudder reverse port engine, rudder amidships reverse starboard engine, rudder amidships
You are going ahead on twin engines when you want to make a quick turn to port. Which actions will turn your boat the fastest? Reverse starboard engine; rudder amidships Reverse port engine; rudder amidships Reverse starboard engine; apply left rudder Reverse port engine; apply left rudder
On a twin-screw, twin-rudder vessel, the most effective way to turn in your own water, with no way on, is to put __________. one engine ahead and one engine astern, with full rudder both engines astern, with full rudder both engines ahead, with full rudder one engine ahead and one engine astern, with rudders amidships
Your vessel is backing on the starboard screw, and going ahead on the port screw. The bow will __________. move ahead on a straight line back on a straight line swing to port swing to starboard
You may BEST turn a twin-screw vessel about, to the right, in a narrow channel by using __________. port engine ahead and the starboard engine astern both engines ahead and helm one engine only both engines astern and use helm
A twin-screw ship going ahead on the starboard screw only tends to move __________. to port to starboard from side to side in a straight line
The rudders are amidships and both screws are going ahead. What will happen if the starboard screw is stopped? The bow will go to starboard. The bow will go to port. The stern will go to starboard. The bow will remain steady.
With rudders amidships and negligible wind, a twin-screw vessel moving ahead on the port screw and backing on the starboard screw will __________. pivot to port move in a straight line pivot to starboard walk sideways to starboard
A twin-screw vessel can clear the inboard propeller and maneuver off a pier best by holding a(n) __________. forward spring line and going slow ahead on both engines forward spring line and going slow ahead on the outboard engine after spring line and going slow astern on the outboard engine forward spring line and going slow ahead on the inboard engine
You are stopped with no way upon your vessel at the pilot station. Your vessel is a large twin-screw ship. You must come around 180° to board your Pilot. How should you use the engines and rudder to turn the ship fastest in the least amount of space? Slow ahead with hard over rudder Full ahead on the engines and hard over rudder Half ahead with hard over rudder, then full astern on inboard engine Full ahead on one engine, full astern on the other
In twin-screw engine installations while going ahead, maneuvering qualities are most effective when the tops of the propeller blades both turn __________. to port to starboard inboard toward the center outboard from the center
The BEST way to steer a twin-screw vessel if you lose your rudder is by using __________. both engines at the same speed one engine and a steering oar one engine at a time one engine running at reduced speed and controlling the vessel with the other
A common occurrence when a vessel is running into shallow water is that __________. the wake is less pronounced "squat" will cause a decrease in bottom clearance and an increase in draft the vessel is more responsive to the rudder All of the above.
Which shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's speed past its "critical speed"? Sinkage Squatting Bank cushion Smelling the bottom
Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called? Squatting Fish tailing Broaching Parallel sinkage
A vessel will "squat" when it proceeds underway __________. in all depths of water only in deep water only in narrow channels only in shallow water
In most cases, when a large merchant vessel enters shallow water at high speed the __________. speed will increase maneuverability will increase bow will squat farther than the stern vessel will rise slightly, on a level plane
Most very large ocean going vessels, such as bulk carriers and large tankers, tend to squat __________. by the stern at the end nearest the bottom by the bow evenly fore and aft
You are aboard vessel "A" in a narrow channel and the pilot is approaching vessel "B" as shown in illustration D037RR below. Which of the following is the reason he has not previously changed course to the starboard side of the channel? to avoid the effects of bank cushion and bank suction to avoid vessel squat in the shallower water near the bank because there is less chance of striking submerged objects in mid-channel because the current has less eddies in mid-channel
Your vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel. The effect called bank cushion has which effect on the vessel? Forces the stern away from the bank Forces the bow away from the bank Forces the entire vessel bodily away from the bank Decreases the draft at the bow
A wedge of water building up between the bow and nearer bank which forces the bow out and away describes __________. bank cushion bank suction bend effect combined effect
A vessel proceeding along the bank of a river or channel has the tendency to __________. increase speed hug the bank sheer away from the bank continue in line with the bank
How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel? It pulls the bow toward the bank. It pulls the stern toward the bank. It heels the vessel toward the bank. It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank.
How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel? It pulls the bow toward the bank. It heels the vessel toward the bank. It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank. It pulls the stern toward the bank.
You are making a sharp turn in a channel and using a buoy four points on the bow to gauge your rate of turn. If you observe the buoy moving aft relative to you, what should you do? Decrease speed Increase the rate of turn Decrease the rate of turn Maintain a constant rate of turn
You are making a sharp turn in a channel and using a buoy four points on the bow to gauge your rate of turn. If you observe the buoy moving forward relative to you, what should you do? Increase speed Increase the rate of turn Maintain a constant rate of turn Decrease the rate of turn
You are on a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller, and you are making headway. When you enter shallow water, __________. your vessel will tend to ride higher you will have better rudder response your speed will increase without a change in your throttle your rudder response will become sluggish
You are proceeding along the right bank of a narrow channel aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel. The vessel starts to sheer due to bank suction/cushion effect. You should __________. increase speed and put the rudder right full back full with rudder amidships decrease speed and put the rudder right full stop engines and put the rudder left full
You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a channel. If your vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, the best maneuver would be __________. full ahead, hard left rudder full ahead, hard right rudder full astern, hard right rudder full astern, hard left rudder
The effect known as "bank cushion" acts in which of the following ways on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel? It forces the stern away from the bank. It forces the bow away from the bank. It forces the entire vessel away from the bank. It heels the vessel toward the bank.
A vessel traveling down a narrow channel, especially if the draft is nearly equal to the depth of the water, may set off the nearer side. This effect is known as __________. bank suction smelling the bottom bank cushion squatting
You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel. As you approach the other vessel's stern __________. both vessels will gain speed the vessels will drift together the vessels will drift apart you will gain speed
Two vessels are abreast of each other and passing port to port in a confined waterway. What should you expect as your bow approaches the screws of the other vessel? Your draft will significantly decrease. Your bow will sheer away from the other vessel. Your speed will significantly increase. Your bow will sheer towards the other vessel.
When a wedge of water builds up between the head of the barge and the bank it is referred to as __________. veering cushion bow wave bank suction bank cushion
A predictable result of a vessel nearing a bank or edge of a channel is that the __________. vessel continues in a straight line, but with greatly reduced maneuverability vessel will be drawn bodily into the bank unless the engines are stopped bow sheers toward the bank stern is drawn to the bank as the bow sheers off
When hugging a bank in a narrow channel, you should take precautions against __________. striking underwater obstructions close to the bank clogged sea chests, plugged sea strainers and overheated machinery bank suction, squat and the effects of vessels passing close aboard All of the above.
You are piloting your vessel in a narrow channel. How will the vessel react to a steep bank on your starboard side?
The vessel will be bodily pushed away from the bank The bow will swing away from the bank, and stern will swing into the bank The vessel will be bodily drawn into the bank The bow will swing toward the bank, and the stern will swing away from the bank
A deep draft VLCC (100,000 DWT+) navigating in a narrow channel or canal __________. draws less water with an increase in speed requires less power for a given speed steers better under full power draws more water than when underway in deep water
River currents tend to __________. run slower in the center of the channel hug the inside of a bend cause the greatest depth of water to be along the outside of a bend pick up speed where the channel widens
When piloting a vessel, how are visual references used to establish a constant rate of turn? Fixed objects that stay on the same relative bearing when the ship is turning indicate a constant rate of turn. Keep the fixed object's relative bearing opening, for a constant rate of turn. Visual references cannot be used to maintain a constant rate of turn. Begin the turn when the fixed object is on the beam.
Conditions for crossing a rough bar are usually best at __________. high water slack low water slack high water ebb high water flood
You notice that your speed has decreased, the stern of your vessel has settled into the water, and your rudder is sluggish in responding. The MOST likely cause is __________. current mechanical problems with the steering gear loss of lubricating oil in the engine shallow water
Which effect does speed through the water have on a vessel which is underway in shallow water? An increase in speed results in the vessel rising on an even plane. A decrease in the speed results in a decrease in steering response and maneuverability. An increase in speed results in the stern sucking down lower than the bow. A decrease in speed results in the vessel sucking down on an even plane.
Insufficient space between the hull and bottom in shallow water will prevent normal screw currents resulting in __________. waste of power sluggish rudder response sudden sheering to either side All of the above.
When you enter shallow water, you would expect your rudder response to __________. improve and your speed to increase be sluggish and your speed to increase be sluggish and your speed to decrease improve and your speed to decrease
Which will most likely occur when entering shallow water? Rudder action will become more effective. The vessel's trim will change. The vessel's list will change. An increase in speed will occur.
Water may boil up around the stern of a vessel in a channel due to __________. slack water when upbound a head current shallow water a cross current
When turning a vessel in shallow water, which statement is TRUE? The turning diameter increases. The rate of turn is decreased. The rate of turn is increased. The turning diameter remains the same.
For the deepest water when rounding a bend in a river, you should navigate your vessel __________. in the river's center toward the outside of the bend toward the inside of the bend toward the center of the river just before the bend, then change course for the river's center after the bend
A V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream in a river may indicate a __________. sunken wreck, not dangerous to navigation submerged rock, not dangerous to navigation towed-under buoy All of the above.
A snag or other underwater obstruction may form a __________. smoothing out of the vessel's wake V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing downstream small patch of smooth water on a windy day V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream
A condition where two currents meet at the downstream end of a middle bar can be determined by a __________. V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing downstream small whirlpool V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream smooth patch of water
While towing in shallow water you should consider __________. the catenary and the effect it may have on the tow using a short towing hawser using a floating hawser All of the above.
A tug is best positioned for towing and maneuvering on rivers and other restricted waters where wave action is limited when __________. towing on a hawser towing on the hip directly astern and pushing the tow towing alongside and parallel to the vessel it is towing
What affect does shallow water have on a vessel's stopping distance? There is no difference in the stopping distance. The propeller is more effective when going astern in shallow water. The stopping distance is shorter. The stopping distance is longer.
In the context of shiphandling, what would be the definition of shallow water? Under keel clearance of less than 10 feet Under keel clearance of twice a vessel's draft Water depth of less than twice a vessel's draft Water depth of less than 1½ times a vessel's draft
How does a vessel's rate of turn change when entering shallow water? There is no change. It remains constant for varying propeller revolutions. It is faster. It is slower.
In stopping distances of vessels, "head reach" can best be described as the __________. difference between the vessel's speed through the water at any instant and the new speed ordered on the telegraph speed at which a vessel should proceed to ensure that she will run a predetermined distance, once her engines have been stopped distance the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and being stationary in the water distance the vessel has actually run through the water since a change of speed was ordered
The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engines full astern until the vessel is dead in the water is known as __________. surge head reach transfer advance
The distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if there is no slip, is called __________. advance transfer pitch head reach
As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake. The ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed is called __________. wake fraction speed of advance propeller velocity wake distribution
Which statement is TRUE concerning the vessel's slipstream? It has no effect on the steering of the vessel. Its velocity is the same as that of the wake. It has no effect on the rudder when the helm is amidships. The propeller gives it a helical motion.
As a ship moves through the water, it causes a wake, which is also moving forward relative to the sea. In addition to a fore and aft motion, this wake also has a(n) __________. downward and outward flow downward and inward flow upward and inward flow upward and outward flow
A stream of water immediately surrounding a moving vessel's hull, flowing in the same direction as the vessel is known as __________. forward current propeller current wake current directional current
In order to reduce your wake in a narrow channel you should __________. shift the weight to the stern apply enough rudder to counter the effect of the current change your course to a zigzag course reduce your speed
You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light with the results as shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 45°? D034DG 740 yards 590 yards 635 yards 690 yards
The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from the point where the rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle is called the __________. pivoting point advance transfer drift angle
You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are listed in illustration D035DG. Based on this data what is the advance for a turn of 30°? 380 yards 420 yards 470 yards 525 yards
You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as shown. Based on this data what is the advance for a turn of 60°? Illustration D035DG 665 yards 710 yards 745 yards 780 yards
You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light with the results as shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 75°? D034DG 860 yards (774 meters) 910 yards (819 meters) 825 yards (754 meters) 955 yards (860 meters)
In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "advance" means the distance __________. gained at right angles to the original course gained in the direction of the original course around the circumference of the turning circle moved sidewise from the original course when the rudder is first put over
You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light with the results as shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 90°? D034DG 820 yards 870 yards 930 yards 975 yards
You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as shown. Based on this data what is the advance for a turn of 90°? Illustration D035DG 885 yards 350 yards 490 yards 790 yards
In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "kick" means the distance __________. or throw of a vessel's stern from her line of advance upon putting the helm hard over around the circumference of the turning circle gained at right angles to the original course gained in the direction of the original course
When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point tends to __________. remain stationary move lower move forward move aft
When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is __________. at the bow about one-third of the vessel's length from the bow about one-quarter of the vessel's length from the stern aft of the propellers
The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed is __________. two-thirds the length of the vessel from the bow one-half the length of the vessel from the bow one-third the length of the vessel from the bow right at the bow
The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has been completed, is called the __________. kick tactical diameter advance pivoting point
You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are listed in illustration D035DG. Based on this data what is the tactical diameter of the turning circle? 755 yards 780 yards 820 yards 880 yards
You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 60°? 140 yards (126 meters) 180 yards (162 meters) 225 yards (203 meters) 270 yards (243 meters)
In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the distance __________. the ship moves sidewise from the original course away from the direction of the turn after the rudder is first put over gained at right angles to the original course around the circumference of the turning circle gained in the direction of the original course
You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 45°? 130 yards 165 yards 195 yards 230 yards
You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 180°? 875 yards 910 yards 975 yards 1015 yards
You are on a course of 000°T and put the rudder right 30°. In which direction will the transfer be measured? 000°T 090°T 180°T 270°T
You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 180°? 745 yards 770 yards 850 yards 890 yards
You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 30°? 230 yards 140 yards 190 yards 40 yards
You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 90°? 455 yards 355 yards 380 yards 410 yards
You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 60°? 105 yards 155 yards 205 yards 255 yards
You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn you take the ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 75°? 340 yards (306 meters) 300 yards (274 meters) 190 yards (171 meters) 230 yards (207 meters)
You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 90°? 400 yards 430 yards 485 yards 525 yards
You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are listed in illustration D035DG. Based on this data what is the tactical diameter of the turning circle? 755 yards 780 yards 820 yards 880 yards
The turning circle of a vessel is the path followed by the __________. tipping center outermost part of the ship while making the circle center of gravity bow
The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed by the __________. bridge bow center of gravity centerline
The turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360 degrees is the path followed by the __________. centerline center of gravity bridge bow
What is meant by veering the anchor chain? Paying out more chain Locking the windlass to prevent more chain from running out Bringing the anchor to short stay Heaving in all the chain
The locking pin that joins the parts of a detachable link is held in position by __________. a lead plug a tack weld a cotter pin the self-locking characteristics of its taper
You are going astern (single-screw, right-handed propeller) with the anchor down at a scope of twice the depth of the water. As the anchor dredges, you should expect the __________. stern to walk to the same side as the anchor being used stern to walk to port but at a reduced rate vessel to back in a straight line stern to walk to port at a faster rate than normal
Lifting the anchor from the bottom is called __________. shifting the anchor weighing the anchor broaching the anchor walking the anchor
Before letting the anchor go, you should check that the __________. chain is clear anchor is clear of obstructions wildcat is disengaged All of the above.
Which safety check(s) should be made before letting go the anchor? See that the wildcat is disengaged. See that the anchor is clear of obstructions. See that the chain is all clear. All of the above.
Which would you NOT use to report the amount of anchor chain out? "Three shots __________." on the bottom well in the water on deck at the water's edge
When dropping anchor, you are stationed at the windlass brake. The most important piece(s) of gear is(are) __________. goggles a hard hat a long sleeve shirt gloves
Which type of bottom is best suited for holding an anchor of a small boat? Rocky Gravel Mud and clay Sandy
Generally speaking, the most favorable bottom for anchoring is __________. rocky very soft mud a mixture of mud and clay loose sand
Which is the correct procedure for anchoring a small to medium size vessel in deep water? Let the anchor fall off the brake right from the hawsepipe, but keep a slight strain on the brake. Let the anchor fall free from the hawsepipe, but apply the brake at intervals to check the rate of fall. Back the anchor slowly out of the hawsepipe a few feet, and then let it fall in the normal fashion. Under power, back the anchor out until it is near, but clear, of the bottom before letting it fall.
Which type of bottom provides most anchors with the best holding ability? Soft sand Soft mud Sandy mud Clay and rocks
You are coming to anchor in 8 fathoms of water. In this case, the __________. scope should be less than 3 times the depth of the water anchor may be dropped from the hawsepipe anchor should be lowered to within 2 fathoms of the bottom before being dropped anchor should be lowered to the bottom then the ship backed and the remainder of the cable veered
You are anchoring in 16 fathoms of water. On a small to medium size vessel, the __________. scope should always be less than 5 times the depth of the water anchor should be lowered to within 2 fathoms of the bottom before being dropped scope should always be at least ten times the depth of the water anchor may be dropped from the hawsepipe
You are on a 120,000 DWT loaded bulk carrier. When anchoring without the aid of tugs, your maximum speed should not exceed how many feet per second? 1.75 (1.0 knot) 0.5 (0.3 knot) 1.3 (0.8 knot) 1.0 (0.6 knot)
The BEST holding ground for conventional anchors is __________. hard mud very soft mud rock shale
When steaming through an anchorage, a shipmaster should __________. transit only on a flood tide avoid crossing close ahead of the anchored ships avoid crossing close astern of the anchored ships keep the ship moving at a good speed to reduce set
While anchoring your vessel, the best time to let go the anchor is when the vessel is __________. dead in the water moving fast astern over the ground moving fast ahead over the ground moving slowly astern over the ground
The BEST holding ground for conventional anchors is __________. rock very soft mud shale sand
When anchoring a vessel, it is best to release the anchor when __________. going full ahead dead in the water going slow astern going full astern
When anchoring in calm water, it is best to __________. have slight sternway on the vessel while letting go the anchor maintain slight headway when letting go the anchor let the anchor go from the stern with the anchor cable leading from the bow wait until the vessel is dead in the water before letting go the anchor
You have arrived at your anchorage location. You have put the engines astern prior to letting go the anchor. How will you know when the vessel has stopped making way? The ship's Doppler log reads zero The backwash of the propeller reaches amidships An azimuth bearing on the beam remains steady All of the above.
When preparing to hoist the anchor, you should FIRST __________. take off the chain stopper engage the wildcat take the riding pawl off the chain put the brake in the off position
When weighing anchor in a rough sea, how would you avoid risk of damaging the bow plating? Leave the anchor under foot, until the vessel may be brought before the sea. Heave it home intermittently, between swells. Heave it home as fast as you can. Wait for a calm spot between seas, then house it.
The easiest way to anchor a vessel in a current is to __________. stop all headway through the water and keep the current astern when the anchor is dropped stem the current and make very slow headway when the anchor is dropped stem the current and be falling aft very slowly when the anchor is dropped stem the current and endeavor to make neither headway nor sternway when the anchor is dropped
When anchoring in a current, you should __________. back your vessel into the current drop the anchor with the bow headed downstream anchor while stemming the current All of the above.
You are anchoring in a river where the current is from one direction only. The best way to lay out two anchors is to have them __________. so that their lines form an angle directly in line with the bow side by side, with their lines on the port and starboard side on top of one another
You are riding to a single anchor. The vessel is yawing excessively. Which action should be taken to reduce the yawing? Drop the second anchor at the extreme end of the yaw, then adjust the cables until the scope is equal Veer chain to the riding anchor Drop the second anchor at the extreme end of the yaw and veer the riding anchor Heave to a shorter scope of chain on the riding anchor
A vessel is wind rode when it is __________. carrying lee rudder backing into the wind at anchor and heading into the wind necessary to apply a leeway correction to the course
A vessel is tide rode when it is __________. carrying extra rudder to compensate for the current necessary to adjust the course steered to allow for the current at anchor and stemming the current being forced off of a pier by the hydraulic effect of the current
When dropping anchor, you are stationed at the windlass brake. The most important piece(s) of gear is(are) __________. a hard hat a long sleeve shirt goggles gloves
Mooring with two bow anchors has which major advantage over anchoring with one bow anchor? The radius of the vessel's swing will be shortened. The vessel will not reverse direction in a tidal current. The vessel will not swing with a change in wind. A mooring approach may be made from any direction.
An anchor winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________. half the breaking strength of the mooring line the full breaking strength of the mooring line the maximum expected tension of the mooring line 50% over the working tension of the mooring line
The holding capability of an anchor is primarily determined by the __________. anchor's ability to dig in size of the vessel and its draft shape of the anchor stowage of the anchor on board
The holding capabilities of an anchor are determined PRIMARILY by the __________. scope of the anchor chain design of the anchor weight of the anchor size of the vessel
Before being certified by the American Bureau of Shipping, anchor chain must undergo __________. x-ray inspection a breaking test USCG inspection spectroanalysis
What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate? Safe working load of the anchor chain Adequate holding power for new bottom conditions Strength of the anchor chain to a specified limit The breaking strength of the anchor chain
What happens to the efficiency of an anchor when it is moved from sand to mud? The efficiency increases. The efficiency cannot be determined. The efficiency decreases. The efficiency remains the same.
The holding power of an anchor is the __________. maximum sustained vertical load an anchor will resist before the mooring line breaks maximum sustained vertical load an anchor will resist before dragging maximum sustained horizontal load an anchor will resist before dragging maximum sustained horizontal load an anchor will resist before the mooring line breaks
The angle between the flukes and the shank of an anchor is called the __________. holding angle shank angle fleet angle fluke angle
When attempting to free an anchor jammed in the hawsepipe, the simplest method of freeing it may be __________. to pry it loose with a short piece of pipe starting the disengaged windlass at high speed to grease the hawsepipe rigging a bull rope to pull it out
When anchoring in a clay bottom, what is one hazard that may cause the anchor to drag? The flukes may not dig in. The flukes may dig in unevenly and capsize the anchor when under stress. The anchor may get shod with clay and not develop full holding power. The anchor will tend to dig in and come to rest near the vertical.
If your vessel is dragging her anchor in a strong wind, you should __________. put over the sea anchor shorten the scope of anchor cable increase the scope of anchor cable put over a stern anchor
The best method of determining if a vessel is dragging anchor is to note __________. changes in bearings of fixed objects onshore the amount of line paid out how much the vessel sheers while at anchor any change in the tautness of the anchor chain
The best method to stop a vessel from dragging anchor in a sand bottom is to __________. swing the rudder several times to work the anchor into the bottom pay out more anchor cable back the engines reduce the length of the cable
You have anchored in a mud and clay bottom. The anchor appears to be dragging in a storm. What action should you take? Drop the other anchor underfoot. Drop the second anchor, veer to a good scope, then weigh the first anchor. Veer cable to the anchor. Shorten the scope of the cable.
What provides little or no indication that a vessel is dragging anchor? Changing bearings to distant fixed objects abeam Drift lead with the line leading perpendicular to the centerline Increasing radar range to a fixed object ahead Vibrations felt by placing a hand on the anchor cable
A drift lead indicates that the vessel is dragging anchor when the line is __________. slack taut and leading forward leading under the hull leading out perpendicular to the centerline
What provides little or no indication that a vessel is dragging anchor? Drift lead with the line tending forward Changing bearing to a fixed distant object abeam Changing range to an object abeam The cable alternates between slack and heavy tension
Your vessel is anchored in an open roadstead with three shots of chain out on the port anchor. The wind freshens considerably and the anchor begins to drag. Which action should you take FIRST? Drop the starboard anchor short with about one shot of chain. Put the engines slow ahead to help the anchor. Sheer out to starboard using the rudder, then drop the starboard anchor with about four shots of chain. Veer out more chain on the port anchor.
When a small craft's anchor fouls in a rocky bottom, the first attempt to clear it should be made by __________. reversing the angle and direction of pull, with moderate scope increasing the scope and running slowly in a wide circle with the anchor line taut hauling vertically on the line making the line fast to the bitt and bringing the vessel further forward
You are planning to anchor in an area where several anchors have been lost due to fouling. As a precaution, you should __________. fit a crown strap and work wire to the anchor anchor using both anchors anchor with scope of 8 or more to 1 use a stern anchor
How many fathoms are in a shot of anchor cable? 6 15 20 30
The length of a standard "shot" of chain is __________. 12 fathoms 15 fathoms 18 fathoms 20 fathoms
One shot of anchor chain is equal to how many feet (meters)? 6 (1.8 meters) 15 (4.6 meters) 45 (13.7 meters) 90 (27.4 meters)
How many feet are there in 2 shots of anchor chain? 50 60 180 360
Forty-five fathoms is marked on the anchor chain by __________. two turns of wire on the second stud from each side of the detachable link one turn of wire on the first stud from each side of the detachable link four turns of wire on the fourth stud from each side of the detachable link three turns of wire on the third stud from each side of the detachable link
The marking on an anchor chain for 30 fathoms is __________. only the detachable link is painted red two links on each side of the 30 fathom detachable link are painted white three links on each side of the 30 fathom detachable link are painted white one link on each side of the 30 fathom detachable link is painted white
How many turns of wire normally mark either side of the detachable link 45 fathoms from the anchor? 1 2 3 4
The next-to-last shot of an anchor cable is usually painted __________. red yellow white international orange
The last shot of an anchor cable is usually painted __________. international orange white red yellow
By paying out more anchor cable, you __________. decrease the swing of your vessel while at anchor increase the holding power of your anchor decrease the holding power of your anchor increase the possibility that your vessel will drag anchor
If you shorten the scope of anchor cable, your anchor's holding power __________. increases remains the same has no relation to the scope decreases
When anchored, increasing the scope of the anchor chain normally serves to __________. reduce strain on the windlass decrease swing of the vessel prevent dragging of the anchor prevent fouling of the anchor
A sufficient amount of chain must be veered when anchoring a vessel to ensure __________. there is a sufficient scope of chain to keep the anchor on the bottom the vessel has enough room to swing while at anchor there is more chain out than there is in the chain locker the anchor flukes bite into the ocean bottom
When the anchor is brought to and holding, the horizontal component of anchor cable tensions should equal the __________. weight forces buoyancy forces displacement tonnage environmental forces
The holding power of an anchor at a given scope of cable increases when the __________. amount of chain lying along the bottom increases length of the catenary is reduced amount of chain lying along the bottom decreases mooring line tension is increased
You are arriving in port and are assigned to anchor in anchorage circle B-4. It has a diameter of 500 yards and your vessel's LOA is 484 feet. If you anchor in 8 fathoms at the center of the circle, what is the maximum number of shots of chain you can use and still remain in the circle? 4 shots 5 shots 6 shots 3 shots
You are arriving in port and are assigned to anchor in anchorage circle B-4. It has a diameter of 550 yards and your vessel's LOA is 449 feet. If you anchor in 9 fathoms at the center of the circle, what is the maximum number of shots of chain you can use and still remain in the circle? 5 shots 6 shots 4 shots 3 shots
You are arriving in port and are assigned to anchor in anchorage circle B-4. It has a diameter of 600 yards and your vessel's LOA is 525 feet. If you anchor in 10 fathoms at the center of the circle, what is the maximum number of shots of chain you can use and still remain in the circle? 4 shots 5 shots 6 shots 7 shots
You are arriving in port and are assigned to anchor in anchorage circle B-4. It has a diameter of 700 yards and your vessel's LOA is 600 feet. If you anchor in 11 fathoms at the center of the circle, what is the maximum number of shots of chain you can use and still remain in the circle? 4 shots 7 shots 6 shots 5 shots
Using a scope of 5, determine how many feet of cable you should put out to anchor in 5 fathoms of water. 100 feet 150 feet 200 feet 250 feet
Using a scope of 6, determine how many feet of anchor cable you should put out to anchor in 12 feet (3.7 meters) of water. 2 feet (0.6 meters) 18 feet (5.5 meters) 48 feet (14.6 meters) 72 feet (21.9 meters)
Using a scope of 6, how much cable would have to be used in order to anchor in 24 feet of water? 4 feet 18 feet 30 feet 144 feet
Using a scope of five, determine how many feet of chain you should put out to anchor in 12 fathoms of water. 60 feet (18 meters) 72 feet (22 meters) 450 feet (137 meters) 360 feet (110 meters)
Using a scope of five, determine how many shots of chain you should put out to anchor in 5 fathoms of water? 1 2 3 5
When anchoring, it is a common rule of thumb to use a length of chain __________. seven to ten times the depth of water twice the depth of water five to seven times the depth of water twice the depth of water plus the range of tide
What is the best guide for determining the proper scope of anchor chain to use for anchoring in normal conditions? One shot of chain for every fifteen feet of water One shot of chain for every ninety feet of water One shot of chain for every thirty feet of water One shot of chain for every ten feet of water
When anchoring, good practice requires 5 to 7 fathoms of chain for each fathom of depth. In deep water you should use __________. less chain for each fathom of depth the same ratio two anchors with the same ratio of chain more chain for each fathom of depth
In bad weather, what length of chain should be used with a single anchor? 10 times the depth of water 3 times the depth of water 15 times the depth of water 6 times the depth of water
In moderate wind and current what should be the length of chain with a single anchor? 2 times the depth of the water in poor holding ground 8 times the depth of the water in deep water 5 times the depth of the water in good holding ground 10 times the depth of the water in shallow water
When anchoring a vessel under normal conditions, which scope of chain is recommended? Two and one-half times the depth of water Five to seven times the depth of water Four times the depth of water Fifteen times the depth of water
In determining the scope of anchor line to pay out when anchoring a small boat, one must consider the __________. depth of water, including tidal differences charted depth of water only type of anchor being used type of line being used for the anchor rope
To safely anchor a vessel there must be sufficient "scope" in the anchor cable. Scope is the ratio of __________. weight of cable to weight of anchor length of cable to depth of water weight of cable to weight of vessel length of anchor to depth of water
In determining the scope of cable to be used when anchoring, what would NOT be considered? Character of the holding ground Depth of the water Type of anchor cable maintenance cost for the chain
The primary purpose of the stud is to prevent the anchor chain from __________. breaking kinking elongating distorting
Anchors are prevented from running out when secured by the __________. devil's claw pawls brake All of the above.
The purpose of a devil's claw is to __________. act as a chain stopper prevent the chain from fouling on deck prevent the windlass from engaging control the wildcat
A stopper used in securing the ground tackle for sea that consists of a grab attached to a turnbuckle is a __________. buckler riding pawl devil's claw locking ring
An example of a modern anchor which has a stock is a(n) __________. Flipper Delta anchor Danforth anchor Baldt anchor articulated anchor
An example of an anchor which has a stock is a __________. Dunn anchor Danforth anchor Hook anchor Bruce anchor
If the winch should fail while you are hauling in the anchor, what prevents the anchor cable from running out? Riding pawl Chain stopper Devil's claw Hawse ratchet
The riding pawl is __________. the lug that rides on the eccentric rib and engages the locking ring on the windlass a safety interlock in a cargo winch that prevents the runner from overspeeding the device that locks the deck lashings of the Peck and Hale system a stopper that prevents the anchor cable from running free if the cable jumps the wildcat
The safety stopper that prevents the anchor cable from running free if the cable jumps the wildcat is the __________. buckler plate spill pipe riding pawl devil's claw
A design modification of an anchor chain which prevents kinking is the __________. Kenter link stud link detachable link connecting link
The sprocket wheel in a windlass, used for heaving in the anchor, is called a __________. fairlead wildcat capstan dog wheel
On an anchor windlass, the wheel over which the anchor chain passes is called a __________. wildcat winch head brake compressor wheel devil's claw
A wildcat is a __________. winch that is running out of control due to a failure of the overspeed trips deeply-grooved drum on the windlass with sprockets which engage the links of the anchor chain line that has jumped off the gypsyhead while under strain nylon line that parts under strain and whips back in a hazardous manner
The wheel on the windlass with indentations for the anchor chain is the __________. locking ring grabber pawl wildcat
In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "K"? crown bending shot ring shank
In illustration D038DG below the crown of the anchor shown is indicated by which letter? J G K H
In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the tripping palm? F G H J
In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the anchor shackle? H J K F
In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the pea? H J G F
In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "J"? crown bill tip shank
In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "I"? fluke bill stock tripping palm
In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "H"? tripping palm crown shank fluke
In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "G"? fluke tripping palm shank crown
A Danforth lightweight anchor does NOT hold well in which type of bottom? Grass Sand Clay Mud
In illustration D038DG below, what type of anchor is depicted? Old-fashioned Danforth Stock Patent
Tripping defects in anchors frequently occur in __________. stiff soils shallow water deep water soft soils
Which is NOT a part of an anchor? Crown Palm Bill Devil's claw
How is the size of chain determined? Length of link in inches Diameter of metal in link in inches Links per fathom Weight of stud cable in pounds
On stud-link anchor chain the addition of the stud increases the strength of the link by about __________. 20 (%) 15 (%) 50 (%) 10 (%)
The part of an anchor which takes hold on the bottom is the __________. fluke arm base stock
The purpose of the stripping bar on an anchor windlass is to __________. engage or disengage the wildcat fairlead the chain from the hawsepipe to the wildcat prevent the chain from fouling the wildcat clean off any mud that may have accumulated on the chain
A chain stripper is used to __________. flake chain from a boat's chain locker prevent chain from clinging to the wildcat clean the marine debris from the chain clean chain prior to an x-ray inspection
Which is part of the ground tackle? Rat's tail Charlie noble Gooseneck Devil's claw
Which part of the patent anchor performs the same function as the stock of an old fashioned anchor; that is, forces the flukes to dig in? Bill or pea Tripping Palm Arm Shank
Which part of an anchor actually digs into the bottom? Crown Fluke Shank Stock
The anchors on the bow are known as __________. bower anchors stream anchors spare anchors kedge anchors
Which type of link is generally used to connect shots of anchor chain? Stud link Detachable Pear shaped Open
In small craft terminology, all of the anchor gear between a boat and her anchor is called the __________. scope rode chock stock
Buckler plates are __________. sheets of dunnage used to prevent heavy cargo from buckling the deck plates faired shell plates with curvature in two directions triangular-shaped plates connecting the bull chain to the topping lift metal plates secured over the tops of the hawsepipes
Metal plates that cover the top of the hawsepipe are called __________. buckler plates stop waters plugs footings
The angle at which the fluke penetrates the soil is called the __________. fluke angle holding angle penetration angle tripping angle
The opening in the deck beneath the anchor windlass that leads to the chain locker is the __________. drop-pipe fallpipe hawsepipe spill pipe
What is a spill pipe? A chute, usually over the stern, to lead dumped garbage clear of the hull An opening in the deck leading outside the hull A drainage pipe that carries rain or spray from an upper deck to a lower deck A pipe under the anchor windlass leading to the chain locker
The opening in the deck that leads the anchor cable outside the hull is the __________. drop-pipe spill pipe fall pipe hawsepipe
The best method of protecting that portion of a fiber anchor line nearest the anchor from chafing on the bottom is by __________. using a small scope ratio replacing that portion with a short length of chain using a synthetic line using a hockle to keep that portion of the anchor line off the bottom
What part of the ground tackle is the most likely to develop fractures due to extensive anchor use? Fluke Jews' harp Anchor shank Swivel
When inspecting ground tackle, fractures are most frequently found in the __________. anchor shank swivel end links fluke
Fracture damage to the end links of the anchor cable, or to the Jews' harp may be eliminated by __________. ensuring the swivel is well lubricated and free to turn using a small diameter connecting shackle securing a piece of wood to the Jews' harp installing the connecting shackle with the bow towards the anchor
The part of a windlass which physically engages the chain during hauling or paying out is the __________. bull gear cat head devil's claw wildcat
Before being certified by the American Bureau of Shipping, anchor chain must undergo __________. a breaking test spectroanalysis x-ray inspection USCG inspection
What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate? Adequate holding power for new bottom conditions Safe working load of the chain Strength of the chain to a specified limit Breaking strength of the chain
The wildcat is linked to the central drive shaft on most windlasses by __________. a mechanical coupling where lugs engage detents aligning the keyways on both and inserting a key a hydraulic coupling an electromagnetic brake
You are approaching a pier and intend to use the port anchor to assist in docking port side to. You would NOT use the anchor if __________. another vessel is berthed ahead of your position there is shallow water enroute to the berth the wind was blowing from the starboard side the current was setting you on the pier
The use of an anchor to assist in turning in restricted waters is __________. good seamanship to be used only with a single-screw vessel a last resort the sign of a novice shiphandler
You are using the anchor to steady the bow while maneuvering. You have the proper scope of anchor cable when the __________. anchor is just touching the bottom scope is not more than 5 times the depth of the water cable enters the water at an angle between 60° and 85° from the horizontal bow is held in position with the engines coming slowly ahead
When using the anchor to steady the bow while approaching a dock you must be aware of the fact that __________. the anchor cable must never lead under the hull the vessel will tend to take a large sheer towards the side where the anchor is down using an offshore anchor decreases the chances of the anchor holding steering control is ineffective in trying to turn to the side opposite to that of the anchor being used
You are the Master of a single-screw vessel. You are docking at a port which has no tugs available. You decide to drop the offshore anchor to help in docking. The amount of chain you should pay out is __________. 5 to 7 times the depth of the water you should NEVER use the anchor to help in docking equal to the depth of the water 1 1/2 to 2 times the depth of the water
You are docking a vessel starboard side to with the assistance of two tugs. You are attempting to hold the vessel off by operating both tugs at right angles to the vessel and at full power. You must ensure that __________. the ship has no headway at the time the bow closes the dock first steerageway is not taken off the bow doesn't close the dock first
You are docking a ship with a single-screw tug assisting on your starboard bow. How should the tug be tied up if you are anticipating that she will have to hold your bow off while you stem the current? The tug should put a stern line up, leading ahead on the ship. One head line would be sufficient. The tug would need at least two head lines. The tug should put a spring line up, leading astern on the ship.
When a tug is pulling on a hawser at right angles to the ship, and the pilot wants to come ahead or astern on the ship's engine, care must be taken that the pilot __________. turns the ship toward the direction of pull does not get too much way on the vessel keeps a steady course so the towline will remain tight does not break the towline
You are docking an oceangoing single-screw vessel under normal circumstances with a single tug. The tug is usually used to __________. control the bow and is tied to the offshore bow pull the vessel into the slip and is tied to the bow control the stern and is tied to the stern on the offshore side push the ship bodily alongside and is tied to the offshore side amidships
You are docking a vessel in a slip which has its entrance athwart the tide. You land the ship across the end of the pier, stemming the tide, preparatory to breaking the ship around the corner. You have one tug to assist. Where would you generally tie up the tug? Tie her up on the inshore bow to hold the ship off the end. Tie her up on the inshore quarter to lift the stern. Tie her up on the offshore bow. Have her on a hawser from the stern.
When using two tugs to assist in mooring a large, deeply laden ship, the most powerful tug is usually placed __________. aft to assist the ship's rudder and propeller amidships to move the entire vessel evenly forward to control the bow anywhere, since the maneuverability of the tug governs the placement not the power
You are taking the bow line from the port bow of a large vessel that is underway when the stern of your tug comes in contact with the vessel. The forward motion of both vessels causes your tug to be turned toward the other vessel and contact the stem thereby being "stemmed". You should immediately __________. stop engines and the vessel's wake will push you clear of the bow go full ahead with the rudder amidships go full astern with rudder amidships go full ahead with the rudder hard over to starboard
When a tug makes up to a large vessel, the spring line should lead from the forward most part of the tug so that __________. the head line and spring line can be worked simultaneously the length of the spring line is minimized friction on the spring line is minimized the tug can pivot freely
You A tug would NOT assist a ship to steer if the tug is made up to the large vessel __________. on the vessel's quarter by a tow line ahead of the vessel forward on either bow of the vessel approximately amidships of the vessel
Your vessel must moor port side to a berth limited by vessels ahead and astern using a single tug. You are stemming a slight current and there is a light breeze of the dock. Your tug should be made up to the vessel's __________. stern on a hawser bow waist quarter
The best time to work a boat into a slip is __________. with the current setting against you at slack water when the wind is against you with a cross current
You are docking a vessel. If possible, you should __________. approach the dock at a 90° angle and swing to pass a mooring line to the dock with a heaving line and let the crew pull the vessel in go in with the current go in against the current
You are docking a vessel. Wind and current are most favorable when they are __________. crossing your course in opposite directions crossing your course in the same direction setting you on the pier parallel to the pier from ahead
You are 15 feet off a pier and docking a vessel using only a bow breast line and stern breast line. Once the slack is out of both lines you begin to haul in on the bow breast line. What is the effect on the vessel? The bow will come in and the stern will go out. The bow and stern come in equally closer toward the pier. The stern will come in and the bow will remain the same distance off the pier. The bow will come in and the stern will remain the same distance off the pier.
Your vessel is port side to a pier with a spring line led aft from the bow. In calm weather, putting the engines ahead with the rudder hard left should bring __________. both the bow and stern in the bow in and the stern out both the bow and stern out the bow out and the stern in
You are on a 120,000 DWT loaded bulk carrier. What is the maximum safe docking speed when coming alongside? 0.75 foot per second (0.44 knot) 0.5 foot per second (0.30 knot) 0.2 foot per second (0.12 knot) 0.1 foot per second (0.06 knot)
After your vessel has been involved in a casualty, you are required to make your logbooks, bell books, etc., available to __________. marine surveyors U.S. Coast Guard officials attorneys for opposition parties All of the above.
Following a Serious Marine Incident, a mariner directly involved in the incident is required to submit a urine specimen for drug testing within __________. 2 hours 12 hours 24 hours 32 hours
Which situation requires you to furnish a notice of marine casualty to the Coast Guard? You collide with a buoy and drag it off station with no apparent damage to the vessel or the buoy. Your vessel is at anchor and grounds at low tide with no apparent damage. A seaman slips on ice on deck and sprains his ankle, requiring an ace bandage. Storm damage to the cargo winch motors requires repairs costing $19,000.
You are the person in charge of a vessel involved in a marine casualty. You must notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Inspection Office if the property damage is over __________. 1500 10000 25000 50000
Besides the chemical testing of a mariner's breath for alcohol, what other specimen testing for alcohol is acceptable to be taken onboard the vessel after a Serious Marine Incident? Saliva Hair Blood None of the above
Which type of chemical testing is NOT required of merchant marine personnel? Periodic Pre-employment Random Annual
When underway with a tow, you are required to notify the Coast Guard in which casualty situation? An injury requiring first aid treatment Loss of bridge-to-bridge radio capability Accidental stranding or grounding Damage to property amounting to $12,500
Following a Serious Marine Incident, a mariner directly involved in the incident is required to submit to alcohol testing within __________. 1 hour 2 hours 6 hours 12 hours
Following a serious marine incident, who can administer use of the device that tests an individuals breath? any individual trained to conduct such tests qualified medical personnel only the marine employer any USCG credentialed deck officer
The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible? The Master of the vessel The owner of the vessel The person in charge of the vessel at the time of casualty Any one of the above.
What accident situation is considered a Serious Marine Incident? Damage to property in excess of $100,000 An injury to a crewmember that renders that person unfit to continue working on the vessel A discharge of 10,000 gallons or more of oil into navigable waters of the U.S. All of the above.
As Master or person in charge, you must notify the U.S. Coast Guard if an injury leaves a crewman unfit to perform routine duties for more than __________. 72 hours 24 hours 48 hours Any amount of time
When underway with a tow, you are required to notify the Coast Guard in which casualty situation? Damage of bridge-to-bridge radio capability Damage to property amounting to $12,500 An injury requiring first aid treatment Accidental stranding or grounding
You are the Master of a 500-gross ton passenger vessel operating on rivers. Your vessel accidentally runs aground. Under the regulations for passenger vessels, you must notify the __________. Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in damage to property in excess of $25,000 nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in a loss of life Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in injury to personnel
A vessel is involved in a casualty. The cost of property damage includes the __________. cost of labor and material to restore the vessel to the service condition which existed before the casualty damage claims awarded to individuals or companies involved in the casualty, up to a maximum of $50,000 loss of revenue while the vessel is being repaired, up to a maximum of $50,000 All of the above.
In which casualty case is it UNNECESSARY to notify the local Coast Guard Marine Safety Office? Your vessel is backing from a dock and runs aground, but is pulled off by tugs in 30 minutes. A nylon mooring line parts while the vessel is tied up and kills a harbor worker who was on the pier. A seaman is injured and in the hospital for four days. Your vessel strikes a pier and does $1,500 damage to the pier but none to the vessel.
A vessel is involved in a casualty. The cost of property damage includes the __________. damage claims awarded to individuals or companies involved in the casualty, up to a maximum of $50,000 loss of revenue while the vessel is being repaired, up to a maximum of $50,000 cost of labor and material to restore the vessel to the service condition which existed before the casualty All of the above.
During the course of a voyage, a seaman falls on the main deck and injures his ankle. The Master should submit a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death if the __________. injured is unable to perform routine duties injury results in loss of life only injury is the result of misconduct injured needs first aid
In which casualty case is it UNNECESSARY to notify the local Coast Guard Marine Safety Office? A seaman is injured and in the hospital for four days. Your vessel strikes and sinks an anchored sailboat costing a total of $20,000 for salvage and repair. Your vessel is backing from a dock and runs aground, but is pulled off by tugs in 30 minutes. Nylon mooring line parts while the vessel is tied up and kills a harbor worker who was on the pier.
On which form do you provide a written report of Marine Casualty to the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office? DOT 211 CG 5511 DD 214 CG 2692
The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible? The Master of the vessel The operator of the vessel The person in charge of the vessel All of the above.
Under the federal regulations, what minimum level of Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) constitutes a violation of the laws prohibiting Boating Under the Influence of Alcohol (BUI) on commercial vessels? .04% BAC .06% BAC .18% BAC .10% BAC
In which casualty case is it UNNECESSARY to notify the local Coast Guard Marine Safety Office? A seaman is injured and in the hospital for four days. Your vessel is backing from a dock and runs aground, but is pulled off by tugs in 30 minutes. A nylon mooring line parts while the vessel is tied up and kills a harbor worker who was on the pier. Your vessel strikes a pier and does $1,500 damage to the pier but no damage to the vessel.
What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death? Injury beyond first aid Collision with a bridge loss of life All of the above.
You are the Master of a 500-gross ton passenger vessel operating on rivers. Your vessel accidentally runs aground. Under the regulations for passenger vessels, you must notify the __________. Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in injury to personnel Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in damage to property in excess of $25,000 nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible Coast Guard, only if the grounding results in a loss of life
In which casualty case is it UNNECESSARY to notify the local Coast Guard Marine Safety Office? A seaman is injured and in the hospital for four days. Your vessel is backing from a dock and runs aground, but is pulled off by tugs in 30 minutes. A nylon mooring line parts while the vessel is tied up and kills a harbor worker who was on the pier. Your vessel strikes a pier and does $1,500 damage to the pier but no damage to the vessel.
What is considered a Serious Marine Incident? an allision that results in $500 damage to a boat dock grounding of a vessel on a sandbar that does not result in injuries and/or any damage to the vessel an injury to a crewmember, passenger, or other person which requires professional medical treatment beyond first aid None of the above
Which situation requires you to furnish a notice of marine casualty to the Coast Guard? Your vessel is at anchor and grounds at low tide with no apparent damage. You collide with a buoy and drag it off station with no apparent damage to the vessel or the buoy. Storm damage to the cargo winch motors requires repairs costing $19,000. A seaman slips on ice on deck and sprains his ankle, requiring an ace bandage.
Under federal regulations, what minimum level of Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) constitutes a violation of the laws prohibiting Boating Under the Influence of Alcohol (BUI) on commercial vessels? .04% BAC .10% BAC .18% BAC .06% BAC
Following a Serious Marine Incident, a mariner involved in the incident is prohibited from consuming alcohol until after being tested or __________. 2 hours following the incident 4 hours following the incident 8 hours following the incident 12 hours following the incident
You are the operator of an uninspected vessel which is involved in an accident. You are not required to assist people affected by the accident if __________. it would cause serious danger to your vessel the other vessel did not appear to be sinking it would unduly delay your voyage the other vessel was at fault
The operator of an uninspected vessel MUST assist people affected by an accident if he or she can do so without __________. undue delay serious danger to his or her own vessel creating a panic on either vessel further damaging the other vessel
You are operator of a towing vessel which collides with a buoy and drags it off station. What should you do if the damage to your vessel is not serious? Immediately notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Inspection Office and then submit form CG-2692. If the buoy is afloat, no action is necessary. Wait one week and submit form GG-2692 to the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Inspection Office. Immediately notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Inspection Office and no further action is necessary.
By law, the maximum penalty for failing (without reasonable cause) to give aid in the case of collision is __________. one year imprisonment or $500 two years imprisonment or $1000 two years imprisonment or $1500 two years imprisonment or $2000
A report of casualty to a vessel must include __________. the name of the owner or agent of the vessel the amount of ballast on board an evaluation of who was at fault the estimated cost of damage
Form 2692 (Notice of Marine Casualty), when required, must be filed to the U.S. Coast Guard within how many days? 7 days 3 days 1 day 5 days
A Notice of Marine Casualty to a vessel must include __________. an evaluation of who was at fault the amount of ballast on board the estimated cost of damage the name of the owner or agent of the vessel
Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits to be used following a serious marine incident? The U.S. Coast Guard Qualified medical personnel The marine employer The local police department
All inspected vessels on unrestricted ocean routes must have equipment on board for testing an individual's __________. breath blood urine All of the above.
As defined in the regulations governing marine casualties a "marine employer" may be the __________. agent Master owner All of the above.
A vessel is not required to carry urine specimen collecting kits onboard the vessel only if the individuals directly involved in a Serious Marine Incident can be tested ashore within __________? 12 hours 24 hours 32 hours 48 hours
The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a "T-Boat" involved in a marine casualty causing injury that requires professional medical treatment must __________. keep all voyage records and make them available to Coast Guard investigators file a written report (CG2692) of the casualty within five days immediately notify the nearest USCG MSO, MIO, or Group Office All of the above.
According to U.S. regulations, when estimating the cost of collision damage to a tank vessel after a marine accident, which of the following should NOT be included in the repair cost estimate? Cost to gas-free the cargo tanks Cost to off-load the current cargo Cost to drydock the vessel All of the above.
A cargo exception would appear on __________. the cargo manifest the Export Declaration a Bill of Lading a Letter of Indemnity
If there is a discrepancy in the cargo totals, between the cargo onboard the vessel and the cargo listed in the cargo manifest, the more accurate account of cargo totals can be found in the __________. Bill of Lading Charter Party Portage Bill Notice of Readiness
The original Bill of Lading, once signed by the Master, is NOT __________. used to transfer ownership of the cargo while the ship is enroute a receipt and proof that goods have been received on board surrendered to the customs agency of the country where the cargo is discharged proof of title or ownership of the cargo
A vessel loads 5000 tons of manganese ore. The railroad cars that brought the ore to the vessel were previously loaded with iron ore so the ore is contaminated. The agent requests the Master to sign a Clean Bill of Lading and in return the shipper will give him a Letter of Indemnity. What is the best procedure to follow? Refuse to sign a Clean Bill of Lading. Sign a Clean Bill of Lading and accept the Letter of Indemnity. Sign the Clean Bill of Lading and have the agent countersign it. Sign a Clean Bill of lading under protest.
A vessel loads 100 tons of glass jars. The mate on watch discovers that some of the cartons have been damaged and has an exception made on the Bill of Lading. What is this document called? Damage Bill of Lading Unclean Bill of Lading Non-negotiable Bill of Lading Letter of Indemnity
A vessel has completed loading cargo in the port of San Francisco. What document is signed by the Master stating the terms that goods were delivered and received by the ship? Cargo Receipt Bill of Lading Bill of Goods Cargo Manifest
A shipper of cargo aboard your vessel offers a letter of indemnity for the cargo. This is done in order to obtain a(n) __________. Clean Bill of Lading Through Bill of Lading Order Bill of Lading Straight Bill of Lading
An implied warranty of seaworthiness on the part of the vessel's owner lies in the __________. contract of carriage, i.e. Bill of Lading Classification Certificate Certificate of Inspection Cargo Manifest
Which is a negotiable document? Receiving Report Export Declaration Bill of Lading Cargo Manifest
A contract of affreightment is a __________. Bill of Lading Portage Bill manifest Bottomry Bond
A vessel arrives in the port of Los Angeles from a foreign port and discharges some of its inward foreign cargo. What additional manifest is required? Inward Foreign Manifest Pro Forma Manifest Discharge Manifest Traveling Manifest
The exact and complete identification of all cargo on board must be found on the __________. Hatch Report Cargo Manifest Loading List Mate's Receipt
A "dangerous cargo manifest" is needed for you to carry a combustible cargo. You should obtain the shipping papers to make this "manifest" from the __________. ABS manufacturer shipper Coast Guard
Which entry on a dangerous cargo manifest concerning the classification of a cargo is NOT correct? Class 8 Division 3.1 Division 2.3 All of the above.
Which entry on a dangerous cargo manifest concerning the classification of a cargo is correct? Division 2.2 - nonflammable gas Class 8 Class 3 - flammable liquid All of the above.
The dangerous cargo manifest does NOT indicate __________. the stowage location of hazardous material aboard the vessel the net weight of each hazardous cargo a description of the packaging (drums, boxes, etc.) UN identification numbers
Which statement about the dangerous cargo manifest is FALSE? The hazard class of each cargo must be indicated. The manifest must be made up by the carrier, agents, and any person designated for this purpose. Shipments of hazardous and non-hazardous cargoes may be listed on the manifest if they are destined for the same consignee. The manifest must be kept in a designated holder on or near the bridge.
Which statement about the dangerous cargo manifest, carried on a ship, is TRUE? The manifest must be made up by the Master or other designated ship's officer. Shipments of hazardous and non-hazardous cargo may be listed on the manifest if they are destined for the same consignee. The manifest must be kept in a designated holder on or near the bridge. The type of label(s) required for each cargo must be indicated.
Which cargo would require a dangerous cargo manifest? Lumber Wheat Cotton Sugar
What is NOT accepted as the required shipping papers on a manned and loaded tank barge? Bill of Lading Manifest Shipping document Logbook entry
What will be accepted as the shipping papers for an unmanned tank barge but will not be accepted if the tank barge is manned? Manifest Shipping document Logbook entry Bill of Lading
The shipping papers for the products being carried in your tankship are NOT required to contain the __________. location of the delivery point(s) exact quantity of the cargoes name of the consignee(s) grades of the cargoes
On the cargo manifest, the weight of the cargo inside a box is called __________. light weight rate weight gross weight net weight
On the cargo manifest, the gross weight of a box containing cargo is the weight of the __________. box rate weight cargo and box cargo
On the cargo manifest, the total weight of an empty cargo box is the __________. tare weight cargo weight net weight gross weight
On the cargo manifest, the total weight of a box containing cargo is the __________. gross weight cargo weight tare weight net weight
On the cargo manifest, the weight of the cargo inside a box is called the __________. gross weight rate weight net weight light weight
On the cargo manifest, the gross weight of a box containing cargo is the weight of the __________. cargo and box box cargo rate weight
On the cargo manifest, the total weight of an empty cargo box is the __________. tare weight gross weight cargo weight net weight
A declaration made by the Master before a U.S. Consul, giving particulars regarding heavy weather or other incidents which may have caused damage to the vessel or cargo, through no fault of the vessel, her officers, or crew is a(n) __________. note of protest Master's declaration exception report cargo addendum
The S.S. Ossel Hitch arrives in Capetown, South Africa, and the Master affects a note of protest with the U.S. Consul. Why would the Master affect this document? Crew misconduct Suspicion of cargo pilferage by crew Inability of vessel to comply with voyage charter Suspicion of heavy weather damage to vessel or cargo
The document that establishes the facts of a casualty and is the prima facie relief from liability for the damage is the __________. Master's protest insurance policy adjuster's report invoice
A document used to indicate suspected cargo damage caused by rough weather would be the __________. Master's Note of Protest hull damage report Unseaworthy Certificate cargo report
The declaration made by the Master when he anticipates hull and/or cargo damage due to unusual weather conditions is a __________. Notice of Casualty Portage Bill Note of Protest Bottomry Bond
A Master should file a marine note of protest if __________. longshore labor went on strike in the port causing undue vessel delay the vessel encountered heavy weather which might have caused cargo damage cargo was received at ship side which was damaged in land transit portions of his vessel's cargo were illegally impounded in a foreign port
The S.S. Sheet Bend arrives in New York after encountering heavy weather on a voyage from Cape Town. Who will note the maritime protest for the Master? Notary Public Officer in Charge Marine Inspection Collector of Customs U.S. Shipping Commissioner
You are in charge of a towing vessel that operates exclusively on inland waters. You regularly tow barges that provide services (cargo lighters, fuel barges, etc.) to foreign flag vessels in port. What will be accepted as proper credentials for you and your crew? Social Security card Merchant Mariner Credential State driver's license with photo ID No credentials are required since you operate on inland waters only
How long is a credential issued by the U.S. Coast Guard for apprentice mate (steersman) of Towing Vessels valid for? 2 years and must be renewed 3 years and must be renewed 5 years and must be renewed None of the above
When are Operators of Uninspected Passenger Vessels are required to keep their Coast Guard credential aboard their vessel? only when carrying passengers for hire only when operating more than one mile from shore only when operating at night At all times
A credential for apprentice mate (steersman) of towing vessels shall be renewed within what time period before or after the expiration date? 12 months 90 days 6 months 30 days
How long is a credential issued by the U.S. Coast Guard for Master of Towing Vessels valid for? 5 years and must be renewed life and need not be renewed 2 years and must be renewed 3 years and must be renewed
A credentialed Master of Towing Vessels may NOT serve as the person in charge of which towing vessel? 500 GRT towboat operating on the Western Rivers 99 GRT towing vessel operating on Chesapeake Bay 199 GRT towing vessel operating in the Gulf of Alaska 349 GRT towing vessel operating between Florida and Puerto Rico
A credentialed Master of Towing Vessels may NOT serve as the Captain of which towing vessel? 199 GRT towing vessel operating in the Gulf of Alaska 375 GRT towing vessel operating between Texas and Puerto Rico 400 GRT towboat operating on the Western Rivers 99 GRT towing vessel operating on Chesapeake Bay
You operate a harbor craft on inland waters exclusively. If you regularly service or contact foreign flag vessels in the course of business, which statement is TRUE? Your crew must have identification credentials. A customs official must be on board when contacting a foreign flag vessel. Your vessel must be inspected. All contacts with a foreign flag vessel must be reported to the U.S. Coast Guard.
How many months after its expiration date may a Coast Guard credential be renewed without retaking the complete exam? 1 month 6 months 12 months 24 months
What is the period of validity of a Merchant Mariner Credential? 1 year 3 years 5 years 2 years
A mariner whose credential has been revoked shall not be issued another credential without which of the following? approval of an administrative law judge approval of the Officer-in-Charge, Marine Inspection approval of the Commandant taking a new examination
Which lien against a vessel would be settled FIRST? Vessel mortgage Ship repairer's lien Maintenance and cure Salvage lien
A maritime lien may be placed against __________. objects that are fixed and immovable, such as wharves any assets that a ship's owner may have a vessel, cargo, or freight the vessel only
The Certificate of Freeboard is the __________. Forecastle Card Certificate of Inspection Admeasurer's Certificate Load Line Certificate
Which certificate is issued by the American Bureau of Shipping? Certificate of Inspection Load Line Certificate Permit to Proceed for repairs Safety Equipment Certificate
Your load line certificate expires on 27 May 1988. The vessel is surveyed on that date and is found satisfactory. You are sailing foreign the same day. Which statement is TRUE? A new certificate must be issued before you sail. The existing certificate is extended for a period of up to 150 days. The existing certificate is endorsed as valid for a five year period commencing 27 May 1988. The existing certificate is extended until the first foreign port of call where a new certificate will be issued by the local surveyor.
Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment must be made at intervals NOT exceeding __________. 18 months two years three years five years
The Plimsoll mark on a vessel is used to __________. determine the vessel's trim align the vessel's tail shaft determine the vessel's freeboard locate the vessel's centerline
What is the group of markings shown in illustration D003DG below is called? water mark load line mark loft mark test mark
What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter B in illustration D003DG below? Summer load line Timber summer load line Tropical load line Tropical fresh water load line
Your vessel has the symbol shown in illustration D022DG below inscribed on the side. Which statement concerning this symbol is TRUE? The symbol is the equivalent of a load line marking and is used by government vessels (USN, MSC, USCG) only. This represents the load line marks when engaged on a voyage upon the Great Lakes. The applicable gross and net tonnage of the ship will change if this mark is submerged and the load line mark is visible. The line directly under the triangle is at the same level as the summer load line.
You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the tropical load line mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany is 1.000) You may calculate the burnout necessary to reach the tropical zone and load extra cargo to compensate. You may load to the winter mark less the fresh water allowance if you will be at the tropical mark upon arrival in the tropical zone. You may not exceed the winter load line mark when you finish loading except for the burnout to sea. The freshwater allowance and burnout to sea may be subtracted from the required freeboard in Albany.
What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter A in illustration D003DG below? Plimsoll line Deck line Fresh Water load line Winter North Atlantic load line
You are loading at port A, governed by the summer load line mark, for a voyage to port B, governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 10", and the hydrometer reads 1.020. Which statement is TRUE? You may not load beyond the summer mark and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port B. You may not load beyond the winter mark except for 2 inches brackish water allowance. You may load to the summer mark plus 2 inches if you will be at the winter mark when entering the winter zone. You may not load beyond the summer mark plus 8 inches brackish water allowance.
What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter C in illustration D003DG below? Fresh water line Winter North Atlantic water line Tropical water line Summer water line
What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter E in illustration D003DG below? Summer water line Tropical water line Fresh water line Winter water line
What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter D in illustration D003DG below? Summer load line Fresh load line Tropical load line Winter load line
You are loading in a port governed by the tropical load line mark for a voyage to a port governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 5 inches, and the hydrometer reads 1.005. Which statement is TRUE? You may load to the tropical mark plus 1 inch brackish water allowance. You may only load to the winter mark plus a brackish water allowance of 4 inches. You must load so that each zone mark will not be submerged upon entering the zone. Your draft must not exceed the winter mark plus the fresh water allowance upon arrival off the discharge port.
What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter F in illustration D003DG below? Summer load line Tropical load line Winter load line Fresh water load line
You are bound from port A governed by the summer load line mark to port B also governed by the summer mark. The great circle track will take you into a zone governed by the winter mark. Which statement is TRUE? You must be at the winter mark when you enter the winter zone and cannot exceed the summer mark upon departing port A. You can load so that upon arrival at the pier at port B your freeboard is equal to the summer mark less any fresh water allowance. You cannot load beyond the summer mark at port A and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port B. You can only load to the winter mark plus any fresh water allowance and burnout to sea at port A.
In addition to the load lines indicated in illustration D003DG below, some vessels have a Winter North Atlantic line. Which statement about this load line mark is TRUE? It is marked above line B in the diagram. It applies only to vessels not exceeding 328 ft. navigating in the Winter North Atlantic zones. It is carried on VLCC/ULCC type vessels and allows reduced freeboard considering their size. It is applied to vessels on restricted trade routes between the United Kingdom, Iceland, and Northern European countries.
The primary purpose of a load line is to establish required __________. transverse stability GM fresh water allowances minimum freeboard
Keeping the draft at or below the load line mark will insure that the vessel has adequate __________. ballast reserve buoyancy rolling periods displacement
The maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is indicated by the __________. Certificate of Inspection Muster List ("Station Bill") tonnage mark load line mark
The load line regulations are administered by the __________. U.S. Coast Guard National Cargo Bureau Maritime Administration Lloyd's Register of Shipping
Which factor does NOT affect the required freeboard of a cargo vessel? Geographic zone of operation Density of the water Season of the year Condition of trim in normal operation
A disk with a horizontal line through its center, equivalent to the summer load line, is called the __________. tonnage mark Plimsoll mark maximum allowable draft mark deadrise mark
The strictest load line regulations apply to __________. freighters (break-bulk) passenger ships gas carriers tankers
Which statement about the deck line is TRUE? The deck edge is marked at the intersection of the freeboard deck with the side shell, at the lowest point of sheer, with the vessel at even trim. A vessel with wooden planks on a steel deck will have the deck line marked at the intersection of the upper line of the wood sheathing with the side shell. On a vessel with a rounded stringer-sheer plate, the deck line is marked where the stringer plate turns down from the plane of the deck line. The top of the deck line is marked at the highest point of the freeboard deck, including camber, at the midships point.
What is NOT surveyed at an annual load line survey? Portholes and deadlights in the side plating Main deck hatch covers The overall structure and layout of the vessel for alterations to the superstructure The bilge pumping system
Which statement concerning dual-tonnage vessels is TRUE? The dual-tonnage mark is always marked above the load line marks. A single-deck vessel may not be assigned dual tonnages. The dual-tonnage mark must never be submerged beyond the freshwater allowance. The tonnages referred to are the displacement tonnage and gross tonnage.
In the United States, the load line markings are set by the __________. Coast Guard IMO Federal Maritime Board American Bureau of Shipping
The annual survey for endorsement of a Load Line Certificate must be held within __________. the three month period immediately following the certificate's anniversary date the three month period immediately preceding the certificate's anniversary date the three month period centered on the certificate's anniversary date three months either way of the certificate's anniversary date
Your vessel is issued a load line certificate dated 27 May 1992. What is NOT an acceptable date for one of the surveys for endorsements? February 28, 1993 May 27, 1995 August 26, 1994 November 27, 1993
A load line certificate is valid for how many years? 1 2 3 5
Load lines for U.S. vessels are assigned by __________. the National Cargo Bureau the American Bureau of Shipping the U.S. Coast Guard Lloyd's Register of Shipping
The agency which assigns load lines and issues Load Line Certificates is the __________. American Bureau of Shipping U.S. Customs U.S. Coast Guard Secretary of Commerce
What is the period of validity of a Safety Management Certificate? 36 months 48 months 60 months 42 months
The American Consul has asked the Master of a vessel bound for a port in the U.S. to transport a destitute seaman back to the U.S. Which action may the Master take? He is normally required to take the seaman. He may refuse to take the seaman if the seaman has a contagious disease. He may refuse to take the seaman if it will violate the Certificate of Inspection. All of the above.
What is the penalty for desertion? Revocation of Merchant Mariner Credential and forfeiture of wages due Forfeiture of money and property left on the vessel, and wages due Imprisonment for not more than 2 years and/or a fine of not more than $2000 dollars Fine of not more than $2000 dollars and forfeiture of wages
Under U.S. law, what is the penalty for assaulting the Master? Fine of not more than $500 and/or imprisonment for not more than 1 year Fine of not more than $1000 Revocation of the Merchant Mariner Credential Imprisonment for not more than 2 years
A person is found operating a vessel while under the influence of alcohol. He/she is liable for __________. a fine of not more than $10,000 a fine of not more than $3,000 a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 imprisonment for up to three years
After a seaman is discharged, at the end of the voyage, the final payment of wages due must be made, whichever is earliest, either within 24 hours after the cargo has been discharged, or __________. within 4 days after the seaman's discharge prior to the vessel's departure on the next voyage prior to loading any out-bound cargo prior to any change of Master
What is the penalty for willfully damaging cargo? Forfeiture of wages equal to the value of the damage and, if ordered by the court, imprisonment for not more than 12 months Fine equal to the value of the damage plus a 1000 dollar penalty and/or imprisonment not to exceed 2 years Fine not to exceed the value of the damage and/or imprisonment not to exceed 18 months Revocation of Merchant Mariner Credential, fine equal to the value of the damage or imprisonment for not more than 2 years
Your enrolled vessel is bound from Baltimore, MD, to Norfolk, VA, via Chesapeake Bay. Which statement about the required Pilot is TRUE? The Pilot must be credentialed by Virginia, Maryland and the Coast Guard. The Pilot must be credentialed by either Virginia or Maryland. The Pilot must be credentialed by Virginia and Maryland. The Pilot need only be credentialed by the Coast Guard.
The American Consul has asked the Master of a vessel bound for a port in the U.S. to transport a destitute seaman back to the U.S. Which action may the Master take? He must take the seaman even if the seaman has a contagious disease. He may refuse to accept the seaman if the seaman is medically unfit. He may refuse to take the seaman if it will violate the Certificate of Inspection. He is always required to take the seaman.
The American Consul has asked the Master of a vessel bound for a port in the U.S. to transport a destitute seaman back to the U.S. Which action may the Master take? He is required to take the seaman under any circumstance. He may refuse to take the seaman if the ship will not stop at a U.S. port within 30 days. He may refuse to take the seaman if the seaman has a contagious disease. He is required to accept the seaman only if the seaman is medically unfit.
The American Consul has asked the Master of a vessel bound for a port in the U.S. to transport a destitute seaman back to the U.S. Which action may the Master take? He may refuse the seaman if the seaman has a contagious disease. He must always take the seaman. He is required to accept the seaman only if the seaman is medically unfit. He may refuse to take the seaman if he is being held by shore authorities.
A seaman may not make an allotment to his __________. mother-in-law grandparents minor children brother
A seaman may have all or part of his wages deposited by allotment to a bank or savings institution. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for this type of allotment? The account must be either a checking or savings account. The institution must be insured by the FSLIC or FDIC. The account must be opened by the seaman and maintained in the seaman's name. All of the above.
A seaman deserts the vessel in a foreign port. What should the Master do with any of the deserter's personal effects remaining on board? Donate them to a local charity upon return to the United States. Transfer them to the appropriate district court of the U.S. at the end of the voyage. Inventory them, make an appropriate entry in the Official Logbook and dispose of them at sea. Sell them at auction and deposit the money in the ship's morale or welfare fund.
Your vessel is required to have a slop chest. Which of the following articles is NOT required by law to be carried in the slop chest? Blankets Candy Tobacco products Foul weather clothing
You are Master of a vessel that is sold in a foreign country after discharge of cargo. What is your responsibility to the crew in regards to return to the United States? There is no requirement for return to the United States provided the voyage has exceeded 4 weeks duration. You must provide air transportation to the nearest port of entry in the United States. The crew can be employed on another United States vessel, but only if it is returning to the port of original engagement. You must provide passage to the port of original engagement.
A crew has signed on for a 3-month voyage. Fourteen days into the voyage a seaman is improperly discharged at the first port of call. How much pay is he entitled to receive? 14 days and one month's extra 1 month's 14 days double wages (28 days)
Wages due a seaman may be attached by the court for the __________. payment of back taxes to the IRS payment of any fines imposed by the court support of a spouse All of the above.
Wages due a seaman may be attached by the court for the __________. payment of monthly bills payment of creditors support of a minor child All of the above.
You are in charge of a U.S. documented vessel. Under title 46 of the United States Code, if you fail to report a complaint of a sexual offense, you may be __________. civilly charged and fined criminally charged and jailed held personally liable by the victim and sued All of the above.
Under title 46 of the United States Code, the person in charge of a documented vessel who fails to report a complaint of a sexual offense may be __________. charged with accessory to sexual assault fined up to $5,000 imprisoned for up to one year All of the above.
Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident __________. if he can do so without undue delay if he can do so without any risk to his vessel if he can do so without serious danger to his vessel or to individuals on board without regard to any danger to his vessel
A person who willfully violates safety regulations may be fined up to $5,000 and __________. forbidden to work in the fishing industry imprisoned for up to five years imprisoned for up to a year no other penalty may be applied
A majority of the crew requests a survey from the American Consul to determine a vessel's seaworthiness. The vessel is found unfit to continue her intended voyage. The Consul allows the vessel to sail to another port where deficiencies can be corrected. The crew must __________. be furnished employment on another vessel returning to the United States which is satisfactory to that crew be discharged by the American Consul with additional one month's wages until repairs are made comply with the judgment be discharged and given first class passage back to the original port of signing on in lieu of one month's wages
The Master of any vessel bound on a voyage must apply to a district court when an allegation of unseaworthiness has been made to the Master by __________. any two officers of the vessel and a majority of the crew the First and Second Officers of the vessel or a majority of the crew any member of the crew of the vessel the First Officer of the vessel
As Chief Officer of a vessel underway, it comes to your attention that the vessel is, in some manner, unseaworthy. Under such circumstances the Master is required to take action upon receiving __________. notification of such condition from yourself and any other member of the crew notification of such condition from yourself or the Second Officer information of such condition from yourself notification of such condition from yourself and the Second Officer
A vessel is found to be seaworthy after a complaint in writing to the American Consul by the Chief and Second Mates. The cost of the survey is to be paid by the __________. Vessel's agent Chief and Second Mates American Consul vessel's owners
A complaint of unseaworthiness by a majority of crew members to the American Consul is found to be justified after a survey is completed. Who must pay the cost of the survey? Master Crew members requesting the survey American Consul Vessel's owners
What would be prima facie evidence of unseaworthiness? Overstowage Overloading Overcarriage Overbooking
When anyone voluntarily deposits his/her Merchant Mariner Credential with a Coast Guard investigating officer, which of the following is TRUE? he/she permanently gives up rights to the credential it must be for reason of addiction to narcotics it may be for reasons of mental or physical incompetence All of the above.
Anyone voluntarily surrendering their Merchant Mariner Credential to a U.S. Coast Guard investigating officer signs a statement indicating which of the following? they may be issued a new credential in 5 years after passing another written examination their rights to a hearing are waived all title to the credential is given up for 5 years All of the above.
Which act would be considered barratry? A criminal act committed by a crew member ashore in a foreign port Theft of cargo by longshoremen A criminal act committed by the ship Master in violation of his duty to the shipowner Smuggling with the connivance of the shipowner
Who cannot commit the crime of barratry? Ship's unlicensed crewmember(s) Ship owner Ship's officer(s) Master
By law, a user of marijuana shall be subject to which of the following? revocation of Merchant Mariner Credential reprimand by the US Coast Guard termination of employment loss of pay during the period of such use
If you are guilty of failure to properly perform your duties as Master of Uninspected Towing Vessels, which of the following actions may NOT be taken? A fine placed against your Merchant Mariner Credential Suspension of your Merchant Mariner Credential Issuance of a letter of warning Revocation of your Merchant Mariner Credential
The Master may have his/her Merchant Mariner Credential suspended or revoked for which of the following? carrying stowaways sailing shorthanded being negligent All of the above.
Which U.S. Government agency can suspend or revoke a Merchant Mariner Credential for violating the load line act? U.S. Customs Service U.S. Coast Guard American Bureau of Shipping U.S. Maritime Administration
What is required to be posted in the pilothouse of a vessel? Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection Company Mission Statement Officer's licenses
A new crewman reports on board. He must be trained in the use of the ship's lifesaving appliances within what time period? Before sailing 2 months 2 weeks 1 month
Instructions to the crew in the use of all the ship's lifesaving equipment shall be completed __________. in one month and repeated quarterly before sailing within one week of sailing within any two month period
Preparation of muster lists and signing of same is the responsibility of the __________. Chief Officer of the vessel United States Coast Guard owner of the vessel Master of the vessel
Seeing that all hands are familiar with their duties, as specified in the muster list, is the responsibility of the __________. Chief Mate department heads Master safety officer
Fire and abandon ship stations and duties may be found on the __________. Certificate of Inspection shipping articles crewman's duty list muster list
Each crewmember has an assigned firefighting station. This assignment is shown on the __________. muster list Certificate of Inspection fire fighting plan shipping articles
All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)? One approved Category 1 EPIRB Three approved Category 1 EPIRBs Two approved Class B EPIRBs One approved Class B EPIRB
The international body responsible for drafting the convention prohibiting marine pollution (MARPOL) is the __________. International Association of Shipping International Maritime Organization Maritime Advisory Council Association of Seafaring Nations
Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment of __________. noxious liquid substances oil garbage None of the above
The Safety of Life at Sea Convention was developed by the __________. International Maritime Organization U.S. Coast Guard American Institute of Maritime Shipping American Bureau of Shipping
What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate? 6 months 12 months 24 months 60 months
The Safety of Life at Sea Convention was developed by the __________. American Bureau of Shipping American Institute of Maritime Shipping International Maritime Organization U.S. Coast Guard
What is the period of validity of the SOLAS required Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate? 12 months 24 months 48 months 60 months
What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate? 72 months 60 months 48 months 42 months
On U.S. flag vessels, which certificate is always issued by the Coast Guard? Load Line Certificate Safety Construction Certificate Safety Equipment Certificate Register of cargo gear
Due to the nature of a vessel's construction for a particular trade, it does not fully comply with the provisions of SOLAS. Where will this be indicated? Nowhere; the vessel must comply to engage in international trade. On the Exemption Certificate On the reverse of the particular SOLAS certificate affected On the face of the Certificate of Inspection
The Safety Equipment Certificate shows that the vessel conforms to the standards of the __________. S.O.L.A.S. Convention American Bureau of Shipping U.S. Coast Guard American Salvage Association
SOLAS requires a lifesaving training manual be provided in each crew cabin or in the __________. fire control room recreation and messrooms engineering control station bridge
What is NOT a requirement for a salvage claim? The property saved must be "maritime property." The property must be in peril. The salvors must save or attempt to save any life in peril. The salvage service must be voluntary.
What is NOT considered maritime property in a salvage claim? light-vessels cargo rafts tug boat
What is NOT considered maritime property in a salvage claim? buoys semi-submerged shipwreck cargo sea plane
When several salvors are on-scene at the same time to assist a vessel that has not been abandoned, which principal governs the decision as to which one's services will be accepted? The first salvor on-scene has the prior claim providing he has adequate facilities to assist the vessel needing assistance. The salvors must agree to a division of any salvage among themselves with the major share allotted to those doing the most work. The Master of the ship needing assistance has the absolute right to decide. The first salvor on-scene has the absolute right to provide assistance; however, he is liable if the ship is lost due to his lack of experience, equipment, etc.
Your vessel is disabled and in imminent danger of grounding on a lee shore. The Master agrees to salvage services using Lloyd's Open Form of Salvage Agreement. Which is TRUE? The salvage service is on a "no cure-no pay" basis. The salvor becomes the owner of the vessel until the salvage award, if any, is paid. The salvage award will be decided by suit in Admiralty Court. Underwriters will repudiate the agreement if it is unsuccessful, due to their increased liability.
What is NOT true regarding a Lloyd's Open Form (LOF) Salvage Agreement? There is a bonus to the salvage award if environmental casualty is averted If salvage is not successful, vessel owes salvor nothing The LOF is subject to the law of the country the two parties agree upon The agreement between vessels can be made via VHF
What statement is true regarding a Contract Salvage Agreement? There is a "no cure-no pay" agreement Lloyd's Open Form (LOF) Salvage Agreement is a Contract Salvage Agreement The cost of the salvage is set at a fixed price The crew is allotted the largest percentage of the salvage award
While assigned to a 120 GRT vessel, you are required to sign "foreign" articles on a voyage from New York City to which port? Halifax, Canada Saint Maarten, Netherlands Antilles Long Beach, California Veracruz, Mexico
While assigned to a 90 GRT vessel, you are required to sign "foreign" articles on a voyage from Philadelphia to which port? San Francisco, CA Tampico, Mexico Montreal, Canada Baltimore, MD
While assigned to a 106 GRT vessel, you are required to sign "foreign" articles on a voyage from San Francisco to which port? Vera Cruz, Mexico (east coast) Vancouver, Canada (west coast) New York, NY Mazatlan, Mexico (west coast)
While assigned to a 150 GRT vessel, you are required to sign "foreign" articles on a voyage from New Orleans to which port? Veracruz, Mexico Houston, Texas Kingston, Jamaica Cristobal Colon, Panama
A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________. there is a change of Master intoxicated there is a change of home port the vessel is overloaded
A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________. injured intoxicated the vessel is overloaded deductions are made from wages
The Shipping Articles shall be signed by each seaman and the __________. U.S. Customs Service U.S. Coast Guard Master of the vessel Shipping Commissioner
A seaman signed on articles on 16 January 1987 and signed off on 2 March 1987. How should you enter this under the Time of Service column in the articles? 1 Month 16 Days 2 Months 1 Month 18 Days 46 Days
A vessel is to make a voyage between New York and San Juan, Puerto Rico, and return. The crew should be signed on __________. Foreign Articles no articles Intercoastal Articles Coastwise Articles
Shipping articles are a contract of agreement between the members of the crew and the __________. vessel's owner Coast Guard charterers Master
The Articles of Agreement __________. is also known as a Merchant Mariner's Document are signed by each crewmember at the end of the voyage designates the quarters a seaman will occupy during a voyage advises the crew of the conditions of employment
The forecastle card is a copy of the __________. unlicensed shipping card from the union quarters allocation Muster List ("Station Bill") shipping agreement
A copy of the Articles of Agreement, less the signatures, is required to be posted. What is this document called? Articles Copy Voyage Agreement Forecastle Card Shipping Articles
Which statement about the forecastle card is TRUE? Is an exact copy of shipping articles. The forecastle card is a blank sample of the articles. Each crewmember is given a copy of the forecastle card. It contains copies of the crew's signatures from the articles.
Which statement is true regarding the forecastle card? advises the crew of the conditions of employment is posted in the crews quarters and lists the emergency stations is also known as a Merchant Mariner's Document designates the quarters a seaman will occupy during a voyage
When can the US citizenship requirement for the Master of a US-flag uninspected towing vessel be waived? When the towing vessel operates shoreward of the boundary line Never, under any circumstances When it costs too much to hire a US credentialed Master When US credentialed Masters are not readily available
You are the credentialed Master of a 199 GT uninspected towing vessel making a 500 mile coastwise trip. You carry a deck crew of six (6). Which statement is TRUE? Only the able seamen require Merchant Mariner Credentials. There must be at least 5 able seamen among the deck crew. There must be 3 separate watches stood. None of the above
You are the Master of an uninspected diesel towing vessel of 190 GT operating on a regular run from New York to the Gulf of Mexico. Which statement is TRUE? A credentialed Chief Engineer is required. Able Seamen are not required in the deck crew. Sailors may stand watch for 6 hours on and 6 hours off. All crew members must have a Merchant Mariner Credential
On which vessels may credentialed individuals be required to stand watch under the two-watch system, on voyages of more than 600 miles in length? Cargo ships Uninspected towing vessels Offshore supply vessels Tank vessels
Which statement concerning a 298 GRT inspected tug engaged in towing from Seattle, WA, to Alaska is TRUE? A credentialed Master of Towing Vessels may serve as Master. Each crew member must be issued a certificate of discharge at the time of discharge. No able seamen are required. Crew must be signed on before a Shipping Commissioner.
You are onboard a 120 GT uninspected sea going tug which carries one Master and one Mate of Towing Vessels and four (4) seamen when underway. How many of the four seamen must have a rating as able seamen if the voyage is under 600 miles? 4 3 2 1
Which category of able seaman is not authorized to be counted as an able seaman on a seagoing tug of over 100 gross tons? Special Special (OSV) Unlimited Limited
On a coastwise tugboat of 199 GT, on a voyage over 600 miles, what percentage of the deck crew (excluding officers) must hold a document of able seaman? 65 (%) 50 (%) 25 (%) 0 (%)
If the Master of a US-flag towing vessel replaces any crew member with a non-US citizen, he/she must ensure that the __________. replacement can communicate with other crew members to the extent required by regulations replacement holds a credential equivalent in experience and training to a mariner holding US credentials vessel is on a foreign voyage, outside US jurisdiction, and not operating above the US outer continental shelf All of the above.
Your 199 GT tugboat is on a 675 mile coastwise voyage. What percentage of the deck crew must be Able Bodied Seamen? 0 (%) 25 (%) 50 (%) 65 (%)
When may foreign credentialed personnel be employed on a US-flag towing vessel? While operating above the US outer continental shelf Never, under any circumstances While on a foreign voyage and outside US jurisdiction, in order to meet manning requirements On vessels operating on domestic voyages only
Considering manning requirements for US flag vessels, your 2 watch cargo vessel has a deck crew of 20 people, exclusive of officers. How many of these people do the manning regulations require to be able seamen? 13 10 7 5
You are the credentialed Master of a 100 GT towing vessel sailing coastwise. What percentage of the deck crew must be able to understand any order spoken by the officers? 50 (%) 65 (%) 75 (%) 100 (%)
On a sea going towing vessel of 150 gross tons, there are six (6) seamen in the deck crew. How many certificated able seamen are required if the voyage is over 600 miles? 1 2 3 4
You are the credentialed Master of a towing vessel operating between New York and Tampa, FL. If you carry four deckhands onboard, how many must be able seamen? one two three four
You are the credentialed operator of a 100 GT towing vessel sailing coastwise. What percentage of the deck crew must be able to understand the language commonly used onboard the vessel? 50 (%) 100 (%) 65 (%) 75 (%)
Who is responsible for establishing watches aboard a U.S. vessel? The owner of the vessel The Master of the vessel The company that charters the vessel The company that operates the vessel
A holder of a credential as Master of towing vessels may work each 24 hours for a period not to exceed __________. 6 hours 12 hours 18 hours 24 hours
Who may perform as a lookout? A member of the navigational watch A member of the engineering watch A member of the Stewards Department All of the above.
In terms of vessel manning, a watch is the __________. direct performance of cargo loading and discharge operations only direct performance of deck or engine operations in a scheduled and fixed rotation performance of maintenance work necessary for the vessel's safe operation, on a daily basis performance of lookout duties
Who is responsible for properly manning a vessel in accordance with all applicable laws, regulations and international conventions? The (USCG) Officer in Charge of Marine Inspection The (USCG) Captain of the Port The Master of the vessel The owner or operator of the vessel
On vessels over 100 gross tons, whose responsibility is it to ensure that all able seamen in the vessel's crew have the documents and qualifications required by law and regulation? USCG Officer in Charge of Marine Inspection Company's personnel director Master of the vessel Owner or operator of the vessel
The terminology "able to understand any order spoken by the officers" refers to all of the following situations EXCEPT __________. directing the use of lifesaving equipment in response to a man overboard for deck department crew members to understand the terminology used in the engine room in response to a fire
How can the Coast Guard determine that a crew member is "able to understand any order spoken by the officers"? Require that an interpreter be provided Require a written test Require a demonstration by the officer and the crew member All of the above.
The Officers Competency Certificates Convention of 1936 applies to all of these vessels operating seaward of the boundary line EXCEPT a/an __________. offshore supply vessel over 200 gross tons passenger vessel of 295 gross tons uninspected towing vessel of less than 200 gross tons inspected towing vessel of 305 gross tons
Which statement, concerning offshore supply vessel operations, correctly defines the length of a voyage? The distance from the point of departure to the vessel's first stop The shortest measurable distance from the port of departure to the port of arrival The distance from the point of departure to the most distant point offshore The total distance from the port of departure to the port of arrival, not including stops at offshore points
The Master may require part of the crew to work when needed for __________. performing fire, lifeboat or other drills in port or at sea performing work necessary for the safety of the vessel, its passengers, crew or cargo maneuvering, shifting berth, mooring and unmooring All of the above.
For towing vessels over 100 gross tons that are permitted to maintain a two-watch system, what percentage of the deck crew must be able seamen? 50 (%) 65 (%) 75 (%) 100 (%)
Considering the manning requirements for U.S. vessels (100 gross tons and above), your cargo vessel has a deck crew of 20 men, exclusive of the officers. How many of these men do the manning regulations require to be Able Seamen? 5 7 10 13
Considering the manning requirements for U.S. vessels, your three watch cargo vessel has a deck crew of 20 people, exclusive of the officers. How many of these people do the manning regulations require to be Able Seamen? 10 13 7 5
Deckhands onboard towing vessels shall be divided into 3 watches when on a trip exceeding __________. 600 miles 700 miles 800 miles 1000 miles
Deckhands onboard towing vessels shall be divided into 3 watches when the trip exceeds __________. 1000 miles 800 miles 700 miles 600 miles
You are signing on a crew. You can determine the minimum number and qualifications of the crew that you are required to carry by consulting which document? Certificate of Inspection Articles of Agreement fo'c'sle card Crew list
You are signing on crew members. The minimum number of people required aboard, and the qualifications of each, is listed on the __________. fo'c'sle card Crew list Articles of Agreement Certificate of Inspection
You are signing on crew members. The minimum number of people required aboard, and the qualifications of each, is listed on the __________. Articles of Agreement fo'c'sle card Crew list Certificate of Inspection
A U.S. or foreign flag vessel that does not comply with the Officers Competency Certificates Convention of 1936 may be detained by certain designated officials. These officials include all of the following EXCEPT a/an __________. State Police officer officer of the U.S. Customs Service Coast Guard petty officer Coast Guard officer
You are the credentialed operator of a 100 GT towing vessel making coastwise runs. Which of the following must you do whenever a crew member is discharged from your vessel? retain the crew member's Certificate of Discharge onboard issue a Certificate of Discharge and make an entry in his Continuous Discharge Book retain the crew member's Continuous Discharge Book onboard issue a Certificate of Discharge or make an entry in his Continuous Discharge Book
You are signing on your crew. Which is NOT authorized? A man presenting an MMC endorsed as "Able Seaman" to sign on as Bosun A man presenting his Chief Mate endorsement to sign on as able seaman An engineer presenting an MMC endorsed "QMED - any rating" to sign on as an Electrician A man presenting an MMC endorsed "Steward's Department (F.H.)" to sign on as Chief Cook
A seaman leaves a vessel before it sails from a foreign port. He informs the Chief Officer that he won't return. After the vessel sails, the Chief Officer finds the seaman's work clothes in his locker. How should the Master handle this matter? Take no action. Log the seaman as a fail to join. Log the seaman as a deserter. Log the seaman for misconduct.
You are signing on a deck officer, who will be designated as one of the GMDSS operators, before sailing foreign. Which statement is TRUE? He/she must have an STCW certificate endorsed as "Valid for Service on Vessels Operating in the GMDSS System". You must consult the "List of Qualifications" on the reverse of his/her FCC-issued license. His/her Merchant Mariners Credential must have an added endorsement as "Radio Electronics Officer". He/she must present either an FCC-issued license or a Coast Guard-issued license.
While a vessel is in a foreign port where there is no American Consul, a seaman becomes violent prior to sailing. The Master should __________. call local police, put the seaman in prison ashore, and sail the vessel pay off the seaman and make arrangements with the agent to return him to the original port of signing on in the U.S. put the seaman in irons and sail to the next port where there is an American Consul send the seaman ashore and arrange with the agent to repatriate him by armed guard
Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage. Several vacancies have occurred in your unlicensed crew through sickness and repatriation. Which statement is correct? Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies. Seamen to fill vacancies must be flown from U.S. to join the vessel in the foreign port. Aliens may be employed except that all U.S. flag vessels must maintain no less than 90% U.S. citizens in the crew. Vacancies can only be filled by U.S. citizens with valid Merchant Mariner's Documents.
An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a U.S. port and fails to return. The first report you make should be to the __________. Customs Service Immigration Service OCMI local police
Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has been incarcerated for drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't have funds to cover the costs of the fine. Which action should the Master take? Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a fail to join after the vessel sails. Pay the seaman's fine. Inventory his gear and send it and a pay voucher ashore with the agent. Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a deserter after the vessel sails.
A vessel arrives in a foreign port and the Master is informed that the vessel is being sold to foreign interests. The new owners request that the crew remain on board to complete the voyage. Under these circumstances, the crew __________. must remain aboard until the vessel is delivered to the new owners at a mutually agreed upon port must comply with the decision made by the Master must remain on board has the right to an immediate discharge and transportation to original port of engagement
A vessel has been surveyed in a foreign port and found unseaworthy as a result of neglect. A seaman on this vessel is entitled to discharge and __________. transportation to the port of engagement one month's pay or transportation to the nearest U.S. port, whichever is the least amount one month's pay or transportation to the nearest U.S. port, whichever is the greater amount one month's pay only
When the vessel is on coastwise articles, the original certificate of the seaman's certificate of discharge is __________. sent to Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard given to the seaman retained on board sent to the shipping company
If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign port, the changes will be made by __________. the Master on the Shipping Articles the Master on the Certified Crew List U.S. Consul on the Shipping Articles U.S. Consul on the Certified Crew List
When paying off seamen in a foreign port, where a United States consul is not available, the release must be executed by the seamen and the __________. representative of the foreign country Master of the vessel ship's union delegate local port authority representative
In a foreign port with a consulate, the U.S. Consul may excuse the Master from personally appearing before him to consent to the mutual release of an injured seaman, when the __________. injury requires immediate inpatient hospitalization of the seaman ship is still in port and the seaman can appear before the Consul after medical treatment Master authorizes the agent to act in his place seaman also consents to the absence, and there is no dispute as to the wages due
When may a seaman on a vessel engaged in foreign trade be paid before earning the wages? The advance of wages is at the discretion of the master; however, a seaman cannot be in an overpaid status at signoff. The seaman may only draw an advance on earned wages. Wages up to fifty percent of the seaman's base wage maybe advanced upon proof of serious family illness. Wages equivalent to three days base wage may be advanced upon arrival in a foreign port.
A seaman lost his continuous discharge book during the voyage. Upon discharge from Articles, he should be issued a __________. letter of service on company letterhead signed and sealed by the master Certificate of Discharge with the white copy forwarded to the Commandant Mutual Release (CG-2119), and the articles should be annotated as to the loss Record of Entry in a Continuous Discharge Book for use in applying for a duplicate book
A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which statement is TRUE? A Certificate of Discharge Form should be attached to the book. The record of entry in the book must be submitted to the Coast Guard. If a vessel was on coastwise articles, the record of discharge will be made in the Official Logbook. An entry should be made in the book and a Certificate of Discharge Form issued to the seaman.
A seaman you have just discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which statement is TRUE? An entry should be made in the book and a Certificate of Discharge issued to the seaman. The record of entry in the continuous discharge book shall agree with the entry made in the Ship's Articles. If the vessel was on coastwise articles, the record of discharge will be made in the Official Logbook. A Certificate of Discharge form should be attached to the book.
Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is that of the __________. steamship company Master of the vessel U.S. Coast Guard U.S. Custom Service
Which action will take place if a crew member is replaced in a U.S. port after foreign articles have been signed, and the ship proceeds foreign? The name of the new man is added to the articles but not to the Certified Crew List. The U.S. Consul will add the new man's name to the Certified Crew List. The Master will remove the replaced man's name from the Certified Crew List but not from the articles. The U.S. Consul will remove the replaced man's name from the Certified Crew List.
You are signing on a crew. Which person is presenting a Merchant Mariner's Document (MMD) that you should suspect as being invalid? An AB with an endorsement of "Any unlicensed rating in the deck department including Able Seaman" A Purser with an MMD only endorsed "See certificate of registry" A seaman with an MMD only endorsed as "Bosun" A Chief Steward with an MMD only endorsed as "Steward's Dept. (FH)"
You are signing on a crew. When they present their Merchant Mariner Credential, you should suspect a fraudulent document if it has a single endorsement that says __________. any unlicensed rating in the deck department including AB see Certificate of Registry Bosun Steward's Department (F.H.)
You are signing on a crew. A man presents a Merchant Mariner's Document that you suspect has been tampered with. Which action should you take? Refuse to sign the man on articles until authorized by the Coast Guard. Sign the man on and notify the Coast Guard at the first U.S. port of call. Confiscate the document and deliver it to the Coast Guard. Refuse to sign the man on and notify the FBI of unauthorized use of a federal document.
You are signing on the Purser. He should present a Merchant Mariner Credential with which endorsement? Steward's Department See Certificate of Registry Staff Officer Purser
The master or individual in charge of a vessel prepares a certificate of discharge for each mariner being discharged from the vessel where the original discharge goes to the __________. Officer In Charge, Marine Inspection (OCMI) Mariner National Maritime Center Shipping Company
Which statement is FALSE regarding certificates of discharge? The mariner receives the original copy of the discharge Copies of the certificate of discharge are furnished by the shipping company Computer generated signatures are not authorized The mariner only signs the original copy of the discharge
Which document is NOT required by law to be posted aboard a vessel? Muster List Official Crew List Officer's licenses Certificate of Inspection
Safety equipment on board vessels must be approved by the __________. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) U.S. Coast Guard Safety Standards Bureau National Safety Council
The trim and stability booklet must be approved by the __________. Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers United States Coast Guard International Maritime Organization National Cargo Bureau
On an inspected vessel, when may a stability test be dispensed with? projected cost is unreasonable Coast Guard has the approved stability test results of a sister vessel vessel is of a proven design Coast Guard does not have a qualified inspector available
What condition must be met during a stability test on an inspected vessel? water under vessel must be deep enough to prevent grounding all dunnage, tools, and extraneous items are secured each tank must be partially full to show it does not leak the vessel must be moored snugly
On an inspected vessel, which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most points on the waterline at her deepest operating draft? LBP LOA LLL LWL
Which item do you NOT have to provide for the Coast Guard representative at the time of a stability test? General arrangement plans of decks; holds and inner bottoms. Capacity plans showing the vertical and longitudinal centers of gravity of stowage spaces and tanks. A stability letter. Tank sounding tables and draft mark locations.
Which U.S. agency issues a Certificate of Financial Responsibility? Environmental Protection Agency Corps of Engineers Coast Guard Maritime Administration
What does a Certificate of Financial Responsibility attest to? has the minimum required amount of P & I and hull insurance has financial reserves to meet reasonable expected crew costs of an intended voyage will assume the responsibility for any damage or loss to the shipper has financial backing to meet any liability resulting from the discharge of oil
You are moving a gas free tank barge to dry dock for repairs. The barge must have onboard a valid __________. Certificate of Inspection Gas Free Certificate Permit to Proceed and Hot Work Permit All of the above.
Your vessel has completed an inspection for certification and is issued a temporary certificate. This __________. must be exchanged for a regular Certificate of Inspection before going foreign or out of state expires six months after it is issued has the full force of a regular Certificate of Inspection must be posted in the vicinity of the officers' licenses
Which document shows the minimum required crew a vessel must have to navigate from one port in the United States to another? Articles Crew List Certificate of Inspection Register
Fire fighting equipment requirements for a particular vessel may be found on the __________. Certificate of Registry Certificate of Inspection Classification Certificate Certificate of Seaworthiness
To determine the number of inflatable liferafts required on a vessel, you should check the __________. Stability Letter SOLAS Certificate Certificate of Inspection Load Line Certificate
You are in port A in the United States, and your Certificate of Inspection has expired. You wish to go to port B in the United States for repairs and to complete the inspection. If the Officer-in-Charge Marine Inspection deems it safe, he may issue a __________. Temporary Certificate of Inspection Certificate of Seaworthiness Limited Certificate of Inspection Permit to Proceed
Which document lists all the lifesaving equipment required for a vessel? Certificate of Registry Certificate of Inspection American Bureau of Shipping Classification Certificate International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
The number of certificated lifeboatmen required for a vessel is found on the __________. Muster List ("Station Bill") lifeboats Certificate of Inspection Register or Enrollment
Which document shows details of a tank vessel, cargoes it may carry, manning and safety equipment required? Cargo Gear Certificate Safety Construction Certificate Declaration of Inspection Certificate of Inspection
To determine the number of portable fire extinguishers required on an inspected vessel, you should check the __________. hot work permit Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
The Certificate of Inspection for your tankship authorizes the carriage of grade A and lower products. Which chemical may NOT be carried unless it is specifically endorsed on the Certificate of Inspection? Diisobutyl Phthalate Amylene Oleic acid Vinyl acetate
To determine the number of able seamen required on an inspected vessel, you should check the __________. operations manual Certificate of Inspection Safety of Life at Sea Certificate Load Line Certificate
The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a vessel is determined by the __________. Corps of Engineers Coast Guard American Bureau of Shipping International Maritime Organization
The number of able seamen required on board is stated in the __________. American Bureau of Shipping code SOLAS Certificate Certificate of Inspection Classification Certificate
You are operating a 150 GT towing vessel. What is NOT required on the vessel? Certificate of Documentation FCC station license Certificate of Inspection Your Coast Guard credential
What will NOT be found on the Certificate of Inspection of an ocean going tankship? Minimum freeboard permitted Grade(s) of cargoes that the vessel may carry Waters upon which the vessel may be operated Manning requirements
The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on board is listed in the __________. Safety of Life at Sea Convention Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection American Bureau of Shipping code
What is NOT required on an uninspected towing vessel? Operators Credential FCC Station License Certificate of Inspection Certificate of Documentation
Temporary Certificates of Inspection are effective until the __________. permanent Certificate of Inspection is issued Load Line Certificate is renewed Solas Certificate is issued classification society approval is issued
The Certificate of Inspection for a containership __________. is issued by the Coast Guard and is usually valid for 2 years. shows the due date of the quadrennial test of the cargo gear must be posted under transparent material in a conspicuous place lists all of the stability limitations and conditions imposed on the vessel
At least one reinspection shall be made on each vessel holding a Certificate of Inspection valid for two years. This inspection shall be held between the tenth and fourteenth months of the duration period of the certificate and shall be __________. generally similar in scope to the inspection required for certification, but in less detail at the discretion of the inspector, but in no greater detail than required for original certification equivalent to the inspection required for certification at the discretion of the inspector, but in no lesser detail than required for original certification
A Permit to Proceed is issued by the __________. American Bureau of Shipping National Cargo Bureau U.S. Department of Labor U.S. Coast Guard
The Certificate of Inspection of a damaged tank barge has expired. What certificate authorizes the barge to move to a repair facility for repair and inspection? Permit to Proceed Application for Inspection Change of Employment Temporary Certificate of Inspection
The Certificate of Inspection on a passenger vessel of over 100 gross tons must be posted __________. on the bridge in a conspicuous place where observation by the passengers is likely in the passengers' dining room or, where there is no dining room, in the lounge area in the Master's office
Which document will describe lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel? Forecastle Card Clearance Papers Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection
Where would you find a list of the lifesaving equipment onboard your supply boat? Muster List ("Station Bill") Certificate of Inspection Ship's Articles U.S. Coast Guard Regulations
The Coast Guard inspection required before a Certificate of Inspection can be issued is conducted________________. when deemed necessary by the Regional Inspection Center at random from a Coast Guard patrol boat after a formal complaint is filed with the OCMI after you apply in writing to the nearest Officer in Charge of Marine Inspection (OCMI)
A re-inspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid? 8 - 12 months 10 - 12 months 10 - 14 months 12 - 14 months
The S.S. Slip Knot has been chartered to the Longline Steamship Company. The Longline Steamship Company agrees to pay all expenses and employ and pay the crew. Which type of contract is involved? Time Charter Party Bareboat Charter Party Lease Charter Party Voyage Charter Party
The owners of the S.S. Short Haul agree to a charter with the Long splice Steamship Company. The owners stipulate in the charter party that they must approve the Master of the vessel for the entire life of the contract. Which charter has been affected? Bareboat Voyage Lease Time
Your vessel is chartered under a time charter party. Under this type of charter party, your responsibility is __________. solely to the cargo shippers and consignees solely to the owner, as under normal conditions solely to the charterer for all matters pertaining to cargo and ship administration to the owner for vessel administration and to the charterer for cargo operations and schedule
On a voyage charter, when a vessel is ready to load cargo, the Master should render to the charterer a __________. Vessel Utilization and Performance Report Notice of Readiness Shipmasters Declaration Master Certificate of Service
The Master of a vessel may tender a Notice of Readiness to the charterer when the vessel __________. is in all respects ready to load has completed the terms of the charter party is safely moored or at a suitable anchorage is in all respects ready to sail
A Contract of Affreightment covering the movement of a particular cargo from one designated port to another at a specified rate for each ton of goods loaded is called a __________. demise charter party bareboat charter party voyage charter party time charter party
The S.S. Hollowpoint has a charter party in which the charterer assumes no responsibility for the operation of the vessel but pays stevedoring expenses. What is the name of the charter party? Voyage Dispatch Demise Bareboat
A vessel has a charter party for one voyage to carry a full load of manganese from Durban, South Africa, to Baltimore, Maryland, at a stipulated rate per ton. Which type of contract is involved? Bareboat charter party Voyage charter party Demise charter party Time charter party
Payment of penalty for a ship's delay after the expiration of lay days due to some fault of the charterer or his agent is known as __________. demurrage volatility late fee miscibility
Delivery of a vessel to a charterer is called __________. tendering dispatching fixing chartering
The basic shipping paper that forms an agreement between a shipowner and a charterer is a __________. Charter Commission Charter Party Letter of Intent Cargo Declaration
Which term defines the basic shipping paper that forms an agreement between the owner of the vessel and a charterer? Charter Commission Charter Party Letter of Intent Cargo Declaration
A clause in the charter party requires a vessel's owner to pay dispatch money when the vessel __________. changes berths to expedite loading or discharging does not load and discharge its cargo in the time specified is not ready to load or discharge cargo loads and discharges its cargo in less time than specified
The time allowed for loading and discharging cargo in a charter party is referred to as __________. dispatch charter hire lay days demurrage
The charterer has completed loading the vessel in 3 days instead of the 5 days agreed to in the charter party. As a result of this, the __________. stevedore may collect demurrage consignee may be required to pay a ceaser fee shipowner may charge for two lay days charterer may receive dispatch money
A charterer is unable to complete the loading of a vessel during the lay days specified in the charter party. Under these circumstances, the __________. vessel operator can collect demurrage effective period of the charter is extended charterer must pay dispatch money ship is authorized extra time to discharge the cargo
Dead freight is the charge for the __________. difference in the amount of cargo loaded and the amount of cargo discharged carriage of demise cargo difference in the amount of cargo loaded and the amount of cargo booked, through no fault of the vessel cost of transshipment of over-carried cargo
Which is a negotiated charter? Bill of Lading Conference agreement Fixture All of the above.
A vessel proceeding to London, England, from New York makes an unscheduled call at the port of Hamilton, Bermuda. What term is used to denote the voluntary departure from the usual course? Liberty Unscheduled stop Alteration Deviation
A vessel's Classification Certificate is issued by the __________. United States Customs United States Coast Guard National Cargo Bureau American Bureau of Shipping
Which certificate is NOT issued by the Coast Guard? Classification of Hull and Machinery Certificate of Inspection Award of official number Safety Equipment Certificate
The document on a vessel, annually endorsed by an American Bureau of Shipping surveyor, is called the __________. Load Line Certificate Certificate of Inspection Seaworthy Certificate Classification Certificate
A vessel operating "in class" has met all the requirements of the __________. U.S. Customs insurance company ABS or similar society U.S. Coast Guard
A vessel arrives in San Francisco from a foreign voyage. When MUST the Master make formal entry at the custom house? Within 48 hours and before all foreign cargo is discharged for that port Within 24 hours after arrival Within 48 hours after arrival, Sundays and holidays excepted Within 24 hours after arrival, Sundays and holidays excepted
A vessel has arrived in a U.S. port from a foreign voyage. Preliminary entry has been made. Formal entry at the U.S. Custom House must be made within how many hours after arrival (Sundays and holidays excepted)? 12 24 48 72 without exception
A vessel arrives at the port of San Francisco from Yokohama, Japan. The passengers fill out the Baggage Declaration and Entry form. A passenger has baggage arriving on another vessel. How must this baggage be handled for U.S. Customs purposes? It need not be declared at this time. It must be declared on another form entitled "Continuation Sheet". It must be declared on the same form and marked "Unaccompanied Baggage". It must be declared only if the other vessel's name is known.
In some cases, the 50% duty on all foreign repairs made to American flag merchant vessels may be remitted. Which work does NOT come under the remitting policy of U.S. Customs? Repairs to hull structural damage Repairs due to damage done by heavy weather Chipping, painting, and scaling by foreign labor Repairs to the main propulsion machinery
You are Master of a U.S. flag vessel which was dry docked for bottom cleaning in Rotterdam, Netherlands. Upon return to a U.S. port, you must __________. obtain a U.S. Coast Guard diver to certify the work file a customs' form for duty on this repair file no extra reports file a report of the dry docking with the U.S.C.G. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
A vessel puts into the port of Kobe, Japan, to discharge cargo. The vessel contracts a local shipyard to have the hull chipped and scaled. If the vessel provides the primer and paint, which statement is TRUE? You need NOT declare the cost of labor, since this is considered ship's personnel work. You need NOT declare the cost of labor, since no duty is involved. You MUST declare the cost of labor, but no duty is charged since labor is involved. You MUST declare the cost of labor and pay duty.
A vessel puts into the port of Kobe, Japan to discharge cargo. While awaiting completion of the cargo operation, the vessel contracts with a local shipyard to have the hull chipped, scaled, and painted. How is the cost of this maintenance handled with the Collector of Customs? A declaration is made, but duty is charged on the labor only. No declaration is required since this is considered routine maintenance. A declaration is required and duty is involved on the total cost. A declaration is made and duty is charged on the materials only.
A vessel sailing from Liverpool to New York puts into Boston, Mass. for emergency repairs. If no inward foreign cargo is to be discharged at that port, which of the following documents is required? Customs Manifest Inward Foreign Manifest Traveling Manifest Pro Forma Manifest
U.S. Customs, upon boarding a vessel desiring entry into a U.S. port, would inspect which document? Stores List Certified Crew List Cargo Manifest All of the above.
The term used in levying customs duties when such are fixed at rates proportioned to estimated value of goods concerned is __________. ad valorem specific infinite secure
The document that the Master uses to attest to the truth of the manifest of cargo is called __________. Owner's Oath Oath of Entry Master's Protest Shipper's Certification
If you intend to land tulip bulbs from Holland in a U.S. port, they must be inspected by the __________. Quarantine Officer Animal and Plant Health Service Inspector Captain of the Port personnel All of the above.
You are the Chief Mate of a 30,000-DWT tankship. The vessel is engaged in trade with another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE? An IOPP Certificate is invalidated if the ship carries cargoes outside the classes authorized thereon. An IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for certification. The Certificate of Inspection serves as prima facie evidence of complying with MARPOL 73/78. The IOPP Certificate for an inspected vessel is valid for 5 years.
A 30,000 DWT tankship is required to have an IOPP certificate when __________. carrying cargoes listed in the MARPOL regulations engaged in the coastwise trade calling at ports in another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78 going foreign
An IOPP Certificate on an inspected vessel is valid for what period of time? 6 months 12 months 18 months 5 years
After an IOPP Certificate is issued to an inspected vessel, how many other surveys of the vessel's pollution prevention equipment are conducted during the period of validity of the certificate? None One Two Three
In which case is the IOPP Certificate of an inspected vessel NOT invalidated? A 15 ppm oily-water separator is replaced by a 100 ppm oily-water separator. An annual survey is conducted fifteen months after the date of certificate issuance. The required oily-water separator malfunctions. The ship is transferred to Liberian registry.
The supplement to the IOPP Certificate contains what type of data? The trade routes upon which the vessel may operate. A checklist of the equipment installed for controlling the discharge of oil. A list of the underwriters who will assume financial responsibility in the event of an oil spill. The grades of cargo that an oil tanker is permitted to carry.
You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE? The Certificate of Inspection is prima facie evidence of compliance with MARPOL 73/78. The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years. AN IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for certification. An IOPP Certificate is invalid if the ship carries cargoes outside the classes authorized thereon.
The implied condition(s) with respect to the doctrine of deviation in a marine insurance policy is(are) __________. that the voyage be commenced in a reasonable time that the cargo be discharged from the vessel with customary dispatch that the voyage be pursued over the usual and direct route All of the above.
The York-Antwerp Rules relate to the __________. ship owner's responsibilities to provide a well-found vessel in a charter party minimum required number of officers and crew settlement of general average claims navigation regulations that apply in the English Channel
While a vessel is at sea, the mate on watch discovers a fire in one of the hatches. Fire hoses are used to put the fire out and some of the cargo is damaged by water. In marine insurance terms, this partial loss by water is called __________. fire and water damage an Act of God general average particular average
One of the requirements for a general average act is __________. a successful venture no imminent peril no losses All of the above.
Which statement about general average is TRUE? Property must have been sacrificed or an expenditure of money incurred. The loss or damage to deck cargo due to heavy weather constitutes general average. Of the ship, the freight, and the cargo interests, only one need be involved. Damage to a ship must have been incurred while the ship and/or its machinery was being used for its intended purpose.
A fire has damaged 20 bales of cotton on a freighter loaded with general cargo. This claim would come under __________. constructive total loss particular average total loss of a part general average
While underway, part of your cargo is damaged by fire. In marine insurance terms this partial loss is called __________. constructive total loss absolute total loss particular average general average
Particular average is __________. charges against all parties in a marine venture to pay for damages loss sustained by only one party the average distance steamed per day over the duration of the voyage claimed after all liens against the vessel are settled
A vessel has been damaged by fire. The survey shows the cost of repairs will exceed the value of the repaired vessel. This is an example of a(n) __________. salvage loss constructive total loss actual loss preferred loss
A vessel has been damaged by fire. The survey shows the cost of repairs will exceed the value of the repaired vessel. How would this Marine Loss be classified? Actual loss Constructive total loss Salvage loss Preferred total loss
An underwriter is liable for __________. loss arising from the subject itself because of its inherent qualities loss caused by the ordinary evaporation of liquids the natural decay of the vessel due to the passage of time loss caused by heavy weather
A ballasted vessel sinks enroute to a dry dock. Under these circumstances, the vessel's owner can claim __________. general average particular average actual total loss constructive total loss
What is an example of the term "Restraint of Rulers, Princes, or Peoples" in a marine insurance policy? Losses caused by fines from polluting the harbor after malfunction of a piping system. Arrest of a vessel by legal authorities to satisfy claims through exercise of a maritime lien. Damage caused by riot of the population of a port. A prohibition from loading a cargo from a country's government interference.
Which condition would NOT entitle a vessel to carry goods on deck? Deck stowage is customary in the trade (i.e. timber cargoes) Deck stowage is required by law or regulation The shipper agrees to deck stowage The cargo will damage other cargoes by tainting or contamination
Before arriving at the first U.S. port from foreign, you must fill out a Crewman's Landing Permit for each __________. alien crewmember unlicensed crew member nonresident alien crewmember crew member
If an alien stowaway is discovered aboard your vessel, his name must be placed on the __________. Crew List Passenger List Alien Crew List separate Passenger List marked stowaways
A document which has a list of names, birthplaces, and residences of persons employed on a merchant vessel bound from a U.S. port on a foreign voyage and is required at every port is called the __________. Certified Crew List Crew Manifest Shipping Articles Muster List ("Station Bill")
The Immigration and Naturalization Service is concerned with which document on a vessel making preliminary entry into a U.S. port from a foreign port? Shipping Articles Certified Crew List Curio List Cargo Manifest
What does a Visaed Alien Crew List which is made and submitted to the U.S. Consul for visa show? All aliens aboard All crew members Nonresident aliens aboard Registered aliens aboard
Which type of carrier accepts without discrimination all legal cargoes of a shipper? Industrial Common Tramp Private
The type of carrier required to file a copy of freight tariffs would be the __________. bulk carrier common carrier tramp public vessel
Uncleared crew curios remaining on board during a domestic coastwise voyage after returning from foreign should be __________. noted in the Traveling Curio Manifest retained under locked security by the owner cleared prior to the next foreign voyage listed in the Official Logbook
When clearing customs for a foreign voyage, which of the following is processed at the custom's house and returned to the vessel? Official Logbook Shipping Articles Cargo Gear Register Traveling Curio Manifest
When clearing a vessel for a foreign voyage, the original crew list is duly certified by proper authority. In a U.S. port, this authority is the U.S. __________. Customs Immigration Service Public Health Service Coast Guard
Your vessel is in Charleston, S.C. You need not clear Customs if __________. you did not discharge any cargo in Charleston and are bound for Panama all the cargo on board is of U.S. origin and destined for New York you took on no new cargo in Charleston, S.C. and are bound for Puerto Rico and thence foreign you did not load any cargo in Charleston and are bound for Halifax
The citizenship of a crew member of a vessel in a U.S. port is determined solely by the __________. Coast Guard Customs Officer Immigration Officer Union Official
The agency most concerned with a stowaway is __________. U.S.D.A. Public Health Customs Immigration
"Free pratique" means that __________. shipment will be made at no cost health requirements have been met and no further quarantine formalities are required clearance requirements for all regulatory bodies have been met tonnage taxes are not required to be paid
If, after examination by the Quarantine Officer, your vessel is found to have a specific deficiency, you may be issued __________. Bill of health Notice to Comply Controlled Free Pratique Free Pratique
When a vessel is entering or leaving a port, a record of engine speeds is kept in the __________. Official Logbook deck rough log bell book engine rough log
When an azimuth of the Sun has been taken and the deviation of the standard magnetic compass computed, the watch officer should record the results __________. on the compass deviation card in the vessel's Official Logbook in the compass deviation log on a Napier diagram
In writing up the logbook at the end of your watch, you make an error in writing an entry. What is the proper means of correcting this error? Cross out the error with a single line, and write the correct entry, then initial it. Blot out the error completely and rewrite the entry correctly. Remove this page of the log book, and rewrite all entries on a clean page. Carefully and neatly erase the entry and rewrite it correctly.
The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to __________. draw a line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction draw several lines through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction completely black out the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction erase the entry and rewrite
A journal kept by the officer of the watch in which day to day happenings are recorded regarding the deck department is the __________. bell book Official Logbook deck rough log cargo record book
All entries in the Official Logbook must be signed by the Master and __________. the person about whom the entry concerns no one else one other crew member the Union Representative
Every entry required to be made in the Official Logbook shall be signed by the __________. Master and Chief Mate or other member of the crew Master only Mate on watch Purser, one of the Mates, and some other member of the crew
All entries in the Official Logbook must be signed by the Master and __________. one other crew member the Chief Engineer the person about whom the entry concerns No other signature is required.
Your vessel (185 GT) is on a voyage between New York and San Francisco. Which statement is TRUE? An Official Logbook must be maintained. The maintenance of an Official Logbook is optional. The vessel must be on foreign articles. This is considered a coastwise voyage.
Which vessel is required by regulations to have an Official Logbook? A 100-gross ton tug on a trip between Baltimore, Maryland, and San Pedro, California. A 66-gross ton tug operating between states. A 199-gross ton tug on a coastwise trip of 610 miles. All of the above.
An Official Logbook is required on which vessel? A 150-G.T. tug going from Boston to New Orleans. A 100-G.T. tug going from New York to San Pedro, California. A 50-G.T. tug going from Miami to Seattle. A 199-G.T. tug on a coastwise trip of 650 miles.
The Master of a passenger vessel which is not required to maintain an Official Logbook must keep a record of the number of passengers received and delivered from day to day. This record must be available for a period of __________. 6 months 12 months 24 months 36 months
Upon completion of a voyage, the official logbook shall be filed with the __________. the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection (OCMI) Captain of the Port (COTP) nearest Regional Exam Center (REC) None of the above
The official logbook is filed with the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection (OCMI) __________. within 30 days of the date of arrival of the first U.S. port at the next Certificate of Inspection at the end of the year with all other official logbooks upon completion of the voyage
When an Official logbook is not required, an unofficial logbook is required to be kept aboard for review by a marine inspector for __________. six months one month 12 months None of the above
A seaman assaults the Second Mate and injures him with a beer bottle while the ship is at sea. The incident is logged in the Official Logbook. In subsequent suspension and revocation proceedings against the seaman, according to the regulations, __________. the Second Mate and the Master must testify as to the facts of the assault the logbook entry is prima facie evidence of the facts if it complies with the law the logbook is inadmissible if the logbook entries do not conform to the law the case will be dismissed if the logbook entries are improperly made
What is required to be entered into the Official Logbook? The drafts on entering port Opening a sideport at sea to renew a gasket The annual required stripping and cleaning of the lifeboats The biennial weight test of the lifeboats and falls
Which entry is NOT required in the Official Logbook? Steering gear tests Position of the load line and freeboard upon sailing Closure of hatches and sideports upon sailing Commencement and termination of cargo operations
Which item must be entered in the official log? Names of night mates and engineers Drafts upon leaving port All engine orders Number of cargo gangs on board
Which is NOT a required entry in the ship's Official Logbook? Medical treatment of an injury Sale of effects of a deceased crew member Dry docking of the vessel Inspections of cargo gear
As operator of a 199 GT towing vessel sailing foreign, it shall be your duty to enter in the Official Logbook or other permanent record __________. the barges load line and draft readings the condition of all towing gear to be used all information contained on the barge's Certificate of Inspection all navigational aids to be used
A seaman dies during a voyage. What is NOT required to be entered into the Official Log? Statement as to the total deductions to be made from the wages An inventory of the money and property Statement of the wages due Statement that the Master has taken custody of the deceased's MMD and passport
If a drill required by regulations is not completed, the Master or person in charge must __________. conduct two of the required drills at the next opportunity log the reason for not completing the drill report this immediately to the Commandant of the Coast Guard All of the above.
Which logbook is required to be submitted to the Coast Guard? Bell log Smooth log Official Log Rough log
The responsibility for maintaining the Official Logbook on voyages between the Atlantic and Pacific coasts of the United States rests with the __________. Master of the vessel Chief Mate of the vessel Deck Officer of the watch at the time of the occurrence Purser of the vessel
Which log includes a statement of the conduct, ability, and character of each crew member on the completion of a voyage? Smooth Logbook Crew Logbook Department Logbook Official Logbook
Which is supplied to the vessel by the U.S. Coast Guard? Official Logbook Rough Logbook Bell book Cargo gear register
All of the following records are usually maintained by the watch-standing officers aboard a vessel EXCEPT the __________. deck logbook chronometer error book compass record book official logbook
The oil record book is required to be carried aboard __________. passenger vessels tankers cargo vessels All of the above.
Under normal operating conditions aboard a ship, who has the overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil Record Book? Master Chief Mate Chief Engineer First Assistant Engineer
Which of the following is not an acceptable unit of measure to be used consistently throughout an Oil Record Book? tons gallons barrels cubic meters
According to 33 CFR, on board which type of vessel described below is required to maintain Part II (Cargo/Ballast Operations) of the Oil Record Book? A non-tanker that carries more than 200 cubic meters of oil in bulk. Any oil tanker of 100 gross tons and above. An oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above on domestic voyages only. A ship of 150 gross tons and above, other than an oil tanker.
The Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships is the property of the __________. master of the vessel charterer of the vessel U.S. government vessel's owner
After each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture, an entry shall be recorded in the Oil Record Book __________. within 6 hours of completion of the operation without delay as the operation permits within 1 hour of completion of the inspection
On a passenger vessel over 400 gross tons, routine entries for the Oil Record Book are recorded in __________. Part III (Emergency Discharge/Spillage) Oil Record Book is not required Part II (Cargo Oil/Ballast Operations) Part I (Machinery Space Operations)
The Oil Record Book for all fixed or floating drilling rigs is the property of the __________. company leasing the drilling rig U.S. government drilling rig's owner state in whose water the drilling rig is located
Who is the legal owner of the Oil Record Book for a fixed or floating drilling rig? The company leasing the drilling rig The local state government where the drilling rig is located The U.S. government The drilling rig's owner, until surrendered upon request
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33CFR), each completed page in the Oil Record Book is to be signed by __________. person(s) in charge of the operation the master oil terminal representative Coast Guard representative designated by COTP
The Master must maintain the Oil Record Book on board for at least __________. 1 month 12 months 24 months 36 months
The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a foreign voyage shall be maintained on board for not less than __________. 12 months 36 months 24 months 48 months
According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33CFR), who is to sign the Oil Record Book after every designated operation? person(s) in charge of the operation a credentialed officer present at the operation designated by the master the master person(s) in charge of the operation and a credentialed officer present at the operation
Container vessels are required to maintain an Oil Record Book when the vessel is _________? 150 gross tons and above 200 gross tons and above 300 gross tons above 400 gross tons and above
When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in the __________. engine rough log Oil Record Book Official Logbook deck rough log
When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry must be made in the __________. Official Logbook Oil Record Book deck rough log engine rough log
Official proof of an American vessel's nationality is contained in the __________. Official Log Shipping Articles Certificate of Documentation Certificate of Inspection
All U.S. Flag vessels engaged in foreign trade are required to be which of the following? enrolled classed registered licensed
The document which shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, and tonnage is the __________. Manifest Certificate Official Logbook Bill of Lading Certificate Certificate of Documentation
The official identification of a vessel is found in the __________. Certificate of Inspection Classification Certificate Certificate of Documentation Load Line Certificate
A vessel's Certificate of Documentation __________. must be kept on file at the corporate offices of the owner or operator must be carried on board may be retained by the owner at the home port OR kept on the vessel must be posted under transparent material in the pilothouse
Which U.S. agency assigns an official number to a vessel? Collector of Customs Coast Guard Treasury Department American Bureau of Shipping
A change of a documented vessel's name can only be made by the __________. Commissioner of Customs Coast Guard Treasury Department American Bureau of Shipping
The official number of a documented vessel is __________. not required to be marked anywhere on the vessel required to be permanently marked on the vessel's structure required to be painted on the vessel's stern required to be painted on the vessel's bow
The name and hailing port of a documented commercial vessel is __________. required to be marked on the keel, stern, and both bows required to be marked on the stern with the name of the vessel marked on both bows not required to be marked anywhere on the vessel required to be marked on both bows and on the keel
The number or name of a tank barge shall be __________. displayed as close to the navigation lights as possible displayed at the highest point of the barge's hull such that it can be seen from either side carved on a wooden board and attached to the barge's hull displayed in at least 4 different positions on the barge
What is the minimum size required before a vessel can be documented? 26 feet between perpendiculars 5 net tons 26 feet; end-to-end over the deck excluding sheer 100 gross tons
An International Tonnage Certificate will be issued to a vessel when it meets several requirements, one of which is that the vessel must __________. admeasure over 100 GT be issued a Certificate of Inspection engage in intercoastal or international trade be 79 or more feet in length
What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage? Net tonnage is the gross tonnage less certain deductible spaces. Net tonnage is tonnage of cargo compared to tonnage of whole ship. Net tonnage is gross tonnage minus engine and bunker spaces. Net tonnage is the net weight of the ship.
Which space(s) is(are) exempt when measuring gross tonnage? Steering gear room Auxiliary machinery spaces above the uppermost continuous deck Part of the wheelhouse used to control vessel All of the above.
Which space(s) is(are) NOT exempt when measuring gross tonnage? Steering gear room Auxiliary machinery spaces above the deck Galley in a deckhouse Cargo holds
Which space cannot be deducted from gross tonnage when calculating net tonnage? Forepeak ballast tank Chain locker Crew mess room Master's cabin
Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage? Spaces for the exclusive use of the officers or crew Chart room Boatswain's stores All of the above.
Which space(s) is (are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage? Passenger spaces Boatswain's stores Companions and booby hatches All of the above.
Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage? Companions and booby hatches Open structures Chart room All of the above.
Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage? Companions and booby hatches Water ballast spaces Open structures Spaces for the exclusive use of the officers or crew
Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage? Galley fitted with range or oven Boatswain's stores Passenger spaces Open structures
The figure obtained by dividing the total volume of the ship in cubic feet (after omission of exempted spaces) by 100 is the __________. gross tonnage bale cubic light displacement net tonnage
The term "gross tonnage" refers to __________. the weight of a vessel with all tanks full the weight of a grossly overloaded vessel the weight of the vessel measured in long tons the vessel's approximate volume including all enclosed spaces less certain exempt spaces
You are towing a 1,000 GT gasoline tank barge which is not gas free. By regulation, cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge may __________. be open without flame screens in good weather from 16 May to 15 September not be open without flame screens under any circumstances be open without flame screens when the barge is empty be open without flame screens under the supervision of the senior crew member on duty
You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. Regulations say that cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates may remain open without flame screens ONLY __________. if an approved type B-II fire extinguisher is provided when the open tanks are gas free if the barge is towed on a hawser astern for periods not to exceed five minutes
Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and flame screens are limited to carrying which grade of cargo? A and below B and below C and below D and E only
What type of vent system would a barge of acrylonitrile have? Pressure-vacuum Open Rupture disk Safety relief
While underway and towing an unmanned tank barge you are required to __________. take hourly soundings of any loaded tanks on the barge fly a red flag from the towing vessel maintain a strict watch on the barge from the towing vessel open the tops of all empty tanks on the barge
While underway and towing an unmanned tank barge which action are you required to take? Maintain a strict watch on the barge from the towing vessel Fly a red flag from the towing vessel Take hourly soundings of any loaded tanks on the barge Open the tops of all empty tanks on the barge
If you have a liquefied flammable gas barge in tow, which is NOT required of you with respect to the barge and its cargo? Make periodic inspections of bilges. Have a properly certificated tankerman or at least one credentialed officer on board the towing vessel. Keep the barge under constant surveillance. Verify ullage readings.
What is NOT a responsibility of the tankerman in charge of loading an unmanned tank barge? Enforcement of smoking restrictions Insuring that a combustible gas indicator is aboard Protecting cargo hose with chafing gear Restricting vessels from coming alongside the barge
Your tow includes a loaded chlorine barge. After inspecting the tow, the mate reports that he hears a hissing sound coming from the safety valves. Where will you find information on emergency procedures concerning the uncontrolled release of cargo? Dangerous Cargo Regulations Cargo Information Card on your towboat Cargo Manifest or loading paper Barge's Certificate of Inspection
You are making tow. A loaded, open-hopper barge with independent tanks has placards, with alternating red and white quadrants, located at each side and end. You inspect the barge and find slight traces of water in the wing voids due to condensation. What should you do? Accept the barge and periodically check the wing voids. Accept the barge and when weather conditions permit run with the wing voids open to ventilate the spaces. Return the barge to the fleet and depart without the barge. Refuse to accept the barge until all wing voids are dry.
When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open? Call the owner, operator, or terminal supervisor. Run out the vessel or terminal fire hose. Order the dock man to shut down. Trip the pump relief valve.
On tankers ullages are measured from what point? an above-deck datum such as the top of the ullage pipe the tank ceiling aboard transversely framed vessels the tank top a thievage mark below the edge of the deck
According to U.S. regulations, what is required where cargo pump shafts on tankers pierce bulkheads? compressed air shall be used as the primary means to discharge cargo the glands are to be kept under continuous suction with power ventilation a pressure gauge or manometer shall be installed on the bulkhead to ensure the gastight seal is maintained readily accessible gastight glands shall be provided
Who may approve cargo piping to pass through a machinery space for a barge designed to carry only grade E products? American Bureau of Shipping National Cargo Bureau Vessel owner Commandant, U.S. Coast Guard
If your JP-5 barge has operated in saltwater for less than 1 month in the 12 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again? 60 months since last dry-docking 36 months since last dry-docking 24 months since last dry-docking 12 months since last dry-docking
Which credential enables a person to serve as person in charge of a tank barge which is transferring cargo? Certified Tankerman Operator of Uninspected Towing Vessels Ordinary Seaman/Wiper Able Seaman
You have orders to drop off a barge loaded with propylene oxide at a fleet. In doing so, you must ensure that __________. all wing voids and rakes are pumped dry before tying off the barge the barge is under the care of a watchman the barge is moored next to the bank where it will be protected from a possible collision a rake end is facing upstream to minimize the effect of current on the mooring lines
If your Bunker-C barge has operated in salt water for more than 12 months in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again? 30 months since last dry-docking 36 months since last dry-docking 18 months since last dry-docking 12 months since last dry-docking
What are the venting requirements for a barge with a cargo of adiponitrile? Closed venting with a vapor recovery system Open venting Pressure-vacuum relief valves Gooseneck vents fitted with flame screens
Which statement is TRUE concerning cargo hose on tank barges? Cargo hose must be able to withstand at least 150 psi. Cargo hose must be able to withstand the shut-off head plus the static head of the cargo pump. Cargo hose must be able to withstand the static head of the cargo pump but no less than 100 psi. Cargo hose must be able to withstand the shut-off head less the static head of the cargo pump but no less than 100 psi.
What form of venting of cargo tanks is allowed for a tank barge certificated to carry grade B petroleum products? Gooseneck vents with flame screens Straight vents with flame screens Individual pressure-vacuum relief valves with flame screens Gooseneck vents only
A person may operate an air compressor in which of the following areas on board a tank barge? A space two meters from a cargo valve Generator room A space adjacent to a cargo tank Pumproom
Which type of power may a towing vessel use to drive the cargo pumps of a tank barge? Only air Air or steam only Steam, air, or electricity Only steam
Which tank barges require draft marks? Tank barges over 100 GT Notch barges over 1000 GT Tank barges over 50 GT All tank barges
When discharging cargo from a tank barge, in which case may the cargo pass through or over the towing vessel? With permission from the person in charge of the shore facility When off-loading grade C cargo With permission from the person in charge of the towing vessel In no case
Where is the most probable location of the remote shutdown station for cargo pumps on a tank barge carrying oil? Within 25 feet of the pump engine The loading dock Above the forward rake end The midpoint of the barge
A tank barge equipped with an internal-combustion engine-driven cargo pump on the weather deck shall be provided with a minimum of one remote manual shutdown station. What is the correct location of the shutdown station? Stern of the vessel or 100 feet from the engine Bow of the vessel or 75 feet from the engine Midpoint of the vessel or 75 feet from the bow Midpoint of the vessel or 100 feet from the engine
What is a requirement for remote manual shutdown stations for internal combustion engine driven cargo pumps on tank barges? They must be located at least 10 feet from the engine. They must be conspicuously marked. The valve rods shall be fitted with stuffing boxes. There must be at least two such shutdown devices.
The use of portable electrical equipment in the pumproom on tank barges is prohibited unless __________. all other compartments in which flammable vapors and gases may exist are closed and secured the pumproom is gas-free spaces with bulkheads common to the pumproom are either gas-free, inert, filled with water, or contain grade E liquid All of the above.
Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels? Benzene Vinyl Chloride Asphalt All of the above.
While underway and towing an unmanned tank barge you are required to __________. take hourly soundings of any loaded tanks on the barge fly a red flag from the towing vessel maintain a strict watch on the barge from the towing vessel open the tops of all empty tanks on the barge
What is NOT a requirement for storage batteries on tank barges? They must be located in well ventilated spaces They must be secured against movement Each battery box must have a watertight lining They may be located in cargo handling rooms
The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer reads __________. "Dangerous Cargo Being Transferred" "Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors" "Warning, Keep Off, Stay Clear" "Danger, Do Not Board"
Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer? To keep visitors away from the barge To prohibit open lights To prohibit smoking All of the above.
Which signal must you display at night on a docked tank barge to show that it is loading or discharging flammable liquid cargo? Two orange lights Red light ICC yellow light Flashing amber light
Where should a tank barge's Certificate of Inspection be kept? On the towboat In the operator's office On the barge In the owner's office
The final inspection responsibility for seeing that a tank barge is provided with the required equipment and fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to loading cargo rests with the __________. charterer through the Master of the towing vessel terminal operator tankerman or person in charge of loading owner of the barge
A barge displaying a 2' X 3' white sign with the word "WARNING" followed by "DANGEROUS CARGO" in black letters __________. may not be in the same tow as a barge carrying gasoline must be located as a lead barge in a tow would require that a cargo information card be carried in the pilothouse of the towboat may not be spotted next to the towboat while under tow
Which is TRUE of a barge loading a 46 CFR Subchapter O cargo that is required to display a 2' X 3' white sign with the word "WARNING" followed by "DANGEROUS CARGO" in black letters? It is required to have a cargo information card in the pilothouse of the towboat It must be located as a lead barge in a tow It may not be spotted next to the towboat while under tow It may not be in the same tow as a barge carrying gasoline
Your tow includes a barge carrying chlorine. Which special requirements must be observed? You must post a deckhand to keep a special watch on this barge. A cargo information card for chlorine must be in the pilothouse. The wing voids shall not be opened when underway. All of the above.
Which barge in your tow would require a cargo information card to be carried in the pilothouse? An empty (not gas-free) barge that last carried benzene An open hopper barge carrying coal A gas-free chlorine barge A tank barge with a sign reading "No Visitors, No Smoking, No Open Lights"
A cargo information card does NOT contain __________. precautions to be observed in case of a spill or leak appearance and odor characteristics of the cargo duties of the person in charge during the transfer of cargo instructions for the safe handling of the cargo
You are underway with a tow consisting of six barges containing hazardous chemicals. Which statement is FALSE concerning a cargo information card? It contains information on procedure for spills or leaks. It must be posted on the lead barge of the tow only. It must be carried in the pilothouse, readily available for each chemical carried. It must be posted on each barge on the tow.
Your tow contains a barge carrying carbon tetrachloride. What is NOT required? Certificated tankerman on towboat Cargo information card in pilothouse Cargo information card on barge Cargo warning signs on barge
A loaded hopper barge with independent tanks has a placard, with alternating red and white quadrants, on each side and end. Which statement concerning this barge is TRUE? The cargo will spontaneously ignite if released to the atmosphere. The barge should be spotted as far away from the towboat as possible. The barge must be in a protected position within the tow. You must operate this barge as a lead barge.
According to regulations, how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped tank barge while engaged in transferring grade B flammable liquids? Three One Two None
Regulations require that venting for cargo tanks in which only grades D or E liquids are to be transported shall, as a MINIMUM, be of which type? (tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951) Individual pressure vacuum relief valves Branch vent lines connected to a vent header system Straight vents open to atmosphere Gooseneck vents and flame screens
What are cargo tanks carrying grades D or E liquids on tank barges required to be ventilated with? pressure-vacuum relief valves gooseneck vents and flame screens branch vent lines and a vent header forced draft blowers
On a tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951, what is the required vent size for each cargo tank? not less than 1.5 inches not less than 2.0 inches not less than 2.5 inches not less than 3.0 inches
How many portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge during cargo transfer, if the barge has no cargo pumps of her own? Three One Two None
How many fire extinguishers, and what type, are required on an unmanned oil barge during transfer operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard? One B-II Two B-II Two A-II One B-V
What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 fuel oil? Vent header Branch vent line Pressure-vacuum Gooseneck vents fitted with flame screens
If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12 months in saltwater in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again? 12 months since last dry-docking 18 months since last dry-docking 24 months since last dry-docking 36 months since last dry-docking
Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to be carried on a barge in tanks fitted only with gooseneck vents and flame screens? B only B or C C or D D or E
To determine the pressure and temperature limitations under which LFG is required to be transported on a barge, you should look at the __________. loading order Certificate of Inspection rules and regulations for tank vessels tankerman's document
You are in charge of a 225-gross ton tug preparing to depart from Houston, Texas, with a loaded 2500-gross ton tank barge bound for New York. Prior to departure, regulations require that you __________. record the status of all firefighting equipment record the condition of the towing gear have on board an Official Logbook in lieu of other forms of records record the barge's load line and draft readings
On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation? The certificated tankerman on duty The OCMI who issued the Certificate of Inspection The vessel owner Smoking is not permitted during a loading operation.
What is NOT a requirement of the reinspection for a tank barge with a certificate of inspection valid for two years? The scope of the reinspection shall be the same as for the inspection for certification, but in less detail. The inspector shall examine the vessel machinery as well as equipment. The inspector shall examine all accessible parts of the vessel's hull. The reinspection will be made between the fourteenth and sixteenth months.
Cargo tanks carrying grades D or E liquids on tank barges are required to be vented with which of the following? forced draft blowers pressure-vacuum relief valves branch vent lines and a vent header gooseneck vents and flame screens
What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 fuel oil? Vent header Pressure-vacuum Branch vent line Gooseneck vents fitted with flame screens
During cargo transfer on an unmanned tank barge, how many portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area, if the barge has no cargo pumps of her own? One Two Three None
How many, and what type, fire extinguishers are required on an unmanned oil barge during transfer operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard? Two B-II One B-II One B-V Two A-II
The tank barge on which you are preparing to load petroleum is required to have on board one B-II fire extinguisher. What does NOT meet this requirement? 2-1/2 gallon foam 5 gallon water (stored pressure) 10 pound dry chemical 15 pound CO2
A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of __________. 3 gallons of foam 10 pounds of dry chemical 20 pounds of CO2 All of the above.
On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you __________. should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the vicinity of the exit need not be concerned since no portable extinguishers are required in the pumproom may substitute sand for the required extinguishers should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pumproom
Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher? 12 gallon soda acid 20 gallon foam 30 pound carbon dioxide 20 pound dry chemical
On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable when they have a gross weight of more than __________. 55 pounds 75 pounds 95 pounds 125 pounds
Deck foam systems, designed to protect cargo areas on tank vessels built after January 1, 1975, must have a supply of foam-producing material to operate the system at its designed rate of foam production for __________. 15 minutes without recharging 20 minutes without recharging 25 minutes without recharging 30 minutes without recharging
What is the total number of approved low-velocity spray ("water-fog") applicators required aboard a tankship? 4 7 10 11
How many low-velocity spray applicators are required on the weather decks of a tankship? One Two Three Four
A tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply? 200 gallons 420 gallons 667 gallons 986 gallons
According to regulations, how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped tank barge engaged in transferring grade B flammable liquids? Two None One Three
Where is a permanently installed system of gas detection required? Cargo compressor rooms. Air locks. Cargo pump rooms. All of the above.
Each fire pump on a tankship must have a pressure gauge located at __________. each fire station discharge the pump station the manifold connection the pump discharge
According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), when loading, or discharging oil in bulk at a dock, which of the following signals must be displayed? A signal is not required for discharging oil, only gasoline A red flag (day), red light (night) A yellow flag (day), red light (night) A green flag (day), green light (night)
You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed by a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo? A flashing yellow light A green light visible all around the horizon An illuminated red and yellow caution flag A red light visible all around the horizon
Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE? No portable electric equipment of any type is allowed. The fixture must be explosion-proof and the line must have a ground wire. They must be explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamps. They can be used only when the compartment is gas free.
You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are permitted aboard? Safety Wooden Phosphorous Self-extinguishing
A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its cargo tanks while it is loading grade A, B, or C cargo without the permission of the __________. superintendent of the shoreside facility person in charge of the transfer local fire department the cognizant OCMI
Portable fire extinguishers must be provided for the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge __________. when transferring cargo only when the barge is being towed if one or more tanks are full only when fully loaded
Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels? They may be worn while working on deck but not while working over the side. They may be worn during drills. They must be used only under supervision of a designated ship's officer. They will be accepted for up to 10% of the required life preservers.
U.S. regulations require any tankship making a voyage of over 48 hours duration to conduct certain tests not more than 12 hours prior to leaving port. Which of the following must be tested to meet this requirement? fire pump relief valve means of communication between the bridge and engine room emergency lighting system watertight door to the shaft alley
According to U.S. regulations, how many emergency outfits are required to be carried onboard all tankships over 1,000 gross tons? One emergency outfit Two emergency outfits Three emergency outfits Four emergency outfits
Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels? Asphalt Vinyl Chloride Benzene All of the above.
In accordance with U.S. regulations, no vessel can come or remain alongside a tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade cargo without permission from whom? USCG captain of the port terminal manager officer-in-charge of the vessel which is loading tank ship owner
According to regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be carried in tanks that are vented only with gooseneck vents and flame screens? B only B or C C or D D or E
Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and flame screens are limited to carrying which grade of cargo? A and below B and below C and below D and E only
By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation? loading discharging crude oil washing All of the above.
By regulation, cargo tank atmosphere must be inert before and during which operation? topping off crude oil washing stripping All of the above.
When using the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR's) for Tank Vessels, you see T/O and B/C. What do the T and B tell you? Grades of cargo which may be carried The waters in which vessels may operate Special construction limitations Type of vessel to which the regulation applies
For the purpose of regulating tank vessels, flammable liquids are liquids which will __________. sustain combustion at a temperature at or below 100°F (38°C) have a Reid vapor pressure of 18 pounds or more give off flammable vapors at or below 80°F (27°C) give off flammable vapors only above 80°F (27°C)
To determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry you should __________. check the loading order ask the terminal supervisor or his representative refer to the vessel's Certificate of Inspection examine the cargo tanks and fittings
Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall be kept on board __________. for 1 year until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires for 2 years until the next Coast Guard inspection
When inspecting a tank barge to see that it has all the required fire extinguishers and other safety items aboard, which of the following is the best source for determining what is required? The supervisor in charge of the dock to which the barge is tied up The local fire marshal Part 38 of the Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels The Certificate of Inspection of the barge
A re-inspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid? 8 - 12 months 10 - 12 months 10 - 14 months 12 - 14 months
If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12 months in saltwater in the 24 month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again? 12 months since last dry-docking 18 months since last dry-docking 24 months since last dry-docking 36 months since last dry-docking
What certificate verifies that a liquefied gas tanker complies with the requirements with regard to their structure, equipment, fittings, arrangements, and materials? Cargo Ship Safety Construction International Oil Prevention Certificate Certificate of Fitness for the Carriage of Dangerous Chemicals in Bulk Certificate for the Carriage of Noxious Liquid Substances
Cargo pumprooms on tank vessels, constructed in 1965, handling grade C liquid cargo shall have power ventilation systems. What is time requirement for these ventilation systems to completely change the air? 1 minute 3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes
Regulations require that cargo pumprooms handling grades D and/or E liquid cargo only shall be fitted with at LEAST how many ducts extended to the weather deck? 1 2 3 4
What is the required access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grades C or D liquid cargo? from areas equipped with power ventilation only from enclosed areas free from sources of vapor ignition from the open deck from within the vessel
What is NOT a requirement of cargo piping installed in tank vessels carrying grade D or E cargo ONLY? The cargo piping system shall be fixed. Piping through bunker spaces may be run through a pipe tunnel. Connections at bulkheads must be made so that the plating does not form part of a flanged joint. Flanged joints shall be used for pipe sizes exceeding 2 inches in diameter.
What type of ventilation is required for pumprooms on tank vessels, carrying grade C liquid cargo, with machinery spaces below the freeboard deck? a vent header system gooseneck vents and flame screens at least two ducts extending to the weather deck power ventilation
What is required of the access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grade D liquid cargo? from the open deck isolated from sources of vapor ignition only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems away from galleys, living quarters, or navigation spaces
Regulations require that cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade D liquid cargo shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by __________. gastight bulkheads cofferdams passageways or living quarters general cargo spaces
Branch venting, from safety relief valves on barges, shall be constructed to discharge gas at what minimum vertical height above the weather deck? 6 feet 8 feet 10 feet 12 feet
Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes? Pump rooms Cofferdams Enclosed deck spaces Navigation spaces
U.S. regulations require cargo pump rooms, on tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type. in what amount of time should the ventilation effect a complete change of air? not more than 1 minute not more than 2 minutes not more than 3 minutes not more than 5 minutes
What is required of an access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grade D liquid cargo? away from galleys, living quarters, or navigation spaces isolated from sources of vapor ignition from the open deck only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems
Each hose used for transferring vapors must be which of the following? be capable of withstanding at least 2.0 psi vacuum without collapsing or constricting have a design burst pressure of at least 25 psig be electrically continuous with a maximum resistance of 10,000 ohms All of the above.
Regulations require that cargo pumprooms handling grades D and/or E liquid cargo only shall be fitted with at LEAST how many ducts extended to the weather deck? 1 2 3 4
What is required of the access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes? it is isolated from any part of the vessel which normally contains sources of vapor ignition it is at least 13.1 feet away from the galleys, living quarters or navigation spaces it is only from areas equipped with power ventilation systems it is from the open deck
On a vessel, constructed after 1970, carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, what can NOT segregate enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present from cargo tanks? cofferdams galleys tanks used to carry liquids having a flash point of 150°F or above pump rooms
What is an advantage of the spherical type containment system? good visibility over the bow for ship handling the design does not require a full liquid tight secondary barrier both "A" and "B" neither "A" or "B"
According to U.S. regulations which of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment around loading manifolds? Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank. They may be fixed or portable, depending upon the age of the vessel. The containment drains must have quick-closing valves to be closed in the event of leakage or failure of any part of the transfer connection. All containment drains must lead to a common fixed drain tank.
According to U.S. regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be carried in tanks that are vented only with gooseneck vents and flame screens? C or D D or E B or C B only
According to U.S. regulations, what is required where cargo pump shafts on tankers pierce bulkheads? compressed air shall be used as the primary means to discharge cargo a pressure gauge or manometer shall be installed on the bulkhead to ensure the gastight seal is maintained readily accessible gastight glands shall be provided the glands are to be kept under continuous suction with power ventilation
Which of the following describes the requirement for ventilation spaces of a gas safe space within the cargo area? they must be operating on at all times they must be positive pressure they must be a filtered system they must be sucking from the outside atmosphere
In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through machinery spaces. This is permitted provided that the only cargo carried through such piping is(are) which of the following? LFG grades D or E grade E grades A or B
According to U.S. regulations, access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grades C or D liquid cargo must be which of the following? from within the vessel from the open deck only from enclosed areas free from sources of vapor ignition from areas equipped with power ventilation
U.S. regulations require that cargo tanks in which grades B or C liquids are carried must be vented with which of the following? Pressure vacuum relief valves Gooseneck vents Flame screens Forced draft blowers
What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids? Each cargo tank must have a vent. A vent header must be fitted with a pressure-vacuum valve. The diameter of the vent must be greater than 4 inches in diameter. The vent must extend to a reasonable height above the weather deck.
Cargo hose carried on tank vessels must be designed to withstand the pressure of the shutoff head of the cargo pump or pump relief valve setting, but in no case should it be less than __________. 100 psi 150 psi 200 psi 250 psi
What pressure shall cargo hoses carried on tank vessels be able to withstand? at least 75 psi at least 100 psi at least 120 psi at least 150 psi
What is the minimum temperature required in order for steam driven pumps to be considered a source of vapor ignition? 100°C 212°F 500°F 1200°F
In a tank vessel constructed in 1970, carrying grade A, B, C, or D liquid cargo, what is required to isolate cargo pumps from sources of vapor ignition? passageways or living quarters general cargo spaces cofferdams gastight bulkheads
What must cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade D liquid cargo be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by? general cargo spaces gastight bulkheads cofferdams passageways or living quarters
What do regulations require that pumprooms on tank vessels carrying grade C liquid cargo with machinery spaces below the freeboard deck be ventilated with? at least two ducts extending to the weather deck a vent header system power ventilation gooseneck vents and flame screens
The weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors as compared to air is __________. lighter heavier variable the same
Liquefied flammable gas is defined as any flammable gas having a Reid vapor pressure exceeding how many pounds? 14 30 40 50
The vapor pressure of a gas is the pressure necessary to keep it in a(n) __________. inert state soluble state liquefied state solid state
The primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas is __________. pressure toxicity flammability temperature
One of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied petroleum gas is __________. as it warms up it becomes heavier than air its low temperature causes frostbite or freezing the way it reacts with sea water the strong odor it produces
Upon release to the atmosphere, LFG readily __________. attacks corrosively rises vaporizes attacks caustically
Generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping gas is to __________. use a chemical foam fire extinguisher sweep flames away with water spray call the local fire department shut off the leak
Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by __________. blowing the flames out utilizing soda and acid fire extinguishers letting it burn itself out utilizing carbon dioxide or dry chemical fire extinguishers
What normally helps in detecting escaping gas? Running hand along pipe Odor Increase the line pressure Red flame
Name one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration __________. It increases its volume. It has less product per volume. It reduces its volume. None of the above
A chemical additive to LPG gives it a characteristic __________. color odor pressure density
Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks? The cargo tanks are used for one type of cargo only. LPG is compatible with all cargoes. Cargo tanks are inspected less frequently than on oil tankers. LPG's high oxygen content makes it nonvolatile.
The amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given tank is determined by __________. loading to within 10 percent of the safety relief valve setting loading to within 1 percent of outage filling to the maximum level indicated on the liquid level gauging device checking the loading sheet
On a LNG ship at anchor with cargo onboard, how is the vapor pressure in the cargo tanks controlled? All boil-off vapor is normally burned in the boilers, and any excess steam generated is controlled by the "steam dump system". The vapor is compressed by the high duty gas compressor and returned to the tanks. Excess vapor is controlled by the "Thermo-regenerative saturation plant". Excess vapor is vented to the atmosphere.
LNG containment insulation performs all of the following functions, except which of the following? protects the hull against low temperature absorbs loads imposed by the cargo limits the heat leak to the cargo increases the dew point of the hold space atmosphere
Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks? Cargo tanks are inspected less frequently than on oil tankers. The cargo tanks are used for one type of cargo only. LPG is compatible with all cargos. LPG high oxygen content makes it nonvolatile.
What does the LNG cargo pumps capacity depends upon? speed (LPG/LNG pumps are constant speed) back pressure density of cargo All of the above.
Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. What is indicated if the gas detector alarms sounds? a flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is too lean to burn the detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the atmosphere is explosive an explosion is about to take place the detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor concentration is 30 percent by volume
An LNG vessel containment system must be cooled down prior to loading cargo. Where are the cool-down parameters and rates obtained from? the instruction manual provided by the manufacturer of the containment system the knowledgable shoreside loading terminal personnel either the master or chief engineer probably knows this information the port engineer
What is the most common liquified gas cargo? butane chemical gases ammonia hydrocarbons
Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by which of the following? blowing the flames out utilizing carbon dioxide or dry chemical fire extinguishers letting it burn itself out utilizing soda and acid fire extinguishers
Which of the following describes a chemical gas? substance whose molecules contain other atoms as well as carbon and hydrogen gas that has molecules but not carbon or hydrogen substance whose molecules contain only carbon and hydrogen substance whose molecules not exceed 4 carbon molecules
There is a water spray or deluge system on LNG vessels that provide a water spray over all areas around the cargo system. What can this system be used for? protecting mild steel hull plating from cracking due to LNG leaks protecting surrounding areas from the radiant heat of a fire both "A" and "B" neither "A" nor "B"
At what maximum gas concentration must the fixed gas detection system on a LNG ship activate an audible and visual alarm? 30% by volume. 20% by volume. 30% by lower flammable limit 20% of the lower flammable limit.
Liquefied flammable gas is defined as any flammable gas having a Reid vapor pressure exceeding how many pounds? 14 30 40 50
Which of the following statements is true? LNG contains smaller quantities of a heavier hydrocarbon known as pantene LNG contains smaller quantities of a heavier hydrocarbon known as NGL NGL contains smaller quantities of a heavier hydrocarbon known as LNG. LNG is a pure substance and has no other component
A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each voyage. How is the cargo boil off normally handled? Burned in the boilers. Vented to the atmosphere. Mixed with nitrogen and recirculated through the primary barrier. Compressed, condensed, and return to the cargo tanks.
In case of a LNG leak from a liquid header flanged connection, what is the first precautionary action to take? Call the Coast Guard Stop cargo transfer until the cause of the leak is corrected. Flood the area under the leak with water. Tighten the flange bolts until the leak stops.
LNG boil-off is used as fuel in the dual fuel system to produce steam in the boilers to run the turbines. What happens under slow maneuvering speeds, due to excessive steam being generated? the boil-off is vented to the atmosphere the boil-off is not permitted to be used as a fuel the steam produced in the boiler, due to the dual fuel system, is dumped to the main condenser the steam is vented to the atmosphere to prevent excess build-up of pressure in the boiler
What happens to steam that is produced by gas burning in excess of machinery plant demand? recirculated to the first stage articulator dumped to a condenser vented to the atmosphere jettisoned overboard below the waterline
What do gas compressors on an LNG vessels provide the motive force to do? deliver boil-off gas to the engine room deliver gas ashore when loading circulate gas when warming up the tanks All of the above.
What should LFG tank and pipeline maintenance include? exclusion of all sand and solid matter examination for fractures and pitting cleaning with clean fresh or sea water All of the above.
What is the term used for evaporated LNG? vapor GNG boil-off All of the above.
What is one of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied petroleum gas? as it warms up it becomes heavier than air the way it reacts with sea water its low temperature causes frostbite or freezing the strong odor it produces
What functions do reliquification plants perform? cool down cargo tanks and pipes prior to loading keep cargo at a temperature and pressure within the design limit of the cargo system during transport reliquify cargo vapor generated during loading and return it to the cargo tanks All of the above.
How is the amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given tank determined? loading to within 10 percent of the safety relief valve setting filling to the maximum level indicated on the liquid level gauging device checking the loading sheet loading to within 1 percent of outage
What characteristic does a chemical additive to LPG give it? density color odor pressure
What is the LNG cargo term "rollover" used to describe? vapor pockets forming at the bottom of a half-filled tank when two or more stratified layers of different density LNG in the same tank suddenly mix together, causing a rapid increase in boil-off vapors moving LNG from one tank to another custody transfer at the terminal
Which of the following is not an acceptable means to measure a liquid level in a cryogenic cargo tank? a nitrogen bubbler system a sounding tape gage using blue chalk a radar gage a capacitance level measurement system
What is generally, the first action in extinguishing an LFG fire caused by escaping gas? shut off the leak use a chemical foam fire extinguisher call the local fire department sweep flames away with water spray
What is the preferable way to extinguish an LNG fire? Shut off the source of the gas feeding the fire. Apply mechanical foam. Apply "Purple K" dry chemical. Apply water fog.
Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of LFG? Make sure the rake ends of the barge are completely dry and mopped. Be on the lookout for work being accomplished ashore in the vicinity of the barges. Report any leakage of cargo. Ascertain that the hoses to be used are in good order.
What device will be activated while loading a LNG tank and the HI-HI liquid level set point is reached? Remote shutdown valve control. Emergency shutdown. Overflow shutdown. No shutdown required.
What is one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration? It has less product per volume. It reduces its volume. It increases its volume. None of the above
What is the gas above the liquid in an LNG tank? very dry air nitrogen inert gas gaseous natural gas
What is the Inert gas plant on an LNG vessel designed to produce? inert gas only nitrogen and dry air with a dew point of at least -20°F inert gas and dry air with a minimum dew point of -40°F warm GNG for purging
During the ballast voyage, how are the tanks kept cold on an LNG tanker? aggressive gas compressor operation managing the tank pressure venting gas to the atmosphere spraying LNG heel through spray nozzles in the tanks
While underway with full LNG cargo tanks, an alarm indicates liquid in hold space #3. What should be the first action taken? immediately commence lining up the system to educt LNG from the cargo hold and prepare to jettison LNG from cargo tank #3 commence purging hold #3 with inert gas send someone into the hold space with SCBA and cyrogenic immersion suit, to investigate the condition of the hold check the temperature and pressure indicators in the hold space
In what condition is LNG transported? At its critical temperature. At its boiling point. At a pressure in excess of 15.4 PSIA. All of the above.
In illustration D024DG below, which item is rigged to transmit the thrust from one barge to another barge when going ahead? I H E B
In illustration D024DG below, what is the purpose of item "G"? prevent the towboat from capsizing if item I should part prevent the knee from shifting when the rudder is put hard over keep the barges from shifting fore and aft distribute the vessel's thrust over a wider area
In illustration D024DG below, which item is rigged to transmit the thrust from one barge to another when backing down? B C I H
In illustration D024DG below, which item refers to the facewire? I H B A
Which item in illustration D024DG below, parting which item is one of the greatest hazards of pushing ahead? A B F I
In illustration D024DG below what does item "A" represent? tandem wire lashing scissor wire drag wire
What is NOT considered "jewelry"? Buttons Steamboat ratchets Manila lines Shackles
The circular steel structure installed around the propeller of a towboat is the __________. strut nozzle hood shroud
What is the name of the circular steel structure installed around the propeller (wheel) of a towboat? Hood Strut Kort nozzle Shroud
Kort nozzles are installed around the propellers of some vessels to __________. prevent the propeller from striking barges towed on the hip prevent the propeller from touching bottom in low water increase the thrust of the propeller protect the propeller from striking sawyers
"Hanging a barge off" means to __________. remove and deliver a loaded barge from a multiple tow tow an empty barge astern remove a barge while locking through moor a barge to the bank and leave
A long pole with a hook at one end, used to reach for lines, is known as a __________. hooker line rod pike pole jack staff
You would NOT secure a line to a __________. timber head stand pipe button kevel
You would NOT secure a line to which item? Caval Button Timber head Stand pipe
The section of each end of a barge which is heavily reinforced to take the pressure of pushing is called the __________. bullnose collision bulkhead headlog towhead
When barge headlogs do not meet or are not even with one another, the void or opening between them is called a __________. gap hole spacing notch
A device used to tighten up remaining slack in wire rope when you are making up to a tow in inland waters is a __________. tripping line steamboat ratchet norman pin tripping bracket
A tow consists of 8 barges: 6 jumbo barges made up 3 abreast and 2 long, with 2 standard barges abreast as lead barges. How long is this tow? 525 feet 545 feet 565 feet 595 feet
A tow of 9 barges is made up three abreast by three long. The towboat is faced up to the last barge of the center string. The outer two strings of barges are the __________. outer strings port and starboard strings side strings drag strings
You attach a line to a stationary barge lying off your starboard beam in order to maneuver it into position to make up tow. The line used to do this is a __________. swing line fore and aft line check line jockey line
When "checking down" a barge using a check line you should use __________. at least three figure-eights around the timber heads one round turn and at least two figure-eights around the timber heads a clove hitch around one timber head at least three round turns around one timber head
A face line is used to __________. secure barges side-by-side prevent barge movement in a lock secure two barges end-to-end secure barges to the towboat
A "check" line is __________. a safety line attached to a man working over the side used to measure water depth used to measure the overhead height of a bridge used to slow the headway of a barge
You are in the process of adding a barge to your tow. A line run from your power capstan and around timber heads on your tow is made fast on the new barge so that it can be pulled into position. This line is called a __________. spring line scissors wire capstan line fore and aft line
A lashing used to secure three or four barges at a common corner, lashed in an "X" fashion, is called a __________. towing wire scissor wire cross wire breast wire
In towing, chocks are used to __________. protect the towline from chafing absorb shock loading on the towline secure the end of the towline on the tug stop off the towline while retrieving it
In towing, heaving lines are used for __________. passing a messenger line passing a tow bridle to the tug service lines with rocket line throwers heaving in the tow bridle
Which structural members improve a towing vessel's chance of surviving punctured shell plating? The rake Transverse watertight bulkheads Stringers Longitudinals
Yawing can be described as __________. corkscrew motion of the tow due to wave action veering from side to side on the end of the towline jumping on the towline as the tow slams into waves jumping on the towline as the tow pitches
The owner or Master of a vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside must ensure that each of the following is appropriate for the vessel's horsepower and tow arrangement EXCEPT __________. push gear hydraulic couplings face wires spring lines
In astern towing, a tow span, also called the "tow bar" or "towing arch", is used to __________. reduce chafing of the towing hawser increase the stability of the towing vessel by raising the hawser off the deck prevent fouling of the hawser on deck gear located on the stern of the towing vessel insure that the hawser leads directly aft as it passes over the stern of the towing vessel
When connecting the tow bridle to a tug, the end of the bridle is passed with a __________. high line messenger line heaving line shot line
To lead the towing hawser over the center of the stern when not under a strain you could __________. fairlead it through a stern roller chock hold it in the median position by a gob rope lead it through the Norman pins All of the above.
It is NOT advisable to use nylon for alongside towing because it __________. stretches too much parts too readily is too susceptible to mildew is too difficult to make fast
When towing astern, chafing gear should NOT be used on a hawser which is __________. held amidships by a gob rope attached to an automatic towing engine connected to a swivel attached to an "H" bitt
Which towing equipment can be used to prevent the tripping of a tug? Drogues Bridles Chafing boards Gob ropes
Which statement is TRUE about the use of a "gob rope"? The gob rope is a mooring line for tying up lighters for working cargo alongside a vessel anchored in an open roadstead. The gob rope is a rope used in mooring a vessel to a buoy. The gob rope is a line hung over a vessel's side to assist in boarding. The gob rope is used to secure the towline aft over the centerline of a tug..
Which type of towing hawser is preferred for towing astern? Polyester Polypropylene Nylon Manila
A texas bar __________. prevents the towing hawser from snagging any equipment or gear on deck allows the crew access to the fantail may be equipped with a greased, free sliding spool to fairlead the towing hawser All of the above.
As seen from the tow, what should connect the leading ends of both towing bridle legs to the main towing hawser? A pad eye A fishplate, flounder, or towing plate A cable clamp The towing bitts
An ocean towing bridle whose legs are of equal length, but too short, may __________. put excessive strain on each leg cause the bridle legs to jump clear of the chocks or fairleads cause unequal distribution of the load to one leg None of the above
Which statement is FALSE about using a wire bridle on an ocean tow? Each leg should be at least 60 to 90 feet long. The strength of each leg should be at least one-half that of the main towing hawser. The inboard end of each bridle leg should have a large eye splice to fit over the bitts. None of the above
Which factor(s) must you consider when making up a towing bridle? The horsepower of the tug The weight of the tow The beam of the barge All of the above.
Which best describes a "fishplate" used in towing? A steel plate in the shape of a flat fish A circular piece of heavy steel with three holes forming an equilateral triangle A rectangular-shaped piece of heavy steel plate with four holes A triangular-shaped heavy steel plate with a round hole inset from each corner
You would be most likely to use a fishplate __________. when towing alongside on a hawser tow when pushing ahead or in the notch when running "light boat"
Where is a surge line placed in the towing hookup? End of line fastened directly to the drum of the towing winch Connected between the "H" towing bitts and the main towing hawser As both legs of the towing bridle Connected between the main towing hawser and the towing bridle
If the towing bridle legs are not of equal length __________. the shorter leg may fail excessive strain is placed on the shorter leg the longer leg is slack All of the above.
Which type of bridle is the most effective for a heavy ocean tow? Nylon because of its strength Wire rope for flexibility and strength Polypropylene because it floats and is easier to handle Stud link anchor chain for chafe resistance and strength
A bridle for an ocean tow consists of __________. two long legs of wire rope shackled to a fishplate a single nylon pendant rove through a heavy ring free to move on the pendant a single length of heavy chain with both ends secured on deck to welded pad eyes two chains of equal length
A chain bridle is used when towing astern because it __________. makes rigging a swivel unnecessary provides an effective catenary and absorbs shock due to its weight is easy to connect prevents the tow from yawing by the drag of the chains in a seaway
A chain bridle is preferable to a wire rope towing bridle on a long ocean tow because chain __________. is less subject to wear and damage from abrasion requires little maintenance is more flexible and has the ability to absorb shock because of its weight All of the above.
The biggest problem you generally encounter while towing a single tow astern is __________. the tow tending to dive the catenary dragging on the bottom swamping of the tow yaw
When towing astern, one way to reduce yawing of the tow is to __________. list the tow on the side it is yawing trim the tow by the stern have the tow on an even keel trim the tow by the head
A tow that veers to the side on the end of the towline is said to __________. swing yaw surge sway
A tow astern is veering from side to side on its towline. The best way of controlling the action is to __________. adjust the length of the towing bridle list the tow to windward trim the tow by the bow trim the tow by the stern
When making up a long, large coastwise tow, which of the following procedures is INCORRECT? Safety shackles should be used when connecting to the fishplate Back-up wires are left slack Rig tripping ropes (retrieving lines) A chain towing bridle is generally preferred
What is used to prevent twisting of a towing bridle? A bitt A V-spring A fishplate A bulkhead
The legs of a tow bridle are joined together with a __________. tri-link bridle plate fishplate shackle
A tow bridle is attached to the main tow hawser at the __________. bight ring tow hook swivel fishplate
On a light tow, what could you substitute for a fishplate? swivel pelican hook ring heart-shaped shackle
With a large ocean tow in heavy weather, you should NOT __________. use a long towing hawser keep the low point of the catenary in the water keep the stern of the tug well down in the water adjust the towline so the tug is on the crest when the tow is in the trough
When towing astern, you notice that another vessel is about to pass between the towing vessel and the tow. You should immediately __________. slow down and pay out the main tow hawser shine a spotlight in the direction of the approaching vessel turn away from the approaching vessel sever the towline
The MINIMUM acceptable size for a towing bridle would be that size in which the safe working load (SWL) of each leg of the bridle is equal to __________. one-half the SWL of the main towing hawser twice that of the main towing hawser three-fourths the SWL of the main towing hawser that of the main towing hawser
What is NOT suitable for use in making up the towing rig for a heavy, long ocean tow? Chain A fishplate Solid thimble Ring
You intend to tow a barge with one tug and expect continuous high winds from the north. To reduce the yaw of your tow, you should __________. trim the barge down by the bow place bulky deck loads as far aft as possible reduce the draft of the barge shorten one leg of the bridle
While towing, bridle legs of unequal lengths may cause __________. the bridle to foul the shorter leg to fail a bent swivel chafing on the fairlead or bitts
The biggest problem encountered when towing bridle legs are too short is __________. retrieval hookup to main towline excessive strain adjusting tension
The choice of length of tow bridle legs is governed by the __________. need to reduce yaw freeboard of the unit being towed capability of retrieving gear expected towing forces
While towing, sudden shock-loading caused during heavy weather can be reduced by __________. using a heavier hawser using a nonelastic type hawser decreasing the catenary in the hawser using a short tow hawser
When a tug is "in irons", she __________. may be in danger of being overrun by her tow should pay out more towline is in dry dock is made fast to the dock with engines secured
When making up a tow connection, you should use __________. plain eye hooks round pin shackles screw pin shackles safety hooks
The danger of a towing vessel tripping is increased the closer the towline is secured to __________. the stern the bow amidships the quarter
What may prevent a tug from tripping or capsizing when towing a large vessel? Norman Pins Under riders Surge lines Safety shackles
A towing vessel is tripped when __________. the propeller is fouled by the towing hawser the weight of the towing hawser causes loss of maneuverability it is overtaken by the tow it is pulled sideways by the tow
When towing astern what equipment should be stowed ready for use near the towline? Chafing gear Fire extinguisher Axe or cutting torch First aid kit
An ocean tow is sinking in deep water. Attempts to sever the towing hawser are unsuccessful. Which action should now be taken? Abandon the towing vessel. Secure all watertight openings on the towing vessel. Slip the towline and allow it to run off the drum. Radio for emergency assistance.
A towing vessel becomes tripped while towing on a hawser astern. What factor is LEAST important when assessing the risk of capsizing? Length of the barge Height of the towline connection Direction of opposing force Length of the towline
You have been towing astern and have just let go the tow. Your deckhands are pulling in and faking the towline by hand on the stern. The most dangerous action to take is to __________. continue ahead at slow speed back down on your engines continue ahead at half speed stop your engines
You are towing a large barge on a hawser. Your main engine suddenly fails. What is the greatest danger? The tow will endanger other traffic. The tow will overrun tug. The tug and the tow will go aground. The tow will block the channel.
What is the greatest danger of an overriding tow? Loss of steering Collision between the tow and the stern of the towing vessel Tripping Fouling of the towing hawser
When towing, a tow hook is used to __________. attach a hawser to a tow which has no bitts or pad eyes join two hawsers for lengthening a tow provide quick release of the hawser pull a tow alongside
With a large tow astern, there is immediate danger to the tug in the event of the __________. tow broaching tow line parting bridle twisting tug losing power
What is the principal danger in attempting to swing a barge on a hawser in order to slow the barge's speed? Free surface effect of liquid inside the barge may rupture the barge bulkheads if the turn is too quick. The barge may pass under the hawser and capsize the tug. Dangerous wakes may result from the swinging barge and capsize the tug. The barge may swing too quickly and run over the tug.
While towing, what is the principal danger in attempting to swing a barge on a short hawser in order to slow the barge's speed? Dangerous wakes may result from the swinging barge and capsize the tug. Free surface effect of liquid inside the barge may rupture the barge bulkheads when turning too quickly. The barge may capsize from the sharp turn. The barge may swing too quickly and run over the tug.
A "loose" tow may cause all of the following EXCEPT __________. loss of maneuverability a saving in the transit time damage to the towing vessel and tow lines to part
What is used to prevent wear on towlines that bear on hard surfaces? Chocks Chafing gear Boots Grease
Towlines should be inspected for chafing where the towline __________. passes through chocks is attached to the disabled vessel passes over the stern of the towing vessel All of the above.
Once a towline is connected between the towing vessel and the disabled vessel, the towing vessel should __________. come up to speed very slowly and maintain a "safe speed" not exceed bare steerageway during the transit take a strain as soon as you can to control the tow come up to speed quickly, then cut back power considerably to ease the strain
The best method to secure a tow line to a cleat is to __________. take a turn, a half turn, and a figure-eight take a turn around the cleat, then figure-eights, and a half-hitch make figure-eights, followed by a half-hitch, then a figure-eight knot take several turns around the cleat only
A towline should be fastened to __________. the most forward, centermost point of a towed vessel such as a sturdy bow rail a secure fitting near the bow of the towed vessel the mast of a towed sailboat the chocks at the bow of a towed vessel
When being towed by one tug, the towing bridle should be connected to towing __________. bitts with figure eights pad eyes with pelican hooks pad eyes with safety hooks All of the above.
You should attach a towline to a trailer eye bolt using a(n) __________. eye splice square knot towing hitch bowline
Fittings used for towing must be __________. securely fastened stamped with maximum working loads positioned exactly at the bow of the towed vessel Coast Guard approved
When towing a small trailer-able boat, the sturdiest fitting available to attach a tow rig is the __________. chock most forward handrail stanchion trailer eye towing cleat on the bow
A vessel brought alongside should be fended off the towing vessel by __________. No fending is necessary due to the rugged construction of most towing vessels. fenders a boat hook crew members using their arms
To reduce the amount of catenary you may __________. make a sharp turn lengthen the hawser or reduce the tug's speed shorten the hawser or increase the tug's speed place your tug in irons
Which factor(s) can affect the performance of a river towboat? The presence of flanking rudders and Kort nozzles The draft of the towboat and the draft of the barges under tow The placement of the barges within the tow All of the above.
What shape barge offers the least resistance in river towing? A square ended barge Barges with raked shaped bows Ship-shaped barges Hopper barges
Which statement describes the motion of a yawing tow? The tow sheers to one side behind the tug and maintains a position in a line diagonal to the tug's forward movement The tow snakes behind the tug The tow twists, sometimes violently, astern of the tug All of the above.
When being towed, a fairlead is a __________. fabricated shape used to change the direction of a flexible member of the tow hookup fabricated shape used to secure the tow hookup to the towed vessel line connecting the fishplate to the bridle legs line connecting the tow bridle to the towed vessel
Barges and vessels are ballasted before departure to __________. allow movement of liquids within the barge for tank cleaning avoid polluting waters where liquid ballast may not be discharged prevent free surface effects improve their stability
Which type of ballast is most commonly used in barges and ships? Sand, rock and gravel Concrete and barite Oil Water
An advantage of the modified Christmas Tree towing method is to __________. provide rapid delivery of logs from the northwestern United States to Hawaiian sawmills reduce catenary, allow operation in shallower water, and to release one barge without breaking up the entire tow enable one tug and its crew without any outside assistance to make up or break down the tow increase the towing hawser's catenary and provide more spring
When your tug reduces speed to shorten tow, the __________. towing hawser may drag the bottom and put the tug in irons tow may continue its momentum and overtake the tug length of the tow gets shorter as the strain is reduced All of the above.
The effect of excessive catenary in shallow water may be __________. dragging the towing hawser along the bottom and chafing it slowing, stopping or endangering the towing operation by placing the tug in irons snagging sunken or submerged objects All of the above.
A tug is "in irons" when held in a fixed position by __________. the weight of its tow, its being anchored, or grounded the towing hawser snagged on the bottom an adverse current lack of power or an engine breakdown
Under which condition is a tug likely to be tripped? While making up to tow a large oil rig When the tow "jumps" on the line When the towing hawser leads forward of the quarter When the tug exerts maximum bollard pull with the tow close astern
Is tripping limited to harbor and coastal towing? No. Tripping is common in ocean towing because of more frequent maneuvering Yes. The long towing hawser used in ocean towing eliminates the danger of tripping. No. Forces tending to capsize a tug are as dangerous on the high seas as they are in harbor and coastal work. Yes. Because of increased water depths, forces required to capsize a tug are not usually found in ocean towing
What is the effect of releasing the towline in a tripping situation? It frees the tug from its towing responsibilities. Yawing There is no effect other than relief. It disconnects the capsizing force and allows the tug to recover from its list.
What could be used as fairleads on a towed vessel? Double bitts Chocks Roller chocks All of the above.
How do the height and location of a tug's towing bitts relate to the danger of tripping? Placement further aft permits more effective pulling, better steering and eliminates the danger of tripping. Installing the bitts down low lowers the center of gravity. The height and position of towing bitts has no significance. The further forward and closer to amidships the more readily the tug will trip.
What imminent danger results from tripping? The stern of the tug submerges causing flooding into engine room Capsizing your tug Your tug being pulled backwards by your tow The barge(s) collide with the stern
The owner or Master of a towing vessel that tows astern must keep records of the towline(s) that include all of the following information EXCEPT __________. an invoice showing the cost of the towline the history of loading of the towline the towline's nautical miles of use or time in service the towline's initial minimum breaking strength as determined by the manufacturer
When should you conduct a visual inspection of your towline? Whenever its serviceability is in doubt. In accordance with the manufacturer's recommendation. At least once a month. All of the above.
The size and material used for towline(s) must meet all of the following requirements, EXCEPT __________. fit any spare wire clips carried on board the vessel for repair purposes be suitable for exposure to the marine environment be strong enough to handle any static or dynamic loads expected during its service life be appropriate to the vessel's horsepower or bollard pull
When towing astern, each towline must meet all of these requirements, EXCEPT __________. being suitable for use as soon as it is removed from its normal stowage location being free of knots having the end either spliced with a thimble or fitted with a poured socket having wire clips for other than a temporary repair
How many wire clips must be used to make a temporary repair to a tow wire? 3 4 5 Wire clips are never, under any circumstances, permitted
The condition of a towline must be monitored by __________. conducting routine visual inspections of the towline keeping record of each retest of the towline's minimum breaking strength keeping record of the towline's initial minimum breaking strength All of the above.
The owner or Master of a towing vessel must evaluate whether the entire towline, or a part of it, is no longer serviceable. The towline should be removed from service in all cases EXCEPT __________. in accordance with a replacement schedule depending on the mileage or time that the towline has been in service when recommended by the manufacturer or an authorized classification society when the vessel is underway
The lead of a tow bridle is usually redirected with a __________. bollard pad eye chock devil's claw
Which factor(s) might indicate that a towline should be removed from service? Measurements showing a decrease in diameter. Visible damage to the towline, including fishhooks. A surface condition of corrosion and discoloration. All of the above.
When must the owner or Master of a towing vessel retest a towline or remove it from service? After it drags on the bottom. After it jams on the towing winch. When it has not been used for over 60 days. When the record of its material condition lapses for 3 months or more.
The term "overriding" or "overrunning" when applied to towing, implies that __________. the towing hawser comes out of the water the tow has overtaken its tug there is more crew on board than required the Norman pins are not effective
A tow can override its tug as a result of __________. a mechanical breakdown on the tug the tug reducing its speed adverse tidal current conditions All of the above.
What safety precautions must you take when maneuvering on a towing hook? Lash the hook closed so it does not open accidentally. Clear the afterdeck and fantail of personnel. The engines must be operated on the slow bell. The towing winch engine must be running.
Before leaving port on an ocean tow, a tug captain should assure himself of all the following EXCEPT __________. an insurance underwriter has prepared a pre-sailing survey the towing hawser can be released quickly in an emergency the correct navigation lights are rigged and operable on the tug and tow a pick-up wire has been rigged on the tow in case of a breakaway.
What is the equipment used to control, protect and connect a towline called ? terminal gear cat head poured socket level wind
The connection to the towline must be secured with a __________. shackle secured a nut and cotter pin hardened steel thimble shackle fitted with a swivel piece galvanized screw-pin shackle
A towing winch, that handles a wire towline, must have all of the following EXCEPT a __________. brake that can be operated when there is no power available to drive the winch device that evenly spools and tightly winds the towline source of emergency power to operate the winch brake with holding power appropriate for the vessel's horsepower or bollard pull
A vessel that tows astern must have a/an __________. method to easily release the towline oxy-acetylene cutting torch towing winch ax or knife mounted near the towing bitts
Fairleads perform the same function as __________. bollards bitts chocks deadeyes
Which of the following responsibilities should you assume once you have agreed to assist a disabled vessel? All passengers move to the highest point on the disabled vessel to remain clear of towing gear Operator of disabled vessel on the bow with a lifejacket and emergency tow disconnect equipment All personnel on the disabled vessel don life jackets Operator of disabled vessel to dump fuel and ballast to improve disabled vessel's towing movement
Which effects listed below does NOT influence stability of a towing vessel? Load heights Free surface Ice Towline length
What action should you take if your tow sinks in shallow water? release it immediately attempt to beach it before it goes under shorten cable to keep it off the bottom pay out cable until it's on the bottom and place a buoy on the upper end
One advantage of chain over wire rope for a tow bridle is that chain __________. resists damage from chafing equalizes towing forces better handles more easily is better suited for inland towing
If the towline parts, you should __________. start pushing ahead abandon the towing vessel retrieve the tow bridle relieve strain on the retrieving line
To reconnect a broken tow line, it is better to use a polypropylene messenger line because it __________. floats is very supple has great strength absorbs shock by stretching
To overcome the effects of static forces between two vessels of vastly different tonnages that may potentially part a line, you should __________. rig a bridle at both the bow of the disabled vessel and stern of the towing vessel commence tow at a slow bell and increase speed incrementally at slow bell alter course 30 degrees to both side of disabled tow pay out extra towline and increase speed rapidly to "jump start" disabled vessel
Nylon rope is often used in the makeup of a towline because it __________. stretches resists rot floats handles easily
The disadvantage of using three strand nylon line for towing is its __________. strength and shock absorbing abilities tendency to rot if left damp danger to crew if it parts inherent weakness
Your vessel is being towed and you are using a tripping rope. A tripping rope of fiber or wire is used to __________. retrieve the outboard legs of the bridle where they are connected to the fishplate open the pelican hook at the fishplate give added strength to the main tow hawser retrieve the main tow hawser
How many legs does the bridle for an ocean tow have? One Two Three Four
An ocean towing bridle should __________. never be made up of chain have equal legs of sufficient length be formed on a bight of cable through a ring have a large angle between the legs
On a long ocean tow, the bridle should be made up of two equal lengths of __________. nylon chain polyester wire
You are being towed by one tug. As you lengthen the bridle legs you __________. reduce the spring effect of the tow connection reduce the yawing of your vessel increase your chances of breaking the towing hawser increase your chances of breaking the bridle legs
When a tow is trimmed by the stern it is said to __________. hog drag sag list
Back-up wires on a towed vessel provide __________. a distribution of the towing load a factor of safety additional strength All of the above.
Your vessel is being towed and back-up wires have been installed. Back-up wires carry the towing load in the event that the __________. main towing hawser parts towing bitt or pad eye fails bight ring fails bridle legs part
The amount of force a tug can exert on a stationary pull is called its __________. brake horsepower bollard pull indicated horsepower shaft horsepower
The static bollard pull of a tug is measured in tons and consists of the brake horsepower of the tug's engine divided by 100 and multiplied by a factor of __________. 0.5 1.3 3 10
Where are the towing bitts best placed for towing purposes? Forward of the rudder post and close to the tug's center of pivot On each side of the vessel near the stern As far aft as possible Near the centerline and over the rudders
One reason a tug's towing bitts are located forward of the rudders is because __________. it is traditional this is where the towhook is located it makes it easier to hook up the towing hawser this allows more responsive steering
Where should the foundation supports for towing bitts terminate? On the deck plates in the engine room Forward of the towing winch On deck, aft of the towing winch In the frames or other substantial structural members below decks
What purpose does a tow hook serve? To help pick up the towing hawser from the water To quickly connect or release the towing hawser To recover the towing hawser from a barge To prevent the towing hawser from fouling the propeller
Where is the best location to install a towing hook? Just aft of amidships Forward of the towing bitts Near the Norman Pins On the fantail
A heavy steel curved arch constructed athwartships and above the after deck on a towing vessel is sometimes called a __________. main brace jockey bar texas bar None of the above
A heavy steel curved arch constructed athwartships and above the after deck on a towing vessel is sometimes called a __________. chafing bar Dutch tow bar carling None of the above
Of which type of material may a towing hawser be constructed? Polyester Nylon Wire rope All of the above.
A towing hawser should be stowed __________. by hanging it in the engine room in a sealed locker with adequate air circulation by spooling it on the winch by faking on a rack
A towing hawser is readied for service by __________. coiling it in a counterclockwise direction on the fantail spooling it on a reel lying on its side to prevent rolling spooling it on a winch cathead faking it on deck in a fore and aft direction
What does "end for end" mean in regard to a towing hawser? To swap ends of the hawser to minimize wear To fake it down in figure eights To increase the catenary To take the kinks out of the hawser
When paying out nylon line from around the bitts __________. you can surge the line even with a single turn stand clear of the bitts and use two or more round turns under your figure eights no extra turns are necessary since nylon has a high coefficient of friction stand in the bight of the line
Wire rope is used in the towing industry __________. for back up wires and main towing hawsers for face wires or jockeys when pushing ahead as stern wires when pushing ahead All of the above.
What is NOT an advantage of a wire towing hawser? Subject to less deterioration than synthetic if properly maintained. Can be used to tow heavier loads because of its smaller diameter and more manageable size. Easy to handle when properly spooled on the drum of a towing winch. Has more spring and shock resistance than synthetic.
To lay out a towing hawser in a fore-and-aft direction so each bight is clear and can run out freely without snagging describes __________. faking worming, parceling and serving flemishing spooling
What equipment is NOT used to protect a towing hawser? Norman pins and tow spans Halyards and snaphooks Hawser boards and chafing gear Seizing wire, rope yarn and marline
In a tow made up astern, the fishplate __________. keeps the hawser amidships on the tug connects the hawser to the bridle is the capping piece on the "H" bitt connects the bridle to the tow
Synchronous towing means that the __________. tug is on the crest of a wave while the tow is in the trough tug and tow are both in the same relative position on different waves at the same time tug is in the trough while the tow is riding on the crest of a wave port and starboard engines on the tug are turning at the same RPM
Good seamanship while towing in heavy weather requires all of the following EXCEPT __________. dogging all hatches and watertight doors lashing down or stowing all loose gear streaming all of your towing hawser reducing speed to reduce surging on the towline
The catenary __________. gives an approximation of the amount of strain on the towing hawser is the dip in the towing hawser between the tug and the tow acts as a reserve length of towing hawser when the tug applies more power, and it dampens the surge effect of the tow All of the above.
An intermediate spring is __________. fitted in each leg of the towing bridle usually made of manila hawser generally located between the "fishplate" and the main towing hawser secured at the "H" bitts
When towing astern, increased catenary will __________. increase control of the tow make the towing vessel less maneuverable prevent the towing vessel from going in irons reduce shock stress on the towing hawser
Catenary as applied to tow lines denotes the __________. dip of the line length of the line stretch of the line strain on the line
On a shallow water tow, the catenary of the towline should be __________. small eliminated adjusted frequently large
Which statement is TRUE concerning hawser towing? The catenary in a hawser should be sufficient so that the hawser just touches the bottom. Increasing speed usually increases the catenary in the hawser. The hawser is of sufficient length for towing when taut between tug and tow. Shortening the tow hawser generally decreases the maneuverability of the tug.
To obtain better steering control when you are towing alongside, your vessel should be positioned with its __________. bow extending forward of the tow bow even with the bow of the tow stern amidships of the tow stern extending aft of the tow
When you have a tow alongside, your stern should extend aft of the tow in order to __________. let the barge deflect floating objects from your propeller provide a better lead for your lines avoid obscuring your stern light obtain better steering control
Where should a vessel being towed alongside be positioned for increased maneuverability? Stern of the towed vessel aft of the stern of the towing vessel Stern of the towed vessel forward of the stern of the towing vessel Stern of the towed vessel even with the stern of the towing vessel Bow of the towed vessel even with the bow of the towing vessel
The catenary in a towline is __________. another name for a pelican hook used to hold it amidships the downward curvature of the hawser a short bridle
A term used to describe the dip in a towline that acts as a shock absorber is __________. step shock dip bight catenary
What will NOT reduce yawing of a tow? Drogues put over the stern Trimming the tow by the stern Increasing the length of the towing hawser Stowing deck loads forward
To reduce stress on the towing hawser when towing astern (ocean tow), the hawser should be __________. as short as possible just touching the water secured to the aftermost fitting on the towing vessel underwater
When towing another vessel astern, the length of the towline should be __________. as long as possible such that the vessels will be "in step" such that one vessel will be on a crest while the other is in a trough not over two wave lengths in seas up to 10 feet
The main reason a long towline is used during an ocean tow is that __________. the towline will wear more evenly there will be less stress on the towline a slight increase in speed will be realized a margin of safety is provided should the line part
It is good practice to use long towlines for ocean tows because the __________. danger of overriding is reduced wear on the towline is equalized dip in the towline absorbs shock loads weight of the towline increases the towing force
Which towing method maintains the most control over the tow? Breasted tug towing Tandem tug towing Tandem towing Honolulu towing
Towing a structure using two tugs approximately side by side, each using one hawser, is referred to as a __________. tandem tow Honolulu tow tandem tug tow breasted tug tow
The Honolulu (Christmas tree) tow was devised to __________. reduce hawser length allow easy removal of a center tow keep the catenary to a minimum increase the catenary
The tow makeup that is designed to keep the catenary of the tow hawser to a minimum is called the __________. British tow tandem tow tandem tug tow Christmas tree tow
When tandem tug towing, the more powerful of the two tugs should be __________. towing at a right angle to the smaller tug towing at a faster speed than the smaller tug the lead tug behind the lead tug
Which statement concerning an automatic towing engine is FALSE? As tension on the hawser decreases, more line is taken in by the automatic towing engine. As tension on the hawser increases, more line is taken in by the automatic towing engine. It automatically maintains tow line tension. It prolongs the life of the hawser by distributing chafing as the hawser is paid out and taken in.
When towing, the least amount of tension will be on each bridle leg when the two legs __________. are of unequal length form a small angle with each other form a large angle with each other are joined by a fishplate
When towing, what is the main reason for using a chain bridle on a wire hawser? It eliminates the necessity of a swivel. It gives a spring effect to cushion the shock. It makes for an easy connection. It does not chafe.
Tugs sometimes shackle a length of chain in the towline in order to __________. prevent the towline from whipping should it part assure that if the towline is overstressed it will part close to the bridle take the wear should the towline drag bottom put spring in the towline
In securing a towing cable, consideration must be given to letting go in an emergency. The possible whip of towlines when released can be overcome by __________. using a pelican hook for quick release using preventers using a short chain for the lead through the stern chock increasing the shaft RPM prior to release
What does the term "end-for-end" refer to in regard to a wire towing hawser? Splicing two wire ropes together Cutting off the bitter and towing ends of the wire rope Removing the wire rope from the drum and reversing it so that the towing end becomes the bitter end Removing the wire rope from the drum and turning it over so that the wire bends in the opposite direction when rolled on a drum
When hip towing, a line led from the stern of the towboat forward to the barge provides the towing pull when __________. backing dead in the water going ahead in a following current
When hip towing, a line led from the bow of the towing vessel aft to the vessel being towed would be a __________. stern line breast line backing line towing line
When maneuvering a heavy barge up a wide channel with a tug, the tow may be most closely controlled by making up to the barge __________. with a short tow astern nearly bow to bow, at a small angle nearly stern to stern, at a small angle to the barge amidships, parallel to the barge
A tug is to assist in docking an oceangoing vessel on a hawser. The greatest danger to the tug is __________. from being overrun if making up forward from the ship's propeller when making up aft getting in a tripping position hull damage while alongside passing a hawser
Why are stern towing bitts placed well forward of the rudder when hawser towing? To have as much of the towing hawser in use as possible To keep the hawser from fouling the rudder To keep the towing bitts as far away as possible from the tugs pivoting point To allow the stern to swing more freely when using rudder
When towing in an open seaway, it is important to use a towing line __________. with little dip to gain maximum control of the tow made only of wire rope, due to possible weather conditions that will have the tow on a crest while your vessel is in a trough that will have the tow on a crest while your vessel is on a crest
When towing another vessel, the length of the towing line should be __________. such that the vessels will be in step as short as possible under the circumstances and not over two wave lengths such that one vessel will be on a crest while the other is in a trough as long as possible
What does "in step" refer to in regards to towing? There is no catenary in the towing hawser. Both the towed and towing vessels reach a wave crest or trough at the same time. The towed vessel follows exactly in the wake of the towing vessel. When turning, both the towed and towing vessels turn at the same time.
In towing it is desirable for the tug and the tow to ride wave crests simultaneously because __________. the tow is more visible from the tug towing speed is improved the catenary of the towline is reduced shock loading on the tow line is reduced
A towing vessel should be on the crest of a wave at the same time as its tow and in the trough at the same time. The term used to describe this is __________. Williamson's Tow tow strain catenary length being in step
The term "bollard pull" refers to a towing vessel's __________. pulling ability at cruise power towing winch capability propulsion horsepower available pulling ability under static conditions
A tug's horsepower available at the shaft is __________. indicated horsepower brake horsepower net horsepower dynamic horsepower
Indicated horsepower refers to a towing vessel's power which is __________. theoretically available measured on a test bed developed at the shaft measured by dynamometer
The measurement of the amount of force a towing vessel is capable of applying to a motionless tow is called __________. bollard pull towrope pull delivered horsepower shaft horsepower
A towing vessel's capability is BEST measured by horsepower, maneuverability, displacement, and __________. propeller design stability bollard pull towing winch horsepower
The effect of ocean current is usually more evident on a tug and tow than on a tug navigating independently because the __________. current causes yawing towline catches the current current will offset the tow speed of the tug and tow is less
A towing hook may be released from the __________. towing bitts by reaching over and releasing a lever pilot house or aft steering station tug's engine room or the bow forecastle
Which type of shackle is used for most towing connections? Heart shaped shackles Safety shackles Round pin anchor shackles Screw pin shackles
What is an advantage in the use of a towing hook? To quickly connect or release a tow, especially a sinking tow To prevent the tug from becoming tripped To facilitate berthing maneuvers All of the above.
When working on a tow, a good safety precaution is to __________. tighten ratchets outboard walk on the top of covered barges when possible to avoid narrow gunwales carry loads on your inside shoulder when walking along the outside of a barge always remove the toothpick after tightening the ratchet
You are on watch at night in clear visibility and the vessel has just been anchored. What is the first thing that you should do after the anchor has been let go? turn off the running lights and turn on the anchor lights take bearings to obtain ship's position stop the engines lower the accommodation ladder and illuminate it
You are on watch and the pilot has just anchored the vessel. The next thing that you should do after the anchor has been let go is to __________. stop the engines plot the vessel's position on the chart escort the pilot to the accommodation ladder make a round of the weather decks
You are on anchor watch. As an aid to preventing thievery on the vessel you should __________. show running lights, anchor lights and deck lights maintain water on deck with firehoses led out and all-purpose nozzles attached show anchor lights, deck lights and cargo lights hung over the vessel's side only show the required anchor lights and keep the rest of the vessel darkened
Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________. telemotor position follow-up gear rudder angle indicator Rapson slide indicator
When the gyro-pilot is used for steering, what control is adjusted to compensate for varying sea conditions? Weather adjustment Sea control Lost motion adjustment Rudder control
While on watch at sea you must maintain a proper lookout at all times. On a 700-foot cargo vessel being hand-steered during daylight hours in good visibility and clear of any navigational hazards, the lookout may be __________. the mate on watch the helmsman Either A or B Neither A nor B
Bilge soundings indicate __________. whether the vessel is taking on water the amount of condensation in the hold whether the cargo is leaking or not All of the above.
While on watch at sea you must maintain a proper lookout at all times. You are on a 200-foot cargo vessel with an unobstructed view astern from the steering position. The vessel is being hand-steered during daylight hours in good visibility and clear of any navigational hazards. The lookout may be __________. the helmsman the officer on watch Either A or B Neither A nor B
You are on watch at sea at night and a fire breaks out in #3 hold. What should be done IMMEDIATELY? Shut down the cargo hold ventilation. Proceed to the space and determine the extent of the fire. Cool the deck to contain the fire. Flood the space with CO2 from the fixed fire fighting system.
Your ship is steaming at night with the gyro-pilot engaged when you notice that the vessel's course is slowly changing to the right. What action should you take FIRST? shift steering to the emergency steering station switch to hand steering notify the engine room call the Master
The "rudder adjustment" control on an autopilot steering stand is used to __________. set the departure from base course before actuating the rudder align the rudder angle indicator with the true rudder angle set the number of degrees of rudder per degree of course error set the rate at which the rudder responds
The "weather adjustment" control on an autopilot steering stand is used to __________. proportionally set the number of degrees of rudder response per degree of course error allow leeway according to the weather conditions set the speed at which the rudder responds set the null band or dead zone signal before actuating the rudder
The "Port-Off-Stbd" selector switch on an autopilot steering stand is used to __________. change over one steering system to the other change from hand electric steering to automatic gyro change over hand electric steering to non-followup change over the port to the starboard bow thruster
When a vessel is on autopilot steering, the "weather " control is adjusted to compensate for which severe weather effect on a vessel? Leeway Yaw Roll Pitch
The "Mode" selector switch can be positioned and select all of the following EXCEPT __________. non-followup control hand-electric steering automatic gyro weather adjustments
You have the "conn" at the time the helmsman who is steering by hand reports that the rudder is not responding to the wheel. Your FIRST action should be to __________. call the Master shift the selector switch to the other steering pump call the engine room signal the engine room to stop the engines
When steering by hand, which of the following may be a functional input to the steering gear as a result of turning the wheel? Non-followup Weather adjustment Rudder adjustment All the above may be activated
When steering on autopilot which of the following input conditions may NOT have an effect on the control of the steering gear? Rudder adjustment Weather adjustment Non-followup All the above may be activated
You are a watchstanding mate and have come to the bridge to relieve the watch. After reviewing the chart and having been briefed by the off-going mate, you are now ready to effect the relief. The watch is officially transferred to you after __________. you say, "I relieve you" and you state the course per gyro and magnetic compasses the mate being relieved tells you the vessel's course and speed and states that you have the watch the mate being relieved says, "You have the conn" and you state the ship's course you state the vessel's charted position, present course and port of destination
You are a watchstanding mate and have come to the bridge to relieve the watch while underway at sea. The watch should not be transferred __________. unless the helm is in the "hand" mode during a navigational course change during an engine speed change All of the above.
You are preparing to relieve the mate on watch while underway at sea. The watch should not be transferred __________. during an engine speed change while the Master is on the bridge during a collision avoidance maneuver All of the above.
You are a watchstanding mate and have come to the bridge to relieve the watch. After reviewing the chart and having been briefed by the off-going mate, you are now ready to effect the relief. Which of the following is exemplary of the statement that would officially transfer the watch? The mate being relieved says, "All in apparent good order, course 068° per gyro, 075° per standard." You say to the mate going off watch, "Destination New York, course 283°, speed 16 knots." You say to the mate going off watch, "I relieve you, course 321° per gyro, 316° per standard." The mate being relieved says, "You now have the watch, course 147°, speed 15 knots."
You are on watch at sea and find it prudent to call the Master to the bridge due to traffic congestion. The moment that the Master officially relieves you of the conn is whenever __________. you call the Captain to the bridge in a traffic situation the Master specifically informs you that he has the conn the Captain states the course being steered a watchstander announces "Captain's on the bridge"
While the Pilot is maneuvering the vessel to a dock, what is the PRIMARY responsibility of the watch officer? Judge the appropriateness of the Pilot's orders and countermand them if necessary. Record the bells and their times in the bell book. Supervise the signaling and flag etiquette. Insure that helm and throttle orders given by the Pilot are correctly executed.
While the Pilot is maneuvering the vessel to a dock, what is the primary responsibility of the watch officer? Record the bells and their times in the bell book Insure that helm and throttle orders given by the Pilot are correctly executed Supervise the signaling and flag etiquette Judge the appropriateness of the Pilot's orders and countermand them if necessary
When the pilot is embarked he or she __________. is a specialist hired for his or her local navigational knowledge is solely responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel relieves the Master of his duties relieves the officer of the watch
A vessel is entering port and has a Pilot conning the vessel. The Master is unsure that the Pilot is taking sufficient action to prevent a collision. What should the Master do? Recommend an alternative action and if not followed relieve the Pilot. State his concerns to the Pilot but do not interfere with the handling of the vessel. Direct the Pilot to stop the vessel and anchor if necessary until the situation clears. Nothing; the Pilot is required by law and is solely responsible for the safety of the vessel.
You are on a large merchant vessel entering a U.S. port. There is a Pilot on board and he has the conn. Which statement is TRUE? The Pilot becomes solely responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel only if the Master relinquishes the conn. The Pilot is solely responsible for the safe maneuvering of the ship only if he is required to be on board by law. The Pilot is solely responsible for the internal working of the ship. The Master is responsible for the safe navigation of the ship and the Pilot is employed for his local knowledge.
Before a Master relieves a Pilot of the conn, the __________. vessel must be in extremis Master should agree to sign a release of liability form Master should foresee any danger to the vessel on the present course Master must first request the Pilot to take corrective action
You are standing watch on entering port and the Master gives a rudder command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. You should ensure the helmsman __________. asks the Pilot if he has relinquished control brings the rudder to a position midway between the two conflicting positions obeys the Master obeys the Pilot
You are on watch while your vessel is entering port with a pilot conning. The pilot gave a steering command to the helmsman who failed to acknowledge it by repeating the order. You have now enunciated the pilot's order to the helmsman and there is still no response. If the helmsman continues on the original course, you should immediately __________. repeat the Pilot's command a second time and notify the Master tell the helmsman to ask the Pilot to repeat any command that he fails to hear or understand take the helm and expedite the maneuver that the pilot ordered ask the Pilot to repeat the command since the helmsman failed to hear it
You are on watch while your vessel is entering port with a pilot conning. The pilot gives a steering command to the helmsman who fails to acknowledge it by repeating the command. You should immediately __________. repeat the Pilot's command and ensure that the helmsman repeats it exactly ask the Pilot to repeat the command since the helmsman failed to hear it notify the Master tell the helmsman to ask the Pilot to repeat any command that he fails to hear or understand
You are on watch and the Pilot has the conn. The Master has temporarily gone below. The Pilot orders a course change which you are certain will put the vessel into imminent danger. Your first action should be to __________. immediately sound a short ring on the general alarm immediately call the Master and await further orders from him countermand the order and immediately notify the Master make an appropriate entry in the deck log concerning the Pilot's order
While you are on watch entering port, the Master gives the helmsman a rudder command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. You should make sure the helmsman __________. brings the rudder to a point midway between the two conflicting positions obeys the Master obeys the Pilot asks you for instructions
While your vessel is docked port side to a wharf, a sudden gale force wind causes the vessel's bow lines to part. The bow begins to fall away from the dock, and no tugs are immediately available. Which measure(s) should you take FIRST? Call the Master and the deck gang. Slip the stern lines, let the vessel drift into the river, and then anchor. Let go the starboard anchor. Obtain assistance and attempt to put some new bow lines out.
While your vessel is docked port side to a wharf, a sudden gale force wind causes the vessel's stern lines to part. The stern begins to fall away from the dock, and no tugs are immediately available. Which measure(s) should you take FIRST? Let go the port anchor and veer to a short scope of chain. Shut down any cargo transfer that's in progress. Notify the engine room of the need for propulsion. Obtain assistance from the terminal to put new stern lines out.
What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean? Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it is now. Shift the rudder control to the alternate steering method. Stop the swing of the ship. Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes.
What does the helm command "meet her" mean? steer more carefully use rudder to check the swing decrease the rudder angle which is on note the course and steady on that heading
The helm command "Nothing to the left" means do NOT __________. steer right of the ordered course leave any buoys on the port side steer left of the ordered course use left rudder
What does the helm command "Left twenty" mean? put the rudder left twenty degrees and then ease back as the vessel starts swinging put the rudder left twenty degrees put the rudder hard left for the first twenty degrees of swing change course twenty degrees to the left
What does the helm command "Check her" mean? read the compass heading test the steering control slow the swing using moderate rudder stop the swing using hard over rudder
What does the helm command "Steady as you go" mean? don't allow the vessel to swing off course so much steer the course you are on now steer the course when the swing stops maintain the rate of swing
The lookout sights a vessel dead ahead. This should be reported on the bell with __________. one bell two bells three bells four bells
A look-out at the bow sights an object on your port side. How many bell strokes should he sound? One Two Three Four
While on duty as a look-out, which other duty may you perform? Paint any area near your station Overhaul a block, as long as it is at your look-out station Sweep down the fo'c'sle None of the above
When must a proper look-out be kept? only when entering and leaving port only in fog only between the hours of sunset and sunrise at all times
While standing look-out at night, a dim light on the horizon will be seen quickest by looking. a little below the horizon a little above the horizon directly towards the light quickly above then quickly below the horizon
When is a lookout permitted to leave his station? at the end of the watch 15 minutes before the end of the watch only when properly relieved at any time
What should look-outs report? Discolored water Floating objects Shoals All of the above.
As look-out, you spot an object 45° off your port bow. You should report the object as __________. 3 points on the port bow 3 points forward of the port beam broad on the port bow on the port beam
A vessel spotted at 45° relative can be reported as __________. 4 points forward of starboard bow 4 points abaft the starboard beam broad on the starboard bow on the starboard beam
A look-out should report objects sighted using __________. magnetic bearings gyro bearings true bearings relative bearings
What does the command "Hard right rudder" mean? meet a swing to the right, then return to amidships jam the rudder against the stops put the rudder over quickly to 15° right rudder put the rudder over to the right all the way
What action should the helmsman take when hearing the command "ease the rudder"? decrease the rudder angle bring the rudder amidships move the rudder slowly in the direction of the most recent rudder command steer the course which is your present heading
When a helmsman receives the command "Right 15 degrees rudder," What should the helmsman's immediate reply be ? "Aye Aye Sir" "Right 15 degrees rudder" No reply is necessary, just carry out the order. "Rudder is right 15 degrees"
What is a CORRECT reply to a pilot's request, "How's your head"? "Checked" "Passing 50°" "Steady" "Eased to 10° rudder"
When being relieved of the helm, the new helmsman would find it handy to know which of the following? deviation on that heading amount of helm carried for a steady course leeway variation in the area
When relieving the helm, the new helmsman should know which of the following before assuming the watch? variation maximum rudder angle previously used gyro error course per magnetic steering compass
What is the "iron mike"? speaker pilot automatic pilot standby wheel
You are standing the wheel watch on entering port and the Master gives you a rudder command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. What should you do? Ask the Pilot if he relinquishes control. Bring the rudder to a position midway between the two conflicting positions. Obey the Master. Obey the Pilot.
When steering a vessel, which of the following will an effective helmsman do? keep the rudder amidships except when changing course repeat back to the watch officer any rudder commands before executing them use as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course apply rudder to move the compass card towards the lubbers line when off course